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Contents
1 Agriculture For Competitive Exams . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2

1.1 Agronomy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Soil science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
1.3 Horticulture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72
1.4 Plant breeding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 150
1.5 Plant genetics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 155
1.6 Entomology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 162
1.7 Plant pathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 188
1.8 Plant physiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 190
1.9 Agricultural Economics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 201
1.10 Animal husbandry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 208
1.11 Environmental science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 214
1.12 Agricultural engineering . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 372
1.13 Veterinary Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 374
1.14 Fisheries science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 384
1.15 Plant Biotechnology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 393
1.16 Molecular biology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 400
1.17 Seed technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 518
1.18 Silviculture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 520
1.19 Agroforestry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 523
1.20 Forestry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 529
1.21 Home science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 573
1.22 Water Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 605
1.23 Animal Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 609
1.24 Animal biotechnology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 687
1
1.25 Dairy Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 689

1.26 Dairy Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 696

1.27 Food Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 704
1.28 Agribusiness . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 814
1. Agriculture For Competitive Exams
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Agronomy
1. How does soil texture influence the devel- preplant and the remainder in two spring
opment of soil compaction? (top-dress) applications. Soil tests were
used to make fertilizer recommendations,
A. Clay soils are more likely to suffer com-
the recommendations call for 83.7 pounds
paction than are sandy soils.
of P2O5 and 47.3 lbs/ac K20 to be broad-
B. Sandy soils are quite subject to com- cast preplant.What is the area of Traci’s
paction when dry. field?
C. It is basically impossible to compact a A. 19 acres
silt loam. B. 112.3 acres
D. The amount of water present is far C. 121.4 acres
more important than its textural class.
D. 485.8 acres
2. Traci is making plans to seed her field to
3. Current university research shows a soy-
winter six-row malting barley on her farm
bean yield response to the application
in Maryland. The field is capable of pro-
of 20 pounds of sulfur preplant. How
ducing 135 bu/acre under irrigation. The
much 21-0-0-24 per acre do you need to
field has a center pivot irrigation system
spread?
with eight 156 ft spans and an end gun
that effectively reaches 50 ft. Traci will A. 4.2 pounds/ac
plant in concentric circles under the pivot B. 4.8 pounds/ac
and leave the dry corners fallow. She is
C. 83.3 pounds/ac
targeting 1.25 million plants per acre, the
seed she had purchased has 13, 500 seeds D. 93.3 pounds/ac
per pound and 92% germination. Barely
weighs 48 pounds per bushel. Total nitro- 4. What are national regulatory agencies
gen for the crop will be 1.2 pounds of ni- regulating manure applications most con-
trogen per bushel of grain. She plans on cerned about?
applying 30 pounds of nitrogen broadcast A. excessive phosphorus
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A
1.1 Agronomy 3
B. phosphorus deficiency 10. What is a horizontal layer of soil, created

C. excessive potassium by soil forming processes, that differ in
physical or chemical properties from adja-

D. potassium deficiency cent layers called?
5. After an herbicide drifts onto a plant, only A. hardpan
small spots on the plant leaves and stem B. soil horizon
are dead. The herbicide that drifted was
most likely what type of herbicide? C. fragipan
A. contact D. tillage pan
B. systemic 11. What type of flowering plant takes 12-24

C. adsorptive months to complete its life cycle? It grows
vegetative the first year and then repro-
D. generic duces the second year.
6. A plant has a fibrous root system and A. annual plant
parallel venation. B. biennial plant
A. annual C. triennial plant
B. biennial
D. perennial plant
C. dicot
12. A sodic soil is characterized by having
D. monocot
a disproportionally high concentration of
7. Visual symptoms of zinc deficiency usually what exchangeable cation in the Cation Ex-
appear as: change Capacity (CEC) complex?
A. chlorosis A. calcium
B. twisted stems B. chloride
C. pale foliage on older leaves first C. magnesium
D. stem pitting D. sodium
8. What is the conversion of ammonium to ni- 13. is adsorbed as a cation and is part of
trate known as? the chlorophyll molecule.
A. ammonification A. Na+
B. denitrification B. H+
C. mineralization C. Ca+2
D. nitrification D. Mg+2
9. What is one job available? 14. Compaction is the reduction of:

A. CAD Drafter A. soil CEC
B. Planter B. soil weight
C. Construction Worker C. soil pore space
D. Chef D. soil density
5. A 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. D

1.1 Agronomy 4
15. Nutrient leaching is most likely to occur in 20. Select the condition that could help reduce
what soil type? pesticide volatilization.
A. silty clay soil A. high air temperatures
B. clay soil B. low relative humidity
C. compacted soil C. incorporation
D. sandy soil D. small droplets
21. pH is the measurement of the concentra-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. Plant diseases occur when the following
occur at the same time: tion of what ion in the soil?
A. a susceptible plant, a virulent A. hydroxide
pathogen, and a favorable environment B. hydrogen
C. phosphorus
B. a susceptible plant, a virulent D. helium
pathogen and insect pests
C. a virulent pathogen, an environment 22. What causes clay soils to often drain
favorable for disease and insect pests slower than loam soils following heavy
rain or irrigation?
D. a susceptible plant, insect pests, and
A. clay soils have more sodium
freezing temperatures
B. clay soils have smaller diameter pores
17. What is the key benefit to banding phos-
phorus fertilizers?
C. loam soils have less total pore space
A. less phosphate leaching
D. clay soils often have less organic mat-
B. a concentrated alkaline zone ter
C. less tie up in the soil leading to better 23. What do the 4R’s of fertilizer application
plant availability refer to?
D. required for higher fertilizer rates A. The Right price, Right brand, Right
18. Growing two or more crops together in the rate, Right place
same field at the same time is known as? B. The Right source, Right rate, Right
A. intercropping price, Right form
B. strip till C. The Right source, Right rate, Right

time, Right place
C. continuous cropping
D. The Right price, Right rate, Right form,
D. double crop Right analysis
19. Which of these is an example of biological 24. A weed is described as?
aphid control?
A. a plant that is not valued where it is
A. using an insect growth regulator growing
B. introduction and protection of natural B. a fast-growing plant
predators C. a plant that lives for more than one
C. destroying all-natural predators year
D. setting and maintaining traps D. a plant growing from a seed
16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A

1.1 Agronomy 5
25. is an eroded material deposited by run- B. 17.2 gallons/ac

ning water including gravel, sand, silt, and C. 23.8 gallons/ac
clay.

D. 44.2 gallons/ac
A. Bedrock
B. Glacial till 28. Name the condition in which stalks or
stems break or fall over above the soil sur-
C. A loess deposit face because of weak stalks, weak roots,
D. An alluvial deposit damage, or weather events.
A. germination
26. The point at which soil holds moisture
so tightly that plants cannot extract it is B. lodging
called? C. maturation
A. the permanent wilting point D. emergence
B. the drought point
29. When do broadcast applications of dry fer-
C. field capacity tilizer become plant available?
D. the transient wilting point A. when crop residues are decomposed
27. Traci is making plans to seed her field to B. after irrigation or rainfall dissolves the
winter six-row malting barley on her farm fertilizer and moves into the root zone
in Maryland. The field is capable of pro- C. when is tilled 6 to 8 inches into the soil
ducing 135 bu/acre under irrigation. The with a tillage tool
field has a center pivot irrigation system D. when soil temperatures rise above 70
with eight 156 ft spans and an end gun degrees Fahrenheit
that effectively reaches 50 ft. Traci will
plant in concentric circles under the pivot 30. Epinasty in plants is described as:
and leave the dry corners fallow. She is A. the twisting and bending of plant
targeting 1.25 million plants per acre, the leaves and stems due to an auxin
seed she had purchased has 13, 500 seeds
per pound and 92% germination. Barely B. the discoloration of leaves caused by a
weighs 48 pounds per bushel. Total nitro- toxin
gen for the crop will be 1.2 pounds of ni- C. interveinal yellowing of leaves caused
trogen per bushel of grain. She plans on by a nutrient deficiency
applying 30 pounds of nitrogen broadcast D. spotting of leaves from a contact her-
preplant and the remainder in two spring bicide
(top-dress) applications. Soil tests were
used to make fertilizer recommendations, 31. Soil samples for distinctly different areas
the recommendations call for 83.7 pounds of the field should be (i.e. different soil
of P2O5 and 47.3 lbs/ac K20 to be broad- types or hill tops vs. bottom lands):
cast preplant.If Traci uses UAN 28-0-0 A. analyzed separately
for her spring nitrogen applications, how
many total gallons of UAN per acre will B. mixed together to represent a single
she need for her split spring top-dress production unit
applications? (1 gal UAN weighs 10.67 C. ignored as being meaningless
pounds) D. mixed together for large fields and
A. 10.0 gallons/ac kept separate for small fields
25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. A

1.1 Agronomy 6
32. In small grain production, jointing refers to A. droplet size increases, wind speed in-
which of the following? creases
A. tiller production B. droplet size decreases, wind speed de-
creases
B. the head is in the boot
C. droplet size decreases, wind speed in-
C. the first node is visible above the soil
creases
surface
D. droplet size increases, wind speed de-
D. the flag leaf has emerged
NARAYAN CHANGDER
creases
33. Approach Prima Fungicide is used at the 37. What is the name of the group of nitrogen-
rate of 6.8 fl oz/ac on soybean for the fixing bacteria in legume nodules?
control of Frog Eye and Brown Spot. How
many acres will a 2.5-gal jug treat? A. nitrosomonas bacteria
A. 5.9 acres B. nonsymbiotic bacteria

C. rhizome bacteria
B. 11.8 acres
D. rhizobium bacteria
C. 23.6 acres
D. 47.1 acres 38. When thinking of crop nutrient fertiliza-
tion, what does agronomic rate of appli-
34. Which system uses a constellation of or- cation mean?
biting satellites to identify a location on A. applying a balanced amount of nutri-
Earth based on longitude and latitude co- ents
ordinates along with altitude?
B. matching fertilizer inputs with crop re-
A. Geographic Directional Coordinates quirements under given soil conditions
(GDC)
C. applying both a broadcast and starter
B. Variable Rate Technology (VRT) fertilizer along with a side-dress treat-
C. Geographic Information System (GIS) ment
D. National Air and Space Association D. applying only a broadcast and starter
(NASA) fertilizer
35. A wheat farmer is budgeting expenses for 39. What is the starting salary for an
his coming growing season as this time he agronomist?
projects his total expenses to be $412.80 A. $50, 391
per acre. His average wheat yield is 80 B. $40, 578
bu/ac. What is his breakeven price per
bushel? C. $100, 000
A. $5.16 D. $89, 992
B. $5.29 40. 70-80% of soil compaction severity occurs

with the tire pass although the depth
C. $6.49
of the compaction is determined by the
D. $7.74 axle load.
36. Spray drift is the least when which of the A. first, lightest
following conditions exist? B. first, heaviest
32. C 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. B

1.2 Soil science 7
C. last, lightest C. anthocyanin

D. last, heaviest D. xanthophyll

41. At which stage of growth should plant tis- 46. UAN fertilizer at 28% nitrogen costs
sue samples should be taken? $226.50 per ton. The liquid fertilizer
A. sufficiently in advance of fertilization weighs 10.67 pounds per gallon. What is
to allow time for analysis and return of re- the per pound cost for the nitrogen?
sults from the lab A. $0.37/pound
B. any time before bloom B. $0.40/pound
C. early season shortly after emergence C. $0.55/pound
D. the stage that corresponds to those D. $0.63/pound
used to develop interpretive guidelines
47. What soil contains significant amounts
42. Which type of insecticide moves through-
of naturally occurring calcium carbonate?
out the plant?
These soils are characterized by a high soil
A. photosynthetic pH and fizz when a dilute acid is applied.
B. systemic A. calcareous soil
C. contact B. mineral soil
D. juvenile C. volcanic soil
43. What does IPM stand for? D. organic soil
A. Intensive Pesticide Management
48. A fertilizer spreader has an effective appli-
B. Intensive Personnel Management cation width of 37.5 feet. If 21.6 pounds
C. Integrated Pest Management of fertilizer is collected from the spreader
in 60 seconds. When traveling 6.8 mph,
D. Intensive Pest Manipulation
what is the rate of fertilizer that is being
44. Which of the following definitions best de- applied per acre with this spreader?
scribes a petiole? A. 3.2
A. the surface of the leaf B. 11.1
B. the small stem attached to the leaf C. 41.9
C. the vein structure in the leaf D. 54.5
D. the edge of the leaf
49. What is the growth of a plant toward any
45. What is the pigment associated with sugar stimulus is called?
metabolism, when it accumulates in the
A. tropism
plant, it gives the plant a reddish/purple
color? B. hormones
A. chlorophyll C. receptors
B. carotenoid D. vernalization
1.2 Soil science
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A

1.2 Soil science 8
1. Forage crops are used to achieve which of B. soil

the following? C. humans
A. decrease water drainage D. wind
B. increase weed populations
7. Which of the following is an accurate state-
C. increase soil quality ment in regards to soil pH?
D. maintain crop yield A. pH is a measure of the particle size
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2. Organic Material adds what to the soil? B. a pH of 7 indicates very acidic soil
A. Minerals C. a pH of 7 indicates high organic matter
B. AIr
C. Nutrients D. pH indicates how basic or acidic the
soil is, a pH of 6 is ideal
D. none of above
8. Calculate the percent of volumetric mois-
3. What physical property of soil determines
ture content if the gravimetric is 25%,
if it retains water?
bulk density of 1.20g/cm3 and water den-
A. color sity of 1.00g/cm3.
B. particle size A. 15%
C. texture B. 20%
D. weight C. 25%
4. Soil is D. 30%
A. Dirt 9. What is a soil made up of very small bro-
B. Where plants grow ken pieces of rock?
C. Weathered rock fragments A. soil
D. none of above B. loam
C. silt
5. Place the following layers in order from
top to bottom: bedrock, topsoil, subsoil, D. bedrock
organic, parent material.
10. Based on the virtual museum experiment,
A. Organic, Topsoil, Subsoil, Parent Mate- which type of soil retained the most wa-
rial, Bedrock ter?
B. Organic, Topsoil, Parent Material, Sub- A. sand
soil, Bedrock
B. gravel
C. Topsoil, Organic, Subsoil, Parent Mate-
rial, Bedrock C. clay
D. Topsoil, Organic, Parent Material, Sub- D. none of above

soil, Bedrock 11. To break down or decay living things is
6. overgrazing, overcropping, and deforesta- called :
tion impact erosion because of A. Plant matter
A. weathering B. Weathering
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. C
1.2 Soil science 9
C. Decompose 17. What is humus?

D. Trees A. the bottom layer of soil

B. the largest particle that makes up soil
12. If a plant is placed in a pot that contains
C. remains of decayed plants and animals
sandy soil, what will happen when the
in the soil
plant is watered?
D. none of above
A. The soil will hold the water.
18. Gardeners will sometimes add lime to soils
B. The water will puddle on top of the soil.
that are too acidic. Lime acts as a fertilizer
and raises the pH of the soil to an appropri-
C. The water will drain through the soil ate level.What soil pH most likely requires
quickly. the application of lime?
D. The water will immediately dry up. A. 4
B. 7
13. Gymnosperms produce seeds usually in
C. 9
A. cones D. 11
B. flowers
19. Identify the right matcha. Sand i. smaller
C. fruit than sand, larger than clayb. silt ii. large
particlesc. clay iii. smallest particles
D. spores
A. a - ii, b - i, c - iii
14. Layered rocks that are weathered by wind B. a - ii, b - iii, c - i
and water are called
C. both are correct
A. sedimentary rocks D. none of the above
B. igneous rocks
20. Your science teacher gives you a glass jar
C. metamorphic rocks filled with water, decaying material, top-
soil, dirt, and small rocks. She has the im-
D. magma rocks
age of the soil profile on the board. Which
15. Soil that is rich in humus has high layer in the jar would you find at Horizon
A?
A. fertility.
A. subsoil
B. water content. B. topsoil
C. sand content. C. humus
D. clay content. D. bedrock
16. What is the first stage of mitosis? 21. What is the movement of soil from one
place to another?
A. prophase
A. weathering
B. telophase B. deposition
C. anaphase C. discharge
D. metaphase D. erosion
12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. A
1.2 Soil science 10
22. If wind, water, or ice move sediment from 27. What are the two ways nitrogen gas is
one place to another, it is called turned into a form plants and animals can
use?
A. erosion.
A. lightning & bacteria
B. weathering.
B. bacteria & worms
C. a sinkhole.
C. lightning & worms
D. none of above
D. bacteria & fungi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
23. What is not a benefit of adding lime? 28. Soil formation begins with the weathering
A. Less acidic soil encourages soil organ- of
isms. A. litter
B. Lime can flocculate clay particles, mak- B. humus
ing pores larger.
C. bedrock
C. Adds calcium D. the A horizon
D. Lowers the pH.
29. What land capability class has severe re-
24. Bulk density is an indication of soil poros- strictions but is still suitable for cultivation
ity and soil texture. with careful management?
A. True A. Class 4
B. Class 5
B. Probably true
C. Class 7
C. False
D. Class 8
D. Probably false
30. Which layer is a the layer below soil that
25. The arrangement of different layers of soil is made up of large rock?
at a place is called
A. Bedrock
A. Partly weathered Rock B. Humus
B. Weathering C. Parent Material
C. Bedrock D. Topsoil
D. Soil Profile 31. The best way to increase water holding ca-
pacity and nutrient supplying capacity of a
26. You dig a small hole in the soil and the next
coarse-textured soils is to
day it rains. The hole fills with water, but
does not empty even after several days A. Apply large quantity of liming materi-
of dry weather. What is the soil mostly als
made of? B. Add and incorporate by deep plowing
A. clay voluminous amount of clay
C. Incorporate adequate amount of or-
B. sand
ganic matter
C. humus
D. Apply the recommended rate of com-
D. silt mercial fertilizer
23. D 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B
1.2 Soil science 11
32. Which soil has the lowest water holding 37. Which cell structure has a double mem-
capacity? brane surrounding it?

A. clayey soil A. golgi apparatus
B. sand B. cytoplasm
C. loamy soil C. chloroplasts
D. None of the above D. mitochondria
33. What is the soil that is good for making 38. The pH scale ranges from 0 to ?
pots? A. 10
A. Loam B. 12
B. Sand C. 14
C. Clay D. 16
D. none of above
39. Why is soil an important natural re-
34. What are the categories of soil composi- source?
tion?? A. soil is used to make buildings
A. Organic and Inorganic matter B. soil can grow crops
B. Air C. soil comes from bedrock
C. Water and minerals D. soil is full of mircobes
D. All of the above
40. What is true about Humus?
35. How does soil form? A. dark and soft
A. Soil forms as rock is broken down by B. contains much of what plants need for
weathering and mixed with other materi- growth
als on the surface.
C. The more humus a soil has, the better
B. Soil forms when someone takes a plants will grow!
shovel and breaks rocks, and then mixes
it with dirt. D. All the previous.
C. Soil forms when an you throw rocks 41. What color of soil has a lot of humus?
and dirt into a pond. A. black soils
D. Soil forms when you mix water and B. white soils
rocks together, then add air.
C. reddish colored soils.
36. It is an approach of studying soil in which D. none of above
it focuses to its origin and classification
as its occurs in the environment. This is 42. This type of soil is made of tiny pieces of
knows as rock.
A. Pedalogical approach A. sand
B. Edapological approach B. clay
C. Pedological approach C. humus
D. Edopological approach D. loam
33. C 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. A 43. B
1.2 Soil science 12
43. What exactly is bedrock? C. top soil

A. Any organic rock or mineral D. bedrock
B. Rock that has not been weathered 49. Plant evaluation is part of which indus-
C. Rock that lies underneath water try?
D. Especially soft rock A. mechanics
B. agricultural
44. What is the soil that is good for planting?
C. textile
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Loam
D. media
B. Sand
C. Clay 50. What language is used for scientific classi-
fication?
D. none of above
A. English
45. decomposition is important because it B. Latin
A. gets rid of dead organisms C. Spanish
B. returns nutrients to the soil D. French
C. creates soil 51. The average weather condition in an area
D. is a part of the circle of life over a long period of time is called
46. Which property of soil could students de- A. temperature

termine by rubbing a sample between their B. climate
fingers? C. weather
A. The texture of the soil D. humidity
B. The soil’s ability to support life 52. Large mineral particles of soil
C. The color of the soil A. Sand
D. The processes that formed the soil B. Silt
47. Which of the following is a nonrenewable C. Clay
resource? D. Horizons
A. Animals, because they grow old and
53. What percent of soil is water?
die
A. 25
B. Plants, because there are so many
kinds B. 45
C. Minerals, because they are replaced C. 5
slowly D. none of above
D. Wind, because sometimes it doesn’t 54. Which type of soil is used to make toys
blow and pots
48. In which layer does the roots of the plants A. clayey soil
grow? B. loamy soil
A. Humus C. silty soil
B. Subsoil D. sandy soil
CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

1.2 Soil science 13
55. Which of the following plants completes 60. This type of weathering occurs when rock
its life cycle in one year? is physically broken down into smaller
pieces of rock.

A. annual
B. perennial A. mechanical weathering
C. biennial B. chemical weathering
D. fellial C. erosion weathering
56. Which type of soil is best for growing D. deposition
plants?
A. sand 61. What type of erosion is slowed down by
contour plowing and terracing?
B. clay soil
C. garden soil A. wind
D. none of above B. water
57. How do decomposers work hand-in-hand C. air

with humus? D. none of above
A. by removing gravel and sand from soil
62. What does sustainability mean?
B. by breaking down gravel into silt A. Using lots of resources.
C. by eating animals that may harm the B. Maintaining the world we live in for fu-
soil ture generations.
D. by breaking down the remains of dead C. Cutting down trees.
plant and animal matter
D. Using lots of water and electricity.
58. What land class that restricts the use of
plants? 63. Sedimentary rocks are formed from the
A. Class 2 weathering of rocks exposed at the earth
B. Class 3 surface. The process involved the follow-
ing EXCEPT.
C. Class 5
A. Fragmentation
D. Class 7
B. Transformation
59. Which answer choice describes the charac-
teristics of sand? C. Transportation
A. the middle size of the three compacts D. Cementation
really well. Feels like flour and is smooth
when wet 64. Which soil is formed with the smallest rock
B. is the biggest of the three particles particles?
does not compact well. Feels Gritty. A. loam
C. the smallest and finest of the three B. sand
particles. Packs extremely well. Feels
slimy and sticky C. silt
D. none of above D. clay

1.2 Soil science 14
65. Why is soil so important? 70. Factors that affect soil formation
A. Eaten by animals A. climate
B. Eaten by people B. slope
C. Keeps Earth clean C. vegetation
D. Provides food and support for plants D. all of the above
71. The inorganic matter content of soil is

66. A soil with high in particle density is also
formed from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
known as more porous.
A. inorganic material
A. True
B. breakdown of rocks
B. Probably true
C. organic matter
C. False
D. rocks
D. Probably false
72. Subsoil is made mostly of
67. Soil formation is the process by which soil A. parent material
is formed as a result of interactions over
time between parent materials, climate, B. humus
topography and organisms. Choose which C. clay and silt
of the following is NOT a function of or- D. bedrock
ganism in soil formation?
73. Which type of soil has a DARK BROWN
A. Organic matter accumulation and de-
color?
composition
A. sand
B. Reduction of soil erosion
B. loam
C. Structure less formation
C. clay
D. Biochemical weathering
D. none of above
68. In addition to the rock particles the soil
74. What is the correct composition of soil?
contains-
A. Soil is old pizza, ramen noodles, and
A. Air and water
chocolate milk.(That’s why it’s brown.The
B. Water and plants chocolate milk. ;D)
C. Minerals, organic matter, air and wa- B. Soil is the loose layer of dead leaves
ter on the surface.
D. none of above C. Soil is rock particles, minerals, de-
cayed organic material, water, and air.
69. Which soil can’t hold water holding water D. Soil is acid rain, plant growth, and lime-
for a long period of time? stone.
A. silt
75. takes place because of weathering of
B. clay rocks.
C. sand A. Mountains
D. humus B. Soil Formation

1.2 Soil science 15
C. Rock Formation 81. If your soil sample has 35% sand, 40%
silt and 25% clay, identify the soil texture
D. None of the above
using the soil texture triangle provided to

you.
76. Three kinds of soil are
A. silt
A. sandy, loam, clay
B. clay loam
B. gravel, humus, sand
C. loam
C. loam, silt, humus
D. silt loam
D. clay, gravel, silt
82. Where does most of the water go when it
77. This type of soil is yellowish in colour and rains?
can be found in the desert. A. in the ocean
A. sand B. in the rivers
B. garden soil C. in the gutters
C. clay D. it absorbs into the soil
D. none of above 83. Which of the following is a warm season

crop?
78. An organism, especially a soil bacterium, A. oats
fungus, or invertebrate, that breaks down
B. broccoli
organic material is a
C. potatoes
A. Decomposer
D. eggplant
B. Burrower
84. Movement of soil and rocks from one place
C. Humus source
to another is called
D. none of above A. weathering
79. A substance is composed of organic mate- B. humus
rial such as dead plants. To which category C. erosion
does the substance belong? D. none of above
A. magma
85. What is the solid mass of rock below soil
B. mineral called?
C. ore A. Subsoil
D. soil B. Bedrock
C. Parent material
80. The four types of soil are
D. Organic
A. humus, gravel, pebbles, sand
86. Which of the following is NOT an element
B. sand, silt, clay, loam of erosion?
C. sand, rock, pebbles, granite A. Water
D. sand, clay, bedrock, topsoil B. Wind

1.2 Soil science 16
C. Chemical B. Photosynthesis is essentially evapora-

D. Electrical Current tion of water and is similar to perspiration
in humans.
87. What are the three types of soil we C. Photosynthesis creates a net energy
learned about? production of 36 units of ATP.
A. insects, sand, topsoil D. In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and
B. clay, sand, humus water react with light energy to form
photosynthates and release oxygen as a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. topsoil, subsoil, bedrock
byproduct.
D. earthworms, sand, silt
93. In soil there is of air
88. The way soil feels is called its
A. 45%
A. type
B. texture B. 25%
C. particle C. 5%
D. grain size D. none of above
89. The layer of soil that contains the most or- 94. To use wisely, and not be wasteful.
ganic material is which horizon? A. decompose
A. A
B. composition
B. B
C. conserve
C. C
D. reserve
D. D
95. Soil Formation is -
90. Which of the following is not biotic?
A. Slow process
A. Tree roots
B. Fast process
B. Insects
C. Rapid process
C. Gravel
D. Seeds D. None of these
91. Which plant structure is most involved in 96. No tillage can improve levels of organic
photosynthesis? matter in the soil. This is when
A. stems A. The type of crops grown in a paddock
is changed regularly in a planned order.
B. leaves
C. roots B. Fast-growing crops are grown and
ploughed back into the soil before they
D. flowers seed.
92. Which of the following is a true statement C. Part of a crop not harvested for sale
about photosynthesis? can be returned to the soil
A. There are three stages in the photosyn- D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are
thesis process? sown directly into the soil.

1.2 Soil science 17
97. This consists of an even mixture of differ- 103. What is the total annual value of Wash-
ent sizes of soil particles ington’s food crop export?

A. Clay A. $2.2 billion
B. Silt B. $4.4 billion
C. Sand
C. $5.5 billion
D. Loam
D. $1.1 billion
98. What layer of soil is the best for growing
plants? 104. Which of the following is the most impor-
A. Horizon D tant determinant of the biodiversity and
abundance of microbial communities?
B. Topsoil
C. Bedrock A. Particle size
D. Clay B. Availability of NPK
99. Which of the following describes how well C. Porespace

soil can grow plants? D. Abundance of soil organic matter
A. soil texture
105. There are different types of soil look,
B. soil fertility
smell, and feel different. Why soil have
C. soil structure different color.
D. soil arrangement A. we paint them
100. Which soil component makes up about B. we add color in it
5% of a loamy soil?
C. they come from different rocks and dif-
A. Water ferent places
B. Organic Matter
D. none of above
C. Air
D. Minerals 106. Which of the following is NOT an organic
material
101. Breaking down or wearing away of rocks
is called A. Worms
A. weathering B. Decayed animals
B. humus C. Rocks
C. erosion D. Decayed plants
D. none of above
107. The stalks in a flower that produce the
102. Soil layers are called horizons male reproductive cells
because
A. pistil
A. The layers are all different
B. The layers are vertical B. stamen
C. The layers are horizontal C. filament

D. The layers are above one another D. stigma

1.2 Soil science 18
108. Soil is a precious resource because it C. Dark

A. is very expensive D. Purple
B. takes million years to form 114. The science of classifying and identifying
C. is very heavy organisms is:
D. cannot be moved easily A. Science
B. Anatomy
109. Which layer of soil is a combination of
C. Taxonomy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rocks and soil?
D. none of above
A. Humus
B. Subsoil 115. Which of the following plant types makes
up about 80 percent of all plants?
C. Parent Material
A. non-native plants
D. Bedrock
B. native plants
110. Which soil hold too much water and does C. vascular plants
not allow air in it? D. non-vascular plants
A. Sand
116. Eolian soils are moved by
B. Loam
A. wind
C. Clay
B. water
D. none of above C. gravity
111. There are four process of soil formation. D. glaciers
Which of the following that this statement
117. This term describes decayed organic mat-
belongs “movement of soil materials from
ter such as dead plants and animals
one place to another mainly due to wa-
ter”. A. topsoil
A. Transformation B. subsoil
B. Translocation C. humus
D. soil
C. Addition
D. Losses 118. What kind of soil holds the most water?
A. sandy soil
112. Which of the following is not a primary
nutrient required for plant growth? B. clay
C. rocks
A. Calcium
D. plants
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium 119. What is the middle layer of soil which is
a combination of soil and rocks?
D. Nitrogen
A. humus
113. Humus usually gives soil a color. B. subsoil
A. Light C. topsoil
B. Medium D. bedrock

1.2 Soil science 19
120. We can protect soil from erosion and 125. the experiment done by heating the soil
maintain its quality by in a glass container then smoke is ob-
served shows that is in the soil

A. cutting trees
A. organic matter
B. throwing garbage on land
B. water
C. destroying embankments along river
C. animals
banks
D. air
D. planting different crops at different
time 126. In which phase does the cell replicate its
DNA?
121. Nutrients are lost from the soil when A. M phase
A. products from plants are harvested B. Gap 1 phase
B. animals are harvested C. synthesis phase
C. animals are removed from the farm D. Gap 2
D. all of the above 127. Which of the following is a disadvantage

of using hydroponics?
122. Which best describes forest soil? A. slower plant growth
A. More clay in the humus layer than in B. costs are higher than soil culture
deeper layers C. lower crop yields
B. More rock fragments in the humus D. weeding and cultivation are required
layer than in deeper layers
128. According to our lab on soil and water ab-
C. More sand-sized particles in the hu- sorption, which soil held the most amount
mus layer than in deeper layers of water?
D. More organic matter in the humus A. Clay
layer than in deeper layers
B. Potting Soil
123. Plants get the minerals they need to C. Gravel
flourish from: D. Sand
A. Sun 129. What are the smallest particles that
B. Rain make up soil called?
C. Clean air and carbon dioxide A. sand

B. bedrock
D. Soil
C. clay
124. The three groups of rocks are classified D. humus
by
130. Angiosperms produce seeds in
A. How they form
A. cones
B. Color B. fruit
C. Grain size C. leaves
D. Chemical Composition D. roots

1.2 Soil science 20
131. Soil is made up of: 136. What are the three things in soil that help
plants grow?
A. Sand
A. air, water, and nutrients
B. Silt
B. air, rocks, and clay
C. Clay
C. rocks, silt, and nutrients
D. All of these D. water, silt, and clay
132. It is a type of soil physical properties that 137. What is a popular apple grown in West
NARAYAN CHANGDER
you may identify according to its soil par- Virginia?
ticle groupings. A. Gala
A. Soil texture B. Red Delicious
B. Soil consistency C. Golden Delicious
C. Soil structure D. Granny Smith
D. Soil densities 138. Pick the TRUE statement:

A. Topsoil is a type of soil
133. Horizon O is an organic horizon that com-
B. Loam is a layer of soil
prises three sub-horizons. Which of the
following did sapric (highly decomposed C. Loam is a type of soil
organic horizon) belongs? D. Topsoil is a layer of bedrock
A. Oa 139. Mrs. Edwards is comparing soil for tex-
B. Oe ture. Texture of a soil depends on-
C. Oi A. the sizes of the particles in the soil and

how they feel
D. Ou
B. the amount of water the soil can hold
134. the grinding away of rock by rock parti- C. the color of the soil
cles carried by water, ice, wind, or gravity D. the types of plants that will grow in
is called that soil
A. abrasion 140. Below the C horizon is
B. animal action A. topsoil
C. mining B. rock
D. plant action C. clay
D. humus
135. This rock was formed when molten rock
cooled into a solid. What type of rock is 141. Which of the following is the correct
it? botanical nomenclature for a plant with
the genus Bellis and the species perennis?
A. Igneous Rock
A. Bellis Perennis
B. Metamorphic Rock B. Bellis perennis
C. Sedimentary Rock C. Perennis bellis
D. none of above D. Perennis Bellis

1.2 Soil science 21
142. How do factors such as pore space and 147. Which of the following are the macronu-
compaction affect plant growth? trients that can be absorbed atmospheri-
cally?

A. Soils with large amounts of porespace
enable roots to absorb more water and A. Phosphorus, Nitrogen and Carbon
soil
B. Carbon, Nitrogen, Potassium
B. Soils with small amounts of porespace
are less likely to undergo nutrient leach- C. Nitrogen, Oxygen and Carbon
ing
D. Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen
C. Compacted soils have less porespace,
which reduces the availability of water, 148. Which of these slows down soil erosion
nutrients and oxygen on construction sites?
D. All of the above are accurate
A. clear cutting
143. The texture of soil depends on B. strip mining
A. How much water it can retain
C. contour plowing
B. Particle size
D. sandbags and nylon fencing
C. Soil color
D. Soil mass 149. The rate of weathering and formation of
soil is determined by :
144. Which layer of soil is home to many ro-
dents and insects? A. Number of micro organisms present in
A. subsoil the soil.
B. humus B. Temperature and rainfall.
C. topsoil C. The types of rocks.
D. farmland
D. none of above
145. Many plants cannot grow in sandy soil.
Why is this true? 150. is the breaking down of rocks, soils,
and minerals, etc.
A. Sandy soil does not hold enough water.
A. Weathering
B. Air cannot pass through sandy soil. B. Soil profile
C. Roots cannot easily push through
C. Soil
sandy soil.
D. Sandy soil has too many nutrients. D. All of the above
146. Which of these IS NOT affected by soil 151. What percent of an ideal soil is organic
pH? matter?
A. Availability of most of the essential nu- A. 20-30
trients
B. 45
B. Activity of Microorganisms
C. Performance of some herbicides C. 5
D. The soil water holding capacity D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 22
152. Rescue and Summerred are two popular 158. what is a crumbly, dark brown soil that is
varieties of apples grown in which state? a mixture of humus, clay, other minerals
A. California A. bed rock
B. Arizona B. subsoil
C. Alaska C. loam
D. Colorado D. top soil
153. This is the nutrient that plants need to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
form the amino acids needed to assemble 159. Soil is a mixture of weathered rock, min-
proteins eral fragments, water, air and
A. Nitrogen A. sand
B. Potassium B. decayed organic matter
C. All of the above C. moss
D. None of the above D. clay
154. Soil formation begins with weathering 160. Which of the following is the BEST way
of: to test a soil’s ability to hold water?
A. Bedrocks A. adding soil to a beaker full of water
B. Rocks and seeing if the soil sinks
C. Humus B. pouring water through a funnel of soil
D. none of above and seeing how much water drips out
155. Which of the following best describes soil C. stirring soil into a bowl of water and
erosion? seeing if the soil disappears
A. A. the breakdown of soil D. mixing water with a pile of soil and see-
ing if the water changes temperature
B. A. the improvement of soil
C. A. the addition of soil 161. The process of growing and distributing
D. A. the movement of soil by wind or wa- food, as well as raising animals, in and
ter around a city.
A. Cooperative Farming
156. What is the other half made up of?
B. Urban Farming
A. dead animals
B. rocks C. Rural Farming
C. gases and liquids D. Community Farming

D. plasticlike material 162. Which of the following is the largest par-
157. Soil is made of ticle in soil?
A. weathered rocks and minerals A. sand

B. dead plants and animals B. silt
C. air and water C. humus
D. All of the above D. clay

1.2 Soil science 23
163. Alluvial soils are moved by C. Tissue Culture

A. wind D. Layering

B. water
169. In which layer of soil do plant roots
C. gravity grow?
D. glaciers A. humus
164. How many years does soil take to form? B. topsoil
A. 5 Years C. subsoil
B. 1000 Years D. bedrock
C. 100 Years
170. Color of the soil can tell you
D. 50 Years
A. soil pollution
165. Properties of soil consist of
B. a quick answer if the soil is healthy for
A. location, size, shape, color farming
B. size, shape, color C. whether you need to add more nutri-
C. texture, color, how well it holds water, ents
and particle size, ability to support plant D. how much it has rained
growth
D. how well it holds water, shape, ability 171. Why are good conservation practices im-
to support plant growth portant for lumber companies to follow?
A. It adds groundwater
166. What two main phases comprise the cell
cycle? B. it increases soil erosion
A. mitosis and cytokinesis C. it decreases soil erosion
B. two growth phases D. the soil is shaded
C. interphase and mitosis
172. Most gray soil contains silt. Sandy soil is
D. interphase and cytokinesis usually light brown. Many dark soils con-
tain dead plants and animals. Which color
167. Which of the following increases demand
of soil most likely contains humus?
that pushes the environment to its limit?
A. use of fossil fuels A. gray
B. pollution B. light brown

C. population growth C. dark brown
D. tecnology D. white
168. In which asexual reproduction method 173. Which layer of soil is the middle layer?
does the parent plant provide water and
A. Bedrock
nutrients until the new plant develops
roots? B. Humus
A. Cutting C. Subsoil
B. Division D. Parent Material

1.2 Soil science 24
174. Which statement is not true about sand? C. loamy

A. sand has small particles that feel D. none of above
smooth
180. What layer is the primary layer of soil
B. water quickly passes through sand par- where plants and animals live?
ticles
A. topsoil
C. sand particles feel gritty and rough
B. Organic
D. sand has the largest particles of rock
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Parent material
175. What are the names of the four types of
D. Bedrock
Soil?
A. humus, sand, silt, clay 181. Which two states in the Midwest Region
are soybeans primarily grown?
B. humus, sand silt, bark
A. Indiana and Minnesota
C. sand, silt, clay
B. Iowa and Illinois
D. none of above
C. Kansas and Iowa
176. Washing out a plastic ziploc bag and us-
D. Ohio and Michigan
ing it again is known as-
A. recycling plastic 182. This type of soil is best for plant growth.
B. reusing an object A. rock
C. reducing the amount of water used B. sand
D. recycling glass C. loam
177. It is important for soil to retain water to D. clay

withstand 183. What type of soil water forms as a very
A. weathering thin film surrounding soil particles and is
B. help plants to grow generally not available to the plant? It
is bound so tightly to the soil by adhe-
C. keep it from being dry sion properties that very little of it can be
D. none of above taken up by plant roots.
A. capillary
178. what consists of clay and other particles
washed down from the A horizon, but lit- B. gravitational
tle humus C. hygroscopic
A. humus D. flowing
B. subsoil
184. A seed with two cotyledons is called
C. bedrock a
D. loam A. Monocot
179. soil has large grains. B. Dicot
A. Sandy C. Flower
B. clay D. Fruit

1.2 Soil science 25
185. Plants need the following except one 191. Which type of nutrients are replaced
A. water most often by fertilizer?
A. non-mineral

B. air
C. light B. required nutrients
D. pizza C. macronutrients
D. micronutrients
186. Soil is composed of three particle sizes.
Which answer shows the arrangement 192. ASSET question In which group will all the
from largest to smallest? three items dissolve after mixing with wa-
ter
A. Sand, Silt, Clay
A. salt, ice, clay
B. Clay, Silt, Sand
B. sand, sugar, oil
C. Sandy, Clay, Silt
C. salt, ice cube, sugar
D. Silt, Sand, Clay
D. ice cube, sugar, oil
187. In Nebraska, what primary crop is used
for making brooms? 193. Which soil has the smallest particles?
A. proso millet A. clay
B. hay B. loam
C. sand
C. wheat
D. silt
D. cotton
194. Clay is a type of soil that can be used in:
188. All of the following processes help form
topsoil except A. pottery.
A. movement of oceans B. sand boxes.
B. decay of plants C. recipes.
C. weathering of rocks D. none of above
D. decomposition of animals 195. When plants, animals, and other organ-
isms die, they break down and become
189. One property of soil is it’s part of the soil. What is this part of the
A. worms soil called?
B. temperature A. sand
C. name B. silt
D. texture C. clay
D. humus
190. Minerals found in the B horizon were dis-
solved in water and carried there by a pro- 196. Which structure provides protection to
cess called the plant cell and gives it its shape?
A. oxidation A. plasma membrane
B. leaching B. vacuole
C. weathering C. cell wall
D. littering D. endoplasmic reticulum

1.2 Soil science 26
197. Which of the following shows that soil C. phototropism

erosion is happening?
D. photosynthesis
A. The soil is deep and grows grass on
top. 203. Why does a soil that has only sand and
B. Pavement is placed on the soil for a gravel not support plant growth well?
road. A. It holds in too much water
C. A forest of pine trees grows in the soil. B. it holds in too little water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. it has too many decomposers
D. The soil has deep gullies.
D. it has too many minerals
198. The other name for phosphorus is
A. Potash 204. Which type of soil do you usually expect
if the community is along the seashore?
B. Phosphate
A. Loam
C. Nitrogen
B. Clay
D. Manganese
C. Sand
199. Which type of soil feels soft and airy?
D. none of above
A. sand
B. loam 205. What is soil made of?
C. clay A. Soil comes from other minerals.
D. none of above B. Soil comes from, mainly, bedrock. and
is with other weathered materials.
200. The asexual reproduction method that is
commonly used by orchards on trees is C. Soil comes from rocks.
A. Cuttings D. Soil is broken down rocks and is
B. Division smoothed out, through a process.
C. Tissue Culture 206. The seed is made up of which of the fol-
D. Grafting lowing parts?
201. A soil with bulk density of 1.30g/cm3 A. seed coat

and a particle density of 2.60g/cm3 will B. cotyledon
have a porosity of
C. embryo
A. 5%
D. all of the above
B. 25%
C. 50% 207. Which describes the soil layers in order
from the surface?
D. 75%
A. top soil, bedrock, horizon C, subsoil
202. Which process allows plants to make
their own food and convert it to energy? B. top soil, subsoil, horizon C, bedrock
A. nitrogen cycle C. top soil, horizon C, subsoil, bedrock
B. respiration D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 27
208. What is soil? 213. If something breaks during a lab, what is

the first thing you should do?
A. It is the loose material in which plants

can grow in the upper layer of Earth. A. Step over it
B. It is the leaf that grows on the plant. B. Clean it up
C. It is the food that can be found inside C. Tell your neighbor
the seed. D. Tell Mrs. Mayo
D. none of above 214. we can find rocks at
209. Which type of soil can hold a lot of wa- A. Mountain
ter? B. Market
A. Silty C. Mall
B. Sandy D. School
C. Peaty 215. Compared to the primary minerals, the
D. Clay secondary minerals are those minerals
that form from
210. Which of these is the correct definition for
A. Weathering of rocks
the term sustainable?
B. Weathering of primary minerals
A. The responsible development and
management of areas C. Weathering of rocks and minerals
B. Improvement of a run down area D. All of the above
C. Meeting the needs of people without 216. What does weathering mean?
damaging the ecological, economic, or so- A. To form or create new
cial components of the environment.
B. To build up
D. People take responsibility for improv-
C. To break down
ing their living conditions
D. To completely destroy
211. This is the least likely to undergo com-
paction, but most at risk for erosion 217. The name below that NOT including rocks
is
A. Clay
A. Granite
B. Silt
B. Marble
C. Sand
C. Baloon
D. Loam
D. Limestone
212. Which structure produces energy for the 218. What is one way a person can help to
cell? conserve or save energy?
A. mitochondria A. Drive a big car with no passengers.
B. nucleus B. Cut off lights when they exit a room.
C. golgi C. Brush teeth with hot water.
D. endoplasmic reticulum D. Ask to get driven to school.

1.2 Soil science 28
219. How many primary roots are in a taproot 225. Decayed remains of plants and animals
system? are called
A. one A. litter
B. two B. clay
C. three
C. humus
D. bajillion
D. soil
220. Which type of soil does water quickly
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pass through? 226. Peter wants to grow some bell peppers
A. sand in his garden. Peter tests the pH of the soil
and finds that the plants will thrive in the
B. clay
soil. What was the most likely pH reading
C. humus of the soil?4
D. silt A. 1
221. The practice of growing plants without B. 3
soil, but by adding the plants’ nutrients di-
rectly to the water. C. 6
A. hydrosphere D. 14
B. hydroglyphics
227. A rock formed from fragments of other
C. hydroponics rocks is a(n)
D. hydrocycle A. Metamorphic Rock
222. Fossils are made from B. Sedimentary Rock
A. plastic toys C. Extrusive Rock
B. Sedimentary rocks
D. Igneous Rock
C. Water
D. none of above 228. In which layer of soil does the under-
ground water gets collected?
223. Sand, silt and clay are the components of
soil texture and classify as A. bedrock
A. Soil particles B. parentrock
B. Soil separates C. childrock
C. Soil fragments D. subsoil
D. Soil composition
229. The division bryophyta includes which of
224. Mechanical Weathering breaks down the following types of plans?
rocks through
A. Mosses
A. Force
B. Chemical Reactions B. Ferns
C. Magic C. Fungi
D. Erosion D. Flowering plants

1.2 Soil science 29
230. At the same level of organic matter, eval- C. Iron ore

uate which are the highest water holding D. Salt water
capacity?

A. Loamy sand 236. Which of the following is a characteristic
of silt?
B. Clay loam
A. Rough, gritty feeling
C. Clay
B. Flat/Platy shape
D. Sandy loam
C. Reduces water holding capacity
231. What is the top layer of soil made up of D. Improves water holding capacity
broken down pieces of dead plants and an-
imals? 237. Calculate the gravimetric moisture con-
tent of the soil sample if it’s fresh weight
A. bedrock
(FW) is 25 grams and its oven dried
B. humus weight (ODW) is 20 grams.
C. topsoil A. 15%
D. subsoil B. 20%
232. is a blend of the three main types of C. 25%

soil. D. 30%
A. Topsoil 238. The most important property for plan
B. Subsoil growth is the ability of the soil to wa-
ter
C. Loam
A. retain
D. Bedrock
B. drain
233. The middle layer of soil is called
C. particles
A. topsoil D. smell
B. subsoil
239. Mang Kanor is a farmer, he produces
C. bedrock many types of vegetable crops in his gar-
D. none of above den. What type of approach did Mang
Kanor belongs?
234. Loamy soil with a dark color is good for
A. Pedalogical approach
A. farming
B. Edapological approach
B. construction
C. Pedological approach
C. a lake
D. Edopological approach
D. nothing
240. Which of the following best describes
235. One component of soil is decayed plant vascular tissue?
and animal remains, but the major compo- A. provides a protective covering for the
nent of soil is - plant
A. Fossil Fuels B. comprises the majority of the primary
B. Weathered rocks plant body

1.2 Soil science 30
C. specializes in storage, photosynthesis C. gravel, sand, silt, clay

and support D. clay, sand, silt, gravel
D. transports food, water, hormones and
minerals throughout the plant 247. How we can prevent erosion?
A. build retaining walls
241. The top layer of soil is called
B. plant grass and shrubs
A. topsoil
C. improve drainage
B. subsoil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. all of the above
C. bedrock
D. none of above 248. What material is soil mostly made of?
A. nutrients
242. The five soil forming factors to deter-
mine the soil characteristics. B. bits of bone
A. Interacts C. shells
B. Act independently D. pieces of rock
C. Act solely 249. Breaking down of rocks is called
D. All of the above A. Weathering
243. soil used for construction B. soil erosion
A. clay C. photosynthesis
B. loam D. none of above
C. silt 250. The tiny animal can be found in soil is
D. sand A. Elephant
244. A resistance to pesticides can cause B. Spider
A. cancer C. Worm
B. altered DNA D. Duck
C. biotech foods 251. Plants and animals become part of soil
D. super bugs when they –
A. Die and Decay
245. Water can drain easily through -
B. Produce offspring
A. Sandy soil
C. Grow and Develop
B. Loamy soil
C. Clayey soil D. Take in nutrients
D. none of above 252. Sand feels
246. Which is the correct order of weathered A. soft

rocks from smallest to largest? B. gritty
A. sand, clay, silt, gravel C. wet
B. clay, silt, sand, gravel D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 31
253. soil is infertile. C. both A & B

A. Subsoil D. Neither A nor B

B. Substratum
259. What is a synonym for soil conserva-
C. Topsoil tion?
D. All of the above
A. neglect
254. Soil is formed by B. protection
A. cooling C. destruction
B. heating
D. waste
C. weathering
D. freezing 260. What is the total economic value of crops
grown in the Western region?
255. Why is soil important to living things? A. $37 billion
A. Forms part of the earth where animals
B. $28 billion
live
B. Provides the necessary nutrients C. $52 billion
needed by plants D. $41 billion
C. Serves as a place where people live
261. Organic matter is formed when
D. All of the above
A. dead animals
256. Scientific names of plants are expressed
B. rotten plants
in Latin because
A. it is a dead language. C. decompostion of the remains of plant
and animal remains.
B. it is easy for all nationalities to pro-
nounce. D. plants and animals
C. it is an international language and was 262. Which soil would retain the most water?
used by the early scholars to express
plant names. A. loam
D. it is an easy language to learn. B. sand
C. silt
257. Which of the following organisms is con-
sidered beneficial to plants? D. clay
A. thrips
263. Adding lime improves soil structure be-
B. moths cause clay particles , which makes them
C. spiders easier to cultivate and for roots to grow
in.
D. spittlebugs
A. flatulate
258. Which of the following affects the weath-
ering rate? B. flubulate
A. climate C. flocculate
B. type of rock D. fartulate

1.2 Soil science 32
264. Which of these characterized as having C. Water is a great help for soil
the finest particles that holds the greater D. Soil formation would not be possible
amount of water? without water
A. A. Clay
270. All soils have that can be observed or
B. B. Loam
measured
C. C. sand
A. properties
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. color
265. The very top layer of soil is mostly made
C. smooth
of
D. beaker
A. Solid rock
B. Clay and mineral deposits 271. As surface area of a rock increases, the
C. A mixture of minerals and organic ma- rate of weathering
terial A. Decreases
D. Mostly organic material (humus) B. Increases
266. What is Humus made up of? C. Stays Constant
A. decompose D. none of above
B. decayed animal and plant parts
272. What is the largest particle that makes
C. decayed soil up soil called?
D. none of above A. humus
267. Decaying living things in topsoil makes B. erosion
it? C. clay
A. moist
D. sand
B. sandy
273. What term refers to the living organisms
C. clay like
in soil?
D. a dark color
A. biota
268. The texture of soil depends mainly on B. pH
A. the types of plants that grow in the soil.
C. parent material
D. topography
B. the size of the particles in the soil.
C. the color of the soil. 274. The two main factors that determine the
D. the number of worms in the soil. rate of weathering are the TYPE of rock
and
269. Why is water such an important compo-
A. Music
nent of soils?
B. Climate
A. Soil formation would be possible with-
out water C. Size of rock
B. Soils doesn’t need water D. Weight of rock

1.2 Soil science 33
275. The layers of soil are also known as 280. The removal of land surface by water,
wind or ice is known as -
A. horizons
A. Erosion

B. humus
B. Retention
C. loam
C. Percolation
D. dirt D. none of above
276. What happens to soil if no plants are in 281. The bottom layer of soil is called
them and it rains? A. topsoil
A. soil erosion B. subsoil
B. soil absorbs the water C. bedrock
C. soil becomes mud D. none of above
D. soil becomes sand 282. Which soil is the best for growing
plants?
277. Which of the following is the result of A. Sand
high temperatures?
B. Loam
A. inevitable plant death C. Silt
B. necrosis D. Clay
C. off-color pigmentation 283. This is the nutrient that is a key compo-
D. heat stress nent of DNA - necessary for maturation
and root development
278. Why is soil important to us? A. Phosphorous
A. it takes a very long time to produce B. Potassium
B. we use it for our crops and other food C. All of the above
sources D. None of the above
C. it is finite (limited) 284. What soil is sticky when wet?
D. all of the above A. Clay
B. Loam
279. How is soil formed?
C. Sand
A. Soil forms as rock is broken down by
weathering and mixes with other materi- D. none of above
als on the surface. Soil is constantly being 285. It is a formation of rocks through the
formed wherever bedrock is exposed. process of heat and pressure or chemical
B. Soil is formed by weathering. action, generally harder than the original
rocks.
C. Soil is formed by storms. Storms
change the shape of rocks. A. Sedimentary rocks
B. Igneous rocks
D. Soil is formed by people. People can
place it in many different places. The soil C. Metamorphic rocks
gets affected with other surroundings. D. Intrusive rocks

1.2 Soil science 34
286. What is a method for growing plants in 291. Which soil particle is the largest?
water without soil? A. Sand
A. crop rotation B. Silt
B. hydrosphere C. Clay
C. organic foods D. none of above
D. hydroponics
292. This type of soil is sticky when wet and
hard when dry.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
287. What is a material found on the surface
of the earth consisting of rock, sand, clay, A. clay soil
dead plants, and animal remains? B. sand
A. silt C. garden soil
B. soil D. none of above
C. bedrock
293. An ideal soil structure would be
D. loam
A. Clumpy - forms aggregates that hold
288. Which of the following is not considered their shape
a fossil fuel? B. Loose - the soil does not form aggre-
A. coal gates or shape
B. natural gas C. Granular - forms small crumbly aggre-

gates
C. metal
D. Solid - the soil is impermeable like ce-
D. oil ment
289. A large chemical company disposes of its 294. Which is NOT a layer of soil?
toxic chemical waste in a landfill, where
A. bedrock
the toxic chemical waste slowly leaks into
the soil. Which result will most likely oc- B. topsoil
cur because of the toxic chemical leak into C. undersoil
the soil?
D. subsoil
A. The soil’s fertility will decrease.
295. What conservation method refers to
B. The soil’s fertility will increase. growing crops perpendicular to the slope
C. The soil’s fertility will increase and of a hill?
then decrease A. windbreaks
D. The soil’s fertility will remain the B. contour plowing
same.
C. terrace farming
290. Sandy is good for farming. D. strip cropping
A. True
296. The topmost layer of land which is com-
B. False posed of grainy substance is called .
C. Ham A. Weathered Rock
D. Burgers B. Bedrock

1.2 Soil science 35
C. Soil C. maize
D. All of the above D. milo

297. What layer is considered the ’B’ layer of 302. Mrs. Davis is comparing soil for reten-
soil? tion. Retention of water depends on-
A. Organic A. the sizes of a soil’s particles
B. Topsoil B. the amount of water the soil can hold
C. Subsoil C. the color of the soil
D. Parent material D. the types of plants that will grow in it
298. There are four major components of soil. 303. Soil formation begins with the weather-
Evaluate which of the following compo- ing of
nents comprises least amount of material A. Humus
incorporated into the soil? B. Subsoil
A. Mineral matter C. Litter
B. Soil Air D. Rock
C. Soil water 304. well carrying out capillarity, the follow-
D. Organic matter ing should be the same EXCEPT -
299. What is the total value of crops exported A. amount of soil

from South Dakota annually? B. type of soil
A. $1.4 billion C. diameter of tubes
B. $431.2 billion D. size of the cotton wool
C. $5 billion 305. Small grains that contain a plant’s male
D. $225 billion reproductive cells.
A. stamen
300. Several students investigate the charac-
teristics of soil. The students observe sam- B. pollen
ples of common soils. In one sample they C. anther
observe that water drains through the soil D. stigma
easily. When they rub the soil between
their fingers, it feels rough and scratchy, 306. A single layer of soil is called a
and its particles feel hard. The soil the stu- A. profile
dents observed is most likely - B. horizon
A. clay C. row
B. silt D. column
C. loam
307. What living thing are in soil.
D. sand
A. sand
301. Which grain is grown in Mississippi? B. glass
A. wheat C. minerals
B. rice D. earthworms

1.2 Soil science 36
308. In which soil type would water drain eas- 313. Which of the following plants does well
ily? in below freezing temperatures?
A. Sand A. watermelons
B. Silt B. carrots
C. corn
C. Clay
D. cacti
D. none of above
314. what is a dark-colored substance that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
309. How does each soil types differ? forms as plant and animal remains decay
A. Texture A. humus
B. Color B. loam
C. soil horizon
C. Both texture and color
D. bedrocl
D. none of above
315. How are decomposed animals helpful to
310. Which of the following best describes a soil?
dichotomous key? A. the contain valuable nutrients that be-
A. Uses a branching diagram called a come food for all kinds of organisms
cladogram to show relationships B. they provide shad to the soil
B. Identifies plants by a series of choices C. the contain seeds to grow new life
between pairs of alternatives D. they help speed up the rock cycle
C. Is the systematic arrangement of 316. Medium-sized mineral particles of soil
plants into groups and subgroups based
on common characteristics A. Sand
B. Silt
D. Is a type of plant classification which
uses a hierarchy system for classification C. Clay
D. Horizons
311. rocks form under intense heat and
pressure. 317. What layer is also called the humus layer
and is made up of plant remains like leaves
A. sedimentary and twigs?
B. igneous A. Organic
C. metamorphic B. Bedrock
D. magma C. Parent material
D. Bedrock
312. Soil horizons, in order, from the surface
are: 318. What is the topmost layer of the earths
crust?
A. A, O, B, C, R
A. Soil
B. O, A, B, C, R B. Loam
C. A, B, C, R, O C. Sand
D. R, A, B, C, O D. Caly

1.2 Soil science 37
319. control the cell’s activities; contains the 325. Which layer of soil helps in purification of
cell’s DNA water?

A. mitochondria A. topsoil
B. cell membrane B. parent rock
C. nucleus C. humus
D. golgi body D. sub soil
320. Soil is composed of 326. Which of the following is the correct or-
A. sand, silt and clay der of the taxonomic hierarchy?
B. air and water A. Kingdom, division, class, order, family,
C. humus genus, species
D. gravel B. Kingdom, division, class, order, family
species, genus
321. The rock and mineral fragments in soil
come from rock that has been C. Kingdom, class, division, order, Mayo,
species
A. blasted
D. Kingdom, division, order, class, family,
B. carved
genus, species
C. weathered
327. How do plants help soil?
D. chemically treated
A. The roots help the soil stay in place.
322. The soil horizons are different from the This helps the soil not erode as fast.
other based on their
B. Plants feed the soil.
A. Chemical and physical features.
C. Plants help soil erosion happen.
B. Physical features mainly colour and
texture. D. All of the above.
C. Chemical features only. 328. Colluvial Soils are moved by
D. none of above A. wind
323. Rock particles of soil come in what three B. water
sizes.?
C. gravity
A. sand, silt, clay
D. glaciers
B. humus, silt, bark
C. sand, texture, color 329. SWBAT describe how scientists classify
soil.
D. none of above
A. They base them into climate, plants,
324. Caterpillars are the larval form of which and soil groups.
of the following insects?
B. They base them into different soil
A. moths groups
B. beetles C. They place them into soil composition
C. ladybugs and soil type
D. snails D. They place them by colors.

1.2 Soil science 38
330. what is the solid layer of rock beneath B. plant a flower in each sample
the soil C. examine each sample with a hand lens
A. soil
B. top soil D. look at the color of each sample
C. bed rock
336. There are terms called for a major factor
D. loam in soil formation, choose the correct term
for each factor of soil formation.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
331. How can time affect soils?
A. Climosequence for climate
A. Soils gets to old
B. Biosequence for organisms
B. Older soils are less weathered than
younger ones C. Chronosequence for time
C. Time don’t affect soils D. Lithosequence for topography
D. Older soils are more weathered than 337. What is the main function of the flower
younger ones of a plant?
332. When is wheat harvested in the state of A. provide food for insects
Colorado? B. sexual reproduction
A. Late summer to mid-fall C. store food for the plant
B. Early to late summer D. provide surface area for the plant
C. Late fall to early winter
338. which one of these soil holds water
D. Late spring to early summer
A. organic
333. Subsoil layer is made of B. sand
A. sand and clay C. clay
B. silt and sand D. none of above
C. gravels and stones
339. When a soil is lacking a nutrient it is
D. large rocks
called a
334. Humus is: A. deficiency
A. the part of soil made up of decayed B. drought
parts of once-living things.
C. disaster
B. a dip that is made of beans.
D. none of above
C. a bone that can be found in the upper
arm. 340. How does soil help in supporting life on
Earth?
D. a sound people make when their lips
are together. A. It filters the water
335. When testing the soil texture of each soil B. It helps recycle nutrients like carbon
sample, what is the next step after wet- and nitrogen
ting each sample? C. Many plants grow in the soil
A. rub the sample between your fingers D. All of the above

1.2 Soil science 39
341. Plants get the light it needs from: C. rocks in streams

A. Rain D. rocks in a warm, humid climate

B. Sun
347. What natural resource has minerals from
C. Soil
weathered rocks and decomposing plant
D. Clean air and carbon dioxide and animal remains?
342. About 2% of American homes use A. fresh water
geothermal heat pumps. What percent of
B. soil
Swedish homes use this technology?
A. 10% C. animals
B. 20% D. plants
C. 30%
348. What are the three types of soil parti-
D. 40% cles?
343. Rocks that are formed when red-hot A. insects, sand, topsoil
magma cools down.
B. clay, sand, silt
A. sedimentary rocks
C. topsoil, subsoil, bedrock
B. metamorphic rocks
C. igneous rocks D. earthworms, sand, silt
D. magma rocks 349. Which type of soil has the smallest parti-
344. Why does sand not hold water well? cles?
A. sand has too many bits of shells in it A. Loam

B. the rocks in the sand are too small to B. Clay
hold water
C. Silt
C. the large particles allow water to flow
through quickly D. Sand
D. sand is made of silt which does not 350. Compaction is defined as

hold water
A. the mechanical process to increase
345. Two methods of soil conservation in farm- soil density, to increase void and reduce
ing are permeability
A. reclamation and subsurface mining B. the mechanical process to increase
B. landscaping and nylon fencing soil density, to reduce void and reduce
C. selective harvesting and replanting permeability
D. contour plowing and windbreaks C. the mechanical process to decrease

soil density, to reduce void and reduce
346. Which rocks are exposed to more wind, permeability
rain and ice?
D. the mechanical process to decrease
A. rocks at a lower elevation soil density, to increase void and reduce
B. rocks at a higher elevation permeability

1.2 Soil science 40
351. A type of soil structure that is cube-like of water. How can he find out how much
and common in B horizon especially in the water stays in the soil in each pot?
humid regions. A. By planting seeds and measuring plant
A. Prismlike growth in each pot
B. Platelike B. By measuring the amount of water that
drains from each pot
C. Spheroidal
C. By observing which soil looks wettest
D. Blocklike after the water has been added to the pots
NARAYAN CHANGDER
352. The starting material of soil
D. By feeling the soil before and after
A. parent material
adding water to each pot.
B. daughter material
357. This generally has the highest cation ex-
C. topography change capacity? (CEC)
D. biota A. Clay
353. Which vegetable is a major food crop in B. Silt
Rhode Island? C. Sand
A. potatoes D. Loam
B. corn 358. Summer season when mang Kanor
C. pumpkins planted his cucumber plant. a few weeks
after, his plants begin to wilt and later
D. cabbage
the plants die. What type of soil moisture
354. A seed with only one cotyledon is called coefficients happened in the field?
a A. Field capacity
A. Dicot B. Hydroscopic coefficient
B. Monocot C. Saturation point
C. Flower D. Permanent wilting point
D. Fruit 359. When you hear the word “potash”, what
element does it refer to?
355. It is fairly coarse and loose so water is
A. Phosphorus
able to drain through it easily.
B. Nitrogen
A. A. Clay
C. Potassium
B. B. Sand
D. Iron
C. C. Loam
360. How many farms in Massachusetts pro-
D. none of above
duce organic crops?
356. A student wants to find out which type A. more than 300
of soil holds the most water. He uses four B. 72
identical pots with holes in the bottom. He
fills each pot with a different type of soil C. more than 1, 000
and waters the pots with the same amount D. 20

1.2 Soil science 41
361. The Soil Family includes different sized C. virus

particles called D. cancer

A. dirt, clay, sand and silt
367. Where do the minerals (inorganic materi-
B. clay, loam, sand and silt als) that form soil come from?
C. loam, organic matter, sand and silt A. Plant and Trees
D. clay, loam, sand and soil B. Weathering and Erosion of rocks
362. Soil is formed when are broken down C. Climate and Air
by weather, water and living things over D. Sunlight, Plants and Dirt
long periods of time.
A. trees 368. The higher the cation exchance capacity
(CEC) of a soil sample, the
B. rocks
A. Weaker the soil’s capacity to hold onto
C. insects
water and nutrients
D. animals
B. Stronger the soil’s capacity to hold
363. Which of the following items is a primary onto water and nutrients
ingredient of humus? C. Greater the risk of nutrient leaching
A. Dead plant material D. Greater the porespace
B. Rocks from Earth’s crust
369. This type of soil is sticky when wet and
C. Minerals powdery when dry.
D. Metals A. clay
364. What is the main purpose of microbes in B. silt
the soil? C. sand
A. to release the nutrients in rocks D. gravel
B. to cause disease
370. What is the structure that produces pro-
C. to feed animals tein for the cell?
D. none of above A. golgi
365. Which of the following soil types has the B. mitochondria
largest particles and allows water to flow C. chloroplast
through it easily?
D. ribosome
A. clay
B. silt 371. Soil profile is a vertical section of the soil
showing its horizons. Arrange the follow-
C. loam ing according to the correct sequence of a
D. sand Master horizons?
366. Rusts are classified as which of the fol- A. O, A, B, C, E

lowing? B. A, B, C, E, O
A. fungus C. O, A, B, E, C
B. bacteria D. O, A, E, B, C

1.2 Soil science 42
372. George Washington Carver was a profes- C. gravel, sand, silt, clay
sor of agriculture. He is famous for his
D. gravel, sand, clay, silt
studies of ?
A. onions 378. Which of the following is a term for het-
B. corn erosis?
C. soy beans A. homozygous
D. peanuts B. hybrid vigor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
373. Big tree roots grow up to layer C. heterosis
A. Top soil D. heredity
B. Substartum
379. The water holding capacity is the highest
C. Subsoil in -
D. Bedrock A. Sandy soil
374. Primary mineral is formed from the crys- B. Clayey soil
tallization of magma. Which of the follow-
ing is Not a type of primary minerals? C. Loamy soil
A. Quartz D. none of above

B. Feldspar
380. which soil suitable to plant Paddy?
C. Kaolinite
A. sand soil
D. Hornblende
B. clay soil
375. In a soil profile with O, A, E and B hori-
C. g
zons, evaluate which of the following is
the least amount of clay in the horizon. D. none of above
A. O
381. Which particle is the most porous and al-
B. A lows for the most water to travel between
C. B them?
D. E A. silt
376. The average time estimate it takes for B. sand
mature soils to develop C. clay
A. 8-10 months
D. loam
B. 5-10 years
C. 50 years 382. In which soil type would water have dif-
ficulty draining?
D. thousands of years
A. Sand
377. Which is the correct order of weathered
rocks from largest to smallest? B. Silt
A. clay, silt, sand, gravel C. Clay
B. sand, silt, clay, gravel D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 43
383. Based on the problem above, calculate 388. Which of the following types of soil has
the pore space of a soil if the bulk density the largest particles?
is 1.09g/cm3 and a particle density was

A. sand
2.65g/cm3.
B. silt
A. 58.90%
C. humus
B. 60.00%
D. clay
C. 58.00%
D. 59.00% 389. It lets most water pass through it:
384. What is the repeated movement of nitro- A. Sandy Soil

gen compounds between the atmosphere, B. Loamy Soil
the soil, and living organisms?
C. Clayey Soil
A. the carbon cycle
D. none of above
B. the water cycle
C. the nitrogen cylce 390. How can a plant become a part of soil?
D. none of above A. The plant’s roots can grow deep in the

ground.
385. Water present in soil comes from B. The plant’s seeds can drop on the
A. rainfall or irrigation. ground and get eaten.
B. air C. The plant’s flower can stick pollen to a
bee.
C. drains
D. The plant’s leaves can decompose af-
D. watering plants
ter they fall.
386. Why are sand particles different colors?
391. A soil from a field had mass of 47.80
A. because sand is made from silt, clay, grams and a volume of 32.50 cm3. The
and loam oven dry mass of a soil was 35.50 grams.
B. because the shells are brightly colored Calculate the bulk density of a soil.
and rocks are dark A. 1.10g/cm3
C. because the particles come from dif- B. 1.90g/cm3
ferent colored rocks
C. 1.50g/cm3
D. because water changes the color of
sand D. 1.09g/cm3
387. How long does it take for soil to be cre- 392. Which of the following is not a type of
ated? rock?
A. 5 years A. igneous
B. 1 million years B. magma
C. 100-200 years C. metamorphic
D. forever D. sedimentary

1.2 Soil science 44
393. What is the common name for Horizon C. Saprolite

A? D. Liholith
A. bedrock
399. How are microorganisms responsible in
B. topsoil
the formation of soil?
C. parent material
A. They erode the rocks
D. subsoil
B. They get the water from the plants
394. Which of the following is the most impor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. They recycle organic matter and help
tant soil formation factor
in formation of humus
A. Time
D. They help in the formation of humus
B. Climate
C. Slope 400. What is the total economic value for the
Southern region?
D. Organisms
A. $48 billion
395. Bulk density is a measure of compaction
B. $52 billion
or looseness of the soil, therefore, the
higher the bulk density is an indication of C. $45 billion
higher porosity. D. $55 billion
A. True
401. This is found in the topsoil and is made of
B. Probably true
decaying plants and animals.
C. False
A. dirt
D. Probably false
B. water
396. What is the soil that holds water very C. humus
well?
D. subsoil
A. Sand
B. Loam 402. What composes the organic matter in
soil?
C. Clay
D. none of above A. pieces of rock that has been split apart
397. Soil is made up tiny pieces of rocks, air, B. pore spaces

fragments of plants, animals and
C. liquids
A. Gas
D. decomposed remains of once living
B. Water
things
C. Plastic
D. none of above 403. What type of soil is good for the plants?
A. A. Clay
398. This is termed used for a true soil or A
and B horizons. B. B. Loam
A. Solum C. C. Sand
B. Regolith D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 45
404. Factors that determine specific soil char- 409. Breaking down of rocks by the action of
acteristics are wind and climate is called-

A. climate A. Weathering
B. parent material B. Cultivating
C. time and slope C. Percolation
D. all of the above D. none of above
410. Vertical section through the soil showing

405. Different types of soil contain different
different layers is called
amount of:
A. Types of soil
A. humus
B. Soil texture
B. living things
C. Soil profile
C. pieces of rocks
D. none of above
411. Which of these plants is nonvascular?
406. The break down of rock into smaller
A. Apple tree
pieces is called
B. fern
A. Plant matter
C. dandelion
B. Weathering
D. moss
C. Decompose
D. Trees 412. Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand.
She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty
407. A gardener wants to add humus to his and the ball falls apart. What part of the
soil because it contains a lot of nutrients topsoil most likely made the topsoil feel
and helps retain water. What does humus gritty?
form from? A. clay
A. Sand B. sand
B. Rocks and minerals C. silt
C. Decayed animals and plants D. humus
D. Volcanic lava 413. A student wants to know which soil is the
best to plant tomatoes in. Which of the
408. If you dug up some soil and put it in following experiments can he complete to
a warm place what would happen to the figure it out?
dirt?
A. Plant seeds in each type of soil.
A. it would become rocks
B. Pour 200 mL of water into each soil to
B. the water would evaporate from the see how much water is retained.
soil
C. Compare the color of the soil to a color
C. it would become clay chart
D. it would become humus D. Wet the soil and feel the texture.

1.2 Soil science 46
414. What does humus contain? 420. What is loam?

A. sand A. an even mixture of sand, silt, and clay
B. glass B. soil made of mostly sand
C. clay C. soil made of mostly clay
D. decayed plants and animals D. a mixture of gravel and sand
415. GMOs can be 421. Two types of water holding in the soil,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. plants only assess which of this statement belongs
“after the rain, water from raindrops at-
B. animals only tracts to the available water present in the
C. plant and animal soil”.
D. none of these A. Adhesion
B. Chelation
416. What type of soil has large particles and
can’t hold water good? C. Cohesion
A. Sandy D. Abrasion
B. Peaty 422. How can a large rock become a part of
C. Silty soil?
D. Clay A. Break the rock into tiny pieces.
B. Bury the rock in the ground.
417. Which type of soil is best for planting?
A. Loam C. Pile the rock with other rocks.
B. Clay D. Melt the rock and let it cool down.
C. Sand 423. What is a resource?

D. none of above A. Anything that is used for a purpose.
418. What soil is a mixture of sand, silt, and B. Anything that has a purpose.
clay? C. Anything that we use for information.
A. soil D. Anything that is renewable.
B. silt
424. Why would you NOT find soils on Mars
C. clay or Venus?
D. loam A. Not all materials that make up soil can
be found on other planets, such as water,
419. soil is important for organic materials
A. agriculture B. You can find soil on Mars or Venus
B. food C. Mars and Venus have to much air
C. plants
D. Mars and Venus does not have enough
D. All of the above air

1.2 Soil science 47
425. Why is topsoil darker than all other lev- C. Humus

els of soil? D. Clay

A. It contains all the darker colored min-
erals 431. Where do rock particles in soil come
from?
B. It contains volcanic rock
A. frozen water
C. It contains more organic matter
B. bigger rocks
D. It contains bits of burned trees
C. the sky
426. This is the unconsolidated material under- D. rain
lying the solum, relatively unaffected by
the soil genetic processes. 432. What is a solution to stop wind erosion
on a farmer’s field?
A. Horizon A
A. Plow up all of the plants
B. Horizon B
B. Build a pond
C. Horizon C
C. plant trees and shrubs on the edge
D. Horizon E
D. none of above
427. Which particle of soil is the largest?
433. What are the 2 MAIN groups of plants?
A. sand
A. seed plants and seedless plants
B. gravel
B. gymnosperms and angiosperms
C. silt
C. horsetails and ferns
D. clay
D. vascular and nonvascular
428. Which plant part absorbs light energy to
produce plant sugar? 434. A student takes a rectangular piece of
soap and writes the word “soap” on one
A. stem of the soap’s surfaces using a toothpick.
B. leaves The student then places the piece of soap
C. roots below a dripping faucet with the lettering
facing upward.Which question can be best
D. flower studied using this model?
429. Which of the following plants live and re- A. How do the minerals in water affect
produce for multiple years? landforms?
A. annual B. How is a mountain created using flow-
ing water?
B. perennial
C. Do all minerals dissolve in rainwater?
C. biennial
D. fillial
D. Does dripping water cause erosion of
430. Decayed organic material in soil is land?
called 435. When nutrients are taken out with soil
A. Litter water as it drains, it is called
B. Silt A. bleaching

1.2 Soil science 48
B. loaching 441. Water is temporarily stored in soil for

plant use, which soil type is most likely
C. leaching
to hold that water storage the longest?
D. draining
A. sand
436. What types of crops account for 83 per- B. silt
cent of the total United States’ economic
C. clay
value of crops?
D. None, all equal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. fruits and nuts
B. commercial vegetables 442. A proportion of 30% sand, 35% silt and
35% clay. Identify what type of soil is
C. field and miscellaneous crops
this?
D. forage crops
A. Sandy soil
437. What emerges from the seed and pushes B. Clayey soil
into the soil?
C. Loamy soil
A. embryo
D. Silty soil
B. endosperm
443. In soil there is of mineral content
C. cotyledons
A. 25%
D. radicle
B. 5%
438. What is the best soil to grow plants in?
C. 45%
A. sand D. none of above
B. silt
444. What is “relief” and how does it affect
C. loam soil formation?
D. clay A. Topography influences sunlight hours,
water runoff, temp, erosion, and organic
439. Which of the following has led to an es-
matterbuildup
timated 70 to 90 percent increase in food
production according to the World Bank? B. Relief is a type of soil the mixes with
others
A. hydroponics
C. Relief is something that builds up
B. sustainable agriculture
D. Influence Sunlight
C. fertilizer
D. increased acreage 445. A rock containing iron is soft, crumbly,
reddish in color. It’s been chemically
440. is darkest colour soil. weathered by
A. Subsoil A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Bedrock B. Oxygen
C. Topsoil C. Nitrogen
D. None of the above D. Sulfer

1.2 Soil science 49
446. Soil contains organic material. What is D. Break down and digest dead organ-
organic material? isms

A. Anything that is alive. 452. Farm effluent is the waste from dairy fac-
B. Anything that is dead and has never tories, dairy sheds and piggeries and in-
lived. cludes dung, urine and udder wash.
C. Anything living or once living A. It adds nutrients to the soil.
D. dirt B. It adds organic matter to the soil.
C. It adds water to the soil.
447. Which type of soil can hold the greatest
amount of water? D. All of the above.
A. sand 453. What must occur in order for plants to
B. silt grow?
C. clay A. The rate of photosynthesis must be
greater than the rate of respiration.
D. loam
B. The rate of respiration must be greater
448. The R horizon is also know as. than the rate of photosynthesis.
A. Partly Weathered rock C. The rate of photosynthesis must be
B. Topsoil equal to the rate of respiration.
D. Alternating rates of photosynthesis
C. Subsoil
and respiration.
D. Bedrock
454. Sandy soil have a high water holding ca-
449. Which of the following is NOT a property pacity, more micro-pores and very difficult
of soil? to till.
A. Color A. True
B. Texture B. Probably true
C. Where it’s located C. False
D. Ability to retain water D. Probably false
450. How does climate affect soil formation? 455. Which land class is hardest to farm?
A. Weather A. Class 1
B. Climate Reaction B. Class 2
C. Sunlight C. Class 5
D. Temperature speeds up or slows down D. Class 8
chemical reactions
456. Cranberries are a primary crop for which
451. The MAIN thing Decomposers do for the state?
soil is the following: A. Nebraska
A. Store moisture B. Missouri
B. Burrow deep in the soil C. Iowa
C. Make space for air and water D. Wisconsin

1.2 Soil science 50
457. soil lets least water pass through it: C. type of rock
A. Clay D. all of the above
B. sand
463. How do plants help prevent erosion?
C. loam
A. they dead leaves pile up to prevent ero-
D. none of above
sion
458. Which one is NOT a description of poorly B. plants attract animals that build
drained soils.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
homes to prevent erosion
A. are slow to warm up in spring
C. they don’t
B. are easy to cultivate
D. plant roots help keep the soil in place
C. encourage weeds to grow to prevent erosion
D. are easily damaged by machinery and
stock hooves. 464. Splitting a root system into 2 or more
pieces that will each become a new plant
459. What is the annual value of agricultural is called
exports within the western region?
A. Cuttings
A. $15 billion
B. Division
B. $16 billion
C. $14 billion C. Tissue Culture
D. $13 billion D. Grafting
460. Which of the following is a fruit food crop 465. The color of the soil indicates some chem-
in Utah? ical conditions.
A. cotton A. Dark or black color soil indicates high
B. coffee organic matter
C. apricots B. Dark or black color soil indicates that
D. apples the soil is high in oxides of iron
C. Dark or black color soil indicates that
461. After heavy rain, the farm area of Mang the soil is at oxidized state
Kanor is fully filled up with water. What
type of soil moisture coefficient happened D. All of the above
in the field?
466. Students poured 200 mL of water
A. Field capacity
through a soil sample. They collected and
B. Hydroscopic coefficient measured the water that drained out of
C. Saturation point the soil. The water collected measure 110
mL. How much water did the soil retain?
D. Permanent wilting point
A. 90 mL
462. Which is a factor that affects soil devel-
opment? B. 310 mL
A. time C. 110 mL
B. slope D. 200 mL

1.2 Soil science 51
467. Which layer of soil often contains litter? 473. An animal that lives in an underground
A. the A horizon by making a hole and mixing up air, water
and humus in the soil is called a

B. the B horizon
A. Decomposer
C. the C horizon
B. Burrower
D. the bedrock
C. Humus Source
468. What is the process utilized by scientists
D. none of above
to derive solutions to problems.
A. Scientific Method 474. What is the layer under the Humus that
provides support and nutrients to plants?
B. question s
A. humus
C. Probability
D. Mayofication B. bedrock
C. topsoil
469. What is the primary crop of Nevada?
D. subsoil
A. apples
B. almonds 475. How would you describe the texture of
“sandy” soil?
C. coffee
A. sticky
D. garlic
B. gritty
470. How does soil play an important role to
C. smooth
life on Earth?
A. The soil helps clean our water. D. slimy
B. Plants get nutrients from soil to grow. 476. The shape and steepness of the land-
scape.
C. Soil releases gas such as carbon diox- A. topography
ide into the air.
B. hill
D. All of the above
C. landslide
471. Soil texture is determined by D. volatile
A. its composition
477. A student is investigating the effect of
B. the percent of each grain size nutrients on plant growth. For this inves-
C. its origins tigation, the student needs to add a spe-
cific amount of powdered nutrients to the
D. their porosity & permeability
soil.Which tool should the student use to
472. Which is NOT a type of soil? measure the nutrients?
A. Sand A. barometer
B. Silt B. beam balance
C. Mud C. graduated cylinder
D. Loam D. spatula

1.2 Soil science 52
478. What material is found on the surface of 483. Which soil has the largest particles?
the earth consisting of a mixture of rock, A. clay
sand, clay, dead plants, and animal re-
mains? B. sand
A. Humus C. loam
B. Soil D. silt
C. Rocks 484. Carlos Linnaeus is known as:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above A. “Godfather” of taxonomy
B. Creating all the common names for
479. What is the relationship between particle
plants
size and permeability?
C. Neither of these
A. As particle size increases, the perme-
ability decreases. D. Both of these
B. As particle size increases, the perme- 485. What percentage of farms in the North-
ability increases. east sells products directly to consumers?
C. As permeability decreases, the parti- A. 14 %
cle size decreases.
B. 25 %
D. As permeability increases, the particle
C. 12 %
size remains constant.
D. 75 %
480. Select the definition of soil
486. All of the following are plant remains EX-
A. layers of soil with distinct physical
CEPT
properties in a soil profile
A. Dead leaves
B. mixture of weathered rock, organic
material, water, and air B. Sand Particles
C. decomposed organic matter C. Seed covers
D. vertical section showing the soil hori- D. Dried twigs
zons 487. Lowering the pH makes nutrients
481. Decayed organic material turns into dark available to plants.
colored material called A. less
A. litter B. equally
B. clay C. more
C. humus D. none of above
D. soil 488. How do scientists classify different types
482. Which type of soil does water have diffi- of soil?
culty moving through easily? A. Scientists classify soil into major
A. Sandy groups based on climate, plants, and soil
composition.
B. Humus
B. Scientists classify soil into groups
C. Loam based on where they are in the country
D. Clay and what kind of animal bones are in it.

1.2 Soil science 53
C. Scientists classify soil into groups 494. Name the Climatic factors that can affect
based on what Lowe’s it came from. soil.

D. none of above A. Temperature
B. Temperature and wind
489. This is the nutrient that plants depend
upon most for water uptake C. Wind and rain
D. Temperature, wind and rain
A. Phosphorous
B. Potassium 495. To break down organic matter to become
part of the soil.
C. All of the above
A. nutrients
B. materials
490. Conservation plowing is C. decompose
A. not plowing the soil before planting D. decompress
new crops 496. The cells produced via meiosis are called:
B. plowing the soil 8-12 inches deep to al- A. sex cells
low air and water to penetrate
B. somatic cells
C. when strips of legumes and strips of
C. body cells
row crops are planted
D. skin cells
D. none of above
497. There are processes in chemical weath-
491. Humus is made up of what materials? ering, distinguish which process did this
A. small bits of shells and bones statement belongs “incorporation of wa-
ter molecules into the structure of miner-
B. decomposing plants and animals als”.
C. quartz and feldspar minerals A. Hydrolysis
D. silt and clay B. Hydration
C. Carbonazation
492. About how much of soils volume is made
up of solid material? D. Oxidation
A. all 498. What does soil consist of?

B. a quarter A. Animal Remains
B. Dead Plants
C. half
C. Fungi
D. none
D. All of the above
493. Organic matter is made of materials that
499. Which is not a type of soil?
A. Were once living A. Loam
B. Were once nonliving B. Sand
C. Were once living and nonliving C. Dirt
D. none of above D. Silt

1.2 Soil science 54
500. When there are not enough plants to hold B. Physical weathering
topsoil in place, water and carry the C. Mechanical weathering
topsoil away, leaving the subsoil exposed
D. Cultural weathering
A. sunlight
505. In alternate leaf patterns, how many
B. birds
leaves are produced at each node?
C. magnetic fields A. two
D. wind B. three
NARAYAN CHANGDER
501. Which of the following terms best de- C. zero
scribes a collection of many techniques D. one
currently used to genetically improve
plants? 506. Which of the following is a quantitative
trait?
A. agriculture biotechnology
A. flower color
B. micro-propagation
B. seed yield
C. genetic engineering
C. pod shape
D. conventional genetics
D. stem length
502. Which of these BEST describes the prop- 507. Which particle holds the least amount of
erties of clay-rich soils? water?
A. medium sized particles, very good A. Clay
drainage, feels rough and gritty
B. Silt
B. small particles, good drainage, feels
C. Sand
like flour
D. none of above
C. different sized particles, good
drainage, rich in organic matter 508. The name for plants that have “identifi-
D. very small particles, poor drainage, able flowers” and produce enclosed seed
feels sticky when wet is:
A. Gymnosperms
503. Which type of soil is best for growing
B. Angiosperms
plants and has the remains of decayed
plants and animals? C. Bryophyta
A. sand D. Thallophyta
B. clay 509. Topography is the arrangement of the

natural and artificial physical features of
C. gravel
an area. The following are the effects of
D. humus topography in soil formation EXCEPT.
504. Weathering is the process of physical and A. It can enhance or retard the effect of
chemical alteration of rocks and minerals climate on soil formation
at or near the earth surface. Which of the B. May affect the absorbance of solar en-
following did water molecules incorporate ergy in a given landscape
into the structure of minerals belongs? C. It ca inhibit the structure of soil in the
A. Chemical weathering area

1.2 Soil science 55
D. Steep slopes generally enhance soil 515. Soil is a mixture of

erosion and decrease soil infiltration A. air, minerals and water
hence slowing down soil formation

B. living and non-living things
510. What makes up the scientific name of an C. sand, silt, clay and nutrients
organism?
D. all of the above
A. Kingdom and Phylum
516. Bedrock is made of
B. Family and Genus
A. humus, living things, and decaying
C. Genus and Species
plants
D. none of above B. large rocks
511. If you want to make your soil better for C. sand particles and clay
plant growth what can you do to fix the D. dirt and worms
soil?
517. Soils have ——- layers.
A. Add clay
A. 2
B. Add subsoil
B. 1
C. Add nutrients
C. 5
D. Take away air
D. none of above
512. Which soil can be compacted to higher
density? 518. Which of the following is not a type of
soil?
A. Poorly graded sand
A. minerals
B. Well graded very gravelly SAND
B. clay
C. Uniform silty soil
C. topsoil
D. Clay of high plasticity
D. sand
513. Choose which of the following master 519. Name the layer that is between sand and
horizon did topmost mineral matter oc- clay
curs?
A. Silt
A. Horizon O
B. Humus
B. Horizon E
C. Gravel
C. Horizon A
D. Horizon B
520. Crop rotation can improve levels of or-
514. Glacial till is the soil deposited by ganic matter in the soil. This is when
A. wind A. The type of crops grown in a paddock
is changed regularly in a planned order.
B. water
B. Fast-growing crops are grown and
C. gravity
ploughed back into the soil before they
D. glaciers seed.

1.2 Soil science 56
C. Part of a crop not harvested for sale 526. You would probably find the most decom-
can be returned to the soil posers in the soil layer called
D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are A. topsoil
sown directly into the soil. B. loam
521. Which soil particle is the smallest? C. litter
A. Sand D. bedrock
B. Silt 527. Which of the following is the first step in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Clay mitosis?
A. anaphase
D. none of above
B. telophase
522. How is rice planted?
C. prophase
A. a seed drill D. metaphase
B. a seed spreader
528. This is a termed used for A, B and C hori-
C. a row planter zons.
D. it seeds itself A. Solum
523. What do we call the layers of soil? B. Regolith
A. Deposits C. Saprolite
B. Horizons D. Ligolith
C. Minerals 529. When a farmer has to use many different
pesticides to keep the same bug out of his
D. Rocks
crop we call it
524. Which statement about climate and A. pesticide overuse syndrome
weather is correct?
B. the chemical effect
A. Weather is the amount of precipitation C. pesticide syndrome
in an area, but climate takes other factors
into account. D. the treadmill effect
B. Climate is the same all over the globe 530. Which plant growth regulator is applied
and weather differs from place to place. to fields of fruit allowing them to ripen at
the same time for harvest?
C. Climate is the average weather of an
area. A. abscisic acid
D. Weather is the average climate over B. ethylene
a large area. Weather is the average cli- C. auxins
mate over a large area. D. gibberelins
525. Very fine mineral particles of soil 531. Which soil has high nutrient content?
A. Sand A. clayey soil
B. Silt B. sandy soil
C. Clay C. silty soil
D. Horizon D. loamy soil

1.2 Soil science 57
532. Which soil will allow the water to pass B. sand-clay-silt

through easily. C. silt-clay-sand

A. Clay
D. clay-silt-sand
B. Sand
537. It is considered as the basic structural
C. Silt
unit of soil.
D. none of above
A. Peds
533. What soil is best for growing plants? B. Aggregates
A. clay C. Land
B. sand D. Gravel
C. mud
538. What soil organisms like lime.
D. topsoil
A. beetles
534. Which of the following best describes
how soils are formed? B. ants
A. As plants and animals break down, the C. earthworms

carbon in their bodies turns into minerals D. none of above
that plants eat to survive.
539. What is true about silt?
B. Over thousands of years, rocks are
weathered down to small particles that A. silt has larger particles than sand and
mix with small amounts of decaying or- is sticky
ganic matter and living organisms. B. silt has smaller particles and holds wa-
C. As animals consume plants, they con- ter better than sand
vert the plant matter into minerals. The C. silt is made from humus and loam
feces from the animals then forms the soil.
D. plants grow well in silt because it holds
nutrients
D. Over thousands of years, carbon diox-
ide in the air converts into minerals that 540. Decomposition is
fall to the ground and form soil.
A. nature’s way of recycling.
535. When water dissolves minerals in one B. the breaking down of once living plants
layer of soil and moves them to another and animals.
this is called
C. decaying
A. fertilizing
D. all of the above
B. leaching
C. chemical erosion 541. How many layers does a typical soil pro-
file contain?
D. decomposing
A. 4 Layer
536. Which of the following is the correct or-
B. 5 Layers
der of soil particles in order of increasing
particle size? C. 15 Layers
A. clay-sand-silt D. 100 layers

1.2 Soil science 58
542. Where is the rough endoplasmic reticulum 548. Which is the top layer of soil?
located?
A. Loam
A. cytoplasm
B. Bedrock
B. ribosomes
C. Humus
C. nucleus
D. Parent Material
D. orange
549. What is the process of rocks being broken
NARAYAN CHANGDER
543. The organic matter in humus is made of
down over time called?
A. dead worms
B. stems A. Weathering
C. roots B. Accumulation
D. all of the above C. Condensation
544. This type of soil does not hold water D. Evaporation

A. Loam 550. Which of the following is the combination
B. Sand of two different copies of an allele for a
C. Clay gene?
D. none of above A. homozygous dominant genotype
545. Which type of soil is a mixture of the B. heredity

other types of soil? C. homozygous recessive gentoype
A. Sand D. heterozygous genotype
B. Loam
551. If you increase the surface area of a rock,
C. Silt
how will it affect the rate at which it
D. Clay weathers?
546. This type of soil is grainy, light brown, A. It will weather more quickly.
and would be the size of a basketball in
B. It will have no effect because surface
comparison to other soils.
area is not a factor in weathering.
A. sand
C. It will weather more slowly.
B. clay
D. It will have no effect because a rock
C. humus
does not have a surface area.
D. loam
552. What percent of a U.S. landfill is made up
547. Some soils have particles which allow
of food scraps and yard clippings?
water to drain very easily.
A. 25%
A. small
B. large B. 18%
C. medium C. 11%
D. rough D. 5%

1.2 Soil science 59
553. Which of the following is the species 559. In soil the air present comes from
name for soybeans? A. the atmosphere

A. Zea mays B. respiration of soil organisms.
B. Glyxine max C. the atmosphere and from respiration
C. Solanum tuberosum of soil organisms.
D. Malus domestica D. water
554. Soil is a loose mixture of: 560. Which of these phases of mitosis take
place first?
A. Organic materials.
A. anaphase
B. Organic and inorganic materials.
B. telophase
C. Dead and decaying micro organisms.
C. prophase
D. none of above
D. metaphase
555. What effect do plans roots have on a
561. Phosphate deficiency is seen by what col-
rock?
oring of the plant?
A. They hold it together
A. purple
B. They made it turn to sand
B. bluish
C. They cause it to undergo chemical C. brown
changes
D. yellow
D. They break it apart
562. After heavy rain, the percent water re-
556. Under the subsoil layer is a layer of rock maining in soil 2 to 3 days after filled
called up and after free drainage has practically
A. bedrock ceased.
B. this is too hard Alby A. Field capacity
C. parent rock B. Hydroscopic coefficient
D. none of the above C. Saturation point
D. Permanent wilting point
557. Which is NOT a sign of poor drainage
A. Surface water 563. Which of the following is the most com-
mon plant part used to identify plants?
B. yellow leaves
A. roots
C. Rushes, buttercups and other weeds
B. stems
D. soil warms quickly
C. flowers
558. Plants cannot grow without D. leaves
A. rocks
564. What are plants?
B. soil A. living things like radishes, trees, roses,
C. moss and grass
D. pesticides B. rocks in soil

1.2 Soil science 60
C. animals 570. Horizon O had three sub-horizons

namely: Oi, Oe and Oa. Choose which
D. none of above
of the following is the correct paired of
sample according to the decomposition.
565. Calculate the dry density of the soil, if
the bulk density is 2.0 Mg/m3 and Water A. Oi- hemic
content is 20%. B. Oa- fibric
A. 0.09 Mg/m3 C. Oe- sapric
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2.4 Mg/m3 D. Oi- fibric
C. 0.6 Mg.m3 571. If erosion occurs, which of the following
D. 1.67 Mg/m3 negative effects may happen?
A. landslides
566. Which one of these uses the nutrients in B. destruction of homes and animal habi-
soil to grow tats
A. Plant matter C. pollutes water with soil
B. Weathering D. all of the above
C. Decompose 572. The soil containing greater portion of big
D. Trees particles is called -
A. Sandy soil
567. In which bin would you deposit a plastic
B. Loamy soil
toy?
C. Clayey soil
A. A
D. none of above
B. B
573. The layer of soil which the topsoil is
C. C
found.
D. D A. Horizon A
568. Which plant hormone is known as the B. Horizon B
stress hormone? C. Horizon C
A. auxins D. Horizon D or R
B. ethylene 574. Which are the two main climatic factors
C. cytokinins responsible for soil formation?
A. Ocean currents and Temperature
D. abscisic acid
B. Temperature and Rainfall
569. what do we call dirt C. Humidity and Rainfall
A. air D. None of the above
B. soil 575. Soils form in layers, or
C. water A. top soils
D. ice B. mixtures

1.2 Soil science 61
C. horizons 581. What does retain mean?

D. levels A. to hold in

B. to let fall out
576. This is the largest soil particle
A. Clay C. to decompose
B. Silt D. to dissolve
C. Sand 582. Returning crop stubble can improve lev-

D. Loam els of organic matter in the soil. This is
when
577. is the type of soil used most often A. The type of crops grown in a paddock
with plants and on farms. It is a mixture is changed regularly in a planned order.
of clay, sand, and silt.
B. Fast-growing crops are grown and
A. humus ploughed back into the soil before they
B. soil seed.
C. loam C. Part of a crop not harvested for sale

can be returned to the soil
D. dirt
D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are
578. This refers to a type of water that can sown directly into the soil.
escape from the soil.
583. The is what we call all three horizons
A. capillary and the bedrock together.
B. hygroscopic A. soil layers
C. flowing B. top soil
D. gravitational C. sub soil
579. What are small organelles found in large D. loam soil
numbers in the cytoplasm of a cell?
584. Which soil would retain the least amount
A. vacuoles
of water?
B. mitochondria
A. gravel
C. ribosomes
B. silt
D. chloroplasts
C. sand
580. Which of the following involves the com- D. clay
bination of two haploid sex cells to create
an individual? 585. The rock which soaks water is
A. Asexual reproduction A. permeable
B. Sexual reproduction B. impermeable
C. Vegetative propagation C. Marble
D. Induced propagation D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 62
586. Agents of weathering of 592. Most plant roots grow in the

A. Heat A. A horizon
B. Wind B. B horizon
C. Rain C. C horizon
D. All of the above D. D horizon
593. The remains of something that was once
587. Which soil feels sticky when wet?
alive.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. sand A. pores
B. loam B. abiota
C. clay C. organic matter
D. none of above D. decomposition
588. This has the smallest amount of pore 594. This land is capable of a wide variety of
space for air and water agricultural uses that involve regular cul-
tivation where in fact, the easiest land to
A. Clay
farm. Which land and soil class does it re-
B. Silt fer to?
C. Sand A. Land and Soil Capability Class 8
D. Loam B. Land and Soil Capability Class 3
C. Land and Soil Capability Class 2
589. Which of the following shows where soil
formation happens at a faster rate? D. Land and Soil Capability Class 1
A. Cold dry climate 595. There are three classes of rocks, iden-
B. Steep slopes tify which of the following did magma be-
longs?
C. Valleys and flat areas
A. Sedimentary rocks
D. none of above
B. Igneous rocks
590. The process by which minerals in soil are C. Metamorphic rocks
removed or washed away is called D. Intrusive rocks
A. carbonation
596. An example of an angiosperm is
B. leaching
A. pine tree
C. fertilizing B. sunflower
D. hydrolysis C. moss
591. Why do nonvascular plants grow close to D. fern
the ground? 597. Which layer of soil has the most humus?
A. to get less sunlight A. topsoil
B. for protection B. subsoil
C. for space C. bedrock
D. to absorb water D. none of above

1.2 Soil science 63
598. Which Method involves taking parts C. Parent material is the substance
(leaves, stem, etc) and placing them where water gets contaminated
in growing media to develop into new

D. Parent material is air, plants and wa-
plants?
ter
A. Cuttings
B. Division 603. Name the particles that is smallest in
size
C. Tissue Culture
A. Silt
D. Grafting
B. Sand
599. What is weathering?
C. Gravel
A. Layer of soil
B. An example of a mineral D. Clay
C. The breaking down of larger rocks 604. It is important for soil to retain water to
D. none of above A. withstand weathering
600. How is mechanical weathering different B. erode more slowly
from chemical weathering?
C. help plants to grow
A. Chemical weathering happens over
much shorter time frame than mechanical D. keep it from being dry
weathering.
605. Soil is made of small
B. Chemical weathering changes the
chemical composition of rocks; mechan- A. icicles
ical weathering does not. B. particles
C. Chemical weathering occurs only in
C. plastics
tropical climates; mechanical weathering
occurs only in cool climates. D. bricks
D. Chemical weathering occurs only in
the mountains; mechanical weathering oc- 606. What is the layer of rock that is below
curs only on flat land. the soil?
A. subsoil
601. When grafting the part that becomes the
stem and leaves is the B. topsoil
A. Union C. humus
B. Scion D. bedrock
C. Style
607. What do plants and animals need to
D. Ovary
grow?
602. Define Parent material. A. nutrients
A. Parent material is the substance from B. soil
which humus is formed
C. loam
B. Parent material is the substance from
which soil is formed. D. humus

1.2 Soil science 64
608. Which of the following is NOT something 614. Which of the following is a native species
provided by organic matter? in Connecticut?
A. Greater access to nutrients A. white walnuts
B. Reduces risk of erosion & compaction B. black walnuts
C. Serves as an energy soure of plant’s
C. butternut walnuts
food
D. persian walnuts
D. Sequesters carbon in the soil, reduc-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing GHG
615. Chemical weathering occurs at a greater
609. In what type of climate is Chemical rate in climates that are
weathering more rapid? A. cold and wet
A. wet
B. warm and wet
B. hot
C. hot and dry
C. both A & B
D. cold and dry
D. Neither A nor B
610. The strength of a ped is called its 616. Which element makes plant green?
A. structure A. Potassium
B. structure type B. Nitrogen
C. structure grade C. Phosphorus
D. structure class D. Magnesium
611. Which of the following is not an example
617. There are two types of igneous rocks
of mechanical weathering
(intrusive and extrusive), assess the two
A. reaction with carbonic acid types of igneous rocks.
B. animal action A. Intrusive rocks are those rocks that
C. freezing and thawing reaches the earth surface, while extrusive
D. plant action rocks are those rocks found below the
earth surface.
612. Roots absorb which of the following?
B. Intrusive rocks are those rocks that
A. sunlight found above the horizons, while extrusive
B. pests rocks are those rocks found below the soil
horizons.
C. water and nutrients
C. Extrusive rocks are those rocks that
D. water and sunlight
reach the earth surface, while intrusive
613. There are types of soil rocks are those rocks found below the
earth surface.
A. 4
B. 5 D. Extrusive rocks are those rocks that
found above the horizons, while intrusive
C. 3 rocks are those rocks found below the soil
D. none of above horizons.

1.2 Soil science 65
618. Which property of soil can be de- C. Species

scribed with the words, “smooth, ” and D. none of above
“rough”?

A. Shape 624. The soil containing same amount of large
and small particles is called-
B. Texture
A. Sandy soil
C. Size
B. Loamy soil
D. none of above
C. Clayey soil
619. All of the layers of soil together can be
called a D. none of above
A. profile 625. Determine the moisture content of the

B. horizon soil. Given the mass of the wet soil = 450
g, the mass of dry soil = 353 g.
C. row
A. 78 %
D. layer
B. 22 %
620. What is the land class that restricts the
C. 27 %
use of plants?
D. 12%
A. Class 2
B. Class 3 626. ’A horizon’ is also called
C. Class 5 A. Substratum
D. Class 7 B. Bedrock
621. This type of soil is carried by water and C. Topsoil
left as sediment. D. Subsoil
A. bedrock
627. What type of soil has the smallest parti-
B. loam cles?
C. silt A. Clay
D. clay B. Peaty
622. Physically breaking down rocks and ma- C. Silt
terials is called weathering.
D. Sandy
A. Chemical
628. How is the air found in soils different
B. Mechanical
from the air in the atmosphere?
C. Biological
A. Has no humid all Carbon Dioxide
D. Permeable
B. Much more humid and moist and is rich
623. Which name starts with a lower case let- in carbon dioxide but has less oxygen
ter? C. Much more humid and moist and is rich
A. Common Name in Oxygen but has less Carbon Dioxide
B. Genus D. Has no humid all Oxygen

1.2 Soil science 66
629. The Midwest Regions’ economic value B. Topsoil

of crops equal what percent of the total C. Subsoil
United States’ agricultural products?
D. Partly weathered rock
A. 26
B. 83 635. It is a dynamic natural body that com-
posed of minerals and organic materials in
C. 70
which plant grow. This is called
D. 58
A. Land
NARAYAN CHANGDER
630. Often phrased as an “If, Then” state- B. Soil
ment, this is an educated guess for a so-
C. Minerals
lution to a scientific problem.
D. Nutrients
A. solution
B. hypothesis 636. In which state is corn often grown for
silage?
C. answer
A. Pennsylvania
D. fact
B. Vermont
631. Which type of soil is characterized as
having the finest particles holding greater C. New York
amount of water? D. New Hampshire
A. Loam 637. This is the most ideal soil for plant
B. Clay growth and productivity
C. Sand A. Clay
D. none of above B. Silt
632. There are approximately how many dif- C. Sand
ferent kinds of soil in the United States? D. Loam
A. 5 types
638. Most of the lime that is applied is calcium
B. 10 types carbonate. This is finely ground limestone.
C. 1, 000 types Adding lime makes the soil acid and
the pH.
D. 100 types
A. less raises
633. Soil erosion is the process by which the
B. more raises
A. the land surface(top soil) is removed
C. less lowers
by wind, water or ice
D. more lowers
B. formation of soil form rocks
C. rusting of soil 639. The four main ingredients of soil are
D. None of the above A. wind, water, ice, and humus
634. Which is the upper, outermost layer of B. water, air, rocks, and humus
soil, usually the top 5-10 inches? C. worms, ice, rocks, and air
A. Bedrock D. water, air, rocks, and worms

1.2 Soil science 67
640. Soil is formed by the breaking down of 645. is the process of rocks breaking down
rocks by the action of wind, water and cli- and becoming other rocks.
mate. This process is called

A. erosion
A. Humification
B. weathering
B. Weathering
C. Soil erosion C. rock cycle
D. None of the above D. water cycle
641. No water stays in this when poured 646. Which particle reduces the water holding
through. capacity of soil?
A. loam
A. Sand
B. clay
B. Silt
C. gravel
D. topsoil C. Clay
D. none of above
642. Physical weathering is the alteration of
the physical properties of the materials
647. The rotting dead matter in the soil is
without changing its chemical composition.
called-
All of this are the processes of physical
weathering EXCEPT. A. Humus
A. Unloading of erosion B. Gravel
B. Diurnal fluctuation in temperature
C. Sand
C. Alternate freezing and thawing
D. none of above
D. Solidification of materials due to heavy
rain
648. Weathering is the process of physical and
643. Which of the following processes will chemical alteration of rocks or minerals at
most likely contribute to the development or near the earth surface. Which of the fol-
of soil? lowing did crystallization of salts belong?
A. Volcanic eruptions that make new land A. Chemical weathering
B. Physical weathering
B. Building up of snow in very cold areas
C. Mechanical weathering
C. Breaking down of rock by wind, water,
and ice D. Cultural weathering
D. Migration of animals to warmer cli-
mates 649. Soil give ——– to the plant.
644. Cross-sectional view of soil A. Air

A. Profile B. Sunlight
B. Horizon C. Nutrients
C. Master Horizons D. Leaves 3 types of soil, clay and organic
D. Leached !

1.2 Soil science 68
650. Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand. B. Fast-growing crops are grown and
She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty ploughed back into the soil before they
and the ball falls apart. What property of seed.
soil is Ellen testing? C. Part of a crop not harvested for sale
A. color can be returned to the soil
B. texture D. The soil is not cultivated, but seeds are
C. ability to support plant growth sown directly into the soil.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. water retention 656. It is important for soil to hold water to
651. dig through the soil which loosens it A. withstand weathering

so plants grow better. B. erode more slowly
A. Ladybugs C. help plants to grow
B. Earthworms D. keep it from being dry
C. Caterpillars
657. GMO stands for
D. Dogs
A. Genetically modified organism
652. The breaking down of rocks into smaller B. Genetically made organism
pieces.
C. Generically made organ
A. erosion
D. Generically modified organism
B. weathering
C. sediment 658. Where do plants get minerals from
D. sand A. soil
B. rain
653. The shape of a ped is called its
C. sun
A. structure
D. animals
B. structure type
C. structure grade 659. The middle layer of soil in a soil profile is
called the
D. structure class
A. bedrock
654. Loam is clumpy, dark and has , ,
B. parent rock
C. subsoil
A. clay, silt, and sand
D. topsoil
B. bark, mud, and dirt
C. plants, mud, and bark 660. How do organisms affect soils?
D. none of above A. Soil get eaten by animals
B. Chemically alters and physically mixes
655. Green manuring can improve levels of or-
soils
ganic matter in the soil. This is when
A. The type of crops grown in a paddock C. Plants grow through the soil
is changed regularly in a planned order. D. Organism don’t affect the soils

1.2 Soil science 69
661. Which of the following crops are grown 667. Soil profile refers to an arrangement
primarily to provide feed for livestock? within a soil of -

A. field crops A. Its horizontal layout
B. forage crops B. Vertical layout
C. row crops C. Size of soil particles
D. vegetable crops D. none of above
662. What two things determine the property 668. The B horizon is
of the soil created?
A. rockier than the C horizon
A. the particle weight and climate
B. richer in humus than the A horizon
B. the particle size and type of parent ma-
C. less nutrient rich than the A horizon
terial
C. the particles biota and topography D. thicker than the C horizon
D. the particle color and shape 669. What is the main thing you need to stop
or minimise to make your house energy ef-
663. Soil is composed of all of these natural ficient?
materials EXCEPT
A. Heat gain and heat loss
A. weathered rock
B. Water gain and water loss
B. plant matter
C. Use of appliances
C. plastic substances
D. Heat from the sun
D. animal remains
670. Which soil do plants grow best in?
664. Which type of soil has a reddish brown
color? A. clay
A. sand B. silt
B. loam C. loam
C. clay D. sand
D. none of above 671. It is made up of small grains:
665. At one time or another, most rocks A. Loamy Soil
become B. Sandy Soil
A. igneous
C. Clayey Soil
B. metamorphic
D. none of above
C. sedimentary
672. What are the components of soil?
D. all the above
A. Dirt, Plants, Minerals, Water
666. Which plant can be planted in sand?
B. Climate and Weather
A. paddy plant
C. Minerals, rocks, inorganic materials,
B. mango tree organic materials, water, air
C. rose plant D. Sun, Grass, Materials, Rock, Sunlight,
D. coconut tree and Oxygen

1.2 Soil science 70
673. Which method is suitable to obtain the 678. In the early 1700s, a farmer named
field density for silt & clay Charles Townsend experimented with
A. Sand replacement method A. growing plants without water
B. Core cutter method B. how different rocks melt
C. Field compaction using grid roller C. turning rocks into soil
D. Field compaction using the smooth D. crop rotation
wheeled roller
NARAYAN CHANGDER
679. what word fits w/ soil that is made up
of about equal parts of clay, sand, and silt
674. Which part of the flower is the pedun-
cle? A. litter
A. flower stem B. decomposers
B. leaves C. subsoil
C. roots D. loam
D. carrot 680. How do you determine the texture of

soil?
675. If the amount of mineral matter is 43%
A. use a spring scale
and the water is 7%, how much the avail-
ability of organic matter and the soil Air B. observe color of particles
present in the soil sample? C. rub particles between fingers
A. 25% and 25% respectively D. taste particles
B. 43% and 7% respectively 681. Soil conservation includes all of the fol-
C. 7% and 43% respectively lowing EXCEPT
D. 50% and 50% respectively A. Desertification
B. Contour plowing
676. definition of “soil horizon”
C. vegetative cover
A. a layer of soil that differs in color and
texture from the layers above or below it D. Crop rotation
B. a dark-colored substance that forms 682. The Humus layer in soil is also known
as plant and animal remains decay as the because it is composed of dead
plant and animal remains
C. a crumbly, dark brown soil that is a
mixture of humus, clay, other minerals A. organic layer
D. the solid layer of rock beneath the soil B. decomposed layer
C. topsoil
677. Which of the following is a cool season
crop? D. subsoil
A. egglpant 683. When rain falls, water passes through

the soil, washing minerals, humus and nu-
B. tomatoes
trients from the A horizon into the B hori-
C. potatoes zon. This process is called?
D. pumpkins A. Leaching

1.2 Soil science 71
B. Washing out 689. What type of soil water is used by

plants?
C. Deforestation

A. hygroscopic
D. Transportation
B. capillary
684. What process breaks down bedrock to be- C. gravitational
gin soil formation?
D. all types of soil water
A. leaching
690. where do plants get light from?
B. weathering
A. sun
C. decomposition
B. sea
D. humus
C. star
685. What is the total value of the food crops D. school
exported annually from Vermont?
691. layer of soil is not porous
A. $3.8 million
A. Subsoil
B. $1 million
B. Substratum
C. $464.8 million C. Top soil
D. $22.9 million D. Bedrock
686. The practice of planting different things 692. soil has black color and its best for grow-
each year, in order to maintain the nutri- ing plants
ents in the soil of a field.
A. clay
A. soil rotation B. sand
B. soil conservation C. organic
C. crop managing D. none of above
D. crop rotation 693. Students poured 400 mL of water
through a soil sample. They collected and
687. What can erosion lead to?
measured the water that drained out of
A. landslides the soil. The water collected had a volume
of 210 mL. How much water did the soil
B. pollution
retain?
C. flooding
A. 210mL
D. all of the above B. 190mL
688. Which soil is good for farming? C. 200mL
A. Clay D. 210mL
B. Silty 694. what is word fits w/ the organisms that

break the remains of dead organisms into
C. Peat
smaller pieces and digest them with chem-
D. Sandy icals

1.3 Horticulture 72
A. subsoil 699. Humus is formed from rotting

B. humus A. Clay and soil
C. loam B. Animal and plants
D. decomposers C. Wood and rocks
695. Which of the following is a macronutri- D. none of above

ent? 700. Which horizon has smaller rock and min-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. iron eral particles than the other layers?
B. boron A. A
C. calcium B. B
D. manganese C. C
D. D
696. condition of not having enough food or
not having the right kind of food for good 701. Which of these is made of smallest parti-
health cles of rocks, decayed matter of plants and
A. Malnutrition animals?
B. Pesticide A. A. Clay
C. Nutrition B. B. Loam
D. Food Waste C. Silt
D. Sand
697. Which primary plant nutrient promotes
strong root growth in young seedlings? 702. Which of the following soil types would
A. Phosphorus contain the most nutrients?
B. Potassium A. Soil with many large rock particles
C. Nitrogen B. Soil with bedrock close to the surface
D. Iron C. soil that drains well through it
D. soil with decomposed organic material
698. is the upper layer of soil on the sur-
face of Earth that is dark in color and has 703. Which is another name for a non-vascular
the smallest particles. plant?
A. topsoil A. Bryophyte
B. humus B. gymnosperm
C. subsoil C. angiosperm
D. none of above D. seedless vascular plant
1.3 Horticulture
1. Hannah is hardening off some tomatoes A. fertilizer and air
started in the greenhouse. Which is she
reducing to harden off her plants?
B. humidity and water

1.3 Horticulture 73
C. lime and phosphate 7. A large deciduous tree that has greenish-

D. soil and fertilizer yellow flowers in early spring before it
has leaves and 2” to 3” winged samara

2. What occurs when sperm enters the ovule fruit is the:
to combine with the egg?
A. Japanese yew.
A. fertlization
B. Norway maple.
B. pollination
C. Norway spruce.
C. stem cutting
D. Savannah holly.
D. tuber
8. have no separate subcellular units. Ex-
3. Plants that complete their life cycles in two
amples include bacteria and blue-green al-
years are:
gae.
A. annuals
A. organelle
B. biennials
B. eukaryotic
C. minerals
C. cytoplasm
D. perennials
D. prokaryotic
4. Forcing roots to develop while the plant is
still connected to the parent plant prior to 9. FFA helps students develop leadership be-
separation is known as: yond the class, local school chapter, and
federation. What is the first level of par-
A. cutting
ticipation above the federation level?
B. grafting
A. International
C. layering
B. National FFA Organization
D. budding
C. North Carolina FFA Association
5. In which part of a foundational SAE would D. Region
Avery create a risk assessment of a sweet
potato packing facility? 10. On each side of a school parking lot,
A. personal finance management and Glenn observed medium-size deciduous
planning trees that have white flowers in spring
and reddish purple leaves in autumn. They
B. career exploration and planning
grow in a symmetrical shape with little or
C. agricultural literacy no pruning. These trees are:
D. workplace safety A. border forsythias
6. Which is the first type of landscape plan B. bradford pears
that uses free form shapes to show plants C. dwarf burfod
and buildings to help the designer with the
layout? D. japanese aucubas
A. functional 11. Something tangible of value that a person
B. preliminary owns is:
C. final A. a liability.
D. none of above B. Ban asset.

1.3 Horticulture 74
C. equity C. small sprays of flowers

D. .net worth D. unique colors or shapes
12. Pores in the leaf’s surface are 18. A shallow circular transparent dish with
flat lid, that has wet paper and solu-
A. stomata
tion containing the seeds that should be
B. stomates grown.
C. stigmas A. Rag-doll method
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Both a and b B. Seed box method
13. Plant roots take water from the soil C. Petri dish method
through the process of: D. Floating in water method
A. absorption 19. What part of the plant attracts bees to aid
B. photosynthesis in pollination?
C. reproduction A. Petals
D. respiration B. Sepals
C. Stamen
14. The female part of the flower is called
what? D. none of above
A. Pistil 20. What is the texture of soils that have

about equal parts of sand, clay, and silt?
B. Stamen
A. clayey
C. Petal
B. loamy
D. none of above
C. sandy
15. How many areas of the horticulture indus- D. silty
try are there?
A. 1 21. When compared to the amount of oxygen
produced in the process of photosynthesis,
B. 5 the amount of oxygen used in plant respi-
C. 3 ration is:
D. 7 A. about the same
B. less
16. A plant that completes its life cycle in two
years C. more
A. forestry D. much more
B. turgid 22. device that ensures water from irrigation

system does not return to main water
C. perennial
source
D. biennial
A. remote control valves
17. Line flowers used in floral designs have: B. contoler
A. florets blooming on tall spikes C. back flow preventer
B. flowers on the end of stems D. cycle

1.3 Horticulture 75
23. Plant production provides for how many C. Parenchyma Tissue

American jobs?
D. Cork tissue

A. More than 5.5 million
B. More than 7 million 29. Which part of biology deals with plants?
C. More than 1.3 million A. oncologists
D. More than 1.9 million B. gardener

C. Botany
24. Which type of landscape plan will likely
be changed several times to include clients D. horticulture
wishes
30. Which branch primarily contains walk-
A. bubble diagram
ways, ponds, outdoor accents such as foun-
B. construction plan tains, and color coordination in planting to
C. final plan abide with the center of focus?
D. preliminary design A. Interiorscaping

B. Landscape Design
25. Which of the following is NOT a form of
propagation? C. Horticulture
A. pruning D. Agronomy
B. cuttings
31. Who is responsible for displaying and sell-
C. grafting ing bedding plants?
D. tissue culture A. Garden center employee
26. The science of growing fruit B. Greenskeeper
A. Landscape/Nursery C. Landscape designer
B. Pomology D. Lawn maintenance employer
C. Olericulture
32. What does a “3 point contact” mean when
D. Floriculture climbing on the ladder?
27. From the time a seed is planted until the A. using two hands and a foot
time that a seed is produced is known as B. using two feet and a hand
A. Growth Cycle
C. using two hands and a foot or two feet
B. Dormancy and a hand
C. Life Cycle D. Using two feet and an elbow
D. Plant Cycle
33. A soil test report will include:
28. conducts food and metabolites from A. cost of fertilizer
the leaves to the stem, flowers, roots, and
storage organs. B. cost of lime
A. Phloem C. recommended planting time
B. Xylem D. suggested fertilizer rate

1.3 Horticulture 76
34. Which foliage plant has yellow and orange C. an attractant

in its leaves? D. pollination for the flower
A. Amaryllis
40. Botany is the study of
B. croton
A. Plants
C. peony
B. Animals
D. snapdragn
C. Insects
NARAYAN CHANGDER
35. What type of work does Aaron do as he D. Bottles
works in landscape maintenance?
41. when something repeats itself enough
A. Cares for the landscape
times with a standard distance between
B. Designs, installs, and contracts the repetitions, a rhythm is established
landscape
A. simplicity
C. Designs landscape plans
B. rythum and line
D. Installs landscape plants
C. unity
36. Rory is studying the pH scale. What num- D. proportion
ber represents neutral?
42. Which type of garden saves the MOST
A. 3 space for the most plants?
B. 5 A. Vertical
C. 7 B. Flat Bed
D. 9 C. Container
37. What type of immersion SAE is Monica D. Raised bed
completing by working at a local garden
center? 43. The proper time of the year to plant warm-
season lawn grasses is:
A. analytical
A. fall
B. placement
B. spring
C. service learning
C. summer
D. entrepreneurship
D. winter
38. Which branches involve the principles of
44. When is it best to Harvest Peaches?
horticulture and placement of plants?
A. May - September
A. Floriculture, Landscape Design
B. July Only
B. Landscape Design, Interiorscaping
C. May only
C. Interiorscaping, Floriculture
D. August- March
D. Floriculture, Agronomy
45. , the economic system of the United States,
39. The seed endosperm provides allows people to do business with a mini-
A. protection to the embryo mum of government interference
B. food for the embryo A. A. Sole proprietorship

1.3 Horticulture 77
B. B. Incorporation C. Software tools

C. C. Capitalism D. none of above

D. D. Free enterprise 51. Which of the following is not an economic
value of horticulture?
46. Sheri’s Supervised Agricultural Experience
is to identify an agricultural problem that A. Increases values of homes through
cannot be solved by experiments. It does landscaping
involve designing a plan to investigate and B. Cleans air
analyze the problem. What type of SAE is
C. Provides jobs
Sheri working on?
D. Produces food
A. analytical
B. entrepreneurship 52. During the plant sale we hit a time where
we don’t sell as many plants. We sell 90
C. experimental on day 15, 79 on day 16. If we sell on
D. exploratory 65 on day 17, what is our average plants
sold during the stretch of day 15 thru day
47. Lettuce is an example of which part of the 17?
plant?
A. 68
A. leaves
B. 78
B. stem
C. 88
C. roots
D. 117
D. none of above
53. Joey knows butterflies cause little or no
48. The type of pruning a landscape mainte- damage to his plants. The basis for his
nance worker uses to cut old branches back opinion is most likely because butterflies
to the ground is: have what type of mouthparts?
A. heading back. A. Chewing
B. renewal. B. Piercing and sucking
C. root C. Rasping and sucking
D. thinning D. Siphoning
49. Why is a wilted plant limp? 54. Which pH reading is alkaline?

A. it does not have enough moisture A. 1
B. filled with moisture B. 3
C. it got knocked over C. 6

D. 9
D. a certain breed of bird likes to stand
on it 55. The cultivation of flowers
50. Governments can predict areas of food in- A. Olericulture
security and vulnerability using B. Viticulture
A. Poverty C. Floriculture
B. Employment level D. Horticulture

1.3 Horticulture 78
56. Which is the best growing media if an in- A. Adult education

organic media is desired? B. Classroom instruction
A. leaf mold C. FFA
B. perlite D. Supervised Agricultural Experience
C. sawdust
62. The high carbon-to-nitrogen ratio of non-
D. wood shavings
decomposed sawdust and wood shavings
57. The science and practice of growing, har- affects nitrogen in growing media by:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
vesting, storing, processing and marketing A. acting as a fertilizer
tree grown fruits is:
B. increasing availability for plant use
A. pomology
C. making it unavailable for plant use
B. olericulture
D. stimulating plant growth
C. horticulture
63. Water enters and exits the guard cells by:
D. Viticulture
A. osmosis
58. What is the genus name for all hollies?
B. photosynthesis
A. Quercus
C. diffusion
B. Acer
D. active transport
C. Cornus
D. Ilex 64. Applying half of the material in one direc-
tion and the other half at a 90 degree an-
59. Small, deciduous tree with heart-shaped gle from the first pass is used when:
leaves, three- to five-inch long brown A. Sodding
bean-type pods, and pink-purple colored
seasonal flowers is an: B. Sprigging
A. ajuga C. Sowing
B. japanese maple D. Plugging
C. eastern redbud 65. low volume emission device that waters
D. red oak the entire hydrozone and operates simi-
larly to a conventional spray head but at
60. If DeShawn bought a tropical that has a much lower flow rates
thick, rounded leaf, he most likely pur-
A. sprinkles
chased a/an:
B. drip irrigation
A. jade plant
C. emitter
B. aglaonema
C. false aralia D. micro spray
D. red-edged dracaena. 66. Which of the following is not one of the

four distinct processes of chemical weath-
61. The component of a high school agriculture ering?
education program that provides a part-
time job for students to gain work expe- A. exfoliation
rience to help in career planning is B. hydrolysis

1.3 Horticulture 79
C. hydration 72. Area of horticulture that involves the pro-

D. dissolution duction of vegetable crops

A. Floriculture
67. What is the female part of the flower
B. Olericulture
called?
C. Pomology
A. pistil
D. Landscape Horticulture
B. stamen
C. leaf 73. Information technology plays a significant
role in achieving
D. petal
A. Poverty
68. The horticulture industry allows producers B. education
to market their products:
C. sustainable development
A. Only during holidays
D. none of above
B. Only during summer months
74. plant is limp because it doesn’t have
C. Globally
enough moisture
D. Only in North Carolina
A. agronomy
69. The “unity” landscape design principle is B. botany
demonstrated by: C. wilted
A. foundation plantings D. evergreen
B. maintaining size relationships
75. The NFA stood for:
C. privacy fences
A. National Farmers of America
D. repeating plant species
B. New Farmers of American
70. As part of regular biological processes, a C. New Farmer Associations
deciduous tree:
D. New Farmers of America
A. dies each year in the winter.
76. Compared to entry level jobs, professional
B. keeps its functional leaves in the dor- careers usually require special licenses
mant season. and:
C. drops its functional leaves in the dor- A. less educatio
mant season.
B. more manual labor
D. remains green all year.
C. more outside work
71. Melanie finds aphids on her plant. She is D. more paperwork
most concerned the aphids will damage her
plants by: 77. The area of horticulture associated with
producing, transporting and using cut flow-
A. chewing
ers, potted plants, and annual bedding
B. piercing and sucking plants.
C. rasping and sucking A. Floriculture
D. sponging B. Forestry

1.3 Horticulture 80
C. Landscape 83. Which of the following is NOT an example

of PPE?
D. Design
A. Boots
78. Which type of immersion Supervised Agri- B. Long Sleeve Shirt
cultural Experience requires a research
C. Baseball cap
plan to include all safety requirements?
D. Safety Glasses
A. placement
84. Suzy has weeds that are hard to control in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. experimental
her lawn. These are examples of:
C. service learning A. Debris
D. school based enterprise B. Inert material
79. The gas form of an insecticide is a C. viable seeds

D. Noxious weeds
A. Wettable powder
85. What area of horticulture is concerned
B. Fumigant
with providing commercial source of
C. Granular plants?
D. Concentrate A. Nursery Production
B. Pomology
80. Which of the following is NOT a type of
pesticide? C. Turf grass management
D. Floriculture
A. Insecticide
B. Herbicide 86. This occurs after a tube grows down from
the pollen grain through the style to the
C. Fungicide ovary.
D. Plant Propagation A. pollination
B. germination
81. form flowers are used in floral design to:
C. fertilization
A. add mass
D. seed dispersal
B. cover frame
87. Cuttings, layering, division, grafting, and
C. create focal point tissue culture are all methods of what?
D. establish outline A. Sexual propagation
B. Asexual propagation
82. A speech about Hereford cattle given at
the annual meeting of purebred Angus cat- C. Trisexual propagation
tle breeders would be inappropriate be- D. Vegetables
cause of the:
88. What is the study of grapes?
A. audience
A. Viticulture
B. length of speech B. Forestry
C. location C. Olericulture
D. speaker D. Pomology

1.3 Horticulture 81
89. Which FFA CDE will help develop knowl- C. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
edge and skills needed to effectively par- D. Nitrogen, Calcium, Potassium
ticipate in a horticulture organization’s

business meeting? Hint: this process is 94. Within the research immersion SAE, which
used in most professional, government, of the following applies the scientific
and civic organizations. method?
A. Floriculture A. experimental
B. Introduction to Horticulture B. analysis
C. Nursery/Landscape C. invention
D. Parliamentary Procedure D. none of above

95. is the science and practice of growing,
90. The person planting hanging baskets can
processing and marketing fruits, vegeta-
plant 40 hanging baskets of petunias in
bles, and ornamental plants.
one hour. How many hanging baskets can
he plants in 90 minutes? A. Science
A. 45 B. Horticulture
B. 60 C. Marketing
C. 150 D. Agriculture
D. 360 96. When the plant roots or the entire plant

may be cut into sections to make two or
91. During a business meeting, Romero moved more plants from the original, what type
to enter a float in the homecoming parade. of asexual propagation is that?
Before action can take place, the motion
A. Separation
has to be:
B. Layering
A. amended
C. Grafting
B. defeated
D. Division
C. referred to a committee
97. Soil for container plant production should
D. seconded
be:
92. rock is generally unconsolidated and A. porous
composed of rock fragments that have
B. clayey
been transported and deposited by wind,
water, or glaciers. Limestone, sandstone, C. nonporous
and shale are examples D. sandy
A. metamorphic 98. A place which specializes in growing and
B. igneous caring for plants, shrubs and ornamental
trees that can later be transported to land-
C. bedrock
scape areas.
D. sedimentary
A. Nursery
93. Three primary nutrients B. House
A. Magnesium, Sulfur, Potassium C. Temple
B. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Calcium D. Fort

1.3 Horticulture 82
99. What type of work does Latoya do as a 104. The general rule for root pruning is 10”
landscape architect? of circle diameter for each 1” of plant stem
diameter. What diameter circle should be
A. Cares for plants after they are in-
made for a plant that has a 3” diameter
stalled
stem?
B. Constructs pools, fences, and drive-
A. 3”
ways
B. 5”
C. Installs landscape plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 10”
D. Plans and designs outdoor environ-
ments D. 30”
105. There has been a considerable rise in the

100. The government agency that is responsi-
income levels of families engaged in
ble for enforcing safety regulations in the
workplace is A. Livestock farming
A. CDC B. animal husbandry
B. FAA C. Horticulture production
C. DOT D. none of above
D. OSHA 106. The beginning of the food chain for all liv-
ing things is the process of photosynthesis
101. Which deciduous tree produces white which takes place in plant:
bracts after the leaves appear?
A. Flowers
A. Ginkgo
B. Leaves
B. Chinese dogwood C. Roots
C. Southern red oak D. Stems
D. Zelkova
107. Zoey uses a soilless horticultural mix for
102. A place where plants are propagated and her greenhouse because it:
grown to usable size A. comes from the garden
A. Conservatorium B. has a lot of weight
B. Nursery C. is cheap
C. National Park D. is sterile
D. Apiary 108. How is Earth a greenhouse?
103. If a plant has holes in the leaves or miss- A. Earth’s atmosphere does the same
ing plant parts, it is likely that the damage thing as the greenhouse.
came from a chewing insect such as a: B. Carbon Dioxide, a gas in Earth’s atmo-
sphere, does what the roof of a green-
A. catepillar or japanese beetle
house does.
B. aphid or whitefly
C. The Sun shines through the atmo-
C. mealybug or catepillar sphere, warming the Earth’s surface.
D. grasshopper or spidermite D. All of the above

1.3 Horticulture 83
109. What is a bedding plant that has large 6” 114. Two warm-season grasses that do not
colorful flowers? grow well in “high-traffic” areas are:

A. Zinnia A. Bermuda and Tall Fescue
B. Japanese pachysandra B. Centipede and St. Augustine
C. Madagascar periwinkle C. Kentucky Bluegrass and Tall Fescue

D. Perennial and Annual Ryegrass
D. Kalanchoe
115. What is the percentage of solid soil par-
110. Celery is an example of that plant what? ticles in an ideal soil?
A. roots A. 5
B. Stem B. 20
C. Flower C. 50
D. none of above D. 90
116. refers to roots arising from an un-

111. A plant with large green leaf-like growth
usual place; roots growing from stems or
that looked similar to a long vein down the
leaves
middle. It had many little leaf-like struc-
tures called fronds, but it had no flowers A. adverse
or seeds. This plant is a: B. secondary
A. catawba rhododendron. C. phloem
B. geranium. D. adventitious
C. weeping fig. 117. Which type of root system causes plants
D. boston fern. to be easier to transplant?
A. Fibrous
112. The traditional nursery method of grow-
B. Long
ing plants in the field is what type of pro-
duction? C. Sharp
A. Pot-in-pot D. Tap
B. Container 118. a balled and burlapped plant should be

picked up and carried by the:
C. Field-grown
A. Buds
D. Cold frame
B. Dead flowers
113. On the map 1/4 inch equals 12 miles. If C. Limbs
a road on the map is 60 miles long, how
D. Root ball
long is the line to draw this road?
A. 1/4 inch 119. Aside from economic value, what is a
value associated with ornamental horticul-
B. 1/2 inch ture?
C. 1.0 inch A. High-quality food
D. 1 1/4 inches B. Pharmaceutical proteins

1.3 Horticulture 84
C. Psychological well-being A. 120

D. Superior lumber B. 40
C. 80
120. Which of the following describes aesthet-
ics? D. 240
A. curative 126. Growing pumpkins to sell is an example
B. efficiency if what type of Immersion SAE.
A. Foundational
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. beauty
D. hobby B. Placement
C. Ownership
121. Garden Centers are retail outlets that
sell D. School-based Enterprise
A. Biology kits 127. Sherry SAE is to identify an agricultural
B. Plants and garden supplies problem that cannot be solved by exper-
iments.It does involve designing a plan
C. Fruits and Nuts to investigate and analyze the problem .
D. none of above What type of SAE is Sherry working on?
A. Analytical
122. If a plant is turgid, it is:
B. entrepreneurship
A. Drowned and dropping
C. experimental
B. Pale green or yellow
D. exploratory
C. Swollen with moisture
D. Wilted from lack of water 128. What should be the shape of the bottom
of a hole used to plant a bare-root tree?
123. Which branch primarily focuses on plant A. Dome
and soil interaction?
B. Flat
A. Floriculture
C. Pointed
B. Horticulture
D. Square
C. Agronomy
D. Turfgrass Management 129. What is the sticky part of the flower that
catches pollen?
124. It is the process of seeds developing into A. style
new plants.
B. stigma
A. Germination
C. ovary
B. Plants
D. petal
C. Plants shoot
130. Using plants for their beauty
D. Seeds
A. Ornamental Horticulture
125. If a fertilizer formula contains the follow- B. Animal Science
ing label, 24 - 8 - 16. How many pounds
of Potassium are we applying if we broad- C. Pomology
cast 500 pounds on our pasture? D. Olericulture

1.3 Horticulture 85
131. Which deciduous shrub produces large C. Nothing happens

blue, pink, or white “snowball” flowers? D. None of the above

A. Compacta holly
137. What percent is 5 of 7?
B. Indian hawthorn
A. 14 %
C. Japanese yew
B. 35 %
D. French hydrangea
C. 71 %
132. Current liabilities are debts that are:
D. 140 %
A. due in the next ten years
B. due in the next seven years 138. A group of cells of similar structure that
performs a specific function is referred to
C. due this year as
D. past due.
A. Proteins
133. Chilling seeds to stimulate winter condi- B. Vacuoles
tions before germination is known as:
C. Tissues
A. scarification
D. Lipids
B. stratification
C. budding 139. A of pH 7.0 is:
D. amending A. Acidic
B. Basic
134. The low temperature for the day in Al-
berta is -7 degrees. Later the same day C. Neutral
the temperature reaches a high of 21 de- D. Odd
grees. How many degrees did the temper-
ature change during the day? 140. A deciduous tree:
A. 32 A. Dies each year in the winter
B. 28 B. Drops its functional leaves in the dor-
C. 21 mant season
D. 14 C. Keeps its functional leaves in the dor-
mant season
135. The part of biology that deals with
D. Remains green all year
plants
A. annual 141. In the sequence of landscape plan devel-
opment, the one between the “bubble” di-
B. forestry
agram and the plan used by the landscape
C. biennial contractor is the:
D. botany A. construction plan
136. What happens when concrete gets wet? B. final plan
A. It gets slippery C. functional diagram
B. It melts D. preliminary design

1.3 Horticulture 86
142. Sara wants to own and operate a land- 147. is the seed’s capability of growing
scape business that handles everything and developing.
from the first contact with the client A. seed viability
through design and construction as well
as long-term care and maintenance. which B. seed stability
type of business will she have? C. seed probability
A. Design-build firm D. germination rates
B. landscape installer 148. Which division of horticulture focuses on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. landscape maintenance grasses, annuals, shrubs, and trees.
D. subcont A. pomology
B. landscape and nursery
143. A beef cattle farmer using people, re-
C. floriculture
sources, and processes to reach a goal is:
D. olericulture
A. Managing
B. Owning 149. After the egg in the ovule is fertilized, it
becomes a
C. Planning
A. seed
D. Selling
B. root
144. Which SAE record heading would be used C. flower
by Hannah is she has an entrepreneurship
D. fruit
type SAE?
A. hypothesis 150. On a financial statement, net worth is:
B. review of literature A. current assets minus current liabilities
C. training agreement
B. current liabilities plus current assets
D. type of enterprise
C. total assets minus total liabilities
145. The science and art of growing plants for D. total assets plus total liabilities
use and beauty; an important segment of
the agriculture industry 151. A plant that lives more than two years
A. Horticulture A. zoology
B. botany
B. Olericulture
C. perennial
C. Landscape Hort
D. forestry
D. none of above
152. Find the perimeter of a square shaped
146. What do deciduous plants do during the rose garden with sides measuring 6.5 ft
dormant season? each.
A. they die A. 13.0 ft
B. they lose their leaves B. 19.5 ft
C. retain their leaves C. 42.25 ft
D. all of the above D. 26.0 ft

1.3 Horticulture 87
153. Which is true of the amount of detail A. 7

in the landscape functional design as com- B. 6
pared to the final landscape plan?

C. 12
A. less
D. 15
B. more
159. What two areas of horticulture make up
C. one-half ornamental horticulture?
D. same A. Landscape and Floriculture
154. What does a biennial plant do in it second B. Floriculture and Forestry
year of life? C. Forestry and Viticulture
A. it starts growing D. none of above
B. it just dies randomly 160. If Susan is planting one nursery plant per
C. it starts flowering container, the plant should be:
D. none of the above A. cut back to the media
B. planted in the center of the container
155. The plow reminds agricultural students
and FFA members of what important prin- C. planted near the edge of the container
ciple?
A. Common agricultural interest of all stu- D. root pruned
dents 161. Jack helps set up the community gardens
B. Importance of knowledge to success beds as a part of his SAE. What type of
C. National scope of the FFA SAE does he have?
A. Placement
D. Value of hard work
B. Research
156. Which is the BEST inorganic growing me-
C. School-Based
dia?
D. Service Learning
A. Bark
B. compost 162. What type Supervised Agricultural Expe-
rience is Jose doing if he visits a wholesale
C. Peat moss nursery and shadows employees to learn
D. Vermiculite about careers?
A. Analytical
157. The leaves on a plume asparagus fern
are: B. Entrepreneurship
A. dark green and feather-like. C. Exploratory
B. shaped like a sword. D. Supplementary
C. shaped like palm trees. 163. Hydroponics means growing food in ?

D. variegated in green and white. A. Water
B. Specially formulated soil
158. If in a landscape drawing 1” equals 3
feet, how many feet would a line that is C. Special chemicals
4.0” long represent? D. none of above

1.3 Horticulture 88
164. The part of the plant which grows in the B. Grinding

ground. C. Compound
A. leaf D. Piercing
B. stem
170. Fruits, nuts and vegetable production are
C. root classified as which of the following bene-
D. seed fits of the horticulture industry?
A. Aesthetic value
NARAYAN CHANGDER
165. What should you do first if you get cut or
injured? B. Recreational value
A. Put a band aid on it C. Food production
B. Wash your hands D. Therapeutic value
C. Tell the teacher 171. Which FFA CDE will help develop knol-
D. None of these wedge and skills needed to effectively
participate in a horticulture organization’s
166. If a 10” azalea pot takes up 1 square business meeting?
foot of bench space in a greenhouse, how
A. Floriculture
many Geraniums planted in 10” Azalea
pots be placed on a bench that measures B. Introduction to Horticulture
6 ft wide and 17 ft long? C. Nursery/Landscape
A. 23 D. Parliamentary Proceedure
B. 46
172. stargazer and calla lillies are used in ar-
C. 102 rangements as:
D. 204 A. line flowers
167. The floral design shaped like an L is: B. mass flowers
A. Diagonal C. form flowers
B. Horizontal D. filler flowers
C. Right angle 173. is the reaction between a compound
D. Triangular and water to form a more soluble product.
A. chemical reaction
168. Horticulture is the cultivation of which of
the following? B. hydration
A. Gardens C. degredation
B. Golf Courses D. hydrolysis
C. Forests 174. The plant part that attracts insects for
D. Deserts pollination is the:
A. flower
169. Insects with toothed jaws that bite and
tear their food have what type of mouth B. leaf
parts? C. root
A. Chewing D. stem

1.3 Horticulture 89
175. The procedure for growing container 180. A plant that completes its life cycle in two
stock that Bill uses to shape his azalea years is a(n):
plants in the nursery is:

A. annual
A. fertilizing.
B. biennial
B. liming
C. perennial
C. pruning
D. none of above
D. transplanting
176. What type of nursery structure protects 181. Michele is computerizing the production
plants from adverse weather conditions records for a local nursery operation. This
when covered in white plastic? is an example of what type of SAE?
A. Shade house A. Analytical

B. hotbeds B. entrepreneurship
C. PNP C. improvement
D. Shed D. placement
177. Which cool-season grass is used on golf 182. What are the 4 main sections of horticul-
greens but requires cooling fans on the ture?
greens during the hot weather of summer
in the South? A. Floriculture, Pomology, Landscape,
and Olericulture
A. Tall Fescue
B. Gardening, Harvesting, Growing, and
B. Bentgrass
Composting
C. St. Augustine
C. Seed production, Sowiculture, Opto-
D. Bahia grass mology, and Lanscaping
178. The part of the horticulture industry most D. Apology, Orangeculture, Nursery, and
associated with growing, maintaining, and Garden Cultivation
processing grapes is:
A. floriculture 183. What is the leaf stalk or part that con-
nects the leaf to the stem?
B. olericulture
A. Midrib
C. pomology
B. Apex
D. viticulture
C. Petiole
179. Discipline of horticulture concerned with
the growing and maintaining landscape D. Blade
plants and related products, the use of
184. What type of garden needs wind-
equipment, and landscape design con-
breaks?
cepts.
A. Arboriculture A. Vertical
B. Floriculture B. Raised bed
C. Nursery/Landscape C. rooftop
D. Turfgrass Management D. container

1.3 Horticulture 90
185. Marigolds and other warm-season plants B. Review of literature

grow BEST during:
C. Training agreement
A. early spring
D. Type of enterprise
B. late fall
C. midsummer 191. Which flowers have long stalks or spikes
with florets?
D. midwinter
A. Amaryllis and zinnia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
186. In which stage of growth do plants rest
B. Ginkgo and croton
or grow very little?
C. Peony and fuchsia
A. dormant
B. indeterminate D. Snapdragon and gladiolus
C. juvenile 192. Anchoring plants, storing food and ab-

D. reproductive sorbing water are functions of plant:
A. Flowers
187. what job in horticulture prepares
seedbeds for the replanting of forests B. Fruits
A. nursery employee C. Leaves
B. garden center employee D. Roots
C. maintenance employee
193. What warm-season grass, produced by
D. golf course employee stolons and rhizomes, grows best in the
188. A shrub that has scale-like or awl-like eastern and coastal Piedmont areas?
needles is most likely a: A. Red Fescue
A. Chinese fringe. B. Tall Fescue
B. gold mop. C. Zoysia
C. Nellie R. Stevens. D. Kentucky bluegrass
D. helleri
194. Medicinal horticulture is NOT used for
189. what is division which of the following?
A. Separation of a plant into an individual A. Veterinary practices
clump making sure it has a growth point
leaf and root B. Therapeutic practice
B. None of the above C. Acupuncture

C. All of these D. Preventative medicine
D. A Separation of the two that makes it 195. When were girls allowed to join the FFA?
one
A. 1989
190. Which SAE Record heading would be used
B. 1969
by Hannah if she has an entrepreneurship
type Supervised Agricultural Experience? C. 1999
A. Hypothesis D. 2009

1.3 Horticulture 91
196. Where is the FFA National Convention 201. What part of Dawn’s foundational SAE
held? gave her a better understanding of per-
sonal finance and planning?

A. Indiana
A. creating a cover letter
B. Kentucky
B. creating a personal budget
C. North Carolina
C. interviewing a soil scientist
D. Missouri D. completing a career interest survey
197. The first step in the landscape project 202. What is grafting?
maintenance process is: A. Growing plant from seed
A. bill customer for work done B. Growing one part of a plant on a part
B. Determine the need or objective. of another plant
C. Dividing a plant
C. purchase lawnmower
D. Growing from a bulb
D. subcontract pest control
203. The greatest percent of the wholesale
198. This type of SAE involves placing stu- floriculture market is attributed to:
dents in jobs outside the regular classroom A. Flowering potted plants
hours. They may be paid or unpaid (volun-
B. Foliage plants
teer) work.
C. Cut flowers
A. Exploratory
D. Bedding plants
B. Placement
204. Which of these causes more plant dis-
C. Entrepreneurship ease?
D. Improvement A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
199. When flowers look too big for contain-
ers, the design principle the floral designer C. Algae
failed to follow is: D. Virus
A. balance 205. The goal in grafting is to unite two plants
B. focal point A. so they grow as one
C. repetition B. in a physical union so that they grow
together
D. Rhythm
C. all of these choices
200. Which is a lightweight, inorganic mica D. none of above
mineral capable of absorbing a large
amount of water in growing media? 206. Who created the naming system for
plants?
A. bark
A. Gregor Mendel
B. compost B. Carl Linnaeus
C. leaf mold C. Bill Nye The Science Guy
D. vermiculite D. Albert Einstein

1.3 Horticulture 92
207. Jesus spent several days landscaping his B. Complete

home to help the appearance and to in- C. Incomplete
crease the comfort and value. What is he
doing? D. Pretty
A. analytical 213. Wire with a higher gauge number is:
B. experimental A. thinner
C. improvement B. thicker
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. placement C. shorter
208. The culture of plants for food, comfort, D. longer
and beautification purposes.
214. The most effective way for animal sci-
A. Horticulture ence students to develop leadership quali-
B. Forestry ties is through:
C. Floriculture A. participation in FFA activities
D. Agriculture B. studying animal science
C. trips to livestock farms
209. Computerizing production records for a
local nursery operation is which type of D. watching videos
SAE?
215. A disadvantage of producing field-grown
A. analytical nursery stock compared to container-
B. entrepreneurship grown nursery stock is that field-grown
stock:
C. improvement
A. has higher start-up cost
D. placement
B. has more shock when moved
210. Which horticulture division includes veg-
C. requires more water
etable production?
D. requires more winter protection
A. floriculture
B. forestry 216. In which part of the foundational SAE
C. olericulture would Karen schedule interviews with
three professionals in the floral indus-
D. turfgrass try and record findings in a written sum-
mary?
211. Erosion control is most difficult to control
in what type of growing environment? A. workplace safety
A. PNP B. agricultural literacy
B. Container C. career exploration and planning
C. Field-grown D. personal financial planning and man-
D. Cold frame agement
212. What type flower has ONLY male or 217. Use the tool for the job.
ONLY female flower parts? A. Correct
A. Asexual B. Biggest

1.3 Horticulture 93
C. Smallest 223. Mandy and Jordan bought some of the

D. none of above same plants from Lowe’s. Mandy paid
$5.85 for three coleus and 1 verbena. Jor-

218. Which of the following was NOT listed as dan paid $4.65 for 2 coleus and 1 verbena.
a career in the plant production industry? What is the cost of one coleus?
A. Quality control inspector A. $ .75
B. Herdsmen B. $ 2.25
C. Landscape service C. $ 1.80
D. Food production D. $ 1.20
219. In the mountains, Naomi saw an ever- 224. An example of an Entrepreneurship SAE
green tree with flat needles 1/2 inch long is
with 2 white bands on the underside of the A. Cutting grass
needle. What tree did she see? B. Observing a greenhouse manager
A. Canadian hemlock C. Planting a garden
B. Chinese dogwood D. Starting your own produce company
C. Ginkgo
225. Low moisture-holding capacity is a char-
D. Zelkova acteristics of
220. the coarseness or fineness of the materi- A. clay
als in a landscape B. silt
A. line C. sand
B. texture D. none
C. balance
226. When was the Smith Hughes Act
D. form passed?
221. The leadership quality that means reli- A. 1955

able support for an individual, group, or B. 1930
cause is: C. 1917
A. enthusiasm D. 1928
B. loyalty
227. WHat tacky material is used to wrap
C. tact wire
D. unselfishness A. floral foam
222. How long does a perennial plant typically B. floral tape
live? C. flroal picks
A. 1 year D. floral wire
B. 6 months 228. When is baby’s breath addes to a floral
C. 2 years design
D. beyond 2 years A. first

1.3 Horticulture 94
B. second 234. Which pH reading is acid?

C. third A. 3.5
D. last B. 7
C. 8
229. The cultivation of trees and shrubs.
D. 9.5
A. Arboriculture
235. Which is the most likely effect of adding
B. Agriculture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
perlite to the growing media?
C. Horticulture A. decreases drainage
D. Floriculture B. increases drainage
C. increases weight
230. Which cool-season grass grows from rhi-
zomes and has fine-textured, medium- to D. makes media acidic
dark-green leaves?
236. The science of vegetable growing, deal-
A. Bermuda ing with the culture of non-woody plants
B. Centipede for food. It is the production of plants for
use of their edible parts
C. Kentucky bluegrass
A. Landscape/Nursery
D. St. Augustine B. Pomology
231. A tropical plant with palm-like leaves is C. Olericulture
A. croton. D. Floriculture
B. live oak. 237. You can tell where a terminal bud was
located by it’s:
C. parlor palm
A. lateral buds
D. Savannah holly.
B. leaf scar
232. Why should you be careful when pulling C. bud scale scars
weeds?
D. xylem
A. They can have thorns
238. Producing and using plants to beautify
B. They might bite the environment
C. They can run away A. Floriculture
D. They can be poisonous B. Landscape horticulture
C. Olericulture
233. a device designed to take the place of a
sprinkler head for trickle irrigation D. Floral production
A. emitter 239. A place that specializes in starting plants,

shrubs and ornamental trees which can be
B. spray heads
transplanted to landscape areas is called
C. rotary irrigation a
D. sprinklers A. Nursery

1.3 Horticulture 95
B. Vineyard 245. What is the volume of a cubic plant con-

C. Orchard tainer that sides all equal 5” in length?

D. Farm A. 15
B. 25
240. Which SAE record heading would be used
if you have an entrepreneurship SAE? C. 125
A. Hypothesis D. 150
B. Review of literature
246. what is the definition of horticulture?
C. training agreement
A. growing stuff
D. type of enterprise
B. the culture of plants for food, comfort,
241. How can Tracie reduce stress on and beauty.
greenhouse-produced seedlings at trans-
C. the growing of plants for their beauty
planting time before removing them from
the greenhouse? D. the growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
cessing and marketing of fruits and nuts
A. fertilizer seedlings more
B. harden off the seedlings 247. Victoria is careful to study the tempera-
C. mist the seedlings often ture, moisture, and seed viability for the
plants she plans to grow. These are fac-
D. water the seedlings more tors that affect:
242. What term describes money or services A. germination rates.
that a person owes?
B. hardwood cuttings
A. Assets
C. softwood cuttings
B. Inventory
D. tree grafts
C. Liabilities
D. Net worth 248. Carrots are an example of which part of
the plant?
243. The terms annual, biennial, and perennial
A. roots
describe plant:
A. leaf loss B. stem
B. life cycle C. flower

C. production practices D. leaves
D. leaf type
249. 1) Spotted lanternfly first arrived from
244. What is the genus name for all maples? Asia to which state in 2012?
A. Quercus A. Virginia
B. Acer B. New Jersey

C. Cornus C. Pennsylvania
D. Ilex D. Delaware

1.3 Horticulture 96
250. FFA helps students develop leadership be- C. Keep financial records
yond the class, local school chapter, and
D. Plan and design the outdoor environ-
federation. What is the first level of
ment
participation above the federation level?
Hint: Our federation is the Randolph Fed-
255. Finish the Statement: If there is a rule,
eration & is made up of all middle/high
there is a
schools in Randolph County, NC.
A. answer
A. International
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. National FFA Organization B. reason
C. North Carolina FFA Association C. problem

D. Region (West Central is our Region) D. issue
251. What is the career title of a person who 256. The growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
designs landscapes inside a mall? cessing, and marketing of FRUITS & NUTS
A. Landscape designer A. Floriculture
B. Interiorscape designer B. Horticulture
C. Floral designer C. Pomology
D. Landscape technician
D. Ornamental Horticulture
252. plant is filled with moisture
257. Which large evergreen shrub has white,
A. hortifculture pink, or red 1 1/2” - 2” flowers in Octo-
B. zoology ber and November?
C. evrgreen A. Cape jasmine
D. turgid B. Chinese dogwood
253. Christy enjoys mound layering her prize- C. Japanese yew
winning azalea. Which is true of her D. Sasanqua camellia
mound layering technique?
A. The plant has to be dug and separated 258. The study of plants and plant processes
first. A. Entomology
B. A trench has to be dug for each stem
B. Pomology
being propagated.
C. Zeriscaping
C. Only one inch of bark has to be re-
moved. D. Botany
D. Soil has to be heaped up around the
plant. 259. The growing of flowers or foliage plants
A. Floriculture
254. What type of work does Thomas do as a
landscape nursery worker? B. Landscape horticulture
A. Design landscape plans C. Floral production
B. Install the plants D. Olericulture

1.3 Horticulture 97
260. what is a sexual propagation? 265. What type of nursery structure uses ma-
A. growing plants from roots nure or hay as a source of heat?

A. Shade house
B. growining plants from seeds
B. Hotbed
C. growing plants from water
C. PNP
D. none of above
D. cold frame
261. An interior plant that is about 4 feet tall
and looks similar to a little pine or cedar 266. What type of business does Sara have
tree with dark green leaves. It is a/an: if her landscape company handles every-
thing from the first contact with the client
A. Eastern White Pine through design and construction as well as
B. Norfolk Island Pine long-term care and maintenance?
C. Fraiser Fir A. Design-build firm
D. Eastern Redbud B. Landscape installer
C. Landscape maintenance
262. Jesus spent several days landscaping his
home to help the appearance and to in- D. Subcontractor firm
crease the comfort and value. What Su-
267. An immersion SAE that asks “why” or
pervised Agricultural Experience is Jesus
“how” something occurs, followed by a
conducting?
collection of data, and analysis of data to
A. Analytical answer the question is:
B. Experimental A. analysis
C. Improvement B. entrepreneurship
D. Placement C. experimental
263. Serving as FFA Treasurer can help Juan D. invention

gain experience that he might later use in 268. What can Vijay add to his soilless mix at
an horticulture organization to: planting to add weight and keep his gallon
A. cook steaks nursery stock from blowing over?
B. keep financial records A. bark
C. write minutes of a meeting B. peat moss
D. write news reports C. perlite
D. vermiculite
264. The president calls for a voice vote on a
main motion and announces that the mo- 269. The protects the undeveloped plant
tion passes. If a member wants to canted (embryo) against injury and from drying
vote, he or she should: out.
A. amend the motion A. flower
B. call for a division B. cotyledon
C. move to adjourn C. environment (soil)
D. take the motion from the table D. seed coat

1.3 Horticulture 98
270. The following are potential safety haz- 276. Nursery production involves:
ards in the greenhouse A. Maintaining golf courses
A. water hoses B. Growing fruit
B. fertilizer C. Growing plants for a sale
C. electrical outlets D. Seeding turf
D. All of the above
277. Modified leaves that show color
NARAYAN CHANGDER
271. Carl keeps accurate records including A. Evergreen
amounts of items bought and sold for his
SAE. What type of SAE is this? B. Annual
A. analytical C. Needles
B. entrepreneurship D. Bracts
C. improvement 278. Phosphorus is needed in large amounts

D. placement by the plant to
A. have dark green leaves
272. The by-product of photosynthesis is:
B. stimulate flower and seed develop-
A. carbon dioxide ment
B. nitrogen C. Prevent dead stem tips
C. oxygen D. Assist in translocation
D. water
279. Which plant has a serrated or toothed
273. What does GMO stand for? leaves, and blooms in the fall season?
A. Genetically Modified Organism A. Christmas cactus
B. Generically Modified Organism B. Peperomia
C. Genetic Magnification Organization C. Thanksgiving cactus
D. Global Microbe Organization D. Wax plant
274. When a plant first begins growing from 280. Part of plants that holds into the soil.
a seed, the stage of growth is: A. roots
A. dormant B. stem
B. juvenile C. flower
C. mature D. branch
D. reproductive
281. A cool-season grass that has coarse-
275. The green color of leaves is caused by textured, medium-green leaves and bunch-
the: type growth is:
A. Chloroplasts A. bermuda grass
B. Epidermis B. centipede grass
C. Guard cells C. St. Augustine grass
D. Margin D. tall fescue

1.3 Horticulture 99
282. The cultivation, processing and marketing A. 1 inch

of flowers, ornamental plants, vegetables, B. 4 inches
fruits and nuts is:

C. 12 inches
A. floriculture
D. 24 inches
B. pomology
288. What should you do if you are unsure
C. olericulture
about something?
D. horticulture
A. Ask question s
283. A tree with the scientific name Acer pal- B. Use Common Sense
matum. What is the plant’s common
C. Don’t touch it and wait for the teacher
name?
to help you
A. Japanese Maple
D. All of these
B. Sugar Maple
289. Which deciduous tree has bright, yellow
C. Red Maple 3” fan-shaped leaves on 3” petioles and
D. Red Oak also has foul-smelling berries with seeds?
284. What are the three layers of a typical soil A. Ginkgo

profile starting at the soil surface? B. Live oak
A. Bedrock, subsoil, and topsoil C. Sasanqua camellia
B. Subsoil, topsoil, and bedrock D. Sycamore
C. Topsoil, bedrock, and subsoil 290. Disregarding Sales tax, how much will
D. Topsoil, subsoil, and bedrock you save when you buy a $ 12.00 plant
that is on sale for 20 % off?
285. Tamicka uses a commercial blend of horti-
A. $ 0.48
culture soil because she can depend on the
pH of the product being: B. $ 1.20
A. acidic C. $ 2.40
B. alkaline D. $ 3.60
C. basic 291. Filler flowers are used in floral designs

D. neutral to:
A. add mass and draw attention
286. sprinklers in which the water is dis-
B. draw attention to the focal point
tributed in a set pattern over a fixed area
C. establish height, width, and outline
A. sprinkle irrigation
D. fill empty spaces and hide ties
B. spray heads
C. rotary irrigation 292. The study and cultivation of grape vines.
D. drip irrigation A. Olericulture
B. Viticulture
287. Jenny needs to construct some beds to
use for rooting azalea cuttings. How deep C. Floriculture
should the rooting media be? D. Horticulture

1.3 Horticulture 100
293. What does PPE stand for? B. garden center employee

A. Personal Party Equipment C. golf course employee
B. Personal Protective Equipment D. greenhouse worker
C. Purple People Eater
299. The flower that has a large lily-type
D. Purposeful Protection Equipment flower on a 1’ to 2’ stem is:
294. What does every paragraph of the FFA A. amaryllis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Creed begin with?
B. evergreen candytuft.
A. I believe
C. gladiolus.
B. I imagine
D. snapdragon.
C. I farm
D. I am 300. The culture of flowers
A. Landscape Horticulture
295. William examines a landscape functional
diagram and a final landscape plan. He no- B. Pomology
tices that the amount of detail in the final
C. Olericulture
landscape plan is:
D. Floriculture
A. less
B. more 301. Which comes from a Latin word meaning
C. same “garden cultivation” and includes vegeta-
bles, fruits and ornamental plants?
D. none of above
A. agronomy
296. which of these jobs requires college edu-
B. forestry
cation
C. horticulture
A. greenhouse employee
B. national park employee D. zoology
C. farm management consulting 302. Which of the following are factors that
D. garden shop owner affect seed germination?
A. light
297. pounds per square inch. Measures the
force at which water moves in an irriga- B. temperature
tion system
C. oxygen
A. GPM
D. all of these
B. GPH
C. PSI 303. What is the primary reason for pruning
nursery plants?
D. none of above
A. Produce desired shape
298. Which one is responsible for maintaining
B. Rejuvenate plant
fairway and greens turf as well as sand
traps and irrigation? C. Remove dead flowers
A. florist D. Thin branches

304. What is the first degree in FFA for high C. growing too tall
school members? D. growing too wide

A. Greenhand
310. The green color of leaves is caused by tiny
B. American particles in the food producing cells called:
C. State A. Guard cells
D. Discovery B. Epidermis
305. Vegetative growth is the growth of: C. Chloroplast
A. flowers and fruits D. Starch
B. fruits and roots 311. Candytuft is a bedding plant about 6” to
C. leaves, stems, and roots 12” tall an has:
D. roots, seeds and flowers A. dark blue 1” fruit
B. orange 3” flowers
306. Which of the following is responsible for
recycling raw materials? C. red 2” flowers
A. Air D. white 1” flowers
B. Plants 312. What shade tree did Sandy most likely
C. Soil see with deep-green leaves having a
toothed or serrated margin?
D. Animal life
A. ginkgo
307. An aquarium or botanical garden is an ex- B. Chinese dogwood.
ample of:
C. southern red oak.
A. Horticultural Therapy
D. zelkova
B. Zoological Horticulture
313. The leadership quality that causes animal
C. Plant Propagation Environment
science workers to be willing to proceed
D. Landscape and Nursery under difficult conditions is:
308. Which shrub has a red-to-pink feathery A. Courage
flower 1” in length? B. Integrity
A. Chinese fringe C. Public Speaking
B. Nellie R. Stevens D. Tact
C. Gold mop
314. Which type of business handles every-
D. Japanese andromeda thing from the first contact with the client
through design and construction as well as
309. When a nursery plant reaches the max- long-term care and maintenance?
imum recommended size for its container,
it should be transplanted to a larger con- A. design-build firm
tainer to prevent the plant from: B. landscape installer
A. becoming pot-bound C. landscape maintenance
B. becoming too compact D. subcontractor firm

315. Joel operates a design-build landscape 320. What is an annual plant?

business, but he wants to get someone A. a plant that completes its life cycle in
else to install the pools, stonework, and 1 year
electrical work. Who should he get to do
this work? B. a plant that completes its life cycle in
2 years
A. floral designer
C. a plant that lives more than 2 years
B. landscape designer
D. a plant that starts flowering in the sec-
C. landscape maintenance crew
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ond year
D. subcontractor
321. Coffee, Rubber, Tea crops falls under—
316. What Brain leaders while serving as FFA —–
Chapter Secretary could be used after
A. Cash Crop
graduation in horticulture organizations
to: B. Medicinal Crop
A. count money C. Plantation Crops
B. prepare budgets D. Spice Crops
C. preside over meetings 322. Dwarf Yaupon, Helleri Holly and Dwarf
D. write minutes of a meeting Burford Holly are all in the genus called:
317. If no more than one half the total leaf A. Ilex

surface should be removed, and the rec- B. Maple
comended mowing height is 2 1/2” what C. Pinus
is the max height the grass should be be-
fore it’s mowed D. Querkus
A. 2 1/2” 323. Which is most directly related to reducing

B. 4” the carbon footprint?
C. 5” A. Garden center salesperson
D. 8” B. Golf course superintendent
C. Green industry employee
318. Which branch of horticulture produces
fruits and nuts? D. Park ranger
A. Olericulture 324. gauge wire is used for wiring:
B. Pomology A. boutonnierres
C. Fruitology B. corsages
D. Agronomy C. bows
319. Snapdragons and Foxglove are used in ar- D. heavy flowers
rangements as:
325. The process by which the surface of the
A. line flowers earth gets worn down is described by
B. mass flowers which of the following?
C. form flowers A. Run-off
D. filer forms B. Phytoremediation

C. Decay 331. selects and position visually strong items

D. erosion into the landscape. A focal point catches
the eye of the viewer and draws it to a

326. An example of a placement Supervised key feature in the landscape.
Agricultural Experience is: A. balance
A. working at the school greenhouse as- B. line
sisting customers for the FFA plant sale
C. focalization
B. advertising for a food drive at the local
D. texture
food bank
C. growing and selling pumpkins 332. The co-op has Hibiscus priced at $14.00
each. On Wednesday the Hibiscus are go-
D. working at a florist ing on sale for 15% off making them cost
$ 11.90 each. Any Hibiscus not sold by
327. Which country was the first to use the
Saturday will be marked off another 20%.
tradition of a Christmas tree?
What percent of the original price is the fi-
A. England nal price?
B. Germany A. 82.5 %
C. United States B. 68 %
D. Netherlands C. 65 %
328. Safety Colors - The color red indicates D. 35 %

what? 333. Carl keeps accurate records including
A. Danger amounts of items bought and sold for his
Supervised Agricultural Experience. What
B. warning
type of SAE is Carl working on?
C. Caution
A. Analytical
D. Safety
B. Entrepreneurship
329. What is the first line of the FFA Motto? C. Improvement
A. Living to Serve D. Placement
B. Earning to Live 334. In North Carolina, a tree that has no
C. Learning to Do leaves in the winter is:
D. Doing to Learn A. deciduous
B. evergreen
330. Thomas is a landscape nursery worker.
The type of work he does is: C. herbaceous
A. Design landscape plans. D. turgid
B. Install the plants. 335. The purpose of a speech that gives knowl-
C. keep financial records edge or information to the audience is to:
D. Plan and design the outdoor environ- A. Entertain

ment. B. Express anger

C. inform 341. What do we call the tiny pores on the un-

D. persuade derside of the leaf?
A. Buds
336. Fran stops watering container-grown
nursery stock when: B. Stamens
A. she gets tired C. Cuticle
B. water stands in the pot D. Stomates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. water runs over the top of the pot
342. The component of the horticulture instruc-
D. water runs through the bottom of the tional program that gives students an op-
pot portunity to explore interests and gain
work experience is the:
337. Shears should not go into your
A. classroom
A. Pocket
B. FFA
B. Bag
C. state FFA convention.
C. House
D. All of the above D. Supervised Agriculture Experience.
338. What type of shoes need to be worn in 343. Which most likely represents the FFA
the greenhouse? goal to make a positive difference in the
lives of students by developing their po-
A. Sandals tential for premier leadership, personal
B. Closed Toe growth, and career success?
C. Flip Flops A. colors
D. Slides B. mission statement
339. Alex believes that Jessica is discussing a C. motto
motion that is not debatable. To correct D. official dress
this mistake, Alex should:
A. call for division 344. Field-grown, container, and PNP plants
should be watered in the morning for:
B. move to adjourn
A. maximum absorption
C. move to amend
D. rise to a point of order B. minimum absorption
C. more water pressure
340. what should you do to prepare for a job
interview D. less water pressure
A. all of them 345. Safety is the responsibility of?
B. anticipate question s the interviewer A. Everyone
will ask you
B. Owner of the facility
C. write down several things you do well
C. Veterinary Technician
D. find out about the interviewing com-
pany D. Veterinarian

346. Trees that keep their functional leaves C. Chlorophyll

throughout the year are called: D. Anthocyanin

A. Auxins
351. When measuring pH, the higher the soil
B. Deciduous
pH number, the:
C. Evergreen
A. less alkaline
D. Inhibitors
B. more acidic
347. Everyone is familiar with the mistletoe C. more alkaline
tradition. What color are the berries of
the plant? D. more neutral
A. Red 352. What does MSDS stand for?

B. White A. Material Safety Data Sheet
C. Blue B. Modern Safety Day Special
D. No berries C. Medium Small Data Stuff
348. Victoria spent two hours on Saturday D. Made Something Doing Something
pruning a fruit tree although her Super-
vised Agricultural Experience program is 353. The upper portion of a graft is known as
producing bedding plants in her own green- what?
house. In which section of the SAE Record A. Understock
would she enter the fruit tree pruning ac- B. Upperstock
tivity?
C. Rootstock
A. analytical
D. Scion
B. experimental
C. placement 354. The type of floral design flowers that
have tall spikes with florets along the
D. supplementary
stem such as gladiolus are:
349. Horticulture is a science, as well as, an A. filler
art of production, utilisation and improve-
ment of horticultural crops, such as fruits B. form
and vegetables, spices and condiments, or- C. line
namental, plantation, medicinal and aro- D. mass
matic plants.
A. False 355. Principles of design for Focal Point are?
B. True A. Balance and equilibrium comparing
one part to other parts or to the whole
C. somewhat true
B. Overall size compared to other flow-
D. others
ers, surrounds, or the design itself
350. The green pigment in vegetables is called C. Area of interest formed by size, color,
what? texture, spacing, shape, etc.
A. Flavones D. Flow or movement of the eye through
B. Carotene a design

356. A crescent floral arrangment is shaped C. Fifth

like a :
D. none of above
A. circle
B. fan 362. Filler flowers used in floral designs
have:
C. quarter moon
A. flowers on the stems ends
D. triangle
B. small sprays of flowers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
357. The production, transportation, and use
of flowers and foliage plants. C. tall spikes with florets
A. Pomology D. unique colors or shapes

B. Olericulture 363. An immersion SAE that requires records
C. Floriculture of items bought & sold is:
D. Horticulture A. research
358. India has emerged as a world leader in B. ownership/entrepreneurship
producing a variety of C. service based learning
A. Fruits and vegetables D. placement/internship
B. Vegetables and flowers
C. Flowers and fruits 364. Plants that take three or more years to
complete their life cycle are:
D. none of above
A. annuals
359. The science most associated with the
B. biennials
study of plants grown for food or beau-
tification is: C. millenniums
A. agronomy D. perennials
B. forestry
365. All of the following are environmental
C. horticulture values of horticulture except:
D. physics A. Cleans air
360. The first step in making a floral arrange- B. Provides jobs
ment is to:
C. Prevents erosion
A. Attach foam to container
D. Provides shade
B. cut flower stems
C. establish outline 366. the growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
cessing, and marketing of vegetables
D. select design shape
A. olericulture
361. India is largest producer of fruits and
vegetables B. landscape horticulture
A. Second C. pomology
B. First D. horticulture

367. An immersion SAE that is a student-led 372. The germination rate represents the num-
business that offers goods or services to ber of plants that:
people in the community is:

A. are planted from seed
A. placement/internship B. begin growth after being started from
B. research seed
C. service based learning C. are in the greenhouse

D. are seeds incased in the fruit of a plant
D. school-based enterprise
373. What are the two main types of roots?
368. What information would you find on a
MSDS? A. Tap and tape
B. Tap and Fibrous
A. Product Identification
C. Long and short
B. Health Hazard Data
D. none of above
C. Storage and Handling precautions
374. Plants with which root system are easier
D. All of the above
to transplant?
369. The landscape designer who uses plants A. fibrous
with only a few different colors or shapes B. long
is demonstrating the landscape design
C. sharp
principle of:
D. tap
A. balance
B. focalization 375. Seedlings that receive too little light will
have:
C. proportion
A. Brighter Flower colors
D. simplicity
B. Dark green leaves
370. When making a cutting you should al- C. Short thick stems
ways cut D. Tall Slender Stems
A. above the node 376. When Eric develops the watering part of
B. below the node his maintenance schedule for his new land-
scape, he should water often enough to:
C. on the node
A. have water runoff
D. anywhere
B. keep roots dry
371. Which flowers does a floral designer use C. keep water standing
to establis the width and height of an ar-
D. prevent wilting
rangement?
A. Bird of paradise 377. Why might propagation via seed be ben-
eficial to vegetative propagation?
B. carnations
A. It can be less expensive
C. Chrysanthemums
B. You cannot wait until the plant is fully
D. Snapdragons developed

C. You need to produce plants quickly C. Snapdragon and gladiolus

D. You may want to produce new vari- D. Zinnia and peony
eties that resist disease
383. A growing method for seedlings that can
378. Who wrote the FFA Creed? grow in a multiple seedlings in one flat.
A. E.M. Tiffany A. Rag-doll method
B. Henry Groseclose B. Seedbox method
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. John Deere C. Petri dish method
D. George Washington D. Floating in water method
379. . are stems that grow horizontally 384. When applying the waste hierarchy to
above ground. workplace waste disposal, which is the
A. Bulbs first and top option?
B. Rhizomes A. Prepare for re-use
C. Tubers B. Recycle
D. Stolons C. Prevention
380. Wendy has problems getting flowers to D. Disposal
grow in one of her flower beds. If she
sends a soil sample to the laboratory to 385. Olericulture deals with growing
get recommendations to correct her prob- A. Vegetables
lem, she should take cores or slices of soil
B. Fruits
from:
C. Nuts
A. all the flower beds
D. Hibiscus
B. all the flower beds except the problem
one 386. Because azaleas produce flowers on
C. the entire lawn wood grown the previous growing season,
D. the problem flower bed the shrubs shoud be pruned in the late:
A. Fall
381. About 74% of all U.S. households par-
ticipated in lawn and garden activities in B. spring
2016. C. summer
A. Yes D. winter
B. No
387. Compared to other layers of a typical soil
C. Maybe profile, the amount of organic matter in
D. none of above the O horizon is:
A. about the same
382. Which plants are grown for their fo-
liage? B. less
A. Croton and parlor palm C. more
B. Gloxinia and amaryllis D. none

388. The primary function of fruit is to: 393. Conditioning the soil includes:
A. Absorb water and nutrients from soil A. adding fertilizer and lime

B. Carry, nourish and protect seeds B. grading the slope
C. Connect roots to leaves C. selecting quality grass seeds
D. Manufacture food for the plant D. sowing grass seeds
394. Carl keeps accurate records including

389. If a bedding plant grower’s inventory
amounts of items bought and sold for his
shows plants worth $40, 000, supplies
SAE. What type of SAE is Carl working
worth $1, 000, and land valued at $200,
on?
000, what amount should be entered on
the non-depreciable inventory line of the A. analytical
financial statement? B. entrepreneurship
A. $400 C. improvement
B. $41, 000 D. placement
C. $200, 000 395. Advantages of Asexual vegetative prop-
D. $241, 000 agation
A. All off spring are true to type (identical
390. When carrying hand shears, you should
to the parent) and produce.
carry them with the blade
B. True
A. facing down
C. Mostly smaller seeds
B. facing straight up
D. False
C. facing towards your body
396. What should you do immediately after
D. open
applying chemicals or fertilizer?
391. Who funds the Cooperative Extension A. Wash your hands
Service in each state? B. Eat Lunch
A. The federal government C. Water your plants
B. State government D. none of above
C. Local community organizations/charities
397. Which is a flowering plant that has flow-
ers from 3” to 6” in diameter?
D. The land grant university in each state
A. American arborvitae
392. Sales and marketing of horticulture prod- B. Evergreen candytuft
ucts in the United States generates how C. Peony
much revenue for the industry?
D. Sycamore
A. More than $57.8 billion
398. The best tool for Becky to remove 1/4”-
B. More than $55.5 billion
1/2” rose stems from her bed of roses is
C. More than $70 billion a/an:
D. More than $75.5 billion A. axe

B. chain saw C. obtaining a hunter safety certification

C. pole pruner D. testing for a pesticide license
D. pruning shear 404. What is the FFA Motto?
399. Area of horticulture that involves fruit A. Learning to Do, Doing to Learn, Earn-
and nut production ing to Live, Living to Serve
A. Pomology B. Learning to Work, Working to Earn,
B. Olericulture Earning to Live, Living to Breathe
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Floricultre C. Making Our Mark, One Dream at a
Time, Living the Life, It was Meant to Be
D. Horticulture
D. Leading to Educate, Following to Learn,
400. the growing, harvesting, storing, pro- Competing in Contests, Winning is All
cessing, and marketing of fruits and nuts
405. Which division of horticulture focuses on
A. Ornamental horticulture
tree grown fruits?
B. Olericulture
A. pomology
C. Pomology
B. viticulture
D. Floriculture
C. floriculture
401. The most commonly used method to start D. forestry
a lawn is:
406. If Jessica is preparing a summary presen-
A. Plugging
tation on her research with organic and in-
B. Seeding organic fertilizers, her SAE project would
C. Sodding be identified as a/an:
D. Sprigging A. school-based enterprise
B. entrepreneurship
402. What type of SAE is Jose doing if he visits
a wholesale nursery and shadows employ- C. experimental
ees to learn about careers? D. placement
A. analytical
407. This type of SAE involves identifying an
B. entrepreneurship agricultural problem that cannot be solved
C. exploratory by experiments and designing a plan to in-
D. supplementary vestigate and analyze the problem.
A. Experimental
403. If a high school student’s career objective
is to be a greenhouse operator, an activ- B. Analytical
ity he/she might include in his/her foun- C. Improvement
dational SAE to obtain employability skills D. Supplementary
would be:
A. taking a small-engine short course at 408. Pesticide used to control insects is known
the community college as:
B. finding a mentor in the welding indus- A. Fungicide

try B. Herbicide

C. Insecticide 414. the growing and using of plants for their

D. None of the above beauty

A. pomology
409. A soccer field is 120 yards long by 60
yards wide. We are going to add sand to B. landscape horticulture
top dress the soccer field and smooth it out. C. olericulture
If we use 1 truckload of sand for every
400 square yards of the field, how many D. ornamental horticulture
truckloads of sand do we need to order? 415. If a nursery owner has a $250, 000 mort-
A. 72 gage on his land and he owes Farm Credit
B. 36 Service $30, 000 for this year’s payment,
what amount should be entered on the non-
C. 18
current liability line of the financial state-
D. 9 ment?
410. Field-grown, container, and pot-in-pot A. $30, 000
plants should be watered in the morning B. $220, 000
for:
C. $250, 000
A. maximum absorption.
D. $280, 000
B. minimum absorption.
C. more water pressure. 416. Which of the following is provided by
landscape horticulture?
D. less water pressure.
A. Tax benefits
411. Which type of garden takes up less
space? B. Aesthetics
A. Flat bed C. Medicine

B. Container D. Fruits
C. Raised beds 417. Within the research immersion SAE which
D. Rooftop of the following involves using a design
process to develop a product that solves a
412. What happens to plants during their dor- problem?
mant stage?
A. experimental
A. die
B. analysis
B. grow abundantly
C. invention
C. they start flowering
D. none of above
D. none of the above
413. The pH test on a soil sample determines 418. Which of the following is NOT a branch
the: of horticulture?
A. acidity or alkalinity. A. Agriculture
B. air and water movement. B. Pomology
C. amount of nitrogen. C. Floriculture
D. salinity or salt content. D. Olericulture

419. What does the word horticulture mean? 425. The “rhythm and line” landscape design
A. farm development principle is illustrated by:
B. plant growing A. foundation plantings
C. garden cultivation B. Repeating colors.
D. plant science C. Repeating plant species.

D. none of above
420. What year was FFA established?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 1928 426. Content and composition of the speech
are determined:
B. 1929
A. after the speech is given
C. 1930
B. before the speech is given
D. 1954
C. during the question ing time
421. What is a term for planting, harvesting, D. during the oral speech
processing and marketing fruits and nuts
A. Pomology 427. Horticulture sector contributes nearly
one-third of the value of agriculture out-
B. Floriculture put & per cent of GDP
C. Olericulture A. 6%
D. Apple B. 11%
422. The part of biology that deals with ani- C. 13%
mals D. none of above
A. horticulture
428. Perlite and vermiculite are most likely ex-
B. zoology amples of:
C. agronomy A. hydroponics
D. deciduous B. organic growing media
423. Two examples of Ornamental Horticul- C. soil growing media
ture include D. soilless growing media
A. Olericulture and Pomology
429. When are you allowed to throw tools?
B. Floriculture and Landscape Horticul-
ture A. Never
C. Pomology and vegetative growing B. Sometimes
D. none of above C. Always

D. none of above
424. seeks to make the viewer feel comfort-
able within the landscape 430. The term horticulture literally means
A. Simplicity A. The culture of a garden
B. Proportion B. The storing of plants
C. Rhythm and line C. The selling of plants
D. Unity D. none of above

431. what is an Asexual (Vegatative) Propa- C. clean

gation D. volatile

A. growing plants from vegatation part at
existing 436. What is the TISSUE that carries food from
a plant’s leaves to its cells?
B. Growing form the inside of your house
A. xylem
in a plant bowl
B. phloem
C. growing from the ourside in the back
yard in a graden C. photsynthesis
D. in rows of plants so tat they will grow D. vascular tissue
together
437. when Gene makes a floral design, the
432. Which of the following is an example of flowers he uses to add mass are:
prevention of waste? A. Baby’s breath
A. Shredding woody waste to make wood B. Carnations
chip mulch. C. Gladious
B. Careful measuring so you don’t order D. orchids
too much turf
C. Sending green waste to a recycling 438. Janet uses stem cuttings to propagate
centre her prize-winning azaleas. What is the
best time of day for Janet to take the cut-
D. Burning woody waste on a bonfire. tings from her azaleas?
433. The eagle is an important part of FFA tra- A. early evening
dition because it symbolizes the national B. early morning
scope of the FFA. Students most likely will
find an eagle in the FFA: C. late afternoon
A. colors D. mid-day
B. emblem 439. Which plant is used for its variegated

green and yellowish-white leaves?
C. motto
A. Arrowhead vine
D. pledge
B. Evergreen candytuft
434. What type of immersion Supervised Agri-
C. Snapdragon
cultural Experience would have an entry
recorded as engaging local stakeholders? D. Zinnia
A. placement 440. Jacob learns a disadvantage of propagat-
B. experimental ing using cuttings is that when cuttings are
removed from the parent plant, the:
C. service learning
A. cuttings’ absorption process stops.
D. entrepreneurship
B. cuttings are cut off from their source
435. a garden center employee usually works of water.
in a environment C. parent plant needs more light.
A. unpleasant D. parent plant needs additional fertil-
B. unclean izer.

441. The tree with a fan-shaped leaf that Joan 446. The growing, harvesting, storing, pro-
noticed in front of the bank is most likely cessing, and marketing of VEGETABLES
a: A. Floriculture
A. ginkgo B. Olericulture
B. Chinese dogwood. C. Pomology
C. southern red oak. D. Landscape
D. zelkova 447. What is the best explanation as to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
why vegetable production has steadily
442. Jodi examines a preliminary design and grown?
a functional design. She observes that the
A. Consumer demand has increased
amount of detail in the functional diagram
is: B. Fewer families are growing their own
A. more C. More land is under cultivation

D. Vegetables are more profitable
B. less
C. same 448. If a cut flower grower has a $500, 000
mortgage on her land and buildings, and
D. none of above she owes Farm Credit Service $60, 000
for this year’s mortgage payment, what
443. Placing the desires and welfare of oth- amount should be entered on the current
ers above oneself is a leadership quality liability line?
called:
A. $60, 000
A. enthusiasm
B. $440, 000
B. parliamentary procedure C. $500, 000
C. tact D. $560, 000
D. unselfishness 449. When cleaning the greenhouse, you
should
444. The cultivation of flowers, which includes
the production, distribution, and process- A. Sweep all the dirt and debris from the
ing of flowering and foliage plants floor in your area
A. Floriculture B. Make sure the tables are organized

C. Put all materials back in their desig-
B. Horticulture
nated area
C. Design by flower D. All of the above
D. none of above
450. The area of horticulture that involves the
planting, harvesting. Storing, processing
445. Specimen plants generally are
and marketing of vegetable crops.
A. used alone
A. Pomology
B. usually expensive B. Olericulture
C. often large trees/floor plants C. Floriculture
D. All of the above D. Landscape

451. Fusarium crown and root rot inoculum can C. making a list of 10 personal strategies
come from: that enhance verbal and non-verbal com-
munication.

A. The air
B. The seed D. making a poster with commonly used
tools in a chosen career and the proper
C. A and B safety procedures associated with each.
D. A and C
456. What is a turgid?
452. Which step in the SAE process would stu- A. a type of soil to use on plants
dents complete after finishing their foun-
B. a type of flower
dational SAE?
C. a plants that doesn’t have enough
A. get coaching and feedback from a
moisture
teacher or mentor
D. a plant that is swollen or filled with
B. fill out paperwork to obtain a personal
moisture
loan
C. sign up for community college courses 457. On a financial statement, items that can
be quickly converted to cash or that will
be sold within 12 months are:
D. begin an entrepreneurship SAE
A. current assets
453. When indicating or measuring pH, the B. current liabilities
lower the pH number, the:
C. equity
A. less acid
D. net worth
B. more acidic
458. The scientific name for an azalea is:
C. more alkaline
A. Cornus florida.
D. more neutral
B. Ficus benjamina.
454. creates particular beauty or interest in
C. Rhododendron kiusianum.
the landscape. It draws the observer’s
eye to a particular plant or area. It may be D. Saintpaulia ionantha.
one or a mass of plantings or hardscapes.
459. Ribbon with a higher number is:
A. foundation planting
A. wider
B. line planting
B. thinner
C. mass planting
C. shorter
D. accent planting
D. longer
455. An example of a foundational Supervised 460. What is a good choice for pencil hardness
Agricultural Experience activity in the ca- when drawing landscape designs?
reer exploration and planning area is:
A. HB-2H
A. creating a personal budget and track-
ing monthly financial activity. B. 2B-B
B. converting a career plan into a career C. 2B-HB

portfolio to use in interviews D. HB-B

461. Aesthetics is all about: B. personal financial planning and man-

A. increasing yield agement
B. increasing production C. agricultural literacy
C. producing plants that are pleasing in D. workplace safety

appearance 467. The beginning of the food chain for all liv-
D. none of the above ing things is the process of photosynthesis.
Most photosynthesis takes place in plant:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
462. A soil test report with a pH of 7.2 is:
A. flowers
A. extremely acid
B. leaves
B. extremely alkaline
C. roots
C. mildly acid
D. stems
D. mildly alkaline
468. The Purpose of the SAE is to
463. Which is the best inorganic growing me-
A. volunteer in your community.
dia?
B. gain work experience and life skills in
A. bark
agriculture.
B. compost
C. pass this class.
C. peat moss
D. communicate to people.
D. vermiculite
469. Suzy is attending an FFA meeting and
464. What is the release of water vapor from hears the gavel tap twice. This signifies:
leaves of plants to cool plants down?
A. that the meeting is adjourned
A. Transpiration
B. that the meeting was called to order
B. Photosynthesis
C. for everyone to be quiet and orderly
C. Respiration
D. for everyone to be seated
D. Translocation
470. Victoria spent 2 hours on Saturday prun-
465. Jones Landscape Company needs to in- ing a fruit tree although her SAE program
stall materials at a job site. Which draw- is producing bedding plants in her own
ing will employees likely use on the job? greenhouse. In which section of the SAE
A. functional record would she enter the fruit tree prun-
ing activity?
B. preliminary
A. analytical
C. final
B. experimental
D. none of above
C. placement
466. Which part of a foundational SAE would a D. supplementary
student be fulfilling by finding three schol-
arship applications that would support ed- 471. The tall bedding plant with clusters of col-
ucation towards his/her future career? orful flowers at the end of the stem that
A. employability skills for college and ca- Sherilee planted is most likely a/an:
reer readiness A. snapdragon

B. astilbe 477. What type of immersion SAE is Belle com-

C. evergreen candytuft. pleting by growing and selling red worms
used to produce compost?

D. Dutch iris.
A. entrepreneurship
472. a very prominent line planting; plants are
B. service learning
planted along the foundation of a building,
the entry way or a building to soften and C. placement
blend into the landscape. D. invention
A. corner planting
478. The main product of photosynthesis is:
B. foundation planting
C. line planting A. carbon dioxide
D. mass planting B. nitrogen

C. sugar
473. Which of the following is NOT provided
to plants by soil? D. water
A. stability
479. one of the most natural locations for a
B. nutrients focal point. This planting is placed in the
C. run-off corner of the landscape.
D. oxygen A. line planting

B. foundation planting
474. The pH test pH a soil sample determines
the : C. corner planting
A. Air and water movement D. mass planting
B. Amount of nitrogen
480. The science and practice of growing, har-
C. Salinity or salt content vesting, storing, designing, and marketing
D. Acidity or alkalinity flowering plant is:
A. floriculture
475. Which grass should a homeowner in
western NC plant if the grass needs to tol- B. pomology
erate high use or wear?
C. olericulture
A. Centipede grass
D. horticulture
B. Kentucky Bluegrass
C. St. Augustine grass 481. Small deciduous trees that flower all sum-
mer and into early fall with a flower color
D. Zoysia grass that may be white, pink, red, or purple.
476. Pruning a fruit tree is which SAE? What is the plant?
A. analytical A. Crepe myrtle

B. experimental B. Evergreen euonymus
C. placement C. Prayer plant
D. supplementary D. Red maple

482. A warm-season grass that grows from A. analytical

both stolons and rhizomes and has fine- B. placement
textured leaves that vary in color from
light green to dark green is: C. experimental
A. Annual Ryegrass D. school based enterprise
B. Bermuda 488. What does a landscape architect do?

C. Kentucky Bluegrass A. Cares for plants after they are in-
stalled.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Tall Fescue
B. Constructs pools, fences and drive-
483. What surrounds the stomates and regu- ways.
lates the open and close of the stomates?
C. Installs landscape plants.
A. Guard Cells
D. Plans and designs the outdoor environ-
B. Epidermis ments.
C. Apex 489. Why is soil important to plants?
D. Chlorplasts A. Plants extract water from the soil
484. Neil is sexually propagating some plants. B. Plants extract nutrients from the soil
Which plant parts will he use? C. Plants anchor themselves in the soil
A. leaves D. All of the above
B. roots
490. Grown on approximately 1% of the
C. seeds available US Cropland
D. stems A. Fruit
485. Container-grown plants need to have B. Vegetables
their roots untangled or cut before they C. Trees
are: D. Shrubs
A. decayed
491. The plant tissue that carries food DOWN-
B. planted WARD from the leaves to the rest of the
C. pruned pant is the
D. dried A. Phloem
B. Stomata
486. Plants produce which of the following?
C. Chlorophyll
A. neon
D. Xylem
B. sulfur
C. carbon dioxide 492. Most flowers, shrubs, and lawn grasses
grow best in a pH ranging from:
D. oxygen
A. 1.0 to 2.5
487. What type of Supervised Agricultural Ex- B. 3.0 to 5.0
perience would involve researching the ef-
fect of various planting times on the yields C. 5.5 to 7.0
of radishes? D. 7.5 to 9.0

493. Which grass is used on golf greens and C. A house that people grow plants, fruits,
requires fans to keep the greens cool? and vegetables in.

A. tall fescue D. All of the above
B. bentgrass
499. Who would be responsible for displaying
C. St. Augustine
and selling bedding plants?
D. Bahia
A. Garden center employee
494. The beginning of the food chain for all liv-
B. Greenskeeper
ing things on Earth is caused by the biolog-
ical process known as: C. Landscape designer
A. Root hairs D. Lawn maintenance employer
B. Structure
C. Leaves 500. The rising sun is an important part of the
FFA emblem because it represents:
D. Photosynthesis
A. agricultural knowledge and wisdom.
495. National blue and Corn gold are the:
B. agricultural opportunity and progress.
A. FFA Emblem
B. FFA Colors
C. the hard work associated with agricul-
C. FFA Motto ture.
D. FFA Slogan D. the national scope of the FFA.
496. The process of moving synthesized and
absorbed food and nutrients within the 501. Latoya is a landscape architect. What
plant is: does she do at work?
A. photosynthesis A. Cares for plants after they are in-

stalled
B. respiration
C. reproduction B. constructs pools, fences and drive-
ways.
D. translocation
C. installs landscape plants
497. The part of a net worth statement that
shows all debts is: D. Plans and designs the outdoor enviro-
ment
A. current liabilities
B. debt-to-equity ratio 502. Pesticide used to kill undesirable plants,
C. inventory which are commonly referred to as weed
is known as
D. total liabilities
A. Fungicide
498. What is a greenhouse?
B. Herbicide
A. A house made of glass and the glass
traps heat from sunlight. C. Insecticide
B. A house that stays warm inside. D. None of the Above

503. Kimberly is interested in designing, in- 508. The most important step prior to using
stalling, and maintaining the outdoor en- any pesticide is to
vironment around homes. What profes-
A. Mix it correctly
sional area will provide careers in her area
of interest? B. Read the label directions
A. accounting C. Determine the formulation
B. floristry D. Properly store it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. landscaping
509. Becky needs to cut some rose srems from
D. soil science
her bed of roses. What tool should she
504. Which type of tree was the partridge sit- use?
ting in, according to the popular Christmas A. Axe
song?
B. Chain saw
A. Pear
B. Apple C. Pole pruner
C. Oak D. Pruning shears

D. Maple 510. Using a socket pot to hold a potted plant
505. Butting two strips of grass together in a is what type of production?
brick pattern is used when A. Pot-in-pot
A. sodding B. Container
B. sprigging
C. Field-grown
C. sowing
D. Greenhouse
D. Plugging
511. Horticulture includes the production of
506. Mortgages that are not due this year are
plants for food, comfort and
entered on a financial statement as:
A. current assets A. Technology
B. current liabilities B. Beauty
C. non-current assets C. Style
D. non-current liabilities D. none of above
507. An indoor flowering plant grown for
512. What must happen for a plant to grow
hanging baskets and pots that has red,
seeds?
white, or pink flowers and green leaves
with long petioles, and is popular for A. nectar must move from one flower to
Mother’s Day is a: another
A. Boston Fern B. an animal must eat the flower
B. Geranium C. pollen must move from flower to
C. Hosta flower
D. Impatiens D. none of above

513. Caroline is careful to use tissue culture 518. The roots of nearly all plants in the wild
in laboratory conditions that are aseptic. are associated with which are fungi
Therefore, the laboratory environment is: that assist in plant uptake of nutrients and

A. dirty water.
B. humid A. mycorrhiza
C. pretty B. nonliving organic components
D. sterile C. arthropods
D. mushrooms
514. The production and use of plants to beau-
tify the environment. 519. What is the genus name for all dog-
A. nursery/ landscape woods?
B. floriculture A. Quercus
C. pomology B. Acer
D. none of above C. Cornus

D. Ilex
515. The part of the plant that transports wa-
ter and nutrients up from the roots to the 520. If a turfgrass farm has total assets of
stems and leaves is called the: $250, 000 and total liabilities of $150,
A. phloem 000, which number should be recorded on
the net worth line of the financial state-
B. cambia ment?
C. xylem A. $50, 000
D. bark B. $100, 000
516. Samantha is cutting the iris rhizome in C. $150, 000
sections. This method of asexual propaga- D. $400, 000
tion in which plants are broken or cut into
smaller pieces or clumps and are planted 521. Advantages of sexual (Seed) Propaga-
to form new plants is: tion
A. division A. to make multiples of them in days
B. grafting B. to produce many in a short amount of
C. layering time
D. seeding C. Produce large numbers in a large

amount of time
517. The scientific study of plants, including D. more in an hour than in a day
their physiology, structure, genetics, ecol-
ogy, distribution, classification, and eco- 522. Which of the following is NOT correct
nomic importance. about asexual reproduction?
A. Botany A. Less time required to produce a plant
B. Agronomy B. Plants are genetically identical
C. Forestry C. Less expensive
D. Horticulture D. Only way for some plants to reproduce

523. when choosing a career in horticulture B. GPH

you should
C. PSI
A. select a job with variety
D. none of above
B. select a job with opportunity for pro-
motion 529. Which is a characteristic of sandy tex-
C. consider the job responsibilities tured soils?
D. all of them A. High moisture-holding capacity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. High nutrient-holding capacity
524. A person who must be skilled in checking
horticultural products for diseases, insects, C. Low moisture-holding capacity
and quality is a/an: D. Small packed together soil particles
A. accountant
530. A fan floral design is shaped like a :
B. inspector
C. sales representative A. circle
D. teacher B. quarter moon

C. semi-circle
525. The open portion of the soil that holds air
or water is D. triangle
A. parent material 531. The most expensive method of establish-
B. field capacity ing a lawn is:
C. pore spaces A. plugging
D. bedrock B. seeding
526. Mass flowers are used in floral designs C. sodding
to add mass and to: D. sprigging
A. create the accent or focal point
532. is a complex organic molecule that
B. draw attention to the focal point
traps light energy for conversion through
C. fill empty spaces and hide the frame photosynthesis into chemical energy
D. outline the shape and size A. cytoplasm
527. Increasing the appearance, comfort and B. endoplasmic reticulum
value of your home is which type of SAE?
C. chlorophyll
A. analytical
D. ribosomes
B. entrepreneurshp
C. improvement 533. Pedro likes to add compost to condition
his soil. What is compost?
D. experimental
A. Clayey Soil
528. gallons per hour. Measures amount of
B. Decayed organic matter
water that flows through an irrigation sys-
tem. C. Vermiculite
A. GPM D. Volcanic Rock

534. Jennifer is using Rootone on her poinset- 539. The inner part of an ovary that contains
tia cuttings. She knows that an advan- an egg is the:
tage of using hormones on cuttings is that A. ovule

they:
B. seed
A. aid in photosynthesis.
C. stamen
B. decrease water needs
D. none of above
C. C. keep the leaves from dropping.
540. Which is an itemized list of things owned
D. spread root development
by a business?
535. Even though the parent material my have A. Equity
been present for many centuries, soils
B. Inventory
without well-developed horizons are clas-
sified as C. Liabilities
A. Undeveloped Soils D. Net worth
B. Old Soils 541. Which is an example of a physical haz-
C. Incomplete Soils ard?
D. Young Soils A. Spilled disinfectant

B. Bodily fluids
536. The term horticulture is derived from two
C. Animal bite
Latin words hortus, meaning ‘garden’, and
——— meaning ‘cultivation D. Chemical fumes
A. futura 542. The primary function of plant seeds is:
B. cultura A. Absorption
C. cultivar B. Photosynthesis
D. flora C. Plant identification
537. Callie is propagating her African violet by D. Sexual reproduction
taking leaf cuttings. She is confident that 543. The component of the animal science in-
leaf cuttings will work because she is us- structional program that gives students an
ing: opportunity to explore interests and gain
A. axillary buds work experience is the:
B. herbaceous plants A. classroom
C. stem tissue B. FFA
D. woody plants C. state ffa convention
D. Supervised Agricultural Experience
538. if you were interested in creating and de-
veloping better varieties of plants, what 544. Are you allowed to borrow tools to take
is a good career for you home?
A. teacher A. Yes
B. researcher B. No
C. marketing specialist C. Maybe
D. stock broker D. none of above

545. What is interveinal chlorosis? B. Experimental

A. Yellowing of leaves between green C. Service Learning
veins D. School based Enterprise
B. Darkening of leaves between green
551. We planted 500 Zinnia seeds in 1020
veins
flats. If we have a 85% germination rate
C. Small developing leaves how many Zinnias will we need to trans-
D. Removal of veins in a leaf plant to containers?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 325
546. What is a deficiency symptom?
B. 425
A. Gives dark green color
C. 485
B. Necessary to develop cell proteins
D. 500
C. Slow and Dwarfed Plant Growth
552. MOST cool-season grasses grow very lit-
D. Older leaves are purplish
tle during the hottest months of summer.
547. Plants produce What is this conditioncalled?
A. Oxygen A. dead
B. Air B. dormant
C. Nitrogen C. turgid
D. Pollution D. wilted
548. is the science that deals with the mi- 553. Pollination is the process by which the
croscopic structure of plant or animal tis- pollen grains are transferred from the
sues. to the
A. Histology A. anther ovary

B. anther stigma
B. Morphology
C. stigma ovary
C. Cytology
D. stigma filament
D. Hypocotyl
554. The green pigment in plants is due to the
549. Producing field-grown nursery plants is presence of
being replaced by container-grown plants
because container-grown plants: A. chlorophyll
A. have lower start-up costs. B. Chlorine
B. receive less shock when moved. C. Chlorophyta

D. chromatophores
C. require less water.
D. require less protection in winter. 555. The part of a flower that develops into a
fruit is the:
550. What type of immersion Supervised Agri-
A. Anther
cultural Experience involves volunteering
to teach floral design at a local assisted- B. Filament
living facility? C. Ovary
A. Invention D. Petal

556. Propagating nursery plants using a scion 561. Elements needed by a plant to promote
and rootstock is known as: healthy tissue, processes, and growth.

A. cutting A. Nutrients
B. grafting B. Soil
C. Water
C. layering
D. Sunlight
D. budding
562. Which FFA Career Development Event
557. Indoor Christmas-season plants with (CDE) will help develop knowledge and
bracts or modified leaves that are red, skills needed to effectively participate in a
pink, or white on different plants. What horticulture organization’s business meet-
is the name of these plants? ing?
A. Poinsettia A. Floriculture
B. Spider plant B. Introduction to Horticulture
C. Florist chrysanthemum C. Nursery/Landscape
D. Parliamentary Procedure
D. Geranium
563. What are the degrees that can be earned
558. gallons per minute. Measures amount of in FFA? Please select the answer choice
water that flows through an irrigation sys- that is listed in order.
tem
A. Chapter, Discovery, American, State
A. GMP
B. Chapter, Greenhand, State, American
B. GPH C. Greenhand, Chapter, State, American
C. PSI D. Discovery, Chapter, State, American
D. none of above 564. The main difference between sodding and
plugging is that sodding uses strips of sod
559. A soil report will include:
to cover the whole lawn, but plugging
A. cost of lime starts the lawn by using:
B. suggested fertilizer rate A. plant runners or cuttings
C. cost of fertilizer B. seeds
C. small pieces of sod
D. recommend planting time
D. stolons and sprigs
560. Jamie has a tray of marigold seedlings
565. The 1020 flat of plants normally sales for
she started from seed. She transplants
$27.00 per flat.If the flats go on sale for
the seedlings from the seedling flat to cell
25% off the current price, what will be
packs when the:
the sale price of the 1020 flat of plants?
A. first mature roots appear
A. $6.75
B. first true leaves are on the plant B. $20.25
C. plants are two weeks old C. $22.00
D. seedlings are 6 inches tall D. $26.75

566. Raising livestock, cultivating the soil, and 571. Fruit with leather skin, juicy and high in
producing row crops, including some fruits vitamin C.
and vegetables. A. tropical
A. Landscape B. citrus
B. Agriculture C. vine
C. Forestry D. melon
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
572. Which describes the loss in value of ma-
567. Foliages such as sprengeri ferns are used chinery or buildings due to age, use, or
in floral designs to: change in market demands?
A. add mass A. assets

B. depreciation
B. create outline
C. inventory
C. establish width
D. profit
D. fill empty spaces
573. Marigolds and other warm-season plants
568. What are the structural framework of the grow best during:
leaf?
A. early spring
A. Veins
B. midsummer
B. Midrib
C. late fall
C. Apex
D. midwinter
D. Blade
574. The male part of the flower is the
569. Fertilizers that dissolve in water and are
A. petal
applied as a liquid solution are
B. sepal
A. Inorganic
C. pistil
B. Organic
D. stamen
C. Soluble
575. Which is MOST interested in reducing the
D. Insoluble
carbon footprint
570. If a net worth statement shows that a A. Garden center salesperson
business has $5, 000 cash on hand, $20,
B. Golf course attendant
000 in a checking account, and land val-
ued at $600, 000, which amount should C. Green industry employee
be entered on the total assets line of a net D. Park ranger
worth statement?
576. What is landscape horticulture?
A. $25, 000
A. The design, installation, and mainte-
B. $575, 000
nance of landscapes
C. $600, 000
B. The science of growing grass for
D. $625, 000 sports play, lawns, and roadways

C. Cultivation of vegetables and herbs for 582. Soil does NOT provide which of the fol-
the home or market lowing?

D. Fruit trees that are grown for display A. Stability
in a yard. B. Oxygen
577. In this method, seeds are put in a con- C. Nutrients
tainer of water for 15 minutes. D. Water
A. Rag-doll method 583. The three main areas of the horticulture
B. Seedbox method industry are
C. Petri dish method A. plant, water, grow
D. Floating in water method B. pomology, olericulture, ornamental
horticulture
578. Which tropical plant has a flower similar
C. growing, sprouting, harvesting
to a lily?
D. horticulture, agriculture, aquaculture
A. Amaryllis
B. Croton 584. A method where tube of wet paper con-
taining the seeds that should be grown.
C. Snapdragon
A. Rag-doll method
D. Zinnia
B. seed box method
579. What type of immersion SAE benefits an C. Petri dish method
organization, group, or individuals other D. floating in water method
than the FFA chapter?
A. placement 585. Which of the following is NOT included as
a plant?
B. service learning
A. Lawns
C. entrepreneurship
B. Plastic
D. school-based enterprise
C. Bushes
580. The openings or stomates in the lower D. Gardens
leaf surface are opened and closed by the:
586. Production and cultivation of fruit and nut
A. Guard cells crops refers to which of the following?
B. Lateral buds A. Floriculture
C. Margins B. Olericulture
D. Xylem C. Cut flowers
581. Which of the following is a common in- D. Pomology

door plant? 587. looses leaves during dormant season
A. Fern A. deciduous
B. Corn B. turgid
C. Hibiscus C. evergreen
D. Sorghum D. wilted

588. High moisture holding capacity is a char- 593. What area of horticulture is concerned
acteristic of with growing, selling, designing, and ar-
ranging flowers
A. sand
A. Nursery production
B. silt
B. Landscaping
C. clay
C. Turfgrass management
D. perlite
D. Floriculture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
589. A 10-6-4 formula of fertilizer to feed
azaleas was purchased at the co-op. If the 594. A tree that has no leaves in the winter is
consumer bought a 100# of this fertilizer, considered:
how many pounds of Nitrogen would the
A. Deciduous
consumer have purchased?
B. Evergreen
A. 10
C. Herbaceous
B. 6
D. Turgid
C. 4
D. 20 595. The edge of a leaf is the:
A. Margin
590. The area of horticulture that includes
growing and harvesting flowers and mak- B. Midrib
ing and selling flower arrangements is: C. Terminal bud
A. agronomy D. Veins
B. floriculture
596. If the seed mixture in a deer plot formula
C. forestry says it has 25% Omega Ryegrass in the
D. pomology mixture, how many pounds of Omega Rye-
grass seed are in a 50# bag of the deer
591. Each year he horticulture industry puts plot mix?
over 25 billion dollars in the economy at
A. 25#
this level”
B. 12.5#
A. County
C. 50#
B. State
D. 6.25#
C. National
D. World 597. The turf play area is 3 feet longer than
it is wide and has an area of 550 square
592. Propagating nursery plants using a piece feet. How many feet long is the turfed
of stem or root is known as: play area?
A. cutting A. 20
B. grafting B. 22
C. layering C. 25
D. budding D. 28

598. is the growing, harvesting, storing, What is the best propagation method for
processing, and marketing of vegetables. him to accomplish his goal?

A. Horticulture A. budding
B. Olericulture B. cutting
C. Pomology C. grafting
D. Landscape Horticulture D. tissue culture
599. Someone who propagates and cares for 604. Part of a plant is removed to grow an-
plants is: other plant for propagation
A. Greenhouse worker A. cutting
B. Landscape designer B. planting
C. Floral designer C. transplanting

D. dividing
D. Lawn maintenance worker
605. Soils do not provide which of the follow-
600. Which officer position is stationed by the
ing?
flag?
A. Stability
A. President
B. Oxygen
B. Vice-President
C. Nutrients
C. Reporter
D. Water
D. Treasurer
606. Which state ranks first in wholesale sale
601. Which medium-evergreen shrub has of floriculture and olericulture crops?
yellowish-green new leaves, and “to 1”
A. California
long and “to ” wide medium-green mature
leaves? B. Florida
A. Grape ivy C. Texas
B. Japanese boxwood D. Illinois
C. Thorny elaeagnus 607. Where can a horticulturist work?
D. Warneckii dracena A. Greenhouse or nursery production and
management
602. Which stepladder type should be avoided
when working near electrical power B. Food Sevice
sources? - C. Business Management
A. Wood D. Building & Construction
B. Aluminum 608. What is not a type of soil?
C. Fiberglass A. Sand
D. All types B. Dirt
603. Chris is interested in producing the most C. Loam

new plants in the shortest time period. D. Clay

609. Which pruning tool should Sarah use to What is the area of Roger’s small back-
remove 1/4” diameter growth from her yard heated swimming pool if the drawing
azaleas? shows a measurement of 3 inches wide by
A. Axe 4 1/2 inches long?
B. Chainsaw A. 13.5 sq ft
C. Hand Shear B. 144 sq ft
D. Pole Pruner C. 216 sq ft
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 232 sq ft
610. Which large evergreen shrub has white,
pink, or red 1 ” - 2” flowers in October 615. Which of the following was listed as a
and November? career in the field of research?
A. Cape jasmine A. Irrigation analyst
B. Chinese dogwood B. Landscape service
C. Japanese yew C. Quality control inspector
D. Sasanqua camellia D. Food processing
611. Which of the following is NOT a benefit 616. What are the three parts of agriculture
of trees? education?
A. Pollution reduction A. Classroom/Lab, CDE, SAE
B. Shade B. Classroom/Lab, FFA, SAE
C. Color
C. Classroom, SAE, Agricscience
D. Shelter
D. Lab, Classroom, FFA
612. Malik wabts to plant a running type of
617. When Robert makes a floral design,
grass in a shady area in his lawn. What
which flowers does he use to make the out-
should he plant?
line of the arrangement?
A. Tall Fescue
A. Bird of paradise
B. Bentgrass
B. Chrysanthemums
C. Creeping Red Fescue
C. Gladious
D. Bahai
D. Orchids
613. The major energy input for the earth
comes from the 618. An immersion SAE that involves the stu-
dent working for an industry and gaining
A. Moon knowledge through experience is which
B. Equator SAE?
C. Sun A. research
D. Clouds B. ownership
C. placement
614. On a scale drawing of Roger’s house,
1/4 inch equals 1 foot actual length. D. school-based enterprise

619. When storing seeds, it is important to: 625. Because roses produce flowers on wood
A. keep seeds in a cool, dry place produced the same growing season, the
plants should be pruned in the:

B. maintain temperatures at 70◦ F
A. early spring.
C. provide humidity above 50◦ F
B. early summer.
D. place seeds in a plastic zip-lock bag
C. late spring.
620. The last step in the landscape project de- D. late summer.
velopment is:
A. bill the customer for the work done 626. Which is an application of the landscape
design principle of unity?
B. Determine the need or objective.
A. Install foundation plantings and pri-
C. develop a maintenance schedule vacy hedge
D. Select maintenance contractor. B. install same amount of plants on each
621. Floriculture is the study of: side of door
A. bedding and garden plants C. maintain size relationship between

plants and house
B. foliage plants
D. raise decks, patios, and porches to
C. potted flowering plants door level
D. all of the above
627. The science or practice of planting, man-
622. Cutting down a tree is called aging, and caring for forests.
A. Felling A. Botany
B. Knelling B. Agronomy
C. Dropping C. Forestry
D. Chopping D. Horticulture
623. FFA helps students develop beyond class, 628. The process of breaking, scratching, or
local school chapter, and federation. What softening the seed coat so that water can
is the first level of participation above fed- enter and initiate germination is called:
eration level? A. initiation
A. International B. scarification
B. National FFA Organization C. forcing
C. North Carolina FFA Association D. sprouting
D. Region
629. The related products and services sector
624. What is the genus name for all box- of the horticulture industry provides how
woods? many jobs?
A. buxus A. More than 100, 000
B. ilex B. More than 10 million
C. acer C. More than 250, 000
D. quercus D. More than 750, 000

630. What are the official FFA colors? 636. applies water under pressure over the
A. National Blue and Corn Gold tops of plants
B. National Blue and Corn Yellow A. sprinkle irrigation
C. Navy Blue and Corn Gold B. Drip or trickle irrigation
D. Blue and Gols C. Spray heads
631. One big problem of vegetative propaga- D. Rotary sprinklers

tion is excessive water loss. What is one
NARAYAN CHANGDER
637. Which procedure should Thomas use to re-
thing you could do to prevent this from move dead or diseased branches from his
killing your cutting? nursery plants?
A. Soak the plant with heavy amounts of
A. Fertilize
water each day
B. Landscape
B. Remove nodes and most stem tissue
C. Water plant only once C. Prune
D. Remove lower leaves of cutting D. Transplant
632. What is one thing soil is not made up of? 638. When placing a ladder against a platform
or roof, the top of the ladder should ex-
A. Organic material
tend above the point where the ladder
B. Living decomposers touches the platform or roof by at least
C. Air
D. Nurtients A. 2 ft
633. The leaves on a gladiolus plant are: B. 3 ft

A. shaped like palm trees. C. 4 ft
B. shaped like swords. D. 5 ft
C. variegated green and yellow. 639. If no more than one half the total leaf
D. velvety textured and quilted. surface should be removed and the recom-
mended mowing height is 1”, grass should
634. Which division of horticulture focuses on be mowed before its height reaches:
vegetables?
A. 1”
A. olericulture
B. 2”
B. pomology
C. 3”
C. agronomy
D. floriculture D. 4”
635. What is a potential source of danger 640. Candytuft is a bedding plant about 6” to
called? 12” inches tall and has:
A. Accident A. dark blue 1” fruit.
B. Hazard B. orange 3” flowers.
C. Right - to - know C. red 2” flowers.
D. Materials safety data sheet D. white 1” flowers.

641. Which of the following statement is 646. Which crop accounted for the greatest
true? percentage of total nursery production
sales?

A. Horticulture have decreased employ-
ment opportunities for women A. Broadleaf evergreens
B. The increase in horticultural produc- B. Deciduous shrubs
tion has increased the vulnerability
C. Deciduous trees
C. Horticulture is emerging as an impor-
tant source of livelihood in the rural D. Ground covers
D. none of above 647. If we offer a 20% discount to teachers in
642. Applying the engineering design process a flash sale on opening day of the Spring
to create a new product or service. FFA Plant sale, how much would be teacher
owe if she picked up $115 retail priced
A. Experimental plants from the greenhouse?
B. Analytical A. $138.00
C. Placement
B. $95.00
D. Invention
C. $92.00
643. A leaflike part that protects a flower bud D. $102.00
is a
A. sepal 648. Lee is making a hedge row of hollies. He
B. ovary uses the heading back pruning method to:
C. reproduce A. Cut off branches at same height

D. none of above B. cut roots prior to transplanting
C. open up a tree or shrub
644. Which large deciduous tree has 6” long
and 4” wide medium-green leaves with 3 D. remove old branches to rejuvenate
to 5 pointed lobes and 1” - 1 ” fuzzy round
fruit? 649. Which of the following is not a soil parti-
cle?
A. Clematis
B. Snapdragon A. Sand
C. London plane tree B. Clay

D. Wintergreen barberry C. Silt
645. Which type of immersion Supervised Agri- D. Rock

cultural Experience could require financial
650. If the scientific name is Ficus benjamina,
and operational reports that are presented
what plant is it?
to an oversight committee?
A. school based enterprise A. peace lily
B. entrepreneurship B. weeping fig

C. experimental C. english ivy
D. placement D. impatiens

651. Water loss from the leaf surface through 656. Which of the following is NOT provided
evaporation is the plant process called: by lawns?
A. absorption A. Aesthetics
B. photosynthesis B. Windbreak
C. respiration C. Environmental value
D. transpiration D. Resource protection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
657. keeps leaves and remains green year
652. Mark takes some soil samples from his
round
lawn and some from a field where he
grows vegetables. Compared to the field A. turgid
samples, his samples from the lawn should B. evergreen
be taken:
C. deciduous
A. about 2 inches deeper.
D. agronomy
B. about 8 inches deeper.
658. When planning a speech, the speaker
C. about 2 inches shallower. should consider the purpose, the occasion,
D. at the same depth and the
A. Audience
653. Voice, stage presence, power of expres-
sion, response to question s, and general B. Cost of clothes
effect are factors used to evaluate the: C. Fee for speaking
A. Audience D. Temperature
B. Judges 659. Aaron is working in landscape mainte-
C. Oral delivery nance. What does he do?
D. Written speech A. Cares for the landscape.
B. Designs, installs and contracts the
654. The purpose of a speech that convinces landscape.
people to believe or to do something is to:
C. Designs landscape plans.
A. Entertain
D. Installs landscape plants.
B. Inform
660. The total perimeter of the square garden
C. Introduce
bed is 48 feet. What is the total area of
D. Persuade the bed in square feet?
655. Suzy needs to help the designer get an A. 12

idea of the general layout of the property. B. 96
Which plan does she need? C. 144
A. construction diagram D. 192
B. Contractor plan.
661. the culture of plants for food, comfort,
C. final plan and beauty
D. functional diagram A. horticulture

B. pomology 667. The area of horticulture that involves the

C. floriculture planting, harvesting, storing, processing
and marketing of fruit ad nut crops.

D. olericulture
A. Flolriculture
662. What is the FFA Salute?
B. Landscape
A. I believe in the future of agriculture
C. pomology
B. The Pledge of Allegiance
C. The National Anthem D. Olericulture
D. America the Beautiful 668. What is the best running-type grass for
663. An individual whose profession includes Malik to plant in a shady area of his
the planting of trees and shrubs, as well lawn?
as construction of patios, walls, and other A. Tall fescue
outdoor features is a:
B. Bent grass
A. Landscape nurseryman
C. Creeping red fescue
B. Landscape Contractor
C. Landscape designer D. Bahia grass
D. Home Gardener 669. The drawing that employees of Jones

664. If Shanice plants a shrub with small, Landscape Company will use to install ma-
glossy entire margined leaves, she most terials at a jobsite is most likely the:
likely is planting a: A. bubble diagram.
A. Japanese boxwood. B. final plan.
B. helleri holly. C. functional plan.
C. gold mop.
D. preliminary design.
D. Japanese andromeda.
670. What is the highest FFA degree one can
665. Renee needs about 1, 000 petunia plants.
receive?
If the seed germination rate is 50%, what
is the minimum number of seeds she should A. State FFA Degree
sow? B. Chapter FFA Degree
A. 50
C. Greenhand FFA Degree
B. 1, 000
D. American FFA Degree
C. 1, 200
D. 2, 000 671. Installing a corner planting to draw the
eyes of the viewer to that place demon-
666. Filler flowers are used in floral design strates this design principle:
for:
A. balance
A. add mass and draw attention
B. draw attention to focal point B. focalization
C. establish height, width, and hide ties C. rhythm and line
D. fill empty spaces and hide ties D. unity

672. A round floral arrangement is shaped like C. improvement

a: D. placement
A. circle
678. A tropical plant with a glossy, green, scal-
B. quarter moon loped leaf that has a long-lasting flower is
C. semicircle most likely a/an:
D. triangle A. Christmas cactus.
B. wax plant.
673. What percent of the world’s water is in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the oceans? C. emerald-ripple peperomia.
A. 67.6 D. kalanchoe.
B. 97.6 679. A part-time job at a florist is which type

of SAE?
C. 87.6
A. anyalytical
D. 77.6
B. improvement
674. Which characteristics of sandy textured C. placement
soils?
D. supplementary
A. small packed together soil particles
680. What does NRCS stand for?
B. high moisture-holding capacity
A. National Rural Conservatory Service
C. high nutrients-holding capacity
B. Natural Resource Conservation Ser-
D. low moisture-holding capacity
vice
675. The primary function of a flower is C. North Richmond Conservation Service
A. to look nice
B. produce sugars D. National Reservation of Conserving
Soil
C. reproduction
681. Where should tools be returned?
D. store food
A. Tool Shed
676. The science and practice of growing, har-
B. Greenhouse
vesting, storing, processing and marketing
vegetables is: C. Barn
A. floriculture D. Classroom
B. pomology 682. Which is an application of the landscape

design principle of proportion?
C. olericulture
A. install foundation plantings and a pri-
D. horticulture
vacy fence
677. Sean is working on the training agree- B. maintain size relationships between
ment part of his SAE. It is signed by him- plants and the building
self, parent or guardian, and his employer C. raise porches, patios, and decks to the
and supervisor this is what type of SAE? level of doors
A. analytical D. repeat colors, construction materials,
B. entrepreneurship or plants

683. Nutrients that a plant needs in large C. bushes

amounts
D. flowers

A. Micro Nutrients
B. Fertilizer 689. What type of immersion SAE is Mark
completing by building and maintaining the
C. Soil compost units at the school?
D. Macro Nutrients A. school-based enterprise
684. if you become a greenhouse employee, B. entrepreneurship
what is one of your job responsibilities
C. invention
A. aerate the soil
D. research
B. produce out-of season plants
C. work with customers 690. Marcy mixes perlite in her soilless mix.
What is perlite?
D. maintain the grass
A. Bark from a pecan tree
685. Newly planted trees should be stalked
B. Dead plant material
to:
C. Natural volcanic rock
A. Hold plant straight
B. Hold water D. Product of seaweed
C. Prevent soil erosion 691. The term for an undeveloped shoot or

D. provide mulch flower is:
A. Stamen
686. What form of documentation would Alex
need as he starts his internship with a B. Bud
county’s soil scientist? C. Node
A. peer reviews of his publication
D. Margin
B. scholarship application
C. business plan 692. “Protection against accidents and break-
age” is
D. training plan
A. Accident Protection
687. The main expense for using plugging to B. Safety
establish a lawn is:
C. Workplace Correctness
A. Fertilizer
D. Prevention
B. labor
C. pesticides 693. The lower portion of a graft is known as
D. seeds what?
A. Rootstock
688. Which of the following is responsible for
the creation of large-scale windbreaks? B. Lowerstock
A. trees C. Understock
B. grass D. Scion

694. Should you eat while outside on the 699. reactions form oxides of parent ma-
farm? terial by reaction with oxygen.
A. Yes A. Hydrolysis
B. No B. Oxidation
C. Maybe C. Aseptic
D. Septic
D. none of above
700. 1) Spotted lanternfly can be accidentally
NARAYAN CHANGDER
695. Floriculture is the area of ornamental hor- moved to other locations as:
ticulture that deals with the
A. egg masses
A. Designing plans for landscapes and B. nymphs
turf areas
C. adults
B. Production and use flowers potted
D. all of the above
plants and annual bedding plants
C. Production of vegetables, fruits and 701. when plants rest and grow very little
nuts for retail sales A. floriculture
D. Producing plants for culinary uses B. deciduous
C. agronomy
696. If a plant farm has total assets of $500,
D. dormant
000 and total liabilities of $300, 000,
what number is the correct entry on the 702. Plants grown for their visual appeal are
net worth line of a financial statement? called
A. $200, 000 A. Olericulture
B. $300, 000 B. plant propagation
C. $500, 000 C. Botany
D. $800, 000 D. Ornamentals

703. Caroline moved to sell candy to raise
697. The science of soil management and crop money for scholarships. Adam wants to
production. sell flowers. To change the motion, Adam
A. Botany moves to:
B. Agronomy A. adjourn
C. Forestry B. amend
C. appeal
D. Horticulture
D. argue
698. Pedro adds compost to condition his soil.
704. An installation of plants decorating the
What is compost?
inside of a building
A. clayey soil A. Landscaping
B. decayed organic matter B. Interiorscaping
C. vermiculite C. Interior Design
D. volcanic rock D. Land Design

705. Disadvantages of sexual (Seed) propaga- B. entrepreneurship

tion C. improvement

A. they are all long and large D. placement
B. Most seeds are very slow and germi-
nate 710. What can Sammy do to cause his nursery
plants to grow more compact?
C. True
A. Lime
D. False
B. Prune
706. Which of the following is NOT considered
C. Transplant
a recreational value for plants?
D. Water
A. Crop production
B. sports 711. Seth has a few plants left to sale, he has
4 red Gerbera daisies left and 5 yellow
C. gardening
Gerbera daisies left. If Seth just randomly
D. lawns grabs one of these plants off the table to
give away, what is the probability that
707. A plant that has spikes with florets and
Seth grabs a red Gerbera Daisy?
is used to make floral arrangements is
a/an: A. 1/5
A. arrowhead vine. B. 1/4
B. gladiolus. C. 4/9
C. parlor palm. D. 4/5
D. zinnia. 712. This type of SAE involves planning and
708. Which activity might a group of students conducting an agricultural experiment us-
conducting a School-based Enterprise using ing the scientific process or scientific
the school greenhouse complete as they be- method.
gin their immersion SAE? A. Entrepreneurship
A. brainstorm potential employers for the B. Improvement
experience C. Exploratory
B. develop a research plan including all
D. Experimental
safety requirements
C. complete necessary paperwork to ob- 713. Which of the following sectors of the
tain a small business loan economy are NOT affected by horticul-
ture?
D. create and distribute a survey to ex-
plore marketplace needs and buyer pref- A. mining
erences for bedding plants B. plant production
709. Michele is computerizing the production C. sales and marketing
records for a local nursery operation. This D. research
is an example of what type of Supervised
Agricultural Experience? 714. shape of the individual plants
A. analytical A. form

B. line B. 216
C. texture C. 1296
D. sustainability D. 2592
715. Various numbers of taps of the gavel 720. Cash and things owned by the individual
have different meanings, but overall the or the business for which a financial state-
gavel is the symbol of: ment is prepared are listed as:
A. authority A. assets
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. FFA B. equity
C. Voting C. liabilities
D. weakness D. working capital
716. Victor joins a new variety of pecan tree 721. The plant process by which all food is
to some rootstock he has grown from manufactured is:
seeds. Which propagation method does he A. absorption
use?
B. photosynthesis
A. grafting
C. respiration
B. hardwood cuttings
D. translocation
C. layering
722. A pesticide is applied to a hay field at
D. softwood cuttings
1/4 quarts per acre. The hayfield is 24
717. a plant that completes its life cycle in one acres in size, how many gallons of the pes-
year ticide do we need to use to eradicate the
pest? (4 quarts equals 1 gallon)
A. annual
A. 24
B. deciduous
B. 12
C. biennial
C. 6
D. horticulture
D. 4
718. What type bud is on the side of a stem?
723. When planning a vertical garden what is
A. Apical most important to pay attention to?
B. Lateral A. Sun
C. Lentical B. water
D. Terminal C. soil
719. A greenhouse has a dirt floor. The owner D. temperature
has made some money from his fall shrub
sales the last three years and decides to 724. When a floral design looks too small for
pour a concrete floor. How many square the area where it is used, the design princi-
feet is his greenhouse if it measures 36’ ple the floral designer failed to follow is:
wide and 72’ long? A. accent
A. 108 B. rhythm

C. scale 730. What type of garden needs a profes-

sional architect to help you plan it?
D. unity

A. Raised bed
725. As a garden center worker, Julie should: B. Container
A. be a high school dropout C. Rooftop
B. be unfriendly to customers D. Flat bed
C. enjoy working with people and plants
731. Lemon leaf and gerber daisies are used in
D. expect to work in an air conditioned arrangements are:
area
A. line flowers
726. How big should the gap between garden B. mass flowers
rows and boxes?
C. form flowers
A. 4 ft
D. filler flowers
B. 3 inches
732. Plants remove which of the following
C. 10 ft from the atmosphere?
D. 2 ft A. Oxygen
727. Annual plants complete their life cycle in B. Helium
A. one year C. Carbon dioxide
B. two years D. Argon
C. three years 733. Angela has a part-time job working after

school and on Saturdays at a local florist.
D. ten years
In what type of Supervised Agricultural Ex-
perience is Angela participating?
728. Plant production generates how much in
the United States? A. analytical
A. More than $70 billion B. improvement
B. More than $350 billion C. placement
C. More than $150 billion D. supplementary
D. More than $500 billion 734. If a business has $10, 000 cash on hand,
$25, 000 in a checking account and land
729. The use of horticultural plants and meth- valued at $300, 000, on which line of a
ods as therapeutic tools with disabled and financial statement should the $335, 000
disadvantaged people total be entered?
A. Allopathy A. current assets
B. Homeopathy B. net worth
C. Horticultural Therapy C. total assets
D. Naturopathy D. total liabilities

735. Which of the following is NOT a way gar- C. Grounds Maintenance

den plants impact the environment? D. Nursery
A. Cleaning the air
741. Find the area of petunia garden that mea-
B. Absorbing carbon dioxide
sures 5.75 ft by 3.0 ft.
C. Releasing fragrance
A. 8.75 ft
D. Eliminating pests
B. 17.5 ft
736. Which of the following does not make up
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 17.25 ft
soil texture?
D. 34.5 ft
A. clay
B. organic matter 742. What is a perennial that produces a
long-lasting colorful flower often used by
C. sand florists?
D. silt
A. Christmas cactus
737. Of these materials, which is the best for B. Wax plant
use in an organic growing media?
C. Gerber daisy
A. bark
D. Nerve plant
B. perlite
C. Styrofoam beads 743. Nursery plants that are produced by cut-
tings are propagated:
D. vermiculite
A. sexually.
738. Clayey textured soils are characterized B. by seed.
by:
C. asexually.
A. being loose and single grain.
D. by amending.
B. having high moisture-holding capacity.
744. If Joel gets someone else to install the
C. having large soil particles. pools, stonework, and electrical work for
his design-build landscape business, he is
D. having low moisture-holding capacity.
most likely using a:
739. A person who cultivates and markets sod A. floral designer
is a:
B. landscape designer
A. Field crop technician
C. landscape maintenance crew
B. Nursery manager
D. subcontractor
C. Turfgrass producer
D. greenhouse manager 745. The planting, harvesting, storing, pro-
cessing, and marketing of vegetable crops
740. Which type of employee cares for the
A. Horticulture
land area and plants surrounding a busi-
ness, industry, church or school? B. Olericulture
A. Garden Center C. Floriculture
B. Golf Course D. Pomology

746. area of lawn and a group of sprinklers C. honesty

operated by one remote control valve also D. tact
called a block of heads

A. zone 751. Trevor sees a tropical plant at the mall
that has thin red bands along the margin.
B. cycle What plant does he see?
C. main line A. Jade plant
D. lateral line B. Aglaonema
747. If a turfgrass producer’s inventory shows C. False aralia
10 mowers valued at $100 each, 10 tons D. Red-edged dracaena
of fertilizer worth $300 per ton, pesti-
cides worth $2, 000 and 10 acres of land 752. Sue wears a white collared shirt, black
valued at $4, 000 per acre, what amount shoes, black skirt, FFA scarf and FFA
should be entered on the total value on Jacket zipped half way to the top. What
the non-depreciable inventory line of the component of the official FFA dress is she
inventory page? missing?
A. $6, 400 A. her black shoes should be brown
B. $40, 000 B. her jacked should be zipped to the top
C. $45, 000 C. her shirt should be blue rather than
D. $46, 000 white
D. her skirt should be navy
748. line flowers are used in floral design to:
A. Add mass and weight 753. The most desirable soil for non-container
outdoor plant production is:
B. establish height and width
A. clay
C. draw attention to accent area
B. loam
D. fill empty spaces
C. sand
749. Sean is working on the training agree- D. silt
ment part of his SAE. It is signed by him-
self, his parent, or guardian, and his em- 754. Which of the following is not a rule in the
ployer or supervisor. This is part of what Greenhouse?
type of SAE? A. Remove tripping hazards
A. analytical B. Only use chemicals for the intended
B. entrepreneurship purpose
C. improvement C. Wear the appropriate PPE’s
D. placement D. Chemicals can be stored at your sta-
tion.
750. The leadership trait that gives the energy
to do a job and the inspiration to encour- 755. Trees that keep their functional leaves
age others is called: throughout the year are:
A. courage A. auxins
B. enthusiasm B. deciduous

C. evergreen 761. Which oak tree has dark-green large

D. inhibitors leaves with a round base and 3 to 5 lobes
with bristle tips?
756. Which warm-season grass grows from
stolons and has medium-textured light A. Live
green leaves? B. Pin
A. Centipede C. Southern Red
B. Kentucky bluegrass
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Water
C. Perennial ryegrass
D. Zoysia 762. How many points of contact should you
have when using a ladder
757. Which country is one of the world’s top
producers of fruits and nuts? A. 4 points of contact
A. Canada B. 3 points of contact
B. Austrailia C. 2 points of contact
C. United Arab Emirates
D. 1 points of contact
D. United States
758. Uneek is making leaf cuttings. She must 763. Angela has a part time job working after
be certain that she cuts the leaf: school and on Saturdays at a local florist.
In what type of SAE is Angela participating
A. margin in
B. petiole
A. analytical
C. stomate
B. improvement
D. vein
C. placement
759. Emily has a business that installs land-
scape timbers around raised bed gardens D. supplementary
for home owners. Mrs Jones hires Emily’s
company to edge her beds that measure 764. Which plant has feather-like foliage
16 ft long and 4 ft wide. How many feet A. Fortune tea olive
of landscape timbers does Emily need to
buy for this job? B. Plume asparagus fern
A. 16 C. Southern red oak
B. 20 D. Sycamore
C. 32
D. 40 765. What are you allowed to cut with
pruners?
760. The scientific name is made up what?
A. Branches or leaves on a plant
A. Genus and Species
B. Clothing
B. Genus and Phenotype
C. First and Last Name C. Fingers
D. Species and Family D. Hair

766. Watering is more important for container- C. Tree

grown plants than field-grown plants be- D. Foliage Plant
cause:

A. spacing the pots in the nursery would 771. Which of the following special purpose
have to increase. footwear should you wear to avoid a
buildup of static electricity?
B. plants would have to be hand watered.
A. Metatarsal guards
C. roots can go no deeper or spread any B. Safety toe shoes
wider than the container.
C. Electrically conductive shoes
D. plants can only live in a container for
D. Foundry shoes
one year.
767. secondary line of an irrigation system 772. Deciduous is a biological term used to de-
that has water pressure only when valve scribe certain plants. As an example of a
is open deciduous tree is a:
A. lateral line A. Southern Red Oak

B. main line B. Red cedar
C. cycle C. Long Leaf Pine
D. zone D. Short Leaf Pine
768. What part of the horticulture instruc- 773. Which is best for cutting limbs and trees
tional program provides the most oppor- larger than 3” in diameter?
tunities to develop leadership, teamwork,
A. Chain saw
citizenship, and personal growth?
A. FFA B. Hedge shears
B. Horticulture Knowledge C. Lopping shears

C. Plant Nursery D. Power pole pruner
D. Supervised Agricultural Experience 774. A warm-season grass that has coarse
(SAE) textured medium-to-dark green leaves
and grows from stolons is:
769. Which of the following is NOT an environ-
mental factor impacted by plants? A. Annual Ryegrass
A. animal life B. Fine Fescue
B. tides C. Kentucky Bluegrass
C. run-off D. St. Augustinegrass
D. erosion
775. What is the main purpose of flowers?
770. What is a plant that is used in the
A. Make people happy
landscape for their colorful greenery or
leaves? B. Produce Seeds
A. Herbaceous Perennial C. Produce food
B. Biennial D. Food for the bees

776. form flowers used in floral designs have: C. Maybe

A. florets on tall spikes D. none of above
B. flowers on end of stems
782. This type of SAE deals with planning,
C. small sprays of flowers implementing, operating and assuming fi-
D. unique shapes or colors nancial risks in an agricultural business or
farming activity.
777. After fertilization, this part of a plant
eventually becomes the fruit. A. Placement
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. seed B. Entrepreneurship
B. ovary C. Improvement
C. sepel D. Supplementary
D. petal 783. The ability of a seed to germinate is
778. The procedure Cathy uses to shape her known as:
container-grown nursery stock and re- A. Inert
move dead and diseased limbs is:
B. Viable
A. chemical pruning.
C. Grading
B. disbudding.
D. Debris
C. hand pruning.
D. liming 784. producing and using plants to make out-
door environments more appealing
779. Net worth is the same as:
A. landscape horticulture
A. current assets
B. pomology
B. equity
C. horticulture
C. inventory
D. floriculture
D. total liabilities
785. An example of a pomology career would
780. Insects with this type of mouthpart are
be
most likely to damage plants by carrying
and spreading diseases. A. Lawn care
A. Chewing B. Florist
B. Sponging C. veterinarian
C. Piercing and sucking D. Pecan Farmer
D. Siphoning
786. Which of the following is NOT an environ-
781. Is Turf Grass Management the establish- mental benefit of plants?
ment and care of a grass surface in a res-
A. Provide shade
idential, business, sports- facility, or park
setting? B. Increase erosion
A. Yes C. Provide cooler temperatures
B. No D. Filter air

787. An SAE that identifies a problem that C. gladiolus

cannot be solved by experiments, and in- D. open roses
volves designing a plan to investigate and

analyze the problem is: 793. After a student has evaluated his or her
A. analytical own interests and has narrowed the field
of jobs, then the student should:
B. entrepreneurship
A. apply for a job
C. experimental
B. complete a job application
D. exploratory
C. go for a job interview
788. Hazards associated with specific chemi- D. study the requirements of the job
cals are described in the
A. Material Safety Data Sheets 794. Which plant has florets on a stalk and is
used in floral designs?
B. OSHA Pathogen Standard
A. Cape jasmine
C. Hazard Communication Standard
B. Hetzi holly
D. OPIM Guidelines
C. Japanese flowering cherry
789. Which shrub has dark green 1” needle-
D. Snapdragon
like foliage?
A. Compacta holly 795. Mass flowers used in floral designs
have:
B. Indian hawthorn
A. flowers on the end of stems
C. Japanese yew
B. small sprays of flowers
D. French hydrangea
C. tall spikes with florets
790. Zoey prefers to use a soilless horticul-
D. unique shapes or colors
tural mix for her greenhouse because the
mix: 796. Monocot stems have the xylem and
A. Comes from the garden phloem:
B. Has a lot of weight A. In small bundles scattered throughout
the stem
C. Cheap
B. In ten layers or ten circles
D. Sterile
C. On each side of the cambium layer
791. What is the genus name for all oaks?
D. On the outside of the stem
A. Quercus
B. Acer 797. The “balance” landscape design principle
is demonstrated by:
C. Cornus
A. Installing equal plants on each side of
D. Ilex a door.
792. filler materials used in floral design may B. Installing foundation plantings and pri-
be: vacy fences
A. Baby’s breath C. Installing plants to block a view.
B. daisies D. none of above

798. Pomology is: B. creating a personality profile of

A. The production of pom poms prospective employers
B. The industry of cut flowers C. eliminating the need for job interviews
C. The science of vegetables

D. providing a resume template
D. The production of fruit and nut crops
804. Which is part of a stem?
799. A Hogarth curve floral design is shaped
NARAYAN CHANGDER
like a/an: A. Anther
A. fan B. Filament
B. inverted T C. Leaf scar
C. oval D. Root cap
D. S 805. The young plant surrounded by a protec-
tive covering is called a
800. Process of creating new plants
A. seed
A. Germination
B. stigma
B. Propagation
C. style
C. Fertilization
D. sepal
D. Pollination
806. Which soil particles are the smallest?
801. The planting, harvesting, storing, pro-
cessing, and marketing of fruit and nut A. clay
crops B. rocks
A. Pomology C. sand
B. Horticulture D. silt
C. Floriculture
807. Andrew selects a unique azalea plant.
D. Olericulture
The propagation method that he uses to
802. Sean is working on the training agree- rapidly increase the number of identical
ment part of his Supervised Agricultural plants is:
Experience. It is signed by himself, his par- A. grafting
ent or guardian, and his employer or super-
B. leaf cuttings
visor. This is part of what type of SAE?
C. seeding
A. Analytical
D. tissue culture
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Improvement 808. Because trees live many years, they are:
D. Placement A. annuals
B. biennials
803. A career plan helps students by:
A. identifying courses and skills needed C. perennials
to pursue a specific profession D. semiannuals

809. the even distribution of materials on op- C. floriculture

posite sides of a central axis D. olericulture

A. balance
815. is a complex polysaccharide carbohy-
B. texture drate. The form of food commonly stored
C. focalization by plants.
D. texture A. ribosome
810. What holly has 1-3 terminal spines and B. lipid
reaches heights of 15’-25’? C. protein
A. Compacta D. starch
B. Nellie R. Stevens
816. Participating in FFA public speaking,
C. Carissa extemporaneous public speaking, creed
D. Helleri speaking, parliamentary procedure, agri-
cultural sales career development events,
811. What should be used to determine if and oral reasons for livestock, dairy, and
amendments are needed in native soil? poultry career development events each
A. Aeration help students develop:
B. Fertilizing A. animal science technical skills
C. Treatment B. communication skills
D. Soil test C. interest in animal science
D. plant science technical skills
812. If you work for the Cincinnati Reds mow-
ing grass, what branch of agriculture are 817. A large, shade-loving evergreen growing
you participating in? in the edge of forests on his last trip to the
A. Turfgrass Management mountains. If the shrub has dark green
leaves that are five inches long and two
B. Ornamental Horticulture
inches wide and has many large flowers,
C. Landscape and Nursery it is most likely a:
D. Floriculture A. Catawba Rhododendron
813. An immersion SAE that is a chance to use B. Red Oak
the knowledge & skills gained from school C. Red Maple
to address real needs in the world is:
D. Japanese Barberry
A. research
B. service based learning 818. 1) Spotted lanternfly nymphs:
C. school based enterprise A. are red, black and white as early in-
stars
D. placement/internship
B. are red, black and white as fourth in-
814. Which division of horticulture focuses on stars
flowering plants? C. have gray and pink fully functional
A. pomology wings with black spots
B. landscape and nursery D. are black and white as fourth instars

1.4 Plant breeding 150
819. The term that comes from a Latin word A. Japanese pachysandra.
that means “garden cultivation” and in- B. clematis.
cludes fruits, vegetables and ornamental
plants is: C. Gerber daisy.
A. Agronomy D. coneflower.
B. Horticulture 823. the continuity of a landscape. Geomet-

C. Floriculture ric shapes and curved patterns allow the
observer’s eye to move around the land-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Zoology scape
820. Which demonstrates the “proportion” A. form
landscape design principle? B. line
A. Install foundation plantings. C. texture
B. install privacy fence D. balance
C. maintain size relationship between
plants 824. While the pH of most commercial horti-
culture soilless mixes is neutral, the pH of
D. Repeat colors, construction materials, bark, peat moss, and sphagnum moss is:
or plants.
A. acid
821. If Dave has a bag of fescue that has a B. alkaline
seed germination rate of 80%, he can ex-
pect: C. basic
A. 20 out of 80 seeds to germinate. D. neutral
B. 80 out of 100 seeds to germinate. 825. The scientific study of plants.

C. all seeds to germinate. A. Pomology
D. 20 out of 100 seeds to germinate. B. Botany
822. The perennial flowering vine Amy C. xylem

planted in her garden is most likely a: D. horticulture
1.4 Plant breeding

1. Polyploidy can be induced using C. M.S. Swaminathan
A. Harmones D. Thomas Fairchild
B. GAA 3. Which of the following is NOT a normally
C. IAA self pollinated crop?
D. Colchicines A. Barley
B. Wheat
2. Concept of Progeny testing was introduced
by C. Ragi
A. Van der Plank D. Cotton
B. Vimorin 4. Pusa komal is resistant to

A. Bacterial blight 10. In which of the following states did the

B. Black rot and Curl Green revolution in India first introduced?

C. White rust A. Uttarakhand
D. Hill burnt B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Punjab
5. Triple fusion leads to formation of
A. a. Embryo D. Karnataka
B. b. PMC 11. Who discovered the unit factors of inher-

C. c. Endosperm itance by doing series of plant hybridisa-
tion experiments in 1866?
D. d. MMC
A. John Hopkins
6. Backrossing involves crossing
B. Muller
A. Parent and parent
C. Mendel
B. Hybrid and hybrid
D. Hardy
C. Parent and hybrid
D. none of above 12. The term centres of origin was coined by
A. a. Harlan de wet
7. Consider the statement (s) related to the
green revolution:1) Increasing agricultural B. b. Vavilov
production by incorporating modern tools C. c. Zhukovosky
and techniques.2) New high - yielding va-
D. d. Johanssen
rieties of wheat were developed by Prof.
Norman Borlaug & were adopted by a num- 13. Somatic hybridisation is achieved through
ber of countries.Which of the following
A. Grafting
is/are correct statement (s)?
A. Only 1 B. Conjugation
B. Only 2 C. Protoplast fusion

C. Both 1 and 2 D. Recombinant DNA technology
D. Neither 1 nor 2 14. Polyploidy is induced through
8. Plant breeding is the of plants in order A. Irradiation
to create desired plant types. B. Mutagenic chemicals
A. Breeding C. Ethylene
B. Manipulation D. Colchicine
C. Crossing
15. In , resistance to yellow mosaic virus
D. none of above and powdery mildew were induced by mu-
9. Thale Cress is an example of tations
A. Inbreeding A. Mung bean
B. Hybrid breeding B. Brassica
C. Genetic engineering C. Cauliflower
D. none of above D. Wheat

16. Which of the following crop is not part of 22. Who proposed the centres of Origin the-
High - Yielding Varieties Programme? ory?
A. Rice A. Mendel
B. Wheat B. Hopkins
C. Jowar C. Vilmorin
D. Pulses D. Vavilov
17. Pure line breed refers to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
23. The new varieties of plants are produced
A. heterozygosity only by
B. homozygosity only A. Introduction and mutation
C. homozygosity and self assortment B. Selection and hybridisation
D. heterozygosity and linkage
C. Mutation and Selection
18. In homomorphic system of Self incompati- D. Selection and Introduction
bility, incompatibility due to phenotype of
pollen is termed as 24. Nobilisation of cane refers to
A. a. Gametopyhtic SI A. a. S. spontaneum
B. b. Sporohytic SI B. b. S.indicum
C. c. Distyly C. c. S. officianarum
D. d. Tristyly D. d. S.barberi
19. The main nodal agency for plant introduc-
tion in India is 25. Bagging is done to
A. a. IPGRI A. Avoid cross pollination

B. b. CRRI B. Avoid self pollination
C. c. NBPGR C. Achieve desired pollination
D. d. DRR D. Prevent contamination from foreign
pollen
20. Why is bagging done?
A. To avoid cross pollination 26. The source of dwarfing gene sd1 in rice is
B. To avoid self pollination A. a. IR 8
C. To achieve desired pollination B. b. Dee-gee-woo-gen
D. To prevent contamination from foreign C. c. ADT 27
pollen
D. d. Peta
21. The region of domestication for Asian rice
is ———-river 27. Example of often cross pollinated crop is
A. a. Balsas A. a. Maize
B. b. Yangtze B. b. Rice
C. c. Niger C. c. Pearl millet
D. d. Indus D. d. Sorghum

28. Agriculture accounts for per cent of In- 34. A technique of micropropagation is
dia’s GDP A. Multiple root production

A. 62 B. Somatic embryogenesis
B. 30 C. Growth of micro organisms on culture
C. 33 medium
D. 70 D. Multiple shoot production and embryo
rescue
29. Medicago sativa is a
A. Normally self pollinated crop 35. In 700B.C. Assyrians and Babylonians
hand pollinated
B. Normally Cross pollinated crop
A. Maize
C. Often cross pollinated crop
B. Wheat
D. both a & b
C. Date palms
30. Which of the following is not the main step D. Coconut
in carrying out plant breeding technique?
A. Collection of variability 36. Nobel prize for green revolution was given
to
B. Cross hybridization among the dis-
eased parents A. .M.S. Swaminathan
C. Selection and testing of superior re- B. Borlaug
combinants C. Thomson
D. Evaluation and selection of parents D. Johannesberg
31. A pureline is the progeny of a single self 37. The entire collection (of plants/seeds) hav-
fertilised ing all the diverse alleles for all genes in a
A. a. heterozygous line given crop is called
B. b. homozygous plant A. Protoplasm
C. c. heterozygous plant B. Collection of variability
D. d. homozygous line C. Germplasm collection
D. Plant collection
32. Concept of gene for gene hypothesis pro-
posed by 38. The botanical name of Sugarcane is:
A. Nelson A. Oryza sativum
B. Flor B. Saccharum barberi
C. Vander plank C. Pisum Sativum
D. Robinsion D. Triticum
33. Breeding for disease resistance requires 39. What does GDP stands for?
A. a good source of resistance A. General Disorder of Pancreas
B. Planned hybridisation B. Gross Domestic Product
C. Diseases test C. Good Domestic Price
D. all of these D. Goods Delay Price

40. The centre of origin for Maize is 46. Which of the following is example for Of-
A. a. Hindusthan ten cross pollinated crop?
B. b. Abyssinian A. Sorghum
C. c. Mexican B. Almond
C. Banana
D. d. China
D. Cherry
41. The centre of origin for Coffee and Sesame
47. Mechanisms that promote cross pollina-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is
tion in maize is
A. a. Hindusthan
A. a. Dioecious
B. b. Abyssinian
B. b. Monoecious
C. c. Mexican
C. c. Protogyny
D. d. China
D. d. Cleistogamy
42. Who is the father of Green Revolution in
India? 48. A scientist wants to study the viral effects
on plants. Which of the following part of
A. Satyendra Nath Bose the plant should be excluded?
B. Srinivasa Ramanujan A. pith
C. M.S. Swaminathan B. shoot apex
D. Vikram Sarabhai C. phloem
43. The quickest method of plant breeding is D. cortex
A. introduction 49. The noble-laureate that successfully
B. Selection crossed and produced the semi dwarf
wheat hybrid is :
C. Hybridisation
A. Norman E Borulag
D. Mutation Breeding
B. M.S. Swaminathan
44. Identify the bacterial disease from the fol- C. Kalyan Sona
lowing
D. Jaya Ratna
A. Turnip Mosaic disease
B. Black rot of crucifers 50. ’Fairchild’ is the first artificial hybrid of
A. Carnations and Sweet William
C. red rot of sugar cane
B. Daisy and Rose
D. rusts
C. Sunflower and Rose
45. Law of homologous series of variation
D. Rose and Chrysanthemum
states that character found in one species
also occur in other 51. Himgiri is a hybrid variety of
A. a. Unrelated species A. Chilli
B. b. related species B. Cauliflower
C. c. related genus C. Cowpea
D. d. unrelated genus D. Wheat

1.5 Plant genetics 155
52. The term geitonogamy refers to —— 5 mm. Diketahui jagung ditanam dengan
A. a. Pollination within same flower of jarak 75 cm × 75 cm.Intensitas seleksi
yang dipilih pemulia yaitu

same plant
B. b. Pollination with different flower of A. 0, 525%
same plant B. 0.463%
C. c. Pollination with different flower of C. 0, 256%
different plant
D. 0, 563%
D. d. None of the above
54. Johanssen pureline theory was on the ba-
53. Pada suatu pertanaman jagung seluas 1 ha
sis of studies on
dilakukan seleksi terhadap 100 individu ja-
gung yang bulirnya berukuran relatif lebih A. a. Phaseolus vulgaris
besar. Ukuran bulir populasi setelah se- B. b. Pisum sativum
leksi menjadi 2, 5 mm lebih baik dari se-
belumnya. Variasi nilai tetap ada dengan C. c. Lablab purpureus
simpangan dari rerata populasi sekitar 1, D. d. Vigna mungo
1.5 Plant genetics

1. A plant’s root grow in a downward direc- B. style
tion in response to what force? C. ovary
A. sunlight D. anther
B. gravity
5. What did Mendel call the two kinds of
C. soil traits exhibited by the pea plants (one
D. turgor pressure coming from the father, one from the
mother)?
2. What force or substance causes turgor
A. Genesis
pressure?
B. Elective traits
A. light
C. Alleles
B. gravity
D. Quadrants
C. glucose
D. water 6. The pollen grains are found and made in
this part of the stamen.
3. Before Mendel how did people think you A. Anther
got your traits
B. Style
A. equal from each parent
C. Stigma
B. more from the dad
D. Ovary
C. more from the mom
7. The enlarged base of the carpel that stores
D. from a stork the eggs of the plant is the
4. This stalk supports the stigma. A. Ovary
A. filament B. Ovule

C. Stigma 13. When a seedling emerges upright from the

soil, which force is it overcoming?
D. Style
A. Gravity
8. What do we call the table used to calcu- B. Magnetism
late the probability of an offspring’s geno-
type? C. Repulsion
A. Punnett Square D. Heat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Venn Diagram 14. What does the term Genome mean?
C. Avogadro’s Graph A. An organisms cells
D. Circle of Life B. An organism’s complete set of DNA

C. An organisms gene on one chromo-
9. The pollen grains are found in this part of some
the stamen.
D. none of above
A. anther
15. is the field of science that studies of
B. style how traits are passed on, or inherited.
C. pistil A. dominant traits
D. none of above B. ratio
C. phenotype
10. An allele or gene that always shows is
D. genetics
A. recessive
B. dominant 16. What organism did Mendel use to prove
his 3 main ideas about inheritance?
C. hidden
A. ants
D. present
B. pigeons
11. What is a Molecular marker? C. dogs
A. Are used to select a plant for a specific D. pea plants
trait if it has a desirable gene in its DNA
17. What does the term “open pollination”
B. Are used to highlight an important mean?
piece of information on a book
A. pollination between two plants of the
C. are used to select a plant for a specific same species naturally by wind/insect or
group of cells water
D. none of above B. The transfer of pollen by a technician
from one plant to another
12. In a seed, the radicle grows into? C. The transfer of seeds from a plant
A. The shoot D. none of above
B. The leaves
18. What force allows a plant to become more
C. The stem rigid and stand upright?
D. The roots A. turgor pressure

B. geotropism 24. They enclose the egg cells inside the

C. photosynthesis ovaries.

D. phototropism A. ovules
B. anther
19. Which amongst these is NOT a part of PIS-
C. seeds
TIL
D. stamen
A. stigma
B. stamen 25. Roots grow downward in the soil in re-
sponse to-
C. style
A. gravity
D. ovary
B. sunlight
20. The stalk that supports or holds up the an-
C. water
ther is the
D. wind
A. style
B. filament 26. Dominant alleles are represented by a:
C. ovary A. Male gene
D. pistil B. lowercase letter
C. recessive trait
21. Steven sets a brand new plant near the
window. After several weeks Steven real- D. capital letter
izes the flower is starting to tilt towards 27. Which of these is NOT a genetic trait?
the sunlight. What would be considered
the stimuli in this scenario? A. color of fur
A. Water B. length of tail
B. The dirt in the flower pot C. scar on a leg
C. The sunlight D. height of a person
D. The window 28. A stimulus is

A. a change in an organisms surround-
22. Contain a plant’s male reproductive cell
ings.
A. Stamen
B. process in which organisms grow
B. Pollen larger.
C. Style C. a reaction to a change in surroundings
D. Stigma
D. tropism
23. Changes in an organism’s environment
that cause a response 29. The female part of a flower is
A. Tropism A. pistil
B. Hormone B. stamen
C. Stimuli C. filament
D. Response D. sepal

30. What do we call the result of the genotype 35. Mendel did test crosses. What is the pur-
(for example, the color of the peas)? pose of a test cross?
A. Visible traits A. to determine the parents phenotype
(appearance)
B. Physiotrait
B. to determine the parents genotype
C. Genotype 2
C. to determine the chance of producing
D. Phenotype
a particular trait from 2 parents
NARAYAN CHANGDER
31. ’s principles can be used to study hered- D. to determine how many offspring can
ity in dogs, cats, and sheep. be produced by 2 parents
A. Darwin 36. Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics ap-
B. Mendel ply to
C. Franklin A. plants only
D. Smith B. animals only
C. pea plants only
32. The male part of the flower is
D. all organisms that reproduce sexually
A. pistil
B. sepal 37. A root grows downward in a response to
an stimulus
C. ovaries
A. external
D. stamen
B. internal
33. Geotropism is a force that affects certain C. phototropism
organisms. Which of the following is an
example of a plant responding to the ex- D. geotropism
ternal stimulus of gravity? 38. Yy is an example of
A. A seedling growing towards a sunny A. A heteroygous phenotype
window.
B. A heterozygous genotype
B. Plant roots growing down into the soil.
C. A homozygous phenotype
C. Flowers producing nectar to attract D. A homozygous genotype

bees. 39. When a plant wilts due to a drought, it is
D. A potted plant wilting when it dries out. responding to which of the following inter-
nal stimuli?
34. Tigers and household cats are members of
A. Decreased water pressure within the
the same family. Their sizes and other fea-
plant cells.
tures are very different. What is the cause
of the differences? B. lack of nutrients carried by water in
the plant.
A. biochemical makeup
C. Decreased rate of photosynthesis in
B. domestication
the stem.
C. genetics D. Increased storage of glucose in the
D. habitat leaves.

40. Two different genes for a trait (sometimes 46. The enlarged base of the pistil that stores
called hybrid). Bb the eggs of the plant is the

A. protein A. ovary
B. homozygous B. ovule
C. heterozygous C. stigma
D. genotype
D. style
41. The different forms of genes are known as
47. What is progeny testing
A. environment
A. Testing an animals performance for
B. probability
different traits
C. traits
B. Comparing animals off spring with
D. alleles other animals off spring kept in the same
42. A pea plant produces 5 seeds. What per- conditions
cent of its alleles come from the mother? C. Comparing an animal with other ani-
A. 10% mals kept in the same conditions
B. 20% D. Comparing animals off spring with
C. 25% other animals off spring kept in the differ-
ent conditions
D. 50%
43. Define Genome Editing 48. What happened to the green trait in
Mendel’s pea plants?
A. Technology that allows the develop-
ment of new genes A. It provide support to Darwin’s theory
of evolution by disappearing.
B. Technology that allows the growth of
new organs in a lab B. The pea plants produced 50% less
green seeds
C. Technology that allows a change to an
organism’s DNA. C. It was hidden by the dominant yellow
D. none of above gene
D. The resulting plants were yellow/green-
44. Heredity is the passing of traits from
ish
to
A. predators to prey 49. If a pea plant has a recessive allele for
B. water to rain green peas, it will produce
C. parents to offspring A. green peas if it also has a dominant al-
lele for yellow peas
D. fungi to protists
B. green and yellow peas if it has a domi-
45. Gravitropism and are the same thing. nant allele for yellow
A. Geotropism
C. green peas if it doesn’t have a domi-
B. Phototropism nant allele for yellow peas
C. Thigmotropism D. yellow peas if it doesn’t have a domi-
D. Triangular Prism nant allele for green peas.

50. The mathematical chance that something B. It will decrease

will happen is known as
C. It stays the same
A. chance
D. It will increase significantly
B. luck
C. probability 56. What were the reasons Mendel selected
the pea plant for his genetics experi-
D. none of above
ments? Pick as many as apply.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
51. What is a gene? A. few traits
A. An entire chromosome that codes for
B. traits easy to observe
a trait
B. a piece of clothing C. grow quickly
C. a piece of a DNA on chromosome that D. all of these

codes for a trait
57. What is performance testing
D. Chemical messengers in your brain
that code for a trait A. Testing the performance of an animal
in the same conditions to other animal
52. Mendel studied pea traits including all EX- kept in the same condition
CEPT
B. Testing how an animal would perform
A. flower color in a play!
B. pea shape
C. Testing the performance of an animal
C. root growth in the same conditions to its offspring kept
D. flower position on stems in the same condition
53. Turgor pressure can help plants move. In- D. none of above
ternal water pressure can cause-
58. If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt,
A. a wilted stem to return to an upright what is true of its parents?
position.
A. both parents were tall
B. leaves to fall off a tree in the autumn.
B. both parents were short
C. the roots of a plant to grow downward.
C. both parents contributed a recessive
D. a seedling to be carried by the wind. allele
D. both parents contributed a dominant
54. In a seed, the plumule grows into
allele
A. The shoot
B. The leaves 59. If a plant is going towards water it is
showing
C. The roots
A. Positive hydrotropism
D. The branch
B. Positive Geotropism
55. At the very beginning of seed germination
how will the mass of a seed change? C. Negative hydrotropism
A. It will increase slightly D. Positive Solar Radiation

60. The plants that Gregor Mendel crosses to 65. Each pea plant had alleles for each
produce the F1 generation would be re- trait.
ferred to as

A. 1
A. P1 and P
B. 2
B. P1 and P3
C. 3
C. P1 and P5
D. 4
D. P1 and P2
61. What is this definition of: determining dif- 66. Two of the same genes for a trait (some-
ferences in the genotype of an individual times called purebred). BB or bb
organism by examining its DNA & compar- A. homozygous
ing it to a reference sequence of another
organisms sequence. B. hetrozygous
A. Phototyping C. protein
B. Genotyping D. chromosome
C. Progeny testing
67. Define genetic modification
D. Genetic engineering
A. Altering the physical features of an an-
62. The physical appearance or the way a gene imal
looks is known as it’s
B. Altering an organism’s amount of cells
A. genotype
B. allele
C. Altering an organism’s DNA to improve
C. gene or correct a defect in the organism
D. phenotype D. none of above
63. To indicate if a trait is dominant we use
68. How did Mendel refer to the two kinds
letters and to indicate if a trait is re-
of traits exhibited by the pea plants (one
cessive we use letters.
coming from the father, one from the
A. recessive, dominant mother)?
B. dominant, recessive A. Gametogenic
C. recessive, neutral
B. Elective traits
D. dominant, neutral
C. Alleles
64. A student places a plant in a dark room
D. Sequals
next to a growth lamp, while providing
sufficient water and nutrients to ensure
69. Brightly colored parts of flowers that at-
the plant’s growth and survival. The plant
tract insects.
is likely to respond by-
A. petals
A. bending towards the lamp.
B. wilting and eventually dying. B. pistils
C. shedding all of its leaves. C. stamen
D. increasing its rate of photosynthesis D. filaments

1.6 Entomology 162
70. Mr Burns’ favourite flower is A. Growing towards the light

A. Roses B. Growing away from gravity
B. Bluebells
C. Growing toward moisture
C. Daffodils
D. none of above
D. Foxgloves
71. Which of the following terms best defines 73. Mendel realized that organisms get of
genomic selection their genetics from each parent.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Use of thousands of genetic markers A. 1/4
associated with genes to predict the per-
B. 1/3
formance of an animal
B. Use of thousands of genetic markers C. 1/8
associated with genes along with perfor- D. 1/2
mance tested animals as references to
predict the potential performance of an 74. Gregor Mendel is known as the father of
animal
C. DNA profiling of an animal A. Modern Medicine
D. The use of a crystal ball to predict the
B. Father of the Green Revolution
performance of an animal
C. Father of Genitics
72. What is the response of a plant that is fur-
ther away from the window? D. The Pea Plant Man
1.6 Entomology
1. The blowfly lifecycle has six stages. How 3. During this stage, the larvae have a feed-
many larval stages are included in these ing frenzy.
six stages? A. fresh
A. 1 B. bloat
B. 2 C. active
C. 3 D. advanced
D. 4 4. The insect uses what body part to hear
A. Spiracle
2. tiny eight legged creatures belonging to
the order acarina, related to spiders and B. Tympanum
ticks. some mites live freely, others as C. Ovipositor
parasites
D. Compound Eye
A. ambient
5. What stage of a fly’s life cycle are mag-
B. mites gots?
C. eclosion A. Adult
D. none of above B. Pupa

1.6 Entomology 163
C. Larva 11. the time elapsed since a person has died

D. none of above A. postmortem interval (PMI)

B. carrion
6. Insects are rare.
C. entomology
A. False
D. none of above
B. I dont know
12. What is a crop?
C. I was sleeping
A. Food we eat.
D. I know
B. A digestive organ used to digest food.
7. Pupae will be found in the same areas as
third-instar larvae. C. A digestive organ used for storage of
food.
A. wandering
D. Respiratory organs of insects.
B. resting
13. What mineral causes eyes to appear
C. propagating
cloudy after death?
D. metamorphosing A. Sodium
8. During what stage does house flies begin B. Calcium
to show up and lay eggs? C. Potassium
A. Post-Decay Stage D. Chloride
B. Fresh Stage 14. The body loses how many degrees per
C. Decay Stage hour after death
A. 1.5 ◦ F
D. Bloated Stage
B. 2 ◦ F
9. How long does it take for rigor mortis to C. 3 ◦ F
complete?
D. 4 ◦ F
A. immediately after death
15. post-mortem examination
B. 1-2 hours after death
A. adipocere
C. 4-6 hours after death
B. autolysis
D. 8-12 hours after death
C. autopsy
10. a given amount of heat needed to develop D. entomology
from one stage of an insect life cycle to the
16. The first species to arrive on a dead body
next
is the:
A. post mortem interval (PMI) A. carrion beetle
B. accumulated degree hour (ADH) B. trapdoor spider
C. maggot C. coffin fly
D. entomology D. blowfly

1.6 Entomology 164
17. What is the definition of Pathology? C. COOLING DEATH

A. The branch of medicine concerned D. none of above
with diseases.
B. The scientific study of the nature, ori- 23. What do entomologists learn by studying
gin, process, and cause of disease. the insects at a crime scene?
C. The branch of medicine which deals A. who the victim is
with the incidence, distribution, and pos- B. PMI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sible control of diseases.
C. who probably commited the crime
D. The study of life.
D. the crime autopsy
18. Species That Has Destroyed the US re-
cently 24. The nonliving part of the insect in the stage
A. Japanesse Beetle prior to metamorphosis in the blow fly life-
B. Lady Bug cycle is called the:
C. Spotted Lanternfly A. pupae

D. Dragon Fly B. pupal space
19. The nonfeeding stage of develpment for an C. puparium

insect is what? D. none of these
A. Crop
25. wormlike stage of insect development af-
B. Pupa
ter egg
C. Larva
A. larva
D. Instar
B. pupa
20. Rigor mortis means
C. grub
A. Death stiffness
D. crop
B. Death color
C. Death bloat 26. Insects, or Hexapods, have how many
D. Death heat legs?
A. 2
21. biological process in the development of
animals, usually involving conspicuous B. 6
changes in the animal’s form or structure C. 8
A. metomorphosis
D. 10
B. malt
C. instar 27. Rate of cooling helps in determining
D. none of above A. Manner of death
22. Algor mortis is Latin for: B. Time of death

A. STIFFENING AT DEATH C. Place of death
B. COLORED DEATH D. Cause of death

1.6 Entomology 165
28. the thigh bone 34. Case 2:Police Report: The body of a large
A. femur pit bull terrier was found inside a walk-
in basement at a home in Cary. Maggots

B. phalanges were found concentrated in the head and
C. fibula region behind the shoulder. The windows
were closed, although the open curtains al-
D. frontal bone lowed sunlight to enter, and the air condi-
29. What is Botany? tioner was set at 72◦ F. Weather Report:
Daytime temperatures have been variable
A. Study of Marines over the past three weeks, ranging from
B. Study of Terrestrials 75 to 94◦ F. Skies have been sunny. What
effect did the outside temperature have on
C. Study of Plants the development of the larva?
D. Study of Microbes A. It is hot outside so it sped it up.
30. Loss of body heat after death is known as B. It is hot outside so it slowed it down.
A. Algor mortis C. It is hot outside, but the dog is inside
and the AC is on so it had no effect.
B. Rigor mortis
D. It is hot outside, but the dog is inside
C. Temperature drop
and the AC is on so it sped it up.
D. Liver mortis
35. study of insects & related arthropods
31. The 3 basic body parts of an insect are:
A. entomology
A. head, eyes, tail
B. epidemiology
B. head, wings, legs
C. oncology
C. head, abdomen, wings
D. anthropology
D. head, thorax, abdomen
36. Which of the following is not a common
32. breakdown of once living matter by living factor that could have an effect on insect
organisms evidence?
A. instar A. where the body was located
B. larva B. the weather conditions
C. decomposition C. age the person was when they died
D. insect succession D. drugs or poisons present
33. A forensic investigator may be able to use 37. What is a maggot?

to determine if a body was moved af-
A. Wormlike fly larva.
ter death
B. Wormlike stage of insect development
A. Rigor mortis
after egg.
B. Liver mortis C. Wormlike beetle larva
C. Algor mortis D. A wormlike person who has no respect
D. Hyper mortis for themselves or others. HIDE ANSWER

1.6 Entomology 166
38. In the case of a suspicious or unnatural C. Study of water

death a pathologist would conduct a(n) D. Meet a scientist: NHM Entomologist
A. Inspection Elizabeth Long
B. Diagnosis
44. a digestive organ used for storage of food
C. Pathology
A. crop
D. Autopsy
B. maggot
39. Species that was known for destroying
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. larva
wildlife about a 6 years ago.
D. instar
A. Chinese Wasp
B. Dragonfly 45. What is the reason for autopsy?
C. Japanese Beetle A. Candy
D. Brazillian Beetle B. Old age
C. Unnatural cause
40. Which skinny insect drains blood from peo-
ple and causes many diseases? D. Declined by family
A. PUBG Fly 46. This stage occurs when the body becomes
B. Mosquito distended and the splitting of the skin al-
C. Spotted Lantern Fly lows bad smelling gases to escape.
D. Apex Legends Wasp A. bloated stage

B. post-decay stage
41. Developmental process usually involving
changes in the animal’s form C. decay stage
A. Metamorphosis D. fresh stage
B. Moly 47. What does post mortem interval mean?
C. Instar A. time that has past since the victim was
D. Oviposition at the scene
42. animals characterized by jointed legs, a B. time that has past since the victim died
segmented body, and a hard, nonliving ex-
oskeleton. the exoskeleton does not keep C. time that has past since the suspect
up with the growth of the insect, and so was at the scene
must be shed periodically D. time that has past since the insects ar-
A. dichotomous rived at the scene
B. taxonomy
48. Insects such as blowflies tend to lay their
C. arthropods eggs in
D. none of above A. dry, cold areas
43. What was the name of the video? B. dry, warm areas
A. study of how summer is short C. moist, cold areas
B. PUBG Elmo’s World D. moist, warm areas

1.6 Entomology 167
49. the period of time between time of death 55. The stage where gasses released by bac-
and when the body was first discovered teria causes the body to swell is called?

A. post mortem interval (PMI) A. Fresh Body Stage
B. accumulated degree hour (ADH) B. Bloat Stage
C. maggot C. Putrefaction
D. entomology D. Putrid Dry Remains
50. The stage where soft tissues rapidly dis- 56. Which is the correct sequence of develop-
appear due to autolysis, bacterial, insect mental stages for blowflies?
and other animal activity is called?
A. egg, larvae, pupa, adult
A. Fresh Body Stage
B. egg, second instar, 3rd instar, pupa,
B. Bloat Stage
adult
C. Putrefaction
C. egg, pupa, maggot, adult
D. Putrid Dry Remains
D. 1st instar, 2nd nstar, 3rd instar, pupa,
51. Which is not one of the two major types adult
of insects entomologists observe?
57. The most important specimen collected by
A. bees
a forensic entomologist is:
B. flies
A. the oldest life stage present on the
C. beetles body.
D. none of above B. the number of eggs deposited in the
52. After a meal, the average time it takes for body
the stomach to empty is C. the newest life stage present on the
A. 1-2 hours body
B. 4-6 hours D. the number of flies on the body.
C. 8-12 hours 58. What is the body development in four
D. 24 hours stages called?
53. Bees and Butterflies are considered ? A. Insect Succession

A. Pests B. Complete Metamorphosis
B. Pets C. Incomplete Metamorphosis
C. Pollinators D. Oviposition
D. Predators 59. The living insect in the stage prior to
54. What is the lowest temperature that in- metamorphosis in the blow fly life-cycle is
sect development will occur? called the
A. 35◦ A. pupae
B. 45◦ B. pupal case
C. 55◦ C. puparium
D. 65◦ D. none of these

1.6 Entomology 168
60. Which is NOT one of the five Arthropod C. Centipedes

groups we covered in class? D. Crustaceans
A. Insect
65. During this stage/phase, the larvae stops
B. Crustacean
feeding and travels several feet away
C. Mantids from the corpse.
D. Arachnids A. initial decay
61. What does PMI refer to?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. migration phase
A. time that has past since the victim was C. fresh stage
at the scene
D. bloated stage
B. time that has past since the victim died
66. How long does it take a blowfly egg to
C. time that has past since the suspect hatch into maggots?
was at the scene A. 1 hour
D. time that has past since the insects ar- B. 2-4 hours
rived at the scene
C. 8-10 hours
62. During which stage does the body take on D. 12-24 hours
a compressed appearance and give off a
powerful odor. 67. Immature form of an animal that looks dif-
A. decay stage ferent from the adult (Ex. Maggot, Tad-
pole)
B. bloated stage
A. Eclosion
C. fresh stage
D. post-decay B. Fly Development Stages
C. Pupa
63. On a decomposed body, the feeding lar-
vae may have human tissue stored in their D. Larva
crops that can be analyzed to determine:
68. Why do insects have many different types
A. whether the body was moved after of mouth-parts?
death.
A. To speak French
B. whether the deceased was exposed
to either toxic chemicals or recreational B. To eat a variety of different things
drugs. C. To be annoying
C. whether the body was covered, buried, D. Because they are all different animals
or submerged in water.
D. whether the deceased was restrained 69. Crustaceans are a good source of for
while alive. humans.
A. Food
64. Which Arthropod group lives mostly in wa-
ter? B. Fear
A. Insects C. Fun
B. Arachnids D. Pets

1.6 Entomology 169
70. As a dead body decomposes, two gases 75. How can ADH of insects help in an investi-
putrescine and are released that alert gation?
blowflies to a possible location to lay their

A. Provides range for time of death
eggs.
B. Provides exact time of death
A. cadaverine
C. Provides cause of death
B. odorless substances
D. Provides manner of death
C. proteins
D. oxygen 76. each of the 3 different larval stages of
flies in species that undergo complete
71. Immatures called “hellgramite” (fierce, metamorphosis
3”+long, strong jaws to pinch); Like fast A. instar
moving water in rocky streams; a dults
have giant jaws but they do not pinch B. insect succession
A. Diptera (Flies) C. maggot
B. Megaloptera/Neuroptera: Alderflies D. oviposition

and Dobsonflies
77. In centipedes, the “fangs” are what type
C. Lepidoptera- Butterflies and Moths of structure?
D. Coleoptera- Beetles A. mandibles
72. When the insect sheds it’s exoskeleton, it B. modified legs

is known as C. maxilla
A. Shedding D. modified mouthparts
B. Peeling
78. Which of the following would be effected
C. Molting first by rigor mortis?
D. Melting A. Upper legs
73. respiratory organs of insects that are used B. Face

by researchers to identify a larval stage as C. Abdomen
first, second or third instar
D. Lower legs
A. spiracles
79. Insect at the crime scene stops the
B. crops
clock on the insects.
C. maggots A. collection
D. instars B. preservation
74. Forensic entomologists use insects to gain C. development
information about D. degradation
A. time since death
80. Weather (temperature and humidity) af-
B. wounds present fects
C. drugs/toxins in the body A. the types of insects that colonize re-
D. all of the above. mains

1.6 Entomology 170
B. the amount of time an insect takes to 86. The majority of native bees nest in what
develop from egg to adult type of habitat?
C. the size of the adult insect A. flowering plants
D. all of the above B. bamboo stems
C. trees
81. How many hours does it take livor mortis
to be fully settled? (Choose the best an- D. soil
swer choice)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. # of hours it takes for insect species to de-
A. Five hours velop to a given stage
B. 12 hours A. accumulated degree hours (ADH)
C. Two hours B. insect succession
D. Six hours C. instar
D. complete metamorphosis
82. SERANGGA MEMPUNYAI BERAPA BILAN-
GAN KAKI 88. What are the two most important in-
A. 8 sects?
B. 6 A. Blowflies and Beetles
C. 4 B. Bees and Mosquitoes
D. 2 C. Wasps and Butterflies

D. Ants and Lady Bugs
83. Insect stage after the egg hatches
89. Carcass of a dead and decaying animal
A. 1st instar
A. Entomology
B. pupae
B. Carrion
C. 2nd egg stage
C. Arthropod
D. adult
D. Taxonomy
84. Entomology is:
90. What is the body development of an insect
A. The study of arthropods in four stages called?
B. The study of the skin A. Insect Succession
C. The study of arachnids B. Complete Metamorphosis
D. The study of insects C. Accumulated Degree Hours
D. Oviposition
85. Prior to hours after death, algor mor-
tis, livor mortis and rigor mortis are used 91. body development in 4 stages: egg, larva,
instead of entomology evidence. pupa, & adult
A. 36 A. complete metamorphosis
B. 48 B. grub
C. 72 C. oviposition
D. 96 D. spiracles

1.6 Entomology 171
92. What is the proper name for insects with a 97. to take a corpse’s temperature, forensic in-
hard, outer-body casing and jointed legs? vestigators insert a thermometer into the

A. mammals A. mouth
B. arthropods B. liver
C. snails C. armpit
D. crustaceans D. stomach
98. The insect has two metamorphosis types.
93. Nymphs during most of life cycle; af- What are they?
ter several years, emerge from water as
adults, quickly mate and die (few hours or A. Annual, Complete
days) B. Incomplete, Periennial
A. Odonata- Dragonflies and Damselflies C. Incomplete, Complete
D. Complete, Transformation
B. Ephemeroptera (Mayflies)
99. the scientific study of insects
C. Plecoptera- Stoneflies A. carrion
D. Megaloptera/Neuroptera: Alderflies B. entomology
and Dobsonflies
C. necrophagous
94. The stage of the fly cycle during which the D. none of above
larvae are voracious feeders is called the
stage. 100. the shedding of an insects outer skeleton
during a growth stage
A. first instar
A. metamorphosis
B. second instar
B. malt
C. third instar C. instar
D. fourth instar D. none of above
95. the cooling of body temperature after 101. This stage of death is defined huge loss
death of mass, to the point where only skin and
A. rigor mortis bones are likely to remain
A. Fresh
B. algor mortis
B. Bloat / Putrification
C. livor mortis
C. Active Decay
D. autolysis
D. Dry Remains
96. the stiffening of the skeletal muscles 102. How long does it take adult flies to lay
shortly after death eggs on a dead body?
A. livor mortis A. 10 hours
B. autolysis B. 18 hours
C. rigor mortis C. 24 hours
D. algor mortis D. 48 hours

1.6 Entomology 172
103. All of the following features of the skull 109. Disease, cancer, heart attack and old age
can be used to determine the sex of a would be classified as
skeleton EXCEPT
A. Natural Death
A. shape of the jaw
B. Suicide
B. shape of the nasal cavity
C. Homicide
C. shape of the eye orbits
D. shape of the forehead D. Accidental Death
NARAYAN CHANGDER
104. Time elapsed since death 110. Rigor mortis peaks at about hours af-
A. Post Mortem Interval ter death
B. Putrefaction A. 2
C. Adipocere B. 6
D. Ambient C. 8
105. is a broad term meaning the applica- D. 12
tion of the study of insects to legal cases.
A. Forensic anthropology 111. Carrion beetles prefer
B. forensic odontology A. corpse in stage 1 decomposition
C. forensic pathology B. corpse in a dry stage, as well as eggs
D. forensic entomology & larvae of other insects
106. An adult fly emerges from the C. corpse in any stage of decomposition
A. Oviposition (egg laying) D. just the eggs & larvae of other insects
B. Pupa
112. According to forensic entomologists,
C. larval mass which “witness” is the first to arrive at
D. Egg the crime scene?
107. This stage results in the remains consist- A. mite

ing primarily of bones, some dried skin and B. spider
cartilage
C. carrion beetle
A. Bloat
D. blow fly
B. Active Decay
C. Advanced Decay 113. What is insect succession?
D. Dry Skeletal
A. The sequence in which an egg be-
108. Which term below is not an example of comes an adult fly.
an open wound? B. A sequence of changing species that in-
A. bruise habit a decomposing body.
B. abrasion C. The depositing of eggs.
C. puncture D. When the alpha fly is overthrown by his
D. laceration son.

1.6 Entomology 173
114. During this stage, beetles begin to colo- 120. Necrophilous insects are
nize the body and consume the dry, less A. species such as ants, wasps, and
nutrient-rich components.

some beetles that feed on the corpse and
A. decay stage associated maggots
B. bloated stage B. beetles, true flies, and wasps that par-
C. fresh stage asitize immature flies
D. post-decay stage C. the first species feeding on corpse tis-
sue
115. Feeding on a dead animal D. pill bugs, spiders, and mites that use
A. Livor Mortis the corpse as an extension of their habi-
B. Algor Mortis tat
C. Rigor Mortis 121. emergence of an adult from its pupal case
D. Necrophagous A. ambient
116. Use insects to determine time and loca- B. mites
tion of death C. eclosion
A. Psychology D. none of above
B. Toxicology 122. How are insects helpful?
C. Pathology A. Help you not be single
D. Entomology B. Help you study for the upcoming exam
117. Cause of death refers to
A. When a person died C. Helpful in real life events
B. The reason they died D. Helps cure Pewdiepie from T-Series
C. Who killed them 123. another name for instar
D. Specific body part failure A. post mortem interval (PMI)
118. The process of transformation from an im- B. accumulated degree hour (ADH)
mature form to an adult form in two or C. maggot
more distinct stages. D. entomology
A. mutation
124. How are entomology and forensic ento-
B. metamorphosis mology different?
C. puberty A. Entomology studies insects while
D. catabolism forensic entomology studies insects in ap-
plication to civil and criminal legal cases.
119. During the stage, blow fly larvae are
delicate and prone to desiccation.
B. Entomology studies insects in applica-
A. first instar tion to civil and criminal legal cases while
B. second instar forensic entomology studies insects.
C. third instar C. Trick! They are both the same.
D. fourth instar D. This is not the answer.

1.6 Entomology 174
125. Why does an infants skeleton contain a 130. The four types of information one needs
higher number of bones? to know when using maggot evidence are
A. They are born with many bones that
have not fused completely A. Genus of insect, oldest stage of
B. They are mutant ninja bebes blowfly, temperature data, and develop-
ment data
C. They are born with bones that eventu-
ally turn into cartilage B. Species of insect, oldest stage of
blowfly, temperature data and develop-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. all of the above ment data
126. Blowflies, also known as bottle flies, in- C. Genus of insect, youngest stage of
clude: blowfly, temperature data and develop-
ment data
A. blue bottles, yellow bottles, and silver
bottles. D. Species of insect, youngest stage of
blowfly, temperature data and develop-
B. brown bottles, green bottles, and
ment data
bronze bottles.
C. blue bottles, green bottles, and bronze 131. Application of entomology to civil and
bottles. criminal legal cases
D. blue bottles, green bottles, and silver A. Forensic botany
bottles. B. Forensic Serology
127. During this stage house flies begin to ap- C. Forensic Entomology
pear and deposit eggs D. Forensic Anthropology
A. fresh stage
132. Axillary sclerites form points of attach-
B. post-decay stage
ment for muscles that control the:
C. bloated stage
A. wings
D. decay stage
B. Legs
128. Which stage of mortis results in the C. mouthparts
changing of color in the body?
D. antennae
A. Rigor Mortis
133. Abrasion Mark
B. Algor Mortis
C. Liver Mortis A. A mark produced when a surface
slides accros another surface
D. none of above
B. A mark produced alog the edge as a
129. the pooling of the blood surface is cut
A. lividity C. A mark or impression made by a tool
on a softer surface
B. algor mortis
D. Any impression or scratch or imbra-
C. rigor mortis
sion made when contact occurs betweena
D. livor mortis tool and another object

1.6 Entomology 175
134. What are the respiratory organs of in- C. A cut, or laceration, is a straight, even
sects called? wound made with a sharp object like a
knife or razor blade. A scrape, or abra-

A. Pupas
sion, is caused by sliding impact between
B. Crops the skin and a rough surface.
C. Spiracles D. A scrape bleeds a lot, whereas a cut
D. Instars bleeds very little.
135. Which after death process is perma- 140. A parsley worm is in the order and
nent? the adult turns into a
A. ALGOR MORTIS A. Lepidoptera, cabbage looper
B. LIVOR MORTIS B. Coleoptera, weevil
C. RIGOR MORTIS C. Lepidoptera, swallowtail
D. none of above D. Diptera, mosquito
136. Degree days or degree hours are the num- 141. The major variable in the fly’s life cycle
ber of days/hours multiplied by the num- is
ber of above a threshold temperature. A. moisture
A. degrees B. pressure
B. months C. temperature
C. days D. barometer
D. weeks 142. What do the flies eggs hatch into?
137. The study of insects is A. Adult Flies
A. anthropology B. Pupas
B. pathology C. Worms
C. entomology D. Maggots
D. zoology 143. This stage occurs because of the activity
bacteria which produces gases inside the
138. The life cycle of a blow fly begins with:
body.
A. oviposition
A. post-decay stage
B. decay
B. decay stage
C. pupation C. fresh stage
D. migration phase D. bloated stage
139. Explain the difference between a cut and 144. Exoskeletons are made from
a scrape wound.
A. Hair
A. A cut is shallow, whereas a scrape is
deep. B. Bone
B. An cut has irregular edges and an abra- C. Nails

sion is a straight, even wound. D. Chitin

1.6 Entomology 176
145. stage 1 of decomposition 151. This stage begins with the splitting of the
A. fresh stage skin to allow the gases to escape.
B. advanced decay A. bloated stage
C. bloating B. post-decay stage
D. active decay C. decay stage
146. Which is the most reliable bone to deter- D. fresh stage
mine the sex of a skeleton?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. The stage where skin and soft tissues are
A. Femur
no longer present is called?
B. Skull
A. Fresh Body Stage
C. Pelvic bone
B. Bloat Stage
D. Collarbone
C. Putrefaction
147. predictable sequence of changing species
that inhabit a decomposing body D. Putrid Dry Remains
A. insect succession 153. Estimations of the postmortem interval
B. accumulated degree hours (ADH) (PMI) using entomological evidence must
C. instar take into account
D. complete metamorphosis A. the species of insect present
148. Prior to 72 hours after death, livor mor- B. weather conditions

tis, rigor mortis and algor mortis are used C. geographical locations of the dece-
instead of evidence. dent’s body
A. anthropological D. all of these
B. odontological
154. feeding on carrion; from the greek word
C. entomological
phagos, to each, and necro, meaning dead
D. pathological
A. entomology
149. During this stage, predatory/omnivorous
B. necrophagous
organisms like beetles are present.
A. bloat C. carrion
B. fresh D. none of above

C. advanced 155. Name means “case-bearer”. Build cases
D. dry/skeletal from materials in rivers (pebbles, leaf lit-
ter, twigs, etc.). Most cases about 1.5 cm
150. Pada tahun berapa Rentokil beroperasi di
long.
Indonesia
A. Diptera (Flies)
A. 1999
B. 1989 B. Coleoptera- Beetles
C. 1979 C. Trichoptera- Caddisfly
D. 1969 D. Lepidoptera- Butterflies and Moths

1.6 Entomology 177
156. one of the three larval stages of insect 161. cases formed by the hardening of the last
development larval skin in which the pupa is formed.
color starts out white and turns brown

A. death
with time.
B. instar
A. eclosion
C. pupa/pupae
B. puparia
D. autolysis
C. mites
157. A forensic entomologist is D. none of above
A. A person who studies insects to gain
162. The pelvis of a female is as compared
clues about a crime
to a male.
B. a person who studies bones to gain
A. wide and circular
clues about a crime
B. wide and heart-shaped
C. a person who studies DNA to gain
clues about a crime C. narrow and circular
D. a person who studies fire and arson D. narrow and heart-shaped
158. How long does it take adult flies to 163. the carcass of a dead and decaying ani-
emerge from pupa cases? mal
A. 1-3 days A. carrion
B. 6-8 days B. entomology
C. 10-12 days C. arthropods
D. 14-16 days D. none of above
159. How does temperature have an effect on 164. How long does it take food to leave the
insect evidence? small intestine?
A. temp. does not effect insect evidence A. 2 hours
B. high temp. speeds up insect’s life cy- B. 4 hours
cle
C. 6 hours
C. low temp. speeds up insect’s life cycle
D. 12 hours
D. none of above 165. Which of the following is the correct or-

der of the life cycle of a blow fly?
160. In general, the older the insects around
A. egg, pupa, larva (1st instar, 2nd instar,
the dead body are
3rd instar), adult
A. the longer the body has been dead
B. larva, egg, pupa, adult
B. the less time the body has been dead
C. adult, larva (1st instar, 2nd instar, 3rd
C. the more blood the body lost instar), egg
D. the hotter the temp. around the body D. egg, larva (1st instar, 2nd instar, 3rd
is instar), pupa, adult

1.6 Entomology 178
166. Insects that pass through the egg, larva, 171. The fact that insect development is al-
pupa, and adult stages in their life cycle lows insects to be used to determine time
have since death.
A. incomplete metamorphosis A. irregular
B. no metamorphosis B. predictable
C. complete metamorphosis C. constant
D. gradual metamorphosis D. unpredictable
NARAYAN CHANGDER
167. How can a blowfly help an investiga- 172. How long does it take for rigor mortis to
tion? set in?
A. Helps investigators determine time of A. immediately after death
death.
B. 1-2 hours after death
B. Helps investigators determine how a
C. 4-6 hours after death
person was killed.
D. 8-12 hours after death
C. Helps investigators determine what
the person ate at his/her last meal. 173. The reason someone dies is called the:
D. none of above A. type of death
168. nonfeeding stage of development be- B. manner of death
tween larva & adult C. cause of death
A. pupa D. mechanism of death
B. spiracles
174. Which represents the normal sequence of
C. grub decomposition?
D. crop A. fresh, decay, post decay, bloated, dry
(skeletal)
169. The monophagous pest of mango crop is
B. bloated, dry (skeletal), decay, post de-
A. Mango hopper
cay, fresh
B. Mango stone weevil
C. fresh, post decay, bloated, decay, dry
C. Mango thrips (skeletal)
D. Mango whitefly D. fresh, bloated, decay, post decay, dry
(skeletal)
170. Blister beetles have what substance in
their bodies that can be toxic to live- 175. Aquatic insects spend at least part of
stock? their life cycle in or around
A. serotonin A. water
B. chitin B. plant life
C. cantharadin C. salt water
D. resilin D. soil

1.6 Entomology 179
176. A legless, eyeless, vermiform larva that C. Vertebrae, Deltoid, Femur

is approximately 5 mm in length would D. Thorax, Anthrax, Typhoid
probably belong to what insect order?

182. What is done by a medical examiner to
A. Orthoptera
determine the cause of death?
B. Odonata
A. Biopsy
C. Siphonaptera B. Autopsy
D. Blattodea C. Forgery
177. the stage in an insect’s life cycle when D. Sonogram
the larva forms a capsule around itself and 183. Which of these is NOT true of insects?
transitions into its adult form
A. 3 body segments
A. instar
B. 6 pairs of jointed legs
B. pupa/pupae
C. wings at some point
C. larva/larvae
D. belong to Phylum Arthropoda
D. death
184. an elected official who usually has no spe-
178. The third stage of metamorphosis / larva cial medical training.
develops into an adult insect. A. medical examiner
A. Eclosion B. coroner
B. Fly Development Stages C. forensic anthropologist
C. Pupa D. Rokitansky Procedure
D. Larva 185. What is the name for the forensic scien-
tist that studies insects?
179. What is Entomology
A. Anthropologist
A. Study of cats
B. Entomologist
B. Study of Fortnite, PUBG, and Apex Leg-
ends C. Toxicologist
D. Botanist
C. Study of Insects
D. Study of school 186. Normal body temperature in degree Cel-
sius is
180. Oviposition is A. 37
A. the laying of eggs. B. 98
B. the depositing of dead bodies. C. 24
C. the area where bugs can be found. D. 50
D. position of a dead body. 187. The MEANS by which a person dies
181. The insect’s body is made up of what A. Manner of Death
three body parts: B. Cause of Death
A. Head, thorax, flagellum C. Mechanism of Death
B. Head, thorax, abdomen D. Time of Death

1.6 Entomology 180
188. the spontaneous breakdown of cells as and 1 flesh fly pupae that measured 39
they self-digest mm.Why are there larvae of different ages
A. rigor mortis for the same type of fly found on the body
of the deer?
B. algor mortis
A. They measured wrong
C. pupa/pupae
B. The different flies come to the deer at
D. autolysis different times.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
189. Heat units required for insect develop- C. Adult flies of the same species came
ment are to the deer at different times
A. PMI D. none of above
B. ADH 193. Term that refers to the larval stage of a
C. CODIS fly
D. AFIS A. egg
190. A body found with no food in the stom- B. maggot

ach or small intestines has been dead for C. pupa
at least hours
D. adult
A. 2
194. the immediate reason for a person’s
B. 6
death
C. 12
A. death
D. 24
B. mechanism of death
191. Insects help forensic investigators deter- C. cause of death
mine
D. manner of death
A. time of death
B. whether the body sustained trauma 195. In what kingdom are maggots classi-
fied?
C. whether the body has been moved
A. Plants
D. all of these
B. Animals
192. Case 1:Police Report: The body of a C. Fungi
female deer was found behind a fence
along a busy two-lane road on the edge D. none of above
of the city limits of Charlotte. Animal Con-
196. Algor mortis stands for
trol was called and reported no apparent
wounds on the body. It was not hunting A. Telling time of death using body stiff-
season.Weather Report: Daytime temper- ness
atures have been fairly consistent for the B. Telling time of death using blood
past three weeks, ranging from 70 to 74◦ pulling
F.There were 2 house fly larvae that mea-
sure 29 & 20 mm, 2 blow fly larvae at 29 C. Telling time of death using tempera-
& 25 mm, 1 flesh fly larvae that was 29 ture loss
mm a skipper fly larvae that was 9 mm D. none of above

1.6 Entomology 181
197. Which is an example of a pest insect? D. insects can not be found if the body is
A. Tick buried or covered.

B. Orb Weaver Spider 203. The three levels of certainty are ,
C. Water Bug and
D. Praying Mantis A. possibility, consistency, certainty
198. The entomologist must be able to identify B. maybe, possibly, probably

the of blow fly because each devel- C. probability, consistency, certainty
ops at a different rate. D. probability, consistency, absolutely
A. family
204. An entomologist needs to know the type
B. genus
of fly and the of the larva in order
C. order to help investigators. (Which words best
D. species fill in the blanks?)
199. In most cases, forensic entomology will A. age; weight

only determine a time since death. B. species; age
A. approximate C. actions; smell
B. maximum D. none of above
C. minimum
205. What is the wormlike stage of insect de-
D. probable velopment after the egg?
200. the study of insects A. Pupa
A. post mortem interval (PMI) B. Maggot
B. accumulated degree hour (ADH) C. Grub
C. maggot D. Larva
D. entomology
206. Entomologists studies
201. Suture Lines on the are helpful in de- A. fossils
termining the of a victim
B. insects
A. skull, age
C. animals
B. name, number
C. jaw, race D. plants
D. none of above 207. blowflies are of little forensic value,

as it is unclear whether they have just ar-
202. What is a reason why insect evidence is rived at the scene or have developed on
often not collected? the body.
A. Most insect are active at night.
A. adult
B. insect evidence is only found during ac-
B. juvenile
tive decay.
C. investigators are often not properly C. larval
trained to find and collect insects. D. pupal

1.6 Entomology 182
208. depositing, or laying, of eggs 214. environmental factors that affect insect
development
A. oviposition
A. temperature, wind and moisture
B. insect succession
B. forensic anthropology
C. spiracles
C. osteobiography
D. grub
D. facial reconstruction
209. the cessation, or end, of life 215. the process of recreating a face from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. instar skeletal remains (often for the purpose of
identification)
B. pupa/pupae
C. death
B. forensic anthropology
D. putrefaction
C. osteobiography
210. What is Zoology? D. facial reconstruction
A. Study of Aves 216. Police Report: The body of a large pit
B. Study of Mammals bull terrier was found inside a walk-in
basement at a home in Cary. Maggots
C. Study of Amphibians were found concentrated in the head and
D. Study of Animals region behind the shoulder. The windows
were closed, although the open curtains al-
211. Type of animal that is often used to sim- lowed sunlight to enter, and the air condi-
ulate human body in entomology tioner was set at 72◦ F. Weather Report:
Daytime temperatures have been variable
A. Chimpanzee
over the past three weeks, ranging from
B. Pig 75 to 94◦ F. Skies have been sunny. Do
you think the dog died of natural causes?
C. Goat
A. Yes, why else would it be in the the
D. Cow
basement of a house.
212. What is the insect stage after the egg B. Yes, flies wouldn’t lay eggs in a house
hatches called? any other way.
A. Pupae C. No, noone would leave a dead dog in
the basement.
B. 1st instar
D. No, the maggots are concentrated in
C. 2nd egg stage the head and behind the shoulder, not nor-
D. Adult mal openings for flies to go.
217. Which of these is NOT part of the Phylum
213. The process where cells begin to die
Arthropoda?
A. Bursting A. spiders, mites, ticks
B. Cell disintigration B. crabs, lobsters, crayfish, pillbugs
C. Autolysis C. millipedes, centipedes
D. Autocleaving D. octopi, squid

1.6 Entomology 183
218. the story of a persons life as told by his 224. the study of human remains (often bones)
or her bones to aid in legal investigations

B. forensic anthropology B. forensic anthropology
C. osteobiography C. osteobiography
D. facial reconstruction D. facial reconstruction
219. Developmental stage of arthropods, gen- 225. concerning the surrounding area or envi-
erally referring to changes in the size of ronment
the larvae A. malt
A. Metamorphosis B. instar
B. Moly C. ambient
C. Instar D. none of above
D. Oviposition 226. Within minutes of death, odor emitted
from a dead body can be detected by blow
220. Decomposition begins at this stage. flies from:
A. advanced decay A. a mile away.
B. bloat B. a half-mile away.
C. fresh C. a quarter-mile away.
D. active decay D. a 50 yard radius.
221. Which of the following is NOT a part of 227. Decomposition of a mammal begins at
insect development cycle. this stage:
A. Pupa A. post-decay stage
B. Grub B. bloated
C. Egg C. fresh stage
D. Adult D. decay stage
222. What color is normal Lividity? 228. one of four means by which someone
dies
A. Red
A. death
B. Pink
B. manner of death
C. Purple C. cause of death
D. none of above D. mechanism of death
223. The three different larval stages of flies 229. This type of mortis includes stiffening of
is a what? muscles
A. Crop A. Liver mortis
B. Pupa B. Rigor mortis
C. Instar C. Algor mortis
D. Spiracle D. Stiffo mortis

1.6 Entomology 184
230. wormlike fly larva 236. An important clue to the condition of a

A. maggot body at death is the location of the
B. crop A. beetles
C. grub B. heart
D. pupa C. flies
231. application of entomology to civil & crim- D. larval mass
inal legal cases
NARAYAN CHANGDER
237. What is ADH?
A. forensic entomology
B. forensic anthropology A. The number of hours a dead body has
been outside
C. forensic odontology
B. The number of hours a body has been
D. forensic epidemiology
dead.
232. Pooling of blood in the areas of the body C. The number of hours it takes for an in-
closest to the ground is called sect species to become an adult.
A. Pooling
D. The number of hours it takes for an in-
B. Grounding sect species to develop to a given stage.
C. Puddling
238. One type of insect typically arrives
D. Lividity within minutes after death. Therefore this
233. the classification of things in an orderly type of insect is considered to be timekeep-
way that indicates natural relationships ers for postmortem intervals. Which type
of insect is this?
A. dichotomous
B. taxonomy A. sexton beetle
C. arthropods B. blowflies
D. none of above C. flesh flies
234. “divided into two parts”; there, dichoto- D. houseflies

mous keys always give two choices in each
step in identifying an organism. 239. What is the life cycle of an insect called
A. dichotomous A. pupa
B. taxonomy B. larva
C. arthropods C. metamorphosis
D. none of above D. levimorphosis
235. What does a forensic entomologist
240. the depositing or laying of eggs.
study?
A. instar
A. worms
B. insects B. oviposition
C. spiders C. malt
D. none of above D. none of above

1.6 Entomology 185
241. the process of rotting and break down B. active

A. rigor mortis C. advanced

B. decomposition D. dry
C. livor mortis 247. Police Report: The body of a large pit
D. putrefaction bull terrier was found inside a walk-in
basement at a home in Cary. Maggots
242. What is the average temperature drop were found concentrated in the head and
during the first 12 hours after death? region behind the shoulder. The windows
A. .25◦ C every hour were closed, although the open curtains al-
B. .50◦ C every hour lowed sunlight to enter, and the air condi-
tioner was set at 72◦ F. Weather Report:
C. .75◦ C every hour Daytime temperatures have been variable
D. 1.00◦ C every hour over the past three weeks, ranging from
75 to 94◦ F. Skies have been sunny. How
243. Which of the following best describes do you explain that there are only 2 types
rigor mortis? of flies on the dog?
A. It is the pooling of blood after deaath A. The windows are closed so other flies
B. It is the stiffening of muscles after can’t get to the dog
death B. Blow Flies don’t like dog carcasses.
C. It is the cooling of the body after death C. Flies do not come out in when it is
sunny outside.
244. Which structures would be found in an
248. What can entomologists know by study-
eruciform larva, but not in a scarabaeiform
ing the insects at a crime scene?
larva?
A. who the victim is
A. prolegs
B. PMI
B. mandibles
C. who probably commited the crime
C. spiracles
D. the crime autopsy
D. ocelli
249. rigor mortis peaks how many hours after
245. Blow flies will be the main insects used
death?
to determine time since death in the
after death. A. 36
A. first days B. 18
B. first hours C. 8
C. first weeks D. 12
D. first months 250. Which part of the exoskeleton lies be-
246. The stage where cells begin to go through tween the exocuticle and the wax layer?
autolysis is: A. procuticle
A. fresh B. cement layer

1.6 Entomology 186
C. cuticulin layer 256. Insect evidence should be collected

D. endocuticle A. at the scene by a forensic entomolo-
gist or trained investigator.
251. Forensic entomologists use their knowl- B. upon the finding of the decedent by the
edge of to help them solve a crime first responding officer.
A. Pasta C. only from the body.
B. Insects D. at the crime laboratory by forensic an-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Painting alysts.
D. Music 257. What is the highest temperature that in-

sect development will occur?
252. Normal body temperature is A. 65◦
A. 96.5 ◦ F B. 75◦
B. 97.2 ◦ F C. 95◦
C. 98.6 ◦ F D. 105◦
D. 100 ◦ F 258. Did you have fun?
253. Predators as nymphs and adults; lar- A. Yesssssssssssssss
vae have unusual mouthparts; help signifi- B. I was playing Fortnite, PUBG, Apex
cantly to control mosquito populations Legends
A. Odonata- Dragonflies and Damselflies C. I was taking a nap
D. I was watching Frozen 2
B. Plecoptera- Stoneflies
259. Which is NOT one of the three body seg-
C. Hemiptera- True Bugs ments of an insect.
D. Trichoptera- Caddisfly A. Head
B. Legs
254. The insect’s skeleton is called
C. Thorax
A. Exoskeleton
D. Abdomen
B. Endoskeleton
260. The eastern population of monarch but-
C. Red Skeleton
terflies overwinter in
D. Halloween Skeleton A. Florida
255. If you have Hide Beetles on the body B. Central Mexico
which stage of decomposition is the body C. Baja California
in?
D. Texas
A. Fresh
261. If an insect’s subesophageal ganglion
B. Early Putrifaction were paralyzed, it would be unable to
C. Advanced decay A. eat
D. Dry or Skeletal B. fly

1.6 Entomology 187
C. walk C. 36 hours.
D. see D. 48 hours.

262. The Agonal Period means 267. a unit of measure of the energy absorbed
A. Before Death by a biological system, causing growth
B. Moment of Death A. degree-day
C. After Death B. mites
D. Period of time between death and C. eclosion
when the body is found. D. none of above
263. What are wormlike beetle larva called? 268. the specific body failure that leads to a
A. Grub person’s death
B. Larva A. mechanism of death
C. Pupa B. decomposition
D. Maggot C. manner of death
264. Why do Forensic entomologists look at D. cause of death
blow fly larvae at a crime scene?
269. How is entomology used in crimes
A. They are the last insects to arrive at a
body A. To prove how Cops only like donuts
B. They have the fastest life cycle B. To examine how long the infestation in
the body is with how long it is
C. We know the least about their life cy-
cle C. To show how crimes are caused by in-
sects
D. They are the first insects to arrive at
the body D. To show that many crimes use insects
in food
265. What is Accumulated Degree Hours
(ADH)? 270. wormlike beetle larva
A. The number of hours a dead body has A. grub
been outside. B. crop
B. The number of hours it takes for an in- C. pupa
sect species to become an adult.
D. maggot
C. The number of hours a body has been
dead. 271. The initial rate of body heat loss shortly
D. The number of hours it takes for an in- after death is about
sect species to develop to a given stage. A. 0.7 degrees F
266. Blowfly eggs usually hatch in less than: B. 1.0 degrees F
A. 12 hours. C. 1.4 degrees F
B. 24 hours. D. 2.4 degrees F

1.7 Plant pathology 188
1.7 Plant pathology

1. In which technique, the ‘L rod’ is used? 7. Tomato spotted wilt virus is transmitted
A. streak plate method by
B. spread plate method A. Aphids
C. serial dilution method B. Whitefly
D. pour plate method
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Thrips
2. In which phase of growth curve, the cells D. Green Leafhopper
undergoing division is equal to the number
of cell death? 8. Find out the correct choice of events of ‘lag
A. lag phase phase’?
B. log phase A. start synthesising the necessary pro-
C. stationary phase teins and start dividing
D. decline phase B. cellular metabolism is accelerated and
start dividing
3. Bacterial ooze is an example of
A. Signs C. adapt to the environment
B. symptoms D. cellular metabolism is accelerated and
the cells are increasing in size
C. both
D. none 9. Pathogen can survive in
4. Plant pathogen includes A. Crop residue
A. fungi B. weeds
B. bacteria
C. seeds
C. viruses
D. all of these
D. all the above
5. Which plant pathogen structure is delicate, 10. What is the shape of Bacillus cereus
threadlike filaments called hyphae
A. Diplococci
A. fungi
B. Spirochetes
B. nematodes
C. Coccobacilli
C. algae
D. virus D. Single rods
6. Mention the different sources of potable 11. Banana Bunchytop virus is transmitted by
water
A. Aphids
A. ground water
B. Whitefly
B. snow pack water
C. spring water C. Thrips
D. all of these D. Green Leafhopper

1.7 Plant pathology 189
12. Find out the advantage of turbidostat de- 18. Among the following, in which culture tech-
vice? nique the chance of contamination is mini-
mum?

A. open culture device
B. photoelectric device A. batch culture
C. no need for current supply B. fed-batch culture
D. cell density increases C. continuous culture

D. discontinuous culture
13. Pasteurization is heating every particle of
milk to 0c to 30 minutes. 19. In Resazurin quality test for milk
A. 73 colour indicates excellent quality milk
B. 63 A. Blue
C. 53 B. Pink
D. 103 C. Purple
D. White
14. What is the other name for fermenter?
A. Oxidation pond 20. Pick up the odd one.
B. bioreactor A. Amphitrichous
C. biosensor B. Ammonotrichus
D. Oximeter C. Lophotrichous
D. Peritrichous
15. Indian Cassava Mosaic virus is transmitted
by 21. What is a pure culture?
A. Aphids A. a mixed group of colonies
B. Whitefly B. a group of few dis-similar bacteria
C. Thrips C. a colony of single bacterium
D. Green Leafhopper D. only one bacterium
16. Water purification can be done using 22. Rice tungro virus is transmitted by
A. sugar A. Aphids
B. salt B. Whitefly
C. vinegar C. Thrips
D. liquid chlorine bleach. D. Green Leafhopper
17. Bhendi Yellow Vein Mosaic virus is trans- 23. Visible effects of disease on plants are
mitted by called
A. Aphids A. Signs
B. Whitefly B. symptoms
C. Thrips C. both
D. Leafhopper D. none

1.8 Plant physiology 190
1.8 Plant physiology

1. What are the steps of Respiration? A. Differentiation
A. Food is used for plant energy, Occurs B. Alternative pathways
in all cells, Energy is released, Oxygen is C. Reverse osmosis
used, Carbon Dioxide is produced, Water
is produced, It occurs in light and dark D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Food is used for plant energy, Energy 6. what are the elements that are essential
is released, Occurs in all cells, Oxygen is for plant growth?
used, Water is produced, Carbon Dioxide
A. iron zinc and boron
is produced, It occurs in light and dark
C. Food is used for plant energy, Energy B. copper iron and nitrogen
is released, Occurs in all cells, Water is C. nitrogen phosphorus and potassium
produced, Oxygen is used, Carbon Dioxide D. nitrogen potassium and calcium
is produced, It occurs in light and dark
D. none of above 7. Trees that form vessels of uniform
size throughout the growing season are
2. The part of the plant that water travels called:
through.
A. Diffuse porous
A. xylem
B. Ring porous
B. phloem
C. Hydroponic
C. seed
D. none of above
D. stigma
8. Which structure contains DNA and controls
3. What is the most important life-sustaining the cells processes?
process?
A. mitochondria
A. Photosynthesis
B. vaculole
B. Transpiration
C. nucleus
C. Respiration
D. golgi
D. none of above
9. In the Kreb’s Cycle molecules of
4. What is the function of companion cells in
NADH2 are formed per molecule of acetyl
phloem?
CoA oxidized to CO2 and H2O.
A. To produce lignin
A. 4
B. Control and maintain the sieve tube
B. 8
C. Control movement of water in the tra-
C. 3
cheids
D. 6
D. none of above
5. When cell structure changes and allows 10. Promotes cell division and prevents senes-
cells to assume a variety of specific func- cence (cell breakdown)
tions it is called A. Gibberellin

B. Auxin C. Process by which living cells take in

C. Cytokinins oxygen and give off Carbon Dioxide.

D. Ethylene D. Study of how these organs function
and the complex chemical processes that
11. This component provides strength and permit the plant to live, grow and repro-
rigidity in plant cell walls, especially in duce.
wood.
16. What is the cotyledon’s job?
A. Phloem
A. feed the seed
B. Cellulose
B. protect the seed
C. Lignin
C. reproduction
D. none of above
D. it has no function
12. Site of β -oxidation is and Mitochon-
17. The walls of xylem tissue are reinforced
dria.
with
A. Chloroplast
A. Concrete
B. Glyoxysomes B. Lignin
C. Peroxisomes C. Starch
D. Golgi complex D. Glucose
13. The female reproductive cells are found in 18. quanta of light is needed for fixation
the of 6 CO2 molecules.
A. seed A. 8
B. pollen B. 12
C. ovule C. 48
D. root D. 6
14. VASCULAR BUNDLE IN MONOCOTYLE- 19. What occurs in the Calvin Cycle of photo-
DONS ARE CONSIDERED CLOSED BECAUSE synthesis?
A. nothing happens there is no energy
A. CAMBIUM IS ABSENT
B. glucose is synthesized from CO2
B. XYLEM IS SURROUNDED ALL AROUND
C. Oxygen is being converted into sugar
BY PHLOEM
D. energy is generated in the form of ATP
C. A BUNDLE SHEATH SURROUNDS EACH
BUNDLE 20. How is pith and cortex ground tissue dif-
D. none of above ferent.
A. pith is external to the vascular tissue
15. Transpiration and cortex is internal to the vascular tis-
A. Process by which a plant gives up wa- sue
ter vapor to the atmosphere. B. Pith is internal to the vascular tissue-
B. A series of processes in which solar and cortex is external to the vascular tis-
energy is converted to chemical energy. sue

C. Pith is a vascular tissue and cortex is B. Guard cells, tracheids, fibers & peti-
a ground tissue oles
D. Pith is in the ground and cortex is on C. tracheids, fibers, parenchyma cells &
the surface vessels
21. A slightly englarged portion of the twig, D. none of above

where leaves and buds arise is called: 26. What two characteristics determine how a
A. internode tree will grow and develop?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. node A. Food and water
C. Leaf bud scar B. Exercise and sleep
D. none of above C. genetic potential and surrounding en-
vironmental conditions
22. What do arborists use to close stomata on
D. none of above
trees during transplant? It also can reduce
evaporative cooling of leaves, reduce CO2 27. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACILITATES
uptake, and reduce photosynthesis OPENING OF STOMATAL APERTURE?
A. Antiperspirant spray A. DECREASE IS TURGIDITY OF GUARD
B. Anti-transpirant spray CELL
C. An-hydrous spray B. RADIAL ORIENTATION OF CELLULOSE
CELL WALL OF GUARD CELL
D. none of above
C. CONTRACTION OF OUTER WALL OF
23. Why does chlorophyll make plants appear GUARD CELL
green?
D. none of above
A. Reflecting all colors expect green
28. These are adaptations trees have made to
B. Absorbing all colors and reflecting
survive in hot, dry climates:
back green
A. Small leaves, Sunken stomata & thick
C. Not absorbing any colors
cuticle
D. Leaves aren’t green, what do you
B. large leaves and cuticle
mean?!
C. thin bark, small leaves & small crown
24. Nutrients are absorbed by the root hairs
D. none of above
by
A. Osmosis 29. YOU ARE GIVEN A FAIRLY ONLY PIECE OF
DICOT STEM AND A DICOT ROOT. WHICH
B. Diffusion
OF THE FOLLOWING ANATOMICAL STRUC-
C. Active transport TURE WILL YOU USE TO DISTINGUISH BE-
D. None of the above TWEEN THE TWO?
A. SECONDARY XYLEM / PHLOEM
25. The xylem of angiosperms is composed of
these 4 elements: B. PROTOXYLEM
A. chloroplasts, vessels, phloem & stom- C. CORTICAL CELLS

ata D. none of above

30. What’s the temperature range of photo- 34. When roots are living in a symbiotic rela-
synthesis? tionship with certain fungi that help the
tree get essential minerals, it is called:

A. 60-80
A. Absorption
B. 70-80
B. Osmosis
C. 65-85
C. Mychorrizae
D. 75-85
D. none of above
31. Steps of Photosynthesis-
35. Plant Physiologists are responsible for
A. Food is produced, Occurs in cells con- studying and researching what?
taining chloroplasts, Energy is stored, Car-
bon Dioxide is used, Oxygen is released, A. process of plant development
Water is used, it occurs in sunlight B. how respiration works
B. Food is produced, Energy is stored, C. process of plant growth and develop-
Oxygen is released, Occurs in cells con- ment
taining chloroplasts, oxygen is released, D. how photosynthesis works
water is used, Carbon Dioxide is used, It
occurs in sunlight 36. These are living cells that are located in the
C. Food is produced, Energy is stored, Oc- outer layers of the xylem. They store car-
curs in cells containing chloroplasts, Oxy- bohydrates, defend against decay and pro-
gen is released, Water is used, Carbon vide structural function across the grain:
Dioxide is used, It occurs in sunlight A. Sieve tube cells
D. none of above B. Parenchyma cells
C. Epicormic cells
32. When you trim the outermost layer of a
plant, it will soon die. Why is this? D. none of above
A. Nutrients cannot move through dam- 37. The first root of the embryo is known as
aged phloem the
B. Water cannot move through damaged A. root hairs
xylem
B. radicle
C. Leaves cannot form from damaged C. hypocotyl
stems
D. seed coat
D. Sunlight cannot enter damaged stems
38. Which type of meristem is correctly paired
33. The process through which plants leaves, with the type of growth it does?
stems and roots consume oxygen and give
off carbon dioxide is? A. apical - makes plant wider/thicker
B. lateral - makes leaves longer
A. absorption
C. axillary - makes new leaves and
B. translocation
branches
C. respiration
D. cambium/intercalary - makes plant
D. photosynthesis taller

39. Which structure is the main site of photo- 44. A MAJOR CHARACTERISTIC OF MONOCOT
synthesis? ROOT IS THE PRESENCE OF
A. stem A. SCATTERED VASCULAR BUNDLES
B. roots B. VASCULATURE WITHOUT CAMBIUM
C. leaves C. OPEN VASCULA BUNDLE
D. flowers D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. Damaging the bark of a tree is bad for the 45. Vascular tissue not only transports mate-
tree for all the the following reasons EX- rial it also
CEPT A. protects the plant
A. bark protects the tree from pathogens B. supports the plant structurally
C. transports minerals
B. damaged cambium, which is just under D. transports energy
the bark, could prevent future growth
C. doing so could damage the phloem and 46. What is the function of phloem
affect sugar transport A. To transport food/sugar
D. xylem, which is just under the bark, B. to transport lignin
won’t be able to transport water
C. To transport water
41. THE VASCULAR CAMBIUM NORMALLY D. none of above
GIVES RISE TO
47. What is the region of rapid cell division
A. PRIMARY PHLOEM (growth) in plants?
B. SECONDARY XYLEM A. Guard
C. PERIDERM B. Stomata
D. none of above C. Xylem
42. Helps fruit ripen D. Meristem
A. Auxin 48. When an organism grows toward the sun-

B. Gibberellin light it is called what?
A. Luminescent
C. Cytokinins
B. Photogenic
D. Ethylene
C. Phototropism
43. What is the process is where living cells
D. none of above
take in oxygen and give off carbon diox-
ide? 49. is a stack of thylakoids
A. respiration A. Granum
B. photosynthesis B. Stomata
C. celluar respiration C. Stroma
D. oxygen D. Chloroplast

50. What is the function of Xylem 55. What is the first process in photosynthe-
sis?
A. To transport food

A. Photosystem I
B. To transport lignin
B. Photosystem II
C. To transport water
C. Calvin Cycle
D. none of above
D. Dark Reactions
51. CORTEX IS THE REGION FOUND BETWEEN
56. Potatoes are commonly consumed in the
modern diet. What part of the plant are
A. ENDODERMIS & PITH they harvested from?
B. ENDODERMIS & VASCULAR BUNDLE A. Leaves
C. EPIDERMIS & STELE B. Stems
D. none of above C. Roots
D. Seed
52. Chloroplasts
A. Essential to the process. 57. How is collenchyma and sclerenchyma tis-
sue similar?
B. Small membrane bound bodies inside
the cell that contain the green chlorophyll A. They both provide protection for the
pigment. plant
B. They both transport material through-
C. Most important life-sustaining pro-
out the plant
cess.
C. They both provide support
D. All living cells carry on the process of
repiration D. They both provide energy for the plant
53. Poison Ivy growing on a tree by touch. 58. Transporting sugar from the leaf down to
the roots is done by the
A. Gravitropism
A. xylem
B. Phototropism
B. phloem
C. Thigmotropism
C. cotyledon
D. Hydrotropism D. pallisade cells
54. What type of cells makes leaves some- 59. Xylem tissue is composed of which two
what flexible types of cells
A. collenchyma, which are unevenly think A. Xylem vessels and companion cells
B. Xylem vessels and sieve tubes
B. parenchyma, which are high in mito-
C. Tracheids and sieve tubes
chondria needed to change shape
D. Xylem vessels and tracheids
C. Sclerenchyma (scleroid cells) which
are gritty 60. What is the most essential ingredient for
D. Sclerenchyma, which have think cell all living things?
walls high in lignin A. Air

B. Water 66. Contains the male reproductive cells of the

plant
C. Soil
A. hypocotyl
D. none of above
B. radical
61. Which structure controls what enters and C. pollen
leaves the cell?
D. ovule
A. cell wall
67. ROOT HAIRS DEVELOP FROM THE RE-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. nucleus GION OF
C. plasma membrane A. MERISTEMATIC ACTIVITY
D. golgi B. ROOT CAP
C. MATURATION
62. Roots absorb and for plants?
D. none of above
A. Water and Nutrients
68. P680 is part of while P700 is part of
B. Soil and Sun
C. Warmth and Water A. Calvin Cycle / Photosystems II and I
D. Soil and Water B. Photosystem II / Photosystem I
C. Photosystems II and I / Calvin Cycle
63. What structure helps to anchor the plant
in the soil? D. Photosystem I / Photosystem II
A. leaf 69. What are the words above and below

the equal sign of the photosynthesis equa-
B. flower
tion?
C. stem A. Light Energy, Chlorophyll
D. root B. Chlorophyll, Light Energy
C. Glucose, Water
64. What effect does citrus blight have on cit-
rus trees. D. Water, Glucose
A. kills them 70. The membrane enclosed the vacuole is
called
B. helps the tree produce more fruit
A. plasmalema
C. renders a tree worthless for fruit pro-
duction and kills them B. cell membrane
C. endoplasm
D. does stuff
D. tonoplast
65. What is the natural environment for the
71. What part of the plant does photosynthe-
root zone?
sis occur?
A. Water
A. roots
B. Air B. leaves
C. Soil C. flower petals
D. none of above D. pollen

72. which of the following is a reactant to pho- C. spongy mesophyll

tosynthesis? D. guard cells

A. Oxygen
78. What structure uses light to do photosyn-
B. Carbohydrates thesis?
C. Glucose A. vacuole
D. Water B. mitochondria
73. This tissue is composed of mostly living C. chloroplast
cells: sieve cells in conifers and; sieve tube D. nucleus
elements with companion cells in hard-
woods: 79. What is the site of photosynthesis?
A. Functional phloem A. Cell Wall
B. Functional xylem B. Cytoplasm
C. Parenchyma cells C. Chloroplast
74. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MADE UP 80. Which of the following is NOT involved in
OF DEAD CELLS? moving water up a plant?
A. COLLENCHYMA A. Capillary action made possible by the
tube-shaped cells
B. PHLOEM
B. Transpiration in the leaves, which
C. SCLERENCHYMA helps maintain low pressure in the leaves
D. none of above
75. What plant tissue transports material be- C. Companion cells pumping water in and
tween the root and the shoot of the plant out of the xylem using active transport
A. Ground tissue D. Casparian Strip in the roots, which

helps maintain high pressure of water in
B. Apical tissue the roots
C. dermal tissue
81. Attracts animals that help the parent plant
D. Vascular tissue with seed dispersal
76. Storage, anchorage, conduction and ab- A. pollen
sorption are all functions of what? B. leaves
A. Tree Trunk C. stems
B. Tree Crown D. fruits
C. Tree Roots
82. Which structure prepares proteins and
D. all of the above transports them to the golgi?
77. Which layer of cells in the leaf conducts the A. golgi
majority of photosynthesis? B. nucleus
A. root cells C. chloroplast
B. pallisade D. endoplasmic reticulum

83. Removing the apical bud of a plant will 88. Found in hardwoods only, these are the
A. stop all further growth primary conduction elements composed of
stacks of dead, hollow cells that form long
B. promote the production of new axillary tubes:
buds, making the plant bushier
A. Vessels
C. make it grow taller, faster
B. Xylem
D. prevent the plant from getting thicker,
C. Cambium
making it floppy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
84. A tree that keeps it’s leaves for more than
one year is called a what? 89. Which process directly requires energy?
A. Deciduous A. absorption of minerals in the root
B. Wintergreen B. movement of water up the xylem
C. Evergreen C. transpiration in the leaves
D. none of above D. movement of sugar in the phloem
90. Citrus growers and the U.S. Horticultural

85. Respiration
Research Laboratory have been studying
A. Process by which a plant gives up wa- the disease citrus blight since what year?
ter vapor to the atmosphere.
A. 1891
B. A series of processes in which solar
B. 1872
energy is converted to chemical energy.
C. 1895
C. Process by which living cells take in
oxygen and give off Carbon Dioxide. D. 1892
D. Study of how these organs function 91. The swollen area at the base of a branch
and the complex chemical processes that is called the:
permit the plant to live, grow and repro-
A. Branch bark ridge
duce.
B. Branch collar
86. This is plant tissue that conducts nutrients C. Leaf bud scar
(food) through the plant.
D. none of above
A. Xylem
B. Phloem 92. Photosynthesis
C. Photosynthesis A. A series of processes in which solar

energy is converted to chemical energy.
D. DNA
B. Process by which living cells take in
87. This is the primary structural component oxygen and give off Carbon Dioxide.
of the cell wall C. Process by which a plant gives up wa-
A. Lignin ter vapor to the atmosphere.
B. Cellulose D. Study of how these organs function
and the complex chemical processes that
C. Symplasm permit the plant to live, grow and repro-
D. none of above duce.

93. THE MORPHOLOGICAL NATURE OF THE A. Xylem

EDIBLE PART OF COCONUT IS B. Phloem

A. COTYLEDONS C. Cambium
B. ENDOSPERM D. none of above
C. PERICARP
99. How does Photosystem II create O2?
D. none of above
A. It reduces H2O into H+ and O
94. Where the branch and trunk expand B. O2 is actually generated in the Calvin
against each other in the crotch and the Cycle
bark gets pushed up is called the:
C. It Oxidizes H2O into H+ and O
A. Branch collar
D. Oxygen atoms are assembled in Photo-
B. Branch bark ridge system II
C. petiole
100. Chlorophyll
D. none of above
A. Is the substance that gives plant
95. Trees that form wide vessels early in the leaves their green color.
season and narrower vessels later in the B. Small membrane bound bodies inside
season are called the cell that contain the green chlorophyll
A. Diffuse porous pigment.
B. Monocots C. Conversion of Carbon Dioxide.
C. Ring porous D. Most important life-sustaining pro-
D. none of above cess.
96. The opening and closing of stomata are 101. The purpose of the palisade layer in the
regulated by leaf is to carry out
A. Guard cells A. Gaseous exchange
B. Xylem vessels B. transpiration
C. Starch C. respiration
D. Lignin D. photosynthesis
97. The area of the leaf stalk that enables leaf 102. The two main functions of roots are to
drop and protects the stem from dessica- absorb water and minerals and to the
tion and pathogen entry. plant.
A. Branch bark ridge A. anchor
B. Branch collar B. gather sunshine for
C. Abscission zone C. protect
98. This conductive tissue is composed of tra- 103. In woody plants the dermal tissue is
cheids, fibers and parenchyma cells in gym- called the
nosperms A. dermal

B. periderm 109. AGE OF A TREE CAN BE ESTIMATED BY

C. epidermis A. ITS HEIGHT AND GIRTH
D. phloem B. BIOMASS
C. NUMBER OF ANNUAL RINGS
104. What part of the leaf is responsible for
D. none of above
gas exchange?
A. pallisade cells 110. What tissue type defends the plant from
physical damage and pathogens?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. spongy mesophyll
A. Ground tissue
C. cotyledon
B. Protective tissue
D. stomata and guard cells C. Vascular tissue
105. Transpiration also occurs in what? D. Dermal tissue
A. flowers 111. Which structure is made of mature, living,
B. roots fully functioning cells?
A. vessel elements of xylem
C. stems
B. sieve tube cells of xylem
D. leaves
C. tracheid cells of phloem
106. What is needed to increase surface area D. companion cells of phloem
to absorb more water?
112. What part of the seed helps to protect
A. leaves the embryo?
B. stems A. embryo
C. root hairs B. seed coat
D. xylems C. root
D. leaves
107. Bolting is induced by hormone.
A. GA2 113. These provide a large surface area for ab-
sorbing sunlight & CO2. They also facili-
B. IAA tate gas exchange.
C. IPA A. Twigs
D. GA3 B. Buds
C. Leaf blades
108. This is a tissue in plant stems and roots.
It transports water and minerals upwards D. none of above
from the roots to the stem, via capillary
114. In what process does the plant give up
action.
water vapor to the atmosphere?
A. Xylem A. Photosynthesis
B. Phloem B. Transpiration
C. Photosynthesis C. Respiration
D. Oxygen D. none of above

1.9 Agricultural Economics 201
115. These trees have only one apical meris- B. Junipers

tem: C. Oaks

A. Pines D. Palms
1.9 Agricultural Economics

1. While agriculture remains a industry, 6. Approximately, what percentage of total
it is a industry, especially in the realm workforce of India is engaged in agricul-
of the smaller operations. tural and allied sector activities?
A. non profitable, declining A. 45
B. profitable, declining
B. 55
C. profitable, increasing
C. 65
D. none of above
D. 75
2. Which among the following is most impor-
tant for agricultural productivity?
7. Which agency is responsible for procure-
A. Irrigation ment, distribution and storage of food
B. Rainfall grain production in India?
C. Land area A. Ministry of Agriculture
D. Fertilizer
B. Food Corporation of India
3. According to Von Thunen, what type of
C. NAFED
agriculture is produced closest to market?
A. dairying D. TRIFED
B. grain agriculture
8. in farming the land is used for grow-
C. ranching ing food and fodder crops and rearing the
D. plantation farming livestock.
4. Crop rotation & the enclosure movement A. Mixed farming
were hallmarks of:
B. separate farming
A. The First Agricultural Revolution
C. plantation agriculture
B. The Second agricultural revolution
C. the Third agricultural revolution D. nomadic herding
D. the Green revolution
9. Imports are products
5. Among the following which Indian state
A. imported from another country to the
produces the largest quantity of pulses?
US
A. Maharashtra
B. All are correct
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh C. Ex: Honda van imported from Japan
D. Rajasthan D. Ex: Coffee beans imported from Brazil

10. What does Gross Domestic Product 15. the invention of farm machinery led to the
(GDP)? revolution.
A. total value of all goods and services A. Industrial
produced in a country in one year
B. plantation
B. total value of all goods and services
made by one person C. Agricultural
C. something that is really yucky at home D. green
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. What is “support price” for an agricultural
D. total value of a country’s exports
commodity
11. Production of agricultural products for the A. The minimum price at which Govern-
market is called: ment is prepared to buy it
A. hunting and gathering
B. Money paid to agriculturist for cause
B. sedentary cultivation damaging crops due drought
C. subsistence agriculture C. Subsidy paid by the government
D. commercial agriculture
D. All of the above
12. Which of the Agricultural Revolutions did
not include increased usage of complex ma- 17. Life Expectancy is a factor in a
chines? country’s
A. First Agricultural Revolution A. Human Development Index
B. Second Agricultural Revolution B. Human Division Indigo
C. Third Agricultural Revolution C. Gross Domestic Product
D. Green Revolution D. Literacy Rate
13. The Neolithic Revolution refers to the time
18. Agriculture, Irrigation and Power Projects
when early humans-
were given highest priority in which
A. mastered fire. among the following plans?
B. developed agriculture and settled A. First Five year plan
down.
B. Second Five year plan
C. migrated from Africa.
D. organized governments C. Third Five year plan
D. Fourth Five year plan
14. Who regulates the markets in agricultural
products in India?
19. The Freedom to Farm Act of ended
A. Essential Commodities Act, 1955 price supports and acreage allotments for
B. Agricultural Produce (Grading and many farm products.
Marking) Act, 1937 A. 1996
C. Agricultural Produce Market Commit- B. 1906
tee Act enacted by States
C. 1706
D. Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat
and Food Products Order, 1973 D. none of above

20. Which of the following statement is not D. people had to make pottery to hold fo
correct?
25. pastoral farming is

A. India is the second largest producer of
fruits in the world A. growing crops commercially
B. India is the biggest producer of vegeta- B. raising cattle

bles in the world C. nomadic farming
C. Production of fruits, vegetables and D. horticulture
spices called horticulture
26. Farms can be
D. Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer
of the wheat in India A. small
B. All are correct
21. Which of the following is not a primary
economic activity? C. family-based farms
A. carpenter D. large, multi-national conglomerates
B. lumberjack 27. In India National Food security Act(NFSA)

C. orange grower was introduced in the year
D. police officer A. 2013

B. 2014
22. Perhatikan pernyataan dibawah ini . Man-
akah yang termasuk potensi ekonomi Mar- C. 2017
itim Indonesia dalam segi Pariwisata?a) D. 2019
Budidaya Lobster, b) Industri galangan
kapalc) Wakatobi, Bunakend) Pembangkit 28. Perhatikan pernyataan berikut!1) Peng-
listrik tenaga arus laut gunaan teknologi sudah modern2) Alih
fungsi lahan menjadi lahan non perta-
A. A. a) nian3) Ketersediaan benih yang melimpah
B. B. b) dan bermutu4) Tidak dipengaruhi musim5)
C. C. c) Modal terbatas6) Pasar hasil pertanian
sebagian besar dikuasai oleh pedagang-
D. D. d) pedagang besarDari pernyataan di atas
23. Farmers have been given subsidies since: yang merupakan hambatan pengemban-
gan agrikutur di Indonesia adalah
A. 1930s
A. A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1850
B. B. 2, 5, 6
C. 2020
C. C. 3, 4, 6
D. 1999
D. D. 4, 5, 6
24. Why did farming lead to permanent vil-
lages? 29. What is the rank of India in fruit produc-
tion?
A. people grew too much food to travel
A. 1
B. people needed to build storage for
crops B. 4
C. people needed to stay and tend their C. 2
crops D. 5

30. What is a cause of desertification? 34. type of farming produces rather small
amount of produce from a large area of
A. Cutting down trees
land.
B. Dumping a sand box A. Extensive
C. Flooding B. intensive
D. Dehydration C. pastoral
D. subsistence
31. Which of the following describes the en-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
closure movement of the eighteenth cen- 35. If Country A has a low growth rate, high
tury? literacy rate, and largely tertiary level eco-
nomic activity, then it is
A. The land was divided into long, narrow
strips that were not enclosed by fences or A. developing
hedges. B. in transition
B. The land was not divided but worked C. developed
communally as villages labored in large D. in North Africa
fields side by side.
36. The movement to fence in fields in order
C. The land was divided into plots
to farm more effectively, at the expense
bounded by fences to farm more effec-
of poor peasants who relied on common
tively.
fields for farming and pasture
D. The land was not divided, so the lord A. Enclosure
of the manor could directly control agri-
cultural techniques and introduce farming B. Crop Rotation
innovations. C. Agricultural Revolution
D. Industrious Revolution
32. A surplus in farming could be growing too
much corn that is not needed. What can be 37. Parity concept
done to prevent this? A. All answers are correct
A. All answers are correct B. In international exchange, parity
B. Restrict supply with acreage allot- refers to the exchange rate between the
ments (can only farm 40 acres) currencies of two countries making the
purchasing power of both currencies sub-
C. Use corn to make gasohol and stantially equal.
biodiesel and ethanol
C. Equality in price, rate of exchange, pur-
D. Will create higher food prices chasing power, or wages
D. none of above
33. A Country with an HDI of .92 is most likely
what type of country 38. Price floors can result in both positive and
negative outcomes.
A. MDC
A. All answers are correct
B. LDC
B. Result will be a product surplus
C. In between
C. Since the consumers are not willing
D. none of above to buy the quantity produced at the price

floor, the government will end up buying 44. How introduced the First “Five” year plan
the surplus to maintain the price. in India? (year 1951)

D. Price floors create benefits to the A. Mr. Jawaharlal Nehru
farmers at the expense of the consumers B. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
as they must pay higher prices and con-
sume less. C. Mr. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
D. Dr. Manmohan Singh
39. Which sector of the economy is agriculture
based on? 45. The undiscounted measure for choosing
A. primary among the alternative projects
B. secondary A. Payback Period
C. tertiary B. NPV
D. quarternary C. B:C Ratio
D. IRR
40. Shift cultivation and slash-and-burn farm-
ing are often associated with 46. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs)
A. subsistence farming and hybrid seeds are often associated
with
B. agribusiness
A. 1st Agricultural Revolution
C. Rostow’s TAKE OFF stage
B. 2nd Agricultural Revolution
D. more developed countries (MDCs)
C. 3rd Agricultural Revolution
41. “Future value of present money” which D. subsistence farming
means
A. Compounding 47. Why do some farms still profitable?
B. Discounting A. True
C. Cost B. Farm subsidies (money given to farms
from government)
D. Returns
C. On average, only about 16 percent of
42. Farm Policy programs main elements are the farm income is from farming activities.
designed to support:
A. both answers are correct D. Members of farm households increas-
B. support prices when farmers sell their ingly hold jobs outside the farm (espe-
crops cially in winter when there is no farming
being done)
C. support income to farmers
D. none of above 48. What is subsistence farming?
A. farm is based in one location
43. Low birth rate
B. crops are grown to be sold in the mar-
A. More developed ket
B. Less developed C. farmers grows crops to feed his family
C. Newly industrialized only
D. none of above D. only cattle are raised on the farm

49. The demand and supply changes over time 53. Which of the following works to protect
in ag industry have against the exploitation of agricultural la-
A. all are correct bor?
B. Increased the minimum efficient scale A. fair trade

in agriculture and reduced crop prices B. all agribusiness
(now tractors instead of horse and mule). C. plantation farming
D. suitcase farming
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Some producers have become more ef-
ficient; firms that are too small to take ad- 54. What stage of Rostow’s Development In-
vantage of economies of scale get priced dex does technology first get introduced?
out of the market and their financial A. 1-Traditional Society
losses have resulted in a mass exodus of
workers from the industry to other sec- B. 2-Preconditions of takeoff
tors of the economy. C. 3-takeoff
D. Large corporate firms, collectively D. 4-drive to maturaty
called agribusiness, have emerged in
some areas of farming. 55. What factors contribute to the decline in
the agriculture industry?
50. Agriculture also includes farm commodities A. Supply of ag products has increased
(ex: raw materials that can be sold like dramatically because of technological ad-
copper). Agriculture also includes what: vances.
A. raw materials like coffee B. Land that was once considered unsuit-
B. All are correct able for agriculture can now be farmed
due to irrigation and other advances.
C. food products that are sold through
restaurants or grocery stores C. Demand has increased much more
slowly, especially in the United States.
D. none of above
This is because demand is tied to popula-
51. A place where people and machines join to- tion growth, which has not been rapid.
gether to mass produce goods. D. all are correct statements
A. Cartel
56. Typically, slash & burn agriculture leads
B. Corporation to:
C. Factory A. shifting cultivation
D. Urbanization B. plantation farming
52. A rapid population growth during the C. aquaculture
1900s contributed to the aimed to in- D. pastoralism
crease food supplies to support the grow-
ing population. 57. There are some serious issues in the ag
industry
A. 1st Agricultural Revolution
A. One major cause of the instability is
B. 2nd Agricultural Revolution the ag industry is dependence on world
C. 3rd Agricultural Revolution markets to export to.
D. 2nd Industrial Revolution B. All are correct

C. It suffers frequently from short-run C. C. Wilayah perairan indonesia yang

price sangat luas

D. It suffers frequently from income in- D. D. Memiliki keanekaragaman hayati
stability, which may prevent firms from en- laut yang melimpah
tering the market.
63. Exports are products
58. Humans have obtained food in a variety
of ways. Which method below emerged A. US sells to other countries
last?
B. All are correct
A. Hunting & gathering
C. Ex: US selling airplanes to Germany
B. Vegetative planting
D. Ex: US selling corn to China
C. Seed agriculture
D. The Colombian Exchange 64. Mining and farming are part of which eco-
nomic sector?
59. the technique to create farmland by burn-
ing or cutting the forest is called A. Primary
A. intensive farming B. Secondary
B. lumbering
C. Tertiary
C. subsistence farming
D. Quaternary
D. Slash and burn
60. A country that is mostly rural and engages 65. Which of the following agricultural prod-
in mainly primary level of economic activ- ucts are not cash crops?
ity is probably a A. cocoa
A. developed nation B. coffee
B. developing nation
C. cotton
C. industrialized nation
D. corn
D. primary nation
61. forestry, lumbering, agriculture, hunting 66. Kekayaan laut merupakan potensi
and fishing all are economic activities. ekonomi yang mampu memberikan kon-
tribusi bagi perekonomian nasional. Peran
A. secondary masyarakat untuk menjaga dan mengem-
B. primary bangkan potensi tersebut dengan
C. tertiary A. A. Membiarkan kekayaan laut begitu
D. quaternary saja agar lebih berkembang lagi
62. Sektor perikanan di Indonesia memiliki B. B. Memanfaatkan hasil laut secara

potensi sangat besar karena massal dengan cara apapun
A. A. Teknologi yang dipakai nelayan su- C. C. Menjaga kelestarian laut dan

dah maju menikmati hasil dengan bijak
B. B. Memiliki perairan dengan ombak D. D. Mendukung peran asing dalam men-
yang besar gelola sumber daya laut

1.10 Animal husbandry 208
67. What is the basic support system needed B. one is small scale the other is large
to keep an economy going called? scale
A. economic activity C. one is environment friendly the other
B. infrastructure is not
C. Gross Domestic Product D. one happens only in Mediterranean
D. Skills of workers
71. The Food, Conservation, and Energy Act in
68. Agriculture is an extremely diverse indus- , provided cash subsidies such as direct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
try because it includes: payments to farmers based on their his-
A. All are correct torical production patterns and CCPs which
were payments made to fill the gap be-
B. Pig farms
tween the target price of the farm product
C. Cattle ranches and the actual market price of the current
D. Vegetable plots and grain farms year. It also provided marketing loans
for when the crop prices fell below a cer-
69. There are many different reasons behind tain price; the loan could be paid for with
farm subsidies. Without farms there the crop with no additional payment nec-
would be little food and life would be essary.
much more difficult. Which are true state-
ments? A. 2008
A. both answers are correct B. 1908
B. It is critical to insure that there are C. 1778
farms to provide food for the nation.
D. none of above
C. It becomes necessary to help ensure
that those farmers are able to earn a liv- 72. Why did people move to the cities during
ing. the Industrial revolution?
D. none of above
A. Jobs in factories
70. nomadic herding and livestock ranching are B. Jobs on the farm
different in the sense that
C. Family
A. one is nomadic and the other is seden-
tary D. Friends
1.10 Animal husbandry

1. What are common causes of injuries 2. Animals typically do not attack humans un-
caused by animals? less or out of
A. poor judgement, and improper training A. provoked, fear
B. scared, control
B. Knowing exactly what to do C. shy, fear
C. pushing the animals D. provoked, love
D. yelling 3. Domesticated animals of different breed

kept in an agricultural land for the bene- C. Cow

fit of human beings D. Both b and c

A. Livestock
9. The place where bees are reared are called
B. Poultry
A. Apiary
C. Cattle
B. Apiculturing
D. Animal stock
C. Bee wax
4. Poultry farming is undertaken to raise do-
mestic fowls for and D. Bee hives
A. Egg and Meat Production 10. As Suzy vaccinates her dairy herd, the
B. Meat and Milk Production piece of equipment she most likely will not
use is a
C. Milk and Egg Production
A. headgate
D. none of above
B. halter
5. Animal Husbandry is the branch of agri-
C. squeeze chute
culture concerned with animals that are
raised for - D. muzzle
A. Fibre 11. Leghorn is related to
B. Milk A. Apiculture
C. Eggs B. Dairy farming
D. All of these
C. Pisciculture
6. As Charlie approaches the herd, several an- D. Poultry
imals have wide eyes, flaring nostrils, and
tense muscles. These are indications that 12. Why should you use caution when you ap-
the animals are proach a cow and newborn calf
A. happy A. if the calf gets scared it could easily die
B. scared
C. interested B. calves can get infectious diseases for
the first 24 hours
D. lethargic
C. The cow might become aggressive pro-
7. loud noises tecting her newborn calf
A. scare animals D. the cow will be less likely to produce
B. comfort animals milk if she is scared after giving birth
C. make animals pass out 13. What piece of equipment makes it easier
D. do nothing to animals to vaccinate large animals such as cows?
A. water hose
8. To which species does Milch breed and
drought animals belongs to? B. tractor
A. Buffalo C. Squeeze chute
B. Yak D. air horn

14. Animals remember experiences. C. Apis mellifera

A. amazing D. Apis cerana indica
B. negative
20. Which of the following is a fungus dis-
C. positive ease causing maximum deaths of poultry
D. mediocre birds?
A. Pullorum
15. What is the correct definition of a layer?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A mature female chicken that pro- B. Coryza
duces eggs. C. Rickets
B. A young female chicken D. Aspergillosis
C. A chicken that is raised for meat con-
sumption 21. What must be placed with stored chemi-
cals?
D. All of the above
A. Directions to use it
16. The management and production of fish is
B. Safety sheet
called
C. Material Safety Data Sheet
A. Pisciculture
B. Apiculture D. A cotton ball to absorb leaks
C. Sericulture 22. Agricultural chemicals used at a livestock

D. Aquaculture operation should not have
A. proper labels
17. Signs such as an animal raising its’ head,
widening its’ eyes, flaring its’ nostrils, B. material safety data sheets
tensing its’ muscles, and moving its’ ears C. trained workers
are signs that an animal is
D. colored storage containers
A. mad
B. thinking deeply 23. What are the consequences for not wear-
C. happy ing PPE?
D. scared A. You don’t get hurt

B. Injuries occur from slippery floors,
18. Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of dusty conditions, etc
A. Marine fishes
C. Animals will not like you
B. Fresh-water fishes
D. You will rip your pants
C. Finned fishes
D. Shell fish 24. chimerical s must be?
A. be labeled
19. Which one of the following species of hon-
eybee is an Italian species? B. left out
A. Apis dorsata C. thrown away
B. Apis florae D. dumped out

25. Layers are fed in food rich with D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Protein
31. Animals will move away in fright when

B. Vitamin a and k handlers
C. Fiber
A. make loud noises
D. Fat
B. walk towards the animals
26. Proper animal handling facilities should in-
C. wear boots and gloves
clude
A. small spaces for animals D. turn on the barn lights
B. poor lighting 32. what is the common cause of human in-
C. faulty equipment jury?
D. safe footing A. failure to use protective gear
27. What are the food requirements for cat- B. being to protective
tle?
C. being to contentious
A. Both b and d
D. non of the above
B. Maintenance requirement
C. None of these 33. A common cause of human injury when
D. Milk producing requirements working with livestock animals is
A. certified employees
28. Cattle Husbandry is done for the follow-
ing purposes:(1) Milk Production (2) Agri- B. wearing PPE
cultural Work(3) Meat Production (4) Egg
C. proper ventilation
Production
A. (1) and (2) D. improper training
B. (2), (3) and (4) 34. The imaginary circle around an animal that
C. (3) and (4) causes them to move away when a human
D. (1) and (4) enters the circle is the
A. stop zone
29. animals attack humans when?
A. fed B. flight zone
B. petted C. headgate
C. left alone D. contact zone
D. provoked out of fear
35. Poultry fowl are susceptible to the follow-
30. FOOD ing pathogens
A. HELPS IN GROWTH A. Viruses
B. PROTECTS US FROM DIFFERENT DIS- B. Bacteria
EASES
C. Fungi
C. GIVES ENERGY TO TO PERFORM DIF-
FERENT ACTIVITIES D. All of the above

36. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CAN FEED A 41. Which one of the following is an exotic
GROWING POPULATION? breed?
A. TRADITIONAL METHOD OF CROP PRO- A. Red sindhi
DUCTION
B. Jersey
B. MODERN METHOD OF IMPROVED
CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT C. Sahiwal
C. INDUSTRIAL EVOLUTION D. None of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE 42. What does animal husbandry include?
37. The imaginary circle that surrounds an ani- A. Selective Breeding
mal or herd, that if penetrated the animals
will react in an unpleasant way, is known B. Raising Of Livestock
as? C. All of these
A. flight zone D. None of these
B. My space
43. Animal husbandry is done for the follow-
C. Margin of error
ing purposes (i) Milk Production (ii) Agri-
D. run zone cultural work (iii) Meat production (iv) Egg
production
38. Animal husbandry is the scientific manage-
ment of (i) animal breeding (ii) culture of A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
animals (iii) animal livestock (iv) rearing B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
of animals
C. (iii) and (iv)
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i) and (iv)
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) 44. Poultry farming is undertaken to raise fol-
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) lowing (i) Egg production (ii) Feather pro-
duction (iii) Chicken meat (iv) Milk produc-
39. Apiculture involves tion
A. Rearing and management of bees. A. (i) and (iii)
B. Rearing and management of fish B. (i) and (ii)
C. Rearing and management of wild ani- C. (ii) and (iii)
mals
D. (iii) and (iv)
D. Rearing and management of hens
45. What is another name for aquatic hus-
40. Which one of the following fishes is a sur-
bandry
face feeder?
A. Rohus A. Horticulture
B. Mrigals B. Sericulture
C. Common carps C. Pisciculture
D. Catlas D. None of the above

46. To solve the food problem of the country, B. head raised

which among the following is necessary?
C. licking the calf

A. Increased production and storage of
D. relaxed muscles
food grains
B. Easy access of people to the food grain 52. Which of the following are Indian cattle?
(i) Bos indicus (ii) Bos domestica (iii) Bos
C. People should have money to purchase bubalis (iv) Bos vulgaris
the grains A. (i) and (iii)
D. All of the above B. (i) and (ii)
47. Rohu and catla are types of C. (ii) and (iii)
A. Freshwater fish D. (iii) and (iv)
B. Marine water fish
53. Carlos walks through his sheep herd daily
C. Both I and II
to
D. None of these
A. improve genetics of the flock
48. Cultivation of fishes in artificially prepared B. acclimate the animals to human con-
ponds or water bodies is called as —— tact
A. (a) Aquaculture
C. check for weather conditions
B. (b) Vermiculture
D. deworm the animals
C. (c) Pisciculture
D. (d) Agriculture 54. Eggs provide us
49. witch is not a sign of suspicion or they are A. Proteins

scared B. Carbohydrates
A. head raised C. Vitamins
B. wide eyes D. None of these
C. ear positions
55. Excessive noise animals.
D. laid down
A. pleases
50. Animal husbandry is the scientific manage-
ment of B. scares
A. (i) Feeding of animals C. encourages
B. (ii) Breeding of animals D. confuses
C. (iii) animal livestock
56. Birds grown for is called layers.
D. (iv) All of the above
A. Meat production
51. As Doug approaches a cow and her new-
B. Egg production
born calf, what signs does he watch for to
indicate the cow is upset C. None of these
A. chewing the cud D. Milk Production

1.11 Environmental science 214
57. Facilities must? C. Apiculture

A. have a safe interment D. Sericulture
B. not care about employees
59. what is a human error?
C. under pay employees
D. ignore employees A. beating animals
58. Pasturage is related to B. poor judgment

C. scaring animal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cattle
B. Fishery D. pushing animal
1.11 Environmental science

1. The combined portions of Earth in which all D. none of above
living things exist is called the
5. Your friend tells you she’s decided not to
A. biome
use pesticides or synthetic chemicals on
B. ecosystem her farm; instead she’ll rely on composting
C. community and biological pest control. She is practic-
ing
D. biosphere
A. industrial agriculture
2. The information collected during experi-
B. monoculture
mentation is called
A. information C. organic agriculture
B. clues D. sustainable agriculture

C. data 6. The 0 degree mark of longitude is known
D. graphs as the measure from Greenwich Eng-
land.
3. The was the time when humans
A. Equator
started using machines to produce goods.
B. Prime Meridian
A. scientific period
B. Agricultural Revolution C. International Date Line
C. Industrial Revolution D. Contour Line

D. none of above 7. Which of the following causes the greatest
amount of ocean pollution?
4. Environmental science is Interdisciplinary
because A. Human activities on land carrying pol-
lutants into the oceans by rivers
A. an area that is unowned by an individ-
ual; shire by an entire society. B. Sewage sludge dumped directly into
the ocean
B. it incorporates concepts and ideas
from multiple fields of study. C. Oil spills from takers and offshore oil
C. the consequences of actions that re- rigs
sulted in a negative way. D. none of above

8. Which substance is used in a sewage treat- C. recycling

ment system to kill harmful bacteria? D. replenishing

A. ammonia
13. In which ocean zones do crabs, mussels,
B. chlorine anemone, barnacles, and sea stars live?
C. sand A. neritic
D. soap B. intertidal
9. What are considered “the commons”? C. open ocean

D. aphotic
A. Common house hold items like knifes,
spoons, and forks. 14. Which of the following is the fastest-
B. A field where college students can sit growing source of energy in the world?
outside in between classes A. passive solar heating
C. A renewable resource owned by no B. photovoltaic cells
one and available for use by anyone at lit- C. fuel cells
tle or no charge
D. wind power
D. Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act 15. a channel dug into a aquifer to reach
groundwater is called?
10. Scientists use statistics to
A. ocean
A. graph data.
B. volcano
B. analyze data. C. well
C. communicate ideas to each other D. watershed
D. All of the above
16. Which example best illustrates the point
11. Remora are small fish with a sucker-like behind the Tragedy of the Commons es-
organ that allows them to attach them- say?
selves to larger animals like a shark. By A. Various nations overfishing in interna-
doing this, the remora is able to gain pro- tional waters, leading to a collapse of fish
tection from the presence of the shark stocks.
while helping the shark stay clear from
B. A property owner clear-cutting all of
parasites. This relationship shows ?
the trees on his land to sell for timber
A. parasitism
C. A farmer that overplants his fields one
B. mutualism year, leading to a poor harvest
C. commensalism D. One country declaring war on another
D. predation 17. The carrying capacity of a population is de-
termined by the
12. Turning the heat down before going to bed
is an example of whcich type of conserva- A. distribution of a population
tion? B. amount of limited resources
A. reducing C. number of offspring produced
B. reusing D. fertility rates

18. The rich variety of life on earth is known 24. When an entire species is loss it is known
as as
A. preservation A. Endangered
B. biodiversity B. Extinction
C. sustainability C. Management
D. extinction D. Misplacement
19. What is erosion?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. is the study of how living things in-
A. When rocks and sand are moved by wa- teract with each other and their nonliving
ter environment.
B. When water gets contaminated A. Enivormental science
C. When plants grow next to a river B. Ecology
D. When rocks are broken apart by water C. Chemistry
20. Potable water should contain D. Biology

A. 0 ppm fecal coliform bacteria 26. What is a example of a abiotic factor?
B. 0 ppm nitrogen/ nitrates A. Panda
C. 0 ppm phosphorous/ phosphates B. Turtle
D. All of these C. Butterfly
21. In a controlled experiment, D. weather
A. there are at least two variables 27. Compared to developing nations, devel-
B. a control group is compared with one oped nations have
or more experimental groups A. lower health standards.
C. a variable is not needed B. faster-growing populations.
D. should only be conducted one time C. greater personal wealth.
22. Rio de jenerio Summit held in D. higher health standards.
A. 1992 28. Which of the following is included as a com-
B. 2002 ponent of biomes?
C. 2012 A. Temperature
D. 2018 B. Seasons
23. Predators are important in an ecosystem C. Organic measurement
because they D. Precipitation
A. are herbivores
29. Chemicals that cause cancer are called
B. prevent the overpopulation of a
species A. teratogens.
C. help increase the number of herbi- B. carcinogens.

vores C. neurotoxins.
D. none of above D. endocrine disruptors.

30. is the introduction to harmful elements 36. Global area experiencing economic water
into the environment scarcity

A. Non-degradable A. South America
B. pollution B. The Middle East and Northern Africa
C. renewable C. Northern Europe
D. Tragedy of the Commons D. North America
31. Using coal is an example of a resource 37. What is Supply and Demand?
A. renewable A. question s whether the benefit of do-
B. nonbiodegradable ing something justifies the economic cost.
C. alternative
D. nonrenewable B. Predicts that the cost of a resource will
increase when demand is high or supply is
32. A river changes with the and low.
through which it flows. C. A measure of monetary value of the
A. water, climate goods and services produced.
B. land, climate D. none of above
C. rocks, oxygen 38. DDT is a type of , that was used to kill
D. air, land mosquitoes.
33. Possible short-term effect of air pollution A. herbicide
A. nausea B. pesticide
B. lung cancer C. nutrient
C. deafness D. gill
D. pollution control 39. Organisms that obtain nutrients by break-
ing down dead and decaying plants and an-
34. Earth’s atmosphere was formed by gases
imals are called
escaping from vents and
A. meteors A. producers.
B. the sun B. omnivores.
C. earthquakes C. autotrophs.
D. volcanoes D. decomposers
35. This is a disease that has appeared in the 40. Which of the following would not cause a
human population for the first time: population to decrease?
A. Infectious disease A. increase in emigration
B. cholera B. increase in immigration
C. pandemic C. increase in birth rates
D. emerging disease D. increase in life expectancy

41. Non-living part of an ecosystem 46. To is to process used objects so that

they can be used again
A. abiotic factor
A. Benefit
B. niche
B. Recycle
C. biotic factor
C. Reduce
D. none of above
D. none of above
42. 2 Which type of mining is associated with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
disturbing more land? 47. Organisms that cannot make their own
food and must obtain energy from exter-
A. Surface mining nal sources are called
B. Subsurface mining A. autotrophs
C. Ocean mining B. heterotrophs
D. Placer mining C. producers
43. To achieve and maintain clean air that D. plants

meets the National Air Quality guidelines.
48. In scientific experiment, the variable(s)
A. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 which is/are manipulated is/are
B. Climate Change Act of 2009 A. the independent variable
C. Philippine Water Act of 2004 B. the dependent variable
D. Philippine Environmental Impact State- C. both the independent and dependent
ment System of 1978 variable
D. both variables, one at a time
44. To create comprehensive framework for
systematically integrating the concept of 49. Which of the following pairs are design
climate change, in synergy with disaster features that nuclear power plants and
risk reduction. coal-fired power plants share?
A. Climate Change Act of 2009 A. fuel rods and containment buildings
B. Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Man- B. turbines and generators
agement Act o 2000
C. combustion chamber and reactor
C. Philippine Water Act of 2004 cores
D. none of above D. none of the above
45. The variety of organisms in an area, by 50. What has happened to human resource
species, genes, populations, and communi- consumption in the last several hundred
ties is called years?
A. Sustainability A. It has remained at the same level.
B. Biodiversity B. It has decreased only slightly.
C. Ecology C. It has increased dramatically.
D. Fossil fuels D. It has decreased dramatically.

51. A living or once-living organisms in an B. The study of ocean life and their inter-
ecosystem is a actions with the environment.

A. population C. The study of interaction of humans
B. biotic factor with the natural environment.
C. abiotic factor D. none of above

D. community 57. Which is a natural activity that increases
the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmo-
52. All the members of a species living in the sphere?
same area at the same time is called a
A. Combustion
A. species
B. Photosynthesis
B. population
C. Cellular respiration
C. community
D. combustion and photosynthesis
D. ecosystem
58. Which of the following is a source of alter-
53. The process of replanting an area with
native energy?
trees.
A. wind turbines
A. Forestry
B. Silviculture B. hydroelectric dams
C. Reforestation C. solar collectors
D. Deforestation D. hydrogen fuel
54. What is the term for the technology 59. This process occurs when species partition,
that generates electricity when sunlight in or divide, the resource they use in common
semiconductors, causing them to move? by specializing in different ways.
A. active solar heating A. Speciation
B. passive solar heating B. Realized Niche
C. photovoltaic cells C. Resource Partitioning
D. none of above D. Competition
55. Climate is different from weather because 60. Which of the following is NOT included in
a typical age structure diagram?
A. weather is always very predictable
A. the population’s sex ratio
B. weather is what we expect in the dis-
tant future B. the relative numbers of people in dif-
ferent age groups
C. climate focuses only on temperature
C. the population’s historical growth
D. climate is based on long-term aver-
ages D. the proportion of reproductive-aged in-
dividuals
56. What is Environmental Science?
A. An essay that describes that unowned 61. Biodiversity tends to near the equa-
territory being used till there was nothing tor.
left. A. increase

B. decrease 67. Which biome is more biodiverse?

C. not change A. Desert
D. none of above B. Sand
62. If a species is brought to an area it is not C. Tundra

native to and causes damage it is called D. Rainforest
an
68. Agriculture Revolution
A. space invader
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Society depended on natural re-
B. introduced species
sources and impacted the environment.
C. invasive species
D. invasive invader B. study of animals
63. Sound science is based on C. a document
A. Community analysis D. none of above
B. Peer-review 69. Which of the following is the lowest layer
C. Replication of the atmosphere?
D. One-time occurrences A. Exosphere
B. Hemisphere
64. humans lived in tribes, using fires to main-
tain the prairie C. Troposphere
A. hunter-gatherer period D. Mesosphere
B. industrial revolution 70. In terms of ecosystem services, the sus-
C. agricultural revolution tainability managed ecosystems would:
D. developing country A. provide enhanced and restored ser-
vices over unaltered natural ecosystems
65. The Gulf of Mexico dead zone is character-
ized by extremely low levels of in the
water. B. provide somewhat diminished or dam-
aged services
A. carbon dioxide
C. provide more and more valuable ser-
B. dissolved salts vices than converted ecosystems
C. oxygen D. restore the original biodiversity of
D. nitrogen ecosystems
66. When a certain population becomes so 71. 2 A home is built with clear glass panels
dense that it harms or changes the quality that allow sunlight to pass through. This
of life in that environment, we have is an example of
A. a population A. Active solar
B. overpopulation B. Passive solar
C. pollution C. Parabolic collector
D. none of above D. Photovoltaic Cells

72. Match the Definition: Any species (animal, C. land cover only.
plant, fungi, etc.) which is likely to become
D. land use only.
an endangered species fairly soon.

A. habitat 78. Button cell batteries are used in small
B. niche portable electronic devices such as
C. threatened species watches, cameras, digital thermometers,
calculators and toys. Although there are
D. conservation no federal regulations prohibiting throw-
ing button cell batteries in the regular
73. Which one of the following environmental
garbage, they should be recycled due to
issues is the primary cause of the others?
the hazardous materials contained within
A. Increasing resource use them. What is the best explanation for
B. Destruction of habitat why these batteries should be recycled?
C. Premature extinction A. Recycled batteries prevent companies
D. Human population growth from using resources to create new ones.
74. How does extinction effect the biodiver-

B. Batteries absorb heat that can lead
sity of an area?
to forest fires if released and damage
A. no effect ecosystems.
B. lowers C. Batteries contain materials that if
C. increases leaked into the environment can threaten
populations.
D. Recycled batteries allow companies to
75. Most Moai statues are carved from sell future batteries at a lower cost to the
which is compressed volcanic ash. consumer.
A. tuft
B. rock 79. A preserves natural resources for fu-
ture generations
C. stone
D. pebbles A. habitat
B. applied
76. Which of the following is an economic
value of forests? C. sustainable society
A. They provide wood. D. agricultural revolution
B. They prevent soil erosion.
80. Environmental science includes other areas
C. They regulate the water cycle.
of study. This is called
D. They decrease flooding.
A. Cross - Curricular
77. Land cover and land use are related, and
humans can change B. Interdisciplinary
A. neither. C. Multimodal
B. both. D. Renewable

81. An ecological footprint is the 87. A good experiment always has a control
A. mark a person’s shoe makes in soft group and variable(s).
earth. A. 1
B. number of animals a person has killed. B. 2
C. 3
C. amount of land and ocean area needed D. 4
to support one person.
88. What type of symbiosis?* The tick lives
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. number of trees people cut down.
on dog and feeds on its blood and tissue.*
82. Atmospheric condition trapping pollution The dog gets skin irritation and can pick up
diseases carried by tick.
A. nausea
A. commensalism
B. international agreement
B. mutualism
C. temperature inversion
C. parasitism
D. pollution control
D. predfation
83. An abundant resource with low demand
is 89. The shift of population from the country-
side to a city is called
A. likely to be very inexpensive
A. land use.
B. likely to be very expensive
B. land cover.
C. no way to tell cost
C. urbanization.
D. likely to be biodegradable
D. infrastructure.
84. Which of the following is a fossil fuel? 90. Most pollutants that enter estuaries break
A. Wind down over time, yet they are still consid-
B. Coal ered a problem because
C. Solar A. The pollutants eventually concentrate
in the ocean
D. Biomass
B. It is the volume of the pollutants, more
85. One problem with energy is that it pro- than the time factor, that harms estuaries.
duces radioactive waste.
A. nuclear C. The pollutants break down into still
more dangerous toxins
B. solar
C. tidal
D. wind 91. Match the Definition: This is the largest
bee. She is the mother of the colony and
86. Where I find clouds. lays all the eggs. She can live 4-7 years.
A. thermosphere A. Queen Bee
B. stratosphere B. Worker Bees
C. troposphere C. Drone Bees
D. ionosphere D. none of above

92. Which region of the world is currently ex- C. predation

periencing the highest increase in popula- D. parasitism
tion?

A. Asia 98. Which of the following is an example of
cogeneration?
B. North America
A. driving a fuel-efficient car
C. South America
B. using the waste heat from a furnace to
D. Europe power a steam turbine
93. 2/3 of freshwater on Earth is “locked C. using ocean thermal energy conver-
away” in what water source location? sion to run a turbine
A. atmosphere D. using tidal power to generate electric-
ity
B. rivers and lakes
C. underground 99. Wal-Mart is opening in the small town of
Vado, New Mexico. This is creating over
D. ice and glaciers
400 jobs in the area. Population is quickly
94. what year was The U.S. Forest Service is increasing. This is an example of
created. A. Urbanization
A. 1885 B. Inflation
B. 1905 C. Urban Center
C. 1820 D. Influence
D. 1960 100. Which correctly describes ecology?
95. Animals of the same species would most A. study of animals
likely compete over a limited amount of - B. deals with interactions among organ-
A. minerals isms
B. Oxygen C. study of earth’s land
C. sunlight D. science concerned with livestock
D. mating partners 101. Which of the following is NOT a reason
for overexploitation of resources?
96. A country that has low incomes, shorter
lifespans, and a high growth rate is known A. Technology advancement
as a B. Overpopulation
A. Developed country C. Consumerism
B. Developing country D. Community Awareness
C. Small country
102. Using one or more of the five senses to
D. Large country gather information
97. Two robins trying to eat the same work is A. infer
an example of B. model
A. commensalism C. observation
B. competition D. data

103. Ozone layer blocks harmful B. Forests provide habitats for plants and
A. Ultraviolet rays animals.
B. X-Rays C. Forests add oxygen to the atmosphere

through decomposition.
C. Infrared rays
D. Forests filter carbon dioxide and oxy-
D. none of above
gen through photosynthesis to allow for
104. Which of the following would be consid- clean air to breathe.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ered an ABIOTIC environmental factor?
108. Match the definition:The relationship be-
A. producers tween two different species where each
B. rainfall individual benefits from the other.
C. consumers A. Community
D. none of above B. ecosystem
105. Heat is transferred through space using C. biosphere
this method.
D. Symbiosis
A. Conduction
B. Convection 109. 1-9.3 Gases such as water vapor and car-
bon dioxide that trap heat near Earth are
C. Radiation known as
D. none of above A. global gases.
106. If ocean water did not move the Earth B. greenhouse gases.
would be
C. proxy gases.
A. colder at the equator
D. offset gases.
B. warmer at the equator
C. warmer at the poles 110. What type of symbiosis? * Humming-
birds feed on nectar from flowers. * Flow-
D. unchanged
ers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they
107. The United States depends on its forests move from flower to flower.
in many ways. Forests provide environ- A. commensalism
mental, social and economic benefits to
many people around the globe. They help B. mutualism
filter drinking water, provide timber for C. parasitism
building homes, habitats for a diverse ar-
ray of plants and animals, supply oxy- D. predation
gen, moderate temperatures and store at-
111. More than 97 percent of Earth’s total wa-
mospheric carbon. The health of a forest
ter supply is found in
plays a role in maintaining human health.
Which of the following statements sup- A. ice sheets.
ports the idea that human health benefits
B. the ocean.
from a healthy forest?
C. the atmosphere.
A. Forests provide timber for building
homes. D. groundwater.

112. Chipko Movement was to save C. Ecoloty

A. Trees D. Biodiversity

B. Rocks 118. Which law is a framework for the
C. River proper management of hazardous and non-
D. All of these hazardous solid waste?
A. Safe Drinking Water Act
113. The Clean Air Act is federal law that regu-
lates levels of air pollution produced from B. Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act (RCRA)
A. Transportation and factories
C. Clean Water Act
B. Private homes only
D. Endangered Species Act
C. Power plants only
D. Transportation, factories, power 119. Wind power originally got their energy
plants, and private homes from .
A. dead sea creatures
114. Which device helps clean car exhaust
B. the wind
A. electrostatic precipitator
C. the sun
B. scrubber
D. plants that look like giant ferns.
C. catalytic converter
D. ZEV 120. A common air pollutant that is very dan-
gerous because you cannot see it or smell
115. What are three of the main environmen- it
tal problems today?
A. Sulfur Monoxide
A. water loss, deforestation, mineral de-
B. Carbon Monoxide
pletion
C. Carbon Dioxide
B. pollution, loss of biodiversity, resource
depletion D. Nitrogen Oxide
C. over population, fires, land loss 121. The illegal capture or killing of an organ-
D. hurricanes, flooding, fires ism, often for money, is called
A. poaching
116. Fish are a type of , or free swimming
organism B. harvesting
A. nekton C. fragmentation
B. plankton D. extinction
C. benthos 122. A plant species is one that occurs in
D. plant area without human action.
117. refers to the number and variety of A. Invasive

species that live in an area B. Native
A. Population C. Weed
B. Natural resources D. Non-Native

123. The study of how the environment and C. resource depletion

humans affect one another is called D. Environmental science
A. Environmental Science
129. Pollutants from a factory that enter the
B. Environmental ethics water in a watershed will have a negative
C. Environment effect on which of the following?
D. Ecology A. Available space for crops
B. Local pond life
124. Trees are considered resources be-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cause they will eventually regrow, given C. Rainfall rates
enough time. D. Direction of river flow
A. Renewable 130. What percentage does a whole pie chart
B. Nonrenewable or circle graph represent?
C. Inexhaustible A. 360%
D. Recyclable B. 90%
C. 50%
125. Widespread pollution problems are
known as D. 100%
A. Point source 131. Which set of equipment would be used to

measure the temperature of a liquid that
B. Non-point source
would begin to boil?
C. Erosion
A. triple beam balance, thermometer and
D. none of above stopwatch
126. The Clean Water Act was created B. test tube, hot plate and balance
A. so the government can make money C. stopwatch, test tube and microscope
B. to stop pollution D. beaker, hot plate and thermometer
C. set standards for pollution levels 132. The arrangement of organisms in the
open ocean is determined by the
D. to make the lakes and rivers from fish-
able and swimmable A. increase in salt content from shallow
to deep waters
127. Ecosystem
B. size of the benthic zone, where photo-
A. To feed on both plants and animals synthetic occurs
B. System of several overlapping food C. amount of nutrients and sunlight that
chains are available
C. All the living/nonliving factors in an D. distribution of zooplankton
area
133. Environmental sustainability is a big chal-
D. none of above lenge because of
128. The study of how humans interact with A. agriculture
their natural environment. B. industrialization
A. Environtmentalism C. decrease in population
B. population loss D. none of above

134. What is part of the living and nonliving 139. Where would you expect to find the
things that we interact with? greatest number of species?

A. All of them A. desert
B. Water sources and climate B. the open ocean
C. Soil and landforms C. a tropical rainforest
D. none of above D. all of the above

140. The amount of resources that you use is
135. Biotic Potential is called your
A. fastest rate at which a population can A. resource debt to use ratio
grow
B. ecological footprint
B. average time it takes an organism to
C. nonrenewable/renewable data
reach reproductive age
D. use / nonuse data
C. change in population size over time
D. how old an organism has to be to re- 141. Breaks down and feeds on the remains of
produce other organisms
A. decomposer
136. This time period is blamed for the dust B. consumer
bowl because of overgrazing and unsus-
tainable farm practice C. producer
A. Industrial Revolution D. none of above
B. Agricultural Revolution 142. is toxic, reactive, flammable, and cor-

rosive waste.
C. Hunter Gatherer
A. Wastewater
D. Space Exploration
B. Hazardous waste
137. Which of the following have been linked C. Municipal waste
to climate change? D. none of above
A. droughts
143. Where is the largest ’hole’ in the ozone
B. flooding layer located?
C. melting of polar ice caps A. Over the United States
D. all of the above B. Over Europe
C. Over Antarctica
138. Which of the following describes the
aphotic zone in an aquatic ecosystem? D. Around the equator
A. the very bottom of a body of water 144. Which of the following is an advantage
of using fossil fuels for energy?
B. the zone where no sunlight penetrates
and photosynthesis cannot occur A. the resulting air pollution
C. the shallow, near-shore zone B. versatility in its uses
D. the uppermost layer where there is C. limiting quantities
enough sunlight for photosynthesis D. toxic by-products

145. For each trophic level, the energy stored 151. The maximum number of offpring an or-
in the organism in that level is about ganism can produce is the
of the energy in the level below it.
A. carrying capacity
A. 10%
B. growth rate
B. 30%
C. reproductive potential
C. 50%
D. density
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. Hardin’s ’Tragedy of the Commons’ essay
146. the number and variety of species that
addresses the conflicts associated with
live in the area
what environmental challenge?
A. biodiversity
A. ’preventing pollution
B. ecology
B. preserving biodiversity c.’curbing over-
C. environmental science population d.’protecting shared resources
D. none of above
147. The contains over 90% of the ocean’s C. curbing overpopulation ’protecting
water. shared resources
A. neritic zone D. ’protecting shared resources

B. aphotic zone 153. Data on the immigration and emigration
C. benthic zone of a fish species would be most helpful in
determining which of the following
D. open ocean
A. biological magnification
148. The environment contains
B. interspecies competition
A. living things only.
C. population of the species
B. non-living things only.
D. predator-prey relationships
C. both living and non-living things.
D. only artificial things. 154. Marshes, swamps, and bogs are exam-
ples of
149. What are the 3 fossil fuels?
A. terrestrial biomes
A. coal, oil, uranium
B. freshwater wetlands
B. coal, hydroelectric, oil
C. estuaries
C. natural gas, oil, coal
D. ocean zones
D. none of above
150. As the Earth in the last 100 years which 155. Climate data from the far past comes
has increased? from
A. oxygen A. written records
B. nitrogen B. tree rings and ice cores
C. argon C. thermometer readings
D. carbon dioxide D. rock formations

156. Which step in the experimental method 161. Why is unregulated tree harvesting in
are scientists conducting when they photo- the tropical rainforest an example of the
graph birds in flight? tragedy of the commons?

A. observing A. rain forests have low nutrients, which
slows tree growth
B. hypothesizing
B. not everyone has equal access to trees
C. drawing conclusions
D. analyzing data C. timber companies remove as much
timber as they can as cheaply as they can
157. The facilities, services, and installations
needed for the functioning of a community
make up its D. rain forests of the highest number of
species, and trees are an important habi-
A. heat island. tat
B. infrastructure.
162. Which of the following are both exam-
C. suburbs. ples of the tragedy of the commons?
D. ecosystem services. A. Overfishing and earthquakes
158. Carnivores are animals that eat only B. Pollution and overpopulation
C. Flooding and tsunamis
A. decomposers
D. Super-germs and virus outbreaks
B. other animals
C. other plants 163. When was the first earth day?
D. none of above A. 1880

B. 1970
159. Which of the following is NOT a heat-
C. 2003
trapping greenhouse gas?
D. 1535
A. water vapor
B. carbon dioxide 164. What is the water cycle?
C. methane A. the 3 forms of water
D. oxygen B. the movement of water on, above, or

below the surface of the Earth
160. Which of the following could reduce the C. when water melts
tragedy of the commons in a forest?
D. when clouds form
A. creating quotas for tree removal
165. From greatest to least, rank the primary
B. eliminating private ownership of uses of fresh water around the world.
forests
A. personal, industry, agriculture
C. giving tax breaks to logging companies
B. industry, agriculture, personal
D. reducing the cost of forest manage- C. agriculture, industry, personal

ment D. industry, personal, agriculture

166. organisms that break down material B. availability of prenatal care

A. producers C. SIDS Back-to-Sleep campaign
B. consumers D. number of single-parent households
C. decomposers
172. are specific statements about what
D. predators we would expect to observe if the hypoth-
esis is true.
167. is the fair treatment of all people con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cerning environmental problems. A. prediction
A. A sustainable society B. variable
B. Environmental justice C. observation
C. Applied science D. data
D. none of above
173. Ground level ozone (also known as tro-
168. Which of the following forbids the U.S. pospheric ozone) is
government and its citizens from harm- A. a significant source of air pollution and
ing endangered or threatened species and contributes to the formation of smog
their habitats?
B. also found in the exosphere
A. the Environmental Protection Agency
C. found only in rural areas
B. Species Survival Plan
D. a significant source of air pollution and
C. the Endangered Species Act contributes to the increase in the hole in
D. the Convention on International Trade the ozone layer.
in Endangered Species
174. Which one of these does not belong
169. How many statues of Moai on Easter Is-
A. Electrostatic precipitator
land?
A. 887 B. Mop
B. 992 C. Scrubber
C. 15 D. Air Filter
D. 138 175. Petroleum and natural gas form from
170. 5-5.8 The need for more cropland has led A. strong winds
to the of large wooded areas. B. cooled magma
A. Deforestation C. radioactive materials
B. Conservation D. remains of plants and animals
C. Rotation farming
176. Grass is considered a
D. Tilling
A. consumer
171. Which 21st century influence has the
B. producer
GREATEST impact on the health status of
children? C. decomposer
A. television and video games D. composers

177. According to the U.S. Army Corps of Engi- 180. Which of these problems could happen
neers how many dams are in the U.S. if we don’t look after the resources we
have?

A. 75, 000
A. Loss of animal homes
B. 6, 500
B. Climate change
C. 15, 000
C. Increase in pollution
D. 80, 000
D. All of the above
178. How might the destruction of the ozone 181. Persistent Pollution involves
layer be harmful to humans? Ozone, O3,
is a molecule of oxygen that makes up A. the contamination of lakes, oceans,
the ozone layer. The ozone layer is the rivers, etc.
part of Earth’s atmosphere that prevents B. pollutant that decomposes over time.
most of the Sun’s UV (ultraviolet) light C. resisting normal environmental degra-
from reaching Earth’s surface. Certain pol- dation.
lutants, called CFC’s (chlorofluorocarbons),
have been released into the atmosphere D. none of above
by humans. These pollutants destroy the 182. How many types of symbiosis are
ozone layer. there?
A. Holes in the ozone layer might let in A. 5
more UV light, which might increase the
occurrence of skin cancer. B. 7
C. 3
B. Holes in the ozone layer might prevent
ozone molecules from properly filtering D. If you pick this you’re silly1000
out pollutants in the air, which might in-
183. Solutions to environmental problems re-
crease the occurrence of lung cancer.
quire
C. Holes in the ozone layer mean there is
A. individual action.
a decrease in ozone, which is needed for
human respiration. B. the cooperation of many people.
D. Holes in the ozone layer might let in C. a basis in scientific methods and
more heat from space, causing global tem- knowledge.
perature to increase. D. All of the above
179. In environmental science, what is a nutri- 184. Where is Easter Island located and who
ent? governs it?
A. organic compounds containing only hy- A. Pacific Ocean/Chile

drogen and carbon B. Atlantic Ocean/Chile
B. the chemicals in food that make it taste C. Indiana/USA
good D. Atlantic Ocean/ France
C. an element on the periodic table
185. 3 Pollutants are removed or changed
D. matter that organisms need to carry chemically before they leave factory
out their life processes smokestacks by a(n)

A. chlorofluorocarbon 191. Which of the following best describes the

B. scrubber total fertility rate for a population?
C. inversion A. the number of children that will survive

to adulthood
D. catalytic converter
B. the number of years a typical infant
186. Water treatment involves adding will live
pathogens by C. the number of children each woman in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. adding mercury a population will have
B. adding chlorine D. the number of births per 1000 people
per year
C. removing fluoride
D. removing chlorine 192. Producers
A. Organisms that get their food by eat-
187. A barrier that runs across a river or
ing other organism
stream to control the flow of water.
B. Organism the break down dead organ-
A. Reservior
ism
B. River
C. Organisms that make their own food
C. Dam
D. none of above
D. Levee
193. Which is a primary energy source used by
188. If a paper mill dumps a lot of paper waste power plants to generate electricity?
into a nearby river all of the following are
A. coal
likely to happen EXCEPT:
B. wood
A. Increase in BOD
C. gasoline
B. Decrease in DO
D. batteries
C. Algae growth
D. Decrease in decomposers 194. A chemical fog produced by the reaction
of sunlight and air pollutants is called
189. Convection currents inside the Earth occur .
within which of the following layers?
A. smog
A. the mantle
B. global warming
B. the inner core C. acid rain
C. the lithosphere D. fossil fuel
D. the magnetic field
195. In the United States, most of the fresh
190. Non living factors in the ecosystem are water we use-about 74 percent of it-
comes from
A. abiotic A. surface water sources
B. mutualistic B. aquatic supplies
C. biotic C. aquifers
D. habitat D. the ocean

196. A feeding step within an ecosystem is 201. The 1990 Oil Production Act requires that
also known as a all

A. pyramid A. underground storage facilities be con-
B. trophic level structed of composite materials
C. habitat B. tankers in the US waterways be dou-

bled hulled by the year 2015
D. none of above
C. oil used in the US be recycled
197. A pattern of resource use that aims to D. leaking underground storage facilities
meet human needs while preserving the be repaired in 90 days
environment
A. Natural Resource Management 202. Two types of plankton are microscopic
plants called and microscopic animals
B. Sustainable Development
called
C. Best Management Practices
A. phytoplankton; zooplankton
D. none of above
B. zooplankton; phytoplankton
198. Which word means “safe to drink?” C. phytoplankton; nekton
A. Hardness D. zooplankton; algae
B. Potable
203. Triveni consist of following
C. Clear
A. Neem, Peepal, Bargad
D. Turbidity
B. Tulsi. Neem, Haldi
199. Which statement about changes in scien- C. Haldi, Bargad, Kela
tific thought is correct?
D. None of these
A. Changes in scientific thought are usu-
ally rapid and drastic 204. Nuclear chain reactions, such as those in
B. Scientific thought and interpretations nuclear power plants, are controlled by in-
can never change over time troducing a material that will absorb
C. Changes in scientific thought demon- A. neutrons.
strate a key strength of science: the abil- B. gamma radiation.
ity to self-correct and improve
C. light.
D. Changes in scientific thought show
that the general public cannot rely on sci- D. alpha particles.
ence
205. When experiments are impossible or un-
200. Motor vehicles using gasohol or ethanol ethical predictions are tested by looking at
made from corn are examples of
A. biomass fuel A. correlations
B. hydrogen fuel B. curiosisty
C. fuel cells C. you tube
D. photovoltaic cells D. maps

206. Oil and natural gas result from B. Water Condensation

A. the migration of complex carbohydrate C. Water Respiration
molecules to nonporous rock formations.
D. none of above
B. the decay of tiny marine organisms
that accumulated on the ocean floor mil-
211. What type of accident was Chernobyl,
lions of years ago.
considered to be one of the worst of its
C. the burning of high-sulfur, low-grade kind?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
uranium.
A. nuclear meltdown
D. the decay of plants that lived in
swamps hundreds of thousands of years B. act of terrorism
ago. C. natural disaster
207. Carbon-neutrality approaches refer to: D. spreading wildfire
A. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
from fossil fuel combustion 212. How does the ozone layer benefit living
things on Earth?
B. eliminating use of of all carbon-based
compounds A. provides drinking water in the form of
C. cap-and-trade efforts currently em- rain
ployed by global interprise B. protects life from the sun’s ultraviolet
D. adhering to the Montreal Protocol, pur- rays
chasing carbon offsets, and employing
C. is necessary for most living things to
ecosystem services
breathe
208. The land area that supplies water to a D. keeps Earth cool enough for life to sur-
river system is called a vive
A. divide.
B. wetland. 213. Which of the following is NOT true about
biostimulants?
C. watershed.
A. Biostimulants are products that re-
D. tributary.
duce the need for fertilizers and increase
209. Ecologists tend to divide the photic zone plant growth, resistance to water and abi-
of lakes and ponds based on distance from otic stresses.
the B. In small concentrations, these sub-
A. bottom stances are efficient, favoring the good
B. surface performance of the plant’s vital pro-
cesses, and allowing high yields and good
C. shore quality products.
D. ocean
C. Biostimulants are natural or synthetic
210. As water is heated, it changes into substances that can be applied to seeds,
gaseous state known as water vapor and plants, and soil.
rises into the atmosphere D. Biostimulants increase the need for
A. Water Evaporation fertilizers.

214. The period of the earth’s orbit around the C. makes logical sense.
sun is D. Both (b) and (c)

A. 1 day
220. Which is classified as an alternative en-
B. 1 year ergy resource?
C. 24 hours A. Mined coal
D. 364 hours B. Crude oil
215. What makes an estuary wildlife unique C. Geothermal heat
A. They are pretty D. Natural gas
B. They can handle different levels of 221. ? is the source of energy for almost all
salinity living things on the planet.
C. They grow to huge sizes A. Sun
D. They eat lots of freshwater organisms B. Water
216. Which of the following are considered C. Soil
part of the environment? D. Fod
A. forest
222. Things you can do to help decrease global
B. people warming include:
C. building A. Eat more ice cream.
D. all of the above B. Keep your freezer door open.
217. Which of the following is a disadvantage C. Keep your air conditioner on high.
of ocean thermal energy conversion? D. Turn off your lights when you’re not us-
A. not enough cold water ing them.
B. inefficient plants 223. Which of the following statements about

hydrogen as a fuel source is correct?
C. not enough warm water
A. the amount of hydrogen on Earth is too
D. can only be done in cold areas
small to meet our fuel needs
218. What is the original source of almost all B. hydrogen can be burned as a fuel or
the energy in most ecosystems? used to produce electricity chemically
A. carbon C. when hydrogen is burned, it releases
B. water pollutants
C. air D. generating hydrogen by burning fossil
fuels is inexpensive
D. sunlight
224. Demography is
219. A good hypothesis is more than a guess
because it A. study of populations
A. is based on intuition rather than obser- B. study of predators

vation. C. study of politics
B. states what is likely to happen. D. study of food production

225. What year was the outdoor code pub- A. decomposers

lished in the scout handbook? B. producers
A. 1955 C. consumers
B. 1856 D. omnivores
C. 1942
229. Long, thin islands typically run paral-
D. 1938 lel to a shore
A. barrier
NARAYAN CHANGDER
226. The Mississippi River Delta ecosystem is
a wetland home to a large number of fish, B. peninsula
birds, and other aquatic organisms. During C. reef
the last century, this ecosystem has seen a
D. land
decrease in wetland areas and species di-
versity due to land development, agricul- 230. VOCABULARY: A species that has a
ture, and flooding. Conservation groups strong or wide-reaching impact on a com-
have been working to reconnect the Mis- munity.
sissippi River with its floodplain and re-
A. Invasive Species
store lost wetlands. Which of the follow-
ing statements would result of restoring B. Keystone Species
wetland areas in this ecosystem? C. Herbivory
A. an increase in the carrying capacity of D. Predation
the ecosystem for wetland organisms.
231. Which of the following situations best de-
B. an increase in a biotic factors that scribes the use of a renewable resource?
would cause organisms to develop new
adaptations. A. a filling a car with gasoline
C. the development of an ecosystem that B. building wooden furniture

will prevent invasive species from settling C. mining copper
there. D. burning coal in a power plang
D. to prevent the organisms that live in
232. Tributaries are
this ecosystem from competing for food
and shelter. A. most of it is locked up in ice caps
B. Made up of a river
227. Listing both the merits and expenses in-
volved in implementing a particular envi- C. network of streams that drains an
ronmental solution is an example of a(n) area of land.
A. cost-benefit analysis. b.’risk assess- D. are smaller streams/rivers that flow

ment. c.’ecological footprint. d.’market into a larger one.
equilibrium. 233. When the environment has reached its hu-
B. ’risk assessment. man carrying capacity, which of the follow-
ing conclusions can be made?
C. ecological footprint.
A. Growth and immigration rate is equal
D. market equilibrium.
to death and emigration rate.
228. These organisms make their own food by B. Growth and immigration rate is less
photosynthesis. than death and emigration rate.

C. Growth and immigration rate is 239. What is the function of the ozone layer?
greater than death and emigration rate. A. to allow UV rays to get to Earth

B. to block UV rays from getting to Earth
D. Growth and immigration rate is expo-
nential to death and emigration rate. C. To keep oxygen in
D. to allow meteors to get to Earth
234. A group of environmental scientists
wants to study the impact of population 240. Concentrating solar power uses
growth on the environment. Which disci- A. a building’s design to capture solar en-
pline will contribute to the study? ergy
A. social sciences B. a heat-absorbing metal plate to cap-
B. physics ture solar energy
C. chemistry C. passive solar heating techniques to
D. mathematics generate electricity
D. mirrors that focus sunlight to generate
235. Chemicals that help plants and animals electricity.
grow are called
241. Choose the best definition for sustain-
A. water
able
B. nutrients
A. using as many resources as you want,
C. electromagnetic radiation whenever you want
D. pesticides B. only using renewable resources and
not using many nonrenewable resources
236. Ogallala Aquifer
A. water debate on useage
C. only using nonrenewable resources
B. water source for all our crops and not using many renewable resources
C. is polluted from oil
D. is completed drained D. using only just enough resources for
survival
237. Ozone gas is found in layer of atmo-
sphere 242. What has led to the rapid increase in
the human population over the past 200
A. Troposphere
years?
B. Stratosphere
A. The agricultural revolution
C. Mesosphere B. The industrial revolution
D. none of above C. Improvements in sanitation and
238. A strip of vegetated open space that con- medicine.
nects parks or neighborhoods is called a(n) D. All of these
A. urban area. 243. What are two advantages of geothermal
B. greenway. energy?
C. heat island. A. cheap and a lot pollution
D. suburb. B. expensive and a lot of pollution

C. cheap and little pollution D. none of above

D. expensive and little pollution
249. Kepler’s First Law states that the is
244. The three major trophic categories of ev- at one of the foci of the orbits of the plan-
ery ecosystem are ets in our solar system
A. producers, consumers, decomposers A. Moon
B. producers, autotrophs, plants B. Earth
C. plants, animals, climate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Sun
D. none of above D. Haley’s comet
245. When attempting to make a sustainable
250. Why is the world’s loss of biodiversity a
decision, which of the following should be
source of concern?
considered?
A. Humans depend upon other organisms
A. environmental impacts
for food and oxygen.
B. social imapcts
B. Species extinctions have been rare
C. economic impacts throughout history
D. all of the above
C. Loss of biodiversity is not a concern be-
246. Jane is interested in studying how phys- cause extinctions are common
ical aspects of the environment interact D. none of above
with the environment’s chemical processes.
Which discipline will help Jane pursue her 251. Why is the ozone important?
interest?
A. protects us from ultraviolet rays
A. social sciences
B. it helps us expel carbon dioxide
B. human health sciences
C. it keeps Earth fresh
C. mathematics
D. it sounds cool
D. natural sciences
247. Which dispersion pattern is most common 252. Estuaries
in nature? A. are always saltwater ecosystems.
A. Random B. both fresh water and salt water are
B. Uniform present.
C. Clumped C. are always freshwater ecosystems.
D. All are equal D. prevent the development of salt
marshes.
248. Food Web
A. System of several overlapping food 253. Water that is safe to drink is called
chains A. Permeable
B. energy moving from one level to the
B. Sea water
next
C. Potable
C. living/nonliving factors in an ecisys-
tem D. Passable

254. Most ocean pollution can be traced to ac- B. 3 percent

tivities on C. 77 percent

A. rivers D. 97 percent
B. estuaries
260. A nonrenewable natural resource pro-
C. land duced by the decomposition and compres-
D. ponds sion of organic matter from ancient life
A. Plants
255. In lakes and ponds, the zone is the
area farther from the shore. B. Water
A. limnetic C. Sunlight
B. photic D. Fossil Fuel
C. aphotic 261. fresh water found below earths is?

D. benthic A. groundwater
B. habitat
256. Which of the following is an example of
humans practicing conservation? C. hydropower
A. Flushing the toilet more often. D. land cover
B. Running smaller, more frequent loads 262. Biosphere
of laundry A. part of Earth that contains all ecosys-
C. Letting the faucet run while brushing tem
teeth B. a group of various species that live in
D. Collecting water in rain barrels to irri- the same place
gate gardens C. all of the members of the same species
that live in the same place
257. The ability to meet the current demands
for a resource without depleting the future D. a group of organism that can mate to
supply is called produce fertile offspring
A. Global warning 263. What part of the United States gets the
B. Sustainability most acid rain?
C. Environmental ethics A. Northeast
D. Biodiversity B. West Coast
C. Georgia
258. Most of the nutrients in soil come from
D. Miami
A. chemical weathering
264. Reclamation is
B. mechanical weathering
A. not required in the US.
C. erosion
B. a process that causes significant envi-
D. decompostion
ronmental damage.
259. How much of Earth’s water is fresh wa- C. required for surface mining in the US.
ter? D. required for every country and every
A. 1 percent type of mine in the world.

265. Which two gases are released when cars 271. What are some ways that we can con-
burn gasoline for fuel? serve water?
A. methane and water vapor A. turn off the water while you brush your
B. carbon monoxide and water vapor teeth
B. install a low flow shower head
C. carbon dioxide and water
C. Both B and C
D. methane and carbon dioxide
D. None of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
266. Any natural that is used by humans
272. Pollution is
A. Natural Resource
A. People have contaminated, or dirtied
B. Biodegradable an area with waste
C. Non Biodegradable B. People have cleaned, or fixed up an
D. Fossil Fuels area
C. People have gathered, or collected the
267. The is made up of gasses surrounding
trash in the area
the Earth.
D. none of above
A. Ozone Layer
B. Atmosphere 273. In a scientific investigation, the size of
the sample population should be large
C. Mantle enough to
D. none of above A. Reflect the probability of an unwanted
268. A(n) species is an animal or plant outcome
that’s considered at risk of extinction. B. Give an accurate estimate of the whole
A. stable population
C. Closely resemble the system they rep-
B. extinct
resent
C. threatened
D. All of the above
D. endangered
274. A single source of pollution, such as a fac-
269. As a natural resource, freshwater is tory, a wastewater treatment plant, or a
A. renewable leaking oil tanker are examples of
B. nonrenewable A. Point source pollution
C. unlimited B. Nonpoint-source pollution

C. Desalination
D. unusable
D. Potable
270. Many rivers originate from in moun-
tains 275. Which of the following have contributed
to increased family planning worldwide? I.
A. glaciers
women’s education II. increased incomeIII.
B. pond water advertising campaigns
C. rain A. I, II, and III
D. snow melt B. I and II only

C. I and III only C. Natural resources

D. II and III only D. Sustainability

276. A basic law or truth that has been tested 281. Which of the following is NOT true about
over time is a(n) chemistry?
A. priciple A. Can be applied to environmental sci-
B. theroy ence when studying living things
C. belief B. Can explain the changes organisms go
through
D. none of above
C. Can explain the changes their environ-
277. Global area experiencing physical water ments go through
scarcity D. Is the study of matter and energy
A. Northern Europe
282. According to the webquest we did in
B. Polar regions
class, all of the following make biodiver-
C. South America sity important except ,
D. The Middle East and Northern Africa A. gives us food
278. What are the steps of the scientific B. give us oxygen
method in the correct order? C. give us medicine
A. prediction, hypothesis, experiment, D. give us disease
observations, conclusion
283. Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenew-
B. imagining, observing, experimenting,
able because they
hypothesis
A. require expensive equipment
C. experiment, prediction, hypothesis,
observation B. take millions of years to replace
D. Observation, hypothesis, prediction, C. can be found all over
experiment, conclusion D. provide all the energy we use
279. Layer of the atmosphere where weather 284. Which of the following are the basic units
occurs of matter?
A. troposphere A. compounds
B. stratosphere B. solutions
C. mesosphere C. atoms
D. thermosphere D. macromolecules
280. is the condition in which humans 285. Planet with “runaway greenhouse ef-
needs are met in such a way that a hu- fect”
man population can survive indefinitely at
a standard of living similar to the current A. Saturn
one B. Venus
A. Law of supply and demand C. Mercury
B. Conceptual model D. Mars

286. What are our basic needs? 292. It consists the outer mantle of the solid
A. clothing, water, air earth.
B. food, air, clothing A. Lithosphere
C. food, water, shelter B. Atmosphere
D. Music, money, interpetative dance C. Biosphere

D. Hydrosphere
287. A factor in an experiment that can be
changed. 293. A tapeworm inside a dog is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. variable A. competition
B. control B. predation
C. observation C. commensalism
D. hypothesis D. parasitism
288. Any thing or organism that regulates the 294. Where weather occurs.
size of a population of another organism A. stratosphere
is known as B. thermosphere
A. a limiting measure C. troposphere
B. a limiting factor D. mesosphere
C. factorization 295. For most of human history people be-
D. materialization of precipitation lieved that the earth had resources.
289. A includes all living and non-living A. limited
things in an environment. B. unlimited
A. population C. sparse
B. niche D. not enough
C. abitotic 296. Storage sites for nuclear wastes
D. ecosystem A. can only be located only in mountain
ranges.
290. Phophates in laundry detergent causes
what? B. will always leak lethal amounts of ra-
dioactivity.
A. Artificail eutrophication
C. should be located only in areas that
B. biomagnification
are extremely geologically stable.
C. point source pollution
D. should be able to undergo the process
D. none of these of transmutation.
291. The rate at which producers convert radi- 297. A tick and a dog have this type of rela-
ant energy into chemical energy tionship.
A. trophic level A. mutualism
B. net primary productivity B. commensalism
C. gross primary productivity C. neutralism
D. photosynthesis D. parasitism

298. Hunter-Gathers B. positive feedback loop

A. People who obtain food by collecting C. mitigating circumstances

plants and hunting D. intermittent paralysis
B. someone who goes grocery shopping
304. VOCABULARY: An organism not native to
C. the provider an ecosystem and causes it harm.
D. none of above A. Ecology
299. Which is an example of sustainable devel- B. Keystone Species
opment for a new building? C. Invasive Species
A. recycled and D. Predation
B. renewable resources 305. The word “science” derives from a Latin
C. reused materials word meaning
D. all choices are good examples. A. to gather
B. to know or understand
300. Approximately how many people are
there in the world? C. question ing
A. 100 million D. hypothesis
B. 1 billion 306. The types of organisms found in a pond
C. 7 billion or lake depend on
D. 100 billion A. the amount of sunlight available

B. the temperature of the water
301. Which layer of the atmosphere does all
C. the presence of nutrients
weather occur?
D. all of the above
A. exosphere
B. troposphere 307. Using more resources than the environ-
ment can support is known as
C. mesosphere
A. exessive use
D. thermosphere
B. over consumption
302. what is an invasive specie? C. wasteful
A. an organism that moves around D. none of above
B. an organism that is native to an area
308. Which of the following pieces of federal
C. an organism that causes ecological or legislation established a program for reg-
economic benefits in a new environment ulating coal mining on public and private
where it is not native lands?
D. an organism that causes ecological A. the Comprehensive Response and Lia-
or economic harm in a new environment bility Act
where it is not native
B. the Clean Air Act
303. Term for when global warming is acceler- C. the Clean Water Act
ated reduction of snow and ice cover. D. the Surface Mining Control and Recla-
A. negative induction mation Act of 1977

309. The 0 degree line of latitude is the 315. 4-2.5 Succession that occurs in an area
A. Equator with NO SOIL
B. Prime Meridian A. ecological succession
C. International Date Line B. primary succession
D. Contour line C. secondary succession
310. is the study of how living things inter- D. pioneer speciles
act with biotic and abiotic factors in their
NARAYAN CHANGDER
environment. 316. Which of the following is a renewable
A. Environmental Science and non-renewable source of valuables
available for human use?
B. Ecology
C. Geology A. Technology
D. Physics B. Entertainment
311. Which layer is the outermost layer? C. Rainstorms
A. troposphere D. Energy
B. thermosphere
317. Areas nearest a river’s course that are
C. exosphere flooded periodically are said to be within
D. mesosphere the river’s
312. 3-3.4 An organism that uses an outside A. estuary

source of energy like the sun to create B. flood plain
energy-rich food molecules.
C. wetland
A. Consumer
D. desert
B. Producer
C. Decomposer 318. How a population changes in size during
D. Parasite a specific period of time
313. Which of the following is a limiting factor A. growth rate

in a population of organisms. B. infant mortality
A. reproductive replacement C. death rate
B. life spans of the members
D. none of above
C. fluctuations in atmospheric tempera-
ture 319. What is the percentage of energy that
D. availability of food is passed up from each trophic level (in a
food pyramid)?
314. What is the source of all energy?
A. 10%
A. producers
B. sun B. 90%
C. consumers C. 20%
D. decomposers D. 80%

320. Which of these events during the mod- A. Turtles mistake clear plastic bags for
ern environmentalism era raised aware- jellyfish, ingest them, and die of intestinal
ness of the problem of hazardous waste blockage.

disposal? B. Sea mammals, such as seals, become
A. Nuclear testing in the Marshall Islands tangled in clear plastic fishing lines and
drown.
B. The Donora fluoride smog C. All of the above.
C. Love Canal D. none of above
D. The burning of the Cuyahoga River 325. Weather is
321. Which of the following statements best A. The rise in the average temperature of
describes the composition of air? the surface of the Earth over a period of
time
A. air is only made up of nitrogen
B. The condition of the atmosphere in one
B. air is only made up of oxygen area at a particular time
C. air is only made up of carbon dioxide C. None of the above
D. air is made up of a mixture of different D. none of above
gasses
326. The unique role of an organism is called
322. Deterioration of the soil’s fertility and its
ability to provide ecosystem services is
A. habitat
called
B. home
A. erssion
C. niche
B. soil degradation
D. location
C. soil pollution
D. succession 327. An Eco-System comprises of
A. Only plants
323. About every 2-7 years, winds weak-
B. Both living and non-living organisms
ening in the western pacific ocean cause
warm surface water in Australia and In- C. Non-living organisms
donesia to move eastward toward North D. Living organisms
and South America. This changing wind
pattern that impacts weather is known as 328. The study of the impact of humans on the
environment.
A. acid rain A. Biology
B. El Nino B. Ecology
C. Baby Jesus C. Environmental Science
D. none of above D. Social Science
324. Which of the following might occur as a 329. Moral principles that guide people’s ac-
result of plastic trash accumulating in the tions are called
ocean? A. compass

B. ethics 335. Coral reefs are intricately shaped rock

C. instincts like structures that are formed as a result
of
D. none of above
A. volcanic activity that is common in trop-
330. Layer of the atmosphere where mete- ical marine environments
orites burn up B. the gradual accumulation and fusion of
A. troposphere skeletons of bony fish
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. stratosphere C. the secretion of calcium carbonate by
C. mesosphere tiny marine mammals
D. thermosphere D. minerals that are washed from land

ecosystems and build up.
331. During the period(s), humans altered
their habitats 336. A(n) is a testable idea that attempts
to explain a phenomenon or answer a sci-
A. hunter-gatherer entific question .
B. agricultural revolution A. Theory
C. Industrial Revolution B. Hypothesis
D. All of the above C. Law
332. What percentage of people in the U.S.A D. Method
use biomass?
337. Ecosystem was coined by
A. 20%
A. Haeckel
B. 3% - 5%
B. Tansley
C. 54%
C. Johnston
D. 13%
D. None of these
333. The pH scale is used to measure
338. What country has the lowest ecological
A. the amount of smog in a particular re-
footprint?
gion
A. USA
B. whether solutins are acidic or alkaline
B. France
C. wind speed C. Germany
D. air pressure D. South America
334. What ocean zone begins at the edge of 339. Corals live only in shallow water
the continental shelf and then extends out- where there is enough light for photosyn-
ward into deeper water? thesis
A. intertidal A. cold
B. open ocean B. fresh
C. littoral C. warm
D. neritic D. none of above

340. Country that emits the most greenhouse 345. Time period in which manufacturers were
gases currently able to use fossil fuels to produce goods
faster and cheaper

A. United States
B. India A. Industrial Revolution
C. Russia B. Agricultural Revolution
D. China C. Hunter Gatherer
341. A community interacting with non-living D. Space Exploration
things is best described as
A. a community 346. What pollutant forms when automobile
emissions react with oxygen gas and ul-
B. a biome
traviolet rays?
C. a biosphere
A. Smog/ ground level ozone
D. an ecosystem
B. carbon dioxide
342. what event happened in 1849?
C. radon
A. Central Park in New York Cityis com-
pleted - a major milestone inthe American D. sulfur dioxide
parks movement.
347. Which is a greenhouse gas?
B. Wildlife and conservationclubs, such
as the Audubon Society, Boone & Crock- A. carbon dioxide
ett Club, and SierraClub began forming
B. methane
across America.
C. The U.S. Department of Interioris es- C. water vappor
tablished. Its role is to protectnatural re- D. all are greenhouse gases
sources and culturalheritage.
D. E) Yellowstone Park becomesthe first 348. Two threats to ocean ecosystems are
national park inAmerica. A. nutrient runoff and industrial waste
343. In the scientific method, an is used to discharges
test a hypothesis B. over-fishing and entanglement of ma-
A. experiment rine mammals in trawl nets
B. biology C. sewage and algal blooms
C. ecology D. All of the above.
D. science
349. is a biodegradable material that be-
344. The term that describes the amount of comes a pollutant if allowed to accumulate
natural resources that is needed to keep more rapidly than it can decompose.
a person or society living.
A. plastic
A. biological control
B. ecological footprint B. mercury
C. environmental science C. newspaper

D. agriculture society D. metal junk cars

350. Estuaries are very productive ecosys- 356. The thinnest layer of the Earth is?
tems because they receive fresh nutrients
A. Mantle
from
A. lakes and ponds B. Lithosphere
B. rivers and oceans C. Athenosphere

C. marshes and swamps D. Crust
D. streams and springs
357. To provide advancement and facilitate re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
351. When human needs are met so that the search and studies on toxic chemicals.
population can survive indefinitely. A. Philippine Environmental Impact State-
A. Renewable rsource ment System of 1978
B. Nonrenewable resource B. Philippine Toxic Substances, Haz-
C. Adaptability ardous, and Nuclear Waste Control Act
of 1990
D. Sustainability
C. National Environmental Awareness
352. Environmental science is the study of and Education Act of 2008
A. how the natural world works
D. Climate Change Act of 2009
B. how the environment affects humans
C. how humans affect the environment 358. What is an ecosystem?
D. all of these choices A. Food chains connected to each other.
353. Specific examples of potentially renew- B. A community of organisms and their

able natural resources are: physical environment
A. water, soil, air, and oil C. A system where there are things that
move.
B. timber, water, and mineral resources
C. forests, water, and soil D. none of above
D. tidal energy, water, and mineral ores 359. Water build up in the clouds falls to the
354. A(n) is the environment where an or- ground.
ganism lives. A. Precipitation
A. diversity B. Runoff
B. ecosystem C. Condensation
C. EPA
D. Evaporation
D. Earth
360. Only a very small portion of Earth’s wa-
355. Which of the following aquatic ecosys-
ter is both liquid and
tems is NOT a type of wetland?
A. fresh
A. swamp
B. bog B. salty
C. stream C. frozen
D. freshwater marsh D. under ground

361. Something that naturally breaks down 366. All of the following disciplines are major
over time would be defined as a contributors to the field of environmental
science except

A. Nonrenewable resource
A. Biology and Earth Science
B. Renewable resource
B. Chemistry and Physics
C. Biodegradable pollutant
C. Social Science
D. Nondegradable pollutant
D. Languages
362. In temperate forests, some animals avoid 367. One disadvantage to using coal to pro-
the winter by going into , a deep, sleep- duce electricity is that coal -
like state that an animal enters for most
of the winter. A. forms in a short amount of time.
B. is abundant over a wide area.
A. estivation
C. is not environmentally friendly.
B. habitat
D. is relatively quite affordable.
C. hibernation
D. diurnal 368. A trait that is passed to the next genera-
tions and promotes an individual’s survival
363. Scientists publish their results in scientific and reproduction is called
journals and on the Internet to their re- A. an adaptation
sults. B. survival of the fittest
A. question C. competition
B. analyze D. artificial selection
C. check 369. Describes differences in DNA among indi-
D. communicate viduals of a population or species.
A. Subspecies
364. Which type of plate boundary would
cause mountains to form? B. Genetic Isolation
A. Transform C. Species Diversity

D. Genetic Diversity
B. Convergent
C. Divergent 370. Which is not a low-carbon energy
source?
D. Reform
A. natural gas
365. An shows the productive area of B. solar
Earth needed to support on person in a par-
C. wind
ticular country
D. nuclear
A. environment
371. The group that does not receive the ex-
B. habitat
perimental treatment in an experiment is
C. sustainability the:
D. ecological footprint A. Control group

B. Experimental group 376. Carbon-containing fuels that formed from

the remains of living things are called
C. Data
A. fossil fuels.
D. Variable
B. emissions.
372. All the living and nonliving things with
C. soot.
which an organism interacts is
D. smog.
A. Environment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Environmental ethics 377. Which of the following will lead to a more
sustainable world culture?
C. Population
A. increasing green energy production
D. Environmental Science
for everyone
373. Which environmental decision-making B. reducing overall consumption and halt-
model is in the correct order? ing population growth
A. Make a decision. Gather information. C. increasing consumer growth for all de-
Consider values. Explore consequences. veloping nations
B. Gather information. Consider values. D. creating industrial systems that are lin-
Explore consequences. Make a decision. ear in design and operation
C. Consider values. Explore conse-
quences. Make a decision. Gather infor- 378. Which of these things are you most likely
mation. to NOT find in a sustainable home?
D. Explore consequences. Make a deci- A. LED Lightbulbs

sion. Gather information. Consider val- B. Low-Flow Toilets & Showers
ues.
C. A wood burning stove
374. Which is not part of correcting sick build- D. A Hummer (SUV) in the garage
ing syndrome
379. The troposphere is heated from below,
A. removing sources of indoor air pollu-
which drives weather patterns caused by
tion
A. Convocation Cells
B. sealing cracks where air leaks into the
building B. Convection Currents
C. improving ventilation C. Jet Streams
D. cleaning air ductrs D. Conduction
375. Which of the following was NOT men- 380. The very bottom of a body of water is
tioned as being regulated? called the zone.
A. Energy and resources A. ocean
B. Textiles B. benthic
C. Toxic substances C. intertidal
D. Air D. photic

381. A passive solar house in the Southern C. threatened species

Hemisphere will face D. conservation

A. north.
387. What makes a species invasive?
B. south. A. Moving to a new ecosystem and taking
C. east. resources from natives
D. west. B. Not having papers
C. Species that can’t adapt
382. Created by a divergent boundary.
D. Plants that take up too much space
A. Rocky Mountains
B. Mariana’s Trench 388. Logging operations used to use a tech-
nique called clear-cutting, in which all of
C. Mid Atlantic ridge the trees in an area are cut down. This
D. Hawaiian Islands process will most likely lead to which type
of water pollution?
383. Nitrogen fixation can be accomplished
A. Toxic
naturally either by a lightning strike or by
B. Sediment
A. nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
C. Nutrient
B. denitrifying bacteria.
D. none of above
C. the Haber-Bosch process.
389. If one part of Eco-System is damaged,
D. burning fossil fuels. what happens? a) b) c) d)
384. Which is NOT an example of renewable A. All of these
energy? B. It has an impact on everything else in
A. Wind turbines the eco-system
B. Solar panels C. It completely destroys the eco-system
C. Natural Gas
D. It doesn’t have any impact on the Eco-
D. none of above system
385. A list of the steps anyone could follow to 390. An organism that obtains energy by con-
conduct an experiment. suming plants.
A. obervations A. Omnivore
B. question /problem B. Herbivore
C. materials C. Carnivore
D. procedures D. none of above
386. Match the Definition: A term used by sci- 391. Substances that contaminate the environ-
entists to describe the role a species plays ment and can harm people are
in an ecosystem. It is an organism’s occu- A. Siblings
pation. B. Dirt
A. habitat C. pollutants
B. niche D. germs

392. Which is a non renewable resource? D. it started using coal, fossil fuels, and
A. water water sources as power, whichcauses pol-
lution.
B. wind
C. coal 398. The ethical belief that the ecosystem
is more important than human needs is
D. biomass known as
393. The area of water that is drained by a A. anthropocentrism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
river is known as a
B. ecocentrism
A. Flood plain
C. envirocentrism
B. Delta
D. humancentrism
C. Surface water
399. are materials and energy resources
D. watershed
found in nature that humans need to sur-
394. What is a well-tested hypothesis that ex- vive.
plains many scientific observations? A. natural resources
A. law B. nonrenewable resources
B. principle C. renewable resources
C. theory D. predictions
D. none of above
400. What type of country is most likely to
395. The most common population distribution have a stable population?
in nature is:
A. Developed
A. clumped
B. Developing
B. organized
C. Least Developed
C. uniform
D. none of above
D. none of above
401. This term describes a group of ecosys-
396. An example of a biofuel is tems that share similar abiotic and biotic
A. gasoline conditions.
B. oil A. Latitudinal gradient
C. animal waste B. Biome
D. minerals C. Estuary
397. What big Effect did The Industrial Revo- D. Climatograph

lution have on the environment
402. A specific source of pollution is known as
A. It used up a lot of natural resources
A. Water pollution
leaving fewer resources for animals
B. Point source
B. Caused a large population boost of pig-
gin habitats and homes C. Non-point source
C. stoped the need for factory D. none of above

403. One way that city planners put their de- C. Philippine Environmental Impact State-
cisions into practice is ment System of 1978

A. zoning. D. Philippine Toxic Substances, Haz-
B. urbanization. ardous, and Nuclear Waste Control Act
of 1990
C. ecological restoration.
D. sprawl. 408. What do we mean when we refer to
404. Where are earthquakes most likely to oc- “commons” in environmental science?
cur? A. shared values
A. where Earth’s tectonic plates are mov- B. shared resources
ing together
B. where magma cools slowly beneath C. shared personalities
Earth’s surface D. shared classes
C. where Earth’s lithosphere is in con-
stant slow motion 409. Barnacles create home sites by attaching
D. where Earth’s seafloor is spreading themselves to whales. This neither harms
into deep ocean trenches nor benefits the whales. What kind of re-
lationship is this?
405. What is the process of runoff?
A. Mutualism
A. a small amount of Precipitation not
evaporated returns to streams, rivers, B. Parasitism
lakes C. Commensalism
B. When a small amount of water turns
D. none of above
into grounwater
C. a combination of preicipitation and 410. When carbon dioxide is absorbed by sea-
evaporation water, chemical reactions occur that reduce
D. none of above seawater pH, carbonate ion concentration,
and saturation states of biologically impor-
406. Which layer of the atmosphere do we live tant calcium carbonate minerals.
in?
A. Coral bleaching
A. tropsophere
B. stratosphere B. ocean acidification
C. mesosphere C. oceanography
D. thermosphere D. ocean aging
407. To adopt a systematic, comprehensive,
411. Which are the units used for Turbidity?
and ecological solid waste management-
program that shall ensure the protection A. ppm
of public health and the environment.
B. ppb
A. Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Man-
agement Act of 2000 C. NTU
B. Climate Change Act of 2009 D. MTU

412. A defense mechanism of an organism that C. It is renewable

use coloration to blend in with their envi- D. none of above
ronment often used by prey as disguise to
hide themselves from their predator and 417. Which would be the impact on producers
used by predator to catch their prey with- and consumers if the decomposers in an
out noticing them. ecosystem suddenly disappeared?
A. mimicry A. There will be less nutrients available.
B. technical defence B. There will be a decreased amount of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. camouflage oxygen.
C. There will be an increase in atmo-
D. chemical defence
spheric carbon.
413. What is groundwater? D. There will be an excess amount of en-
A. water that fills space between rocks of ergy available.
Earth
418. A common source of VOC’s is
B. water found within a lake or pond
A. vehicles.
C. water that is evaporated from the sur-
B. burning leaves in the fall.
face of Earth
C. having a bonfire in the winter.
D. water that is found in the ocean
D. swamp gases
414. To acknowledge the Philippines’ vulnera-
bility to climate change and the need forap- 419. Why doesn’t photosynthesis occur in
propriate adaptation. deep ocean water?
A. Climate Change Act of 2009 A. The water temperature is too cold
B. Philippine Water Act of 2004 B. There is no sunlight
C. Philippine Environmental Impact State- C. There are not enough nutrients

ment System of 1978 D. The salinity level of the water is too
D. Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Man- high
agement Act of 2000 420. Which of the following is the correct or-
der of the steps of the scientific method?
415. is any structural or behavioral change
that helps an organism survive in its par- A. conclusion, analyze data, experiment,
ticular environment hypothesis, observation
A. Evolution B. hypothesis, observation, experiment,
analyze data, conclusion
B. Adaptation
C. experiment, analyze data, observation,
C. Gene pool
experiment, conclusion
D. Competition
D. observation, hypothesis, experiment,
416. What is one disadvantage of using water analyze data, conclusion
power? 421. the removal of soil by water, wind, ice,
A. Dams are expensive to build or gravity is
B. It creates a lot of electricity A. feedlot

B. erosion 426. Sustainability is

C. gene A. the process of maintaining resources

so they are not depleted or permanently
D. hazard
damaged
422. Human population growth is based on B. the ability to use resources faster than
birth and death rates. Which of the fol- they are renewed
lowing can help the death rates in the pop-
C. they ability to save resources for years
ulation drop while increasing birth rates?
and years
A. Limited food supply
D. the process of using resources for
B. Birth Control one’s own benefit without regard for oth-
C. Prenatal care ers
D. Limited water supply 427. The process by which water exits the
leaves of plants is called
423. countries use more resources, have
A. respiration
lower population growth, and longer life
expectancy. B. transpiration
A. Developing Countries C. precipitation
B. Renewable Resources D. none of above
C. Biodegradable 428. How are the majority of power plants in
D. Developed Countries our state powered?
A. natural gas
424. What is the difference between a comm-
munity and a population? B. nuclear energy
A. Community is all the abiotic and biotic C. hydroelectric dams
whereas the population is just one species D. solar panels
429. The transfer of heat by the movement of

B. Community is one organism while a
a fluid is called
population is all organisms
A. convection
C. Community is all the populations in a
given area whereas a population is the B. thermal transfer
members on one species in a given area C. conduction
D. radiation
D. Community is a rainforest whereas a
population is all the organisms. 430. A change in state in which water returns
to Earth’s surface and changes from a va-
425. number of organisms per certain area por to a liquid is called
A. carrying capacity A. condensation
B. limiting factor B. evaporation
C. total population C. recharge
D. population density D. transpiration

431. Which of the following is an example of C. The ozone layer protects the earth
a renewable natural resource? from harmful ultraviolet and solar radia-
A. Copper tion.
B. Crude Oil D. none of above

C. Coal 437. The decision-making model
D. Wave Energy
A. Provides a systematic process
432. A resource that that forms at a much
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Is a conceptual model
slower rate than the rate it is consumed.
C. Helps you make decisions
A. Renewable Resource
D. All options are correct
B. Non Renewable Resource
C. Biodegradable 438. Chlorofluorocarbons is represented by
D. Non Biodegradable the abbreviation
A. CFC
433. Which best explains why runoff is impor-
tant? B. ChFC
A. It returns water to other locations on C. Chl
Earth D. hydrocarbons
B. It increases the chance of flooding
C. It makes evaporation occur faster 439. Materials and energy in nature that are
essential or useful to humans.
D. It increases condensation
A. Natural resources
434. Biotic and abiotic factors refer to what
B. Natural services
level of organization:
A. population C. Natural capital
B. community D. None of the above

C. ecosystem 440. Which of the following are abiotic factors
D. none of above that shape ecosystems?
435. The Population Bomb was written by A. worms, plants and temperature
A. Veer Savarkar B. wind, precipitation, and soil type
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak C. niches, trees, and bacteria
C. Aarif Khan D. sunlight, mushrooms, and wind
D. None of these
441. Which of the following types of organ-
436. What is the importance of the Ozone isms perform photosynthesis?
layer? A. a primary producer
A. The ozone layer protects the earth
B. an herbivore
from too much carbon dioxide.
C. a carnivore
B. The ozone layer protects the earth
from the greenhouse effect. D. a detritivore

442. The atmospheric layer that humans live C. Parasitism

in is known as the D. Naturalism

A. troposphere.
448. Compounds that produce (OH-) hydrox-
B. stratosphere. ide ions in a solution that range from 7.5-
C. exosphere. 14 on the pH scale
D. thermosphere. A. neutral
443. The group that does NOT receive the ex- B. base
perimental variable is called the C. acid
A. Experimental group D. none of above
B. Control group
449. Which of the following would be a poten-
C. Dependent variable tial cause of sick-building syndrome?
D. Independent variable A. acid precipitation
444. Metamorphic rock forms as a result of B. smog
A. heat and pressure C. fungi
B. volcanoes D. all of these
C. compaction and cementation 450. An example of a natural resource is
D. cooling magma A. oil
445. According to the law of supply and de- B. air
mand, reduced oil production leads to C. aluminum
A. lower demand for oil D. all of these
B. lower oil prices
451. Offshore wind turbines are useful be-
C. higher prices for oil cause
D. exploration of new fuel sources A. they do not need gearboxes
446. Acid Rain has multiple negative effects on B. they are easier to build than wind tur-
the environment, but what does it do that bines on land
effects our clean air? C. average wind speeds are greater over
A. Creates erosion water than land
B. Melts Statues D. they do not require a generator to pro-
duce electricity
C. Kills plants
D. Harm animals 452. are areas of land that are flooded
with water at least part of the year.
447. A relationship between two species
where one benefits while the other is A. wetlands
harmed. B. estuaries
A. Mutualism C. deserts
B. Commensalism D. flood plains

453. A person holding a sign during a protest chance their of survival thus satisfying the
against cutting down trees in a forest demand for food of their predators.
would be a(n) A. prey satiation
A. environmental scientist B. predator satiation
C. cryptic satiation
C. peer review
D. predator adaptation
D. environmentalist
NARAYAN CHANGDER
459. Sustainability
454. 1/3 to 1/2 of all C02 gets absorbed by
A. The process of maintaining resources
our?
so they are not depleted or permanently
A. radiation damaged.
B. sunlight B. The ability to read minds
C. species C. The ability to save resources for years
D. oceans and years
D. none of above
455. Steps in the Water Cycle
A. Water falls as precipitations, Clouds 460. Precipitation that contains chemicals that
form, Condensation hurt plants and wildlife due to its low pH
B. Condensation, Evaporation, precipita- is called .
tion A. smog
C. Sun, gravity, condensation, precipita- B. global warming
tion C. acid rain
D. Water Evaporates, Condensation D. fossil fuel
forms Clouds, Water falls as Precipiation
461. In what part of a forest would you ex-
456. A rule that correctly describes a natural
pect to find squirrel nests?
phenomenon.
A. snag
A. hypothesis
B. understory
B. theory
C. forest floor
C. scientific law
D. subcanopy
D. conclusion
457. Why is water important? 462. Which of the following accurately de-
scribes biomes?
A. All living things need water
A. Large communities constituting all re-
B. Many living things live in water gions of the earth
C. Water carries out body processes B. Small communities constituting speci-
D. All of the above fied regions
458. An interaction between predators and C. Vegetation and water

their preys where the prey produces a D. Large continents constituting all re-
large volume of offspring for greater gions of the earth

463. If a cleaner fish cleans another big fish, 469. The ozone layer is located in the
what type of symbiotic relationship is A. stratosphere.
this?

B. ionosphere.
A. death
C. thermosphere
B. mutualism
D. troposphere.
C. commensalism
D. paraitism
frozen underground soil that is found in
464. An area where rivers deposit their load the tundra?
of mineral-rich mud A. polar ice
A. Mangrove Swamp B. hard frost
B. Marshes C. permafrost
C. Salt Marshes D. emergent layer
D. Swamp 471. Science can completely prove or dis-
465. The organisms that break down wastes prove an idea.
and dead organisms are: A. Seldom
A. decomposers B. Never
B. consumers C. Sometimes
C. producers D. Always
D. none of above 472. % of energy is passed on to the next
level in the food chain/pyramid?
466. Three Important minerals found in soil
from, smallest to largest. A. 10%
A. chocolate, sand, rice B. 20%
B. nitrogen, carbon, sulfur C. 50%
C. clay, silt, sand D. 90%
D. sand, clay, rock 473. Which one is an example of recycling?
A. Reusing a paper bag for lunch.
467. The group that doesn’t get the experi-
mental treatment in an experiment is the B. Using less water to take a bath.
A. Control group C. Making new glass bottles from old
ones.
B. Experimental group
D. Using plastic cups instead of paper
C. Data
cups.
D. Variable
474. Which of the following statement is
468. Which sector uses the most water? TRUE?
A. agriculture A. None of these is true.
B. industry B. Eco-Systems are always very small.
C. household C. Eco-Systems are always very large
D. none of above D. Eco-Systems may vary in size.

475. Metamorphic rock can form from 481. Release of water vapor from plants
A. igneous rock only A. evaporation
B. magma B. condensation
C. igneous or sedimentary rock C. transpiration
D. sedimentary rock only D. infiltration
476. Which of the following is NOT a renew- 482. Which is a consequence of clear-cutting?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
able source of energy?
A. an increase in atmospheric carbon
A. wind dioxide
B. sunlight B. an increase in farmable land and a de-
C. coal crease in flooding
D. wood C. an increase in atmospheric oxygen
477. All of the following are biotic (living) fac- D. nutrient cycling and water regulation
tors in an ecosystem except would increase
A. disease 483. An increase in the average tempera-

B. water ture of the Earth’s atmosphere (especially
sustained increase that causes climatic
C. predation changes) is called
D. producers
A. Greenhouse gases
478. Which is a natural indoor air pollulant B. Global warning
A. carbon monoxide C. Natural resource
B. formaldehyde D. Sustainability
C. nitrogen oxides
484. What is the system called where both
D. radon matter and energy are exchanged be-
tween the system and the surrounding en-
479. The amount of dissolved salts in water is
vironment?
known as
A. minerals A. Open system
B. saline solution B. closed system
C. salinity C. growth system
D. nutrification D. restricted system
480. Excess use of fertilizers has the most ef- 485. The branch of philosophy that deals with
fect on which cycle? good, bad and right and wrong is
A. nitrogen A. psychology
B. carbon B. ethics
C. water C. morals
D. none of above D. science

486. Which of the following statements is NOT 490. Swamps are commonly found on
correct? A. rocky hillsides

A. Lakes may contain a region that re- B. flat, poorly drained land
ceives little sunlight.
C. forest clearings
B. Wetlands help remove pollutants from
water D. bottoms of ponds or lakes
C. Swamps are dominated by woody 491. Which law sets standards limiting pollu-
shrubs and water-loving trees tants for community’s water supplies?
D. Rivers generally move faster, and their A. Clean Water Act (CWA)
oxygen levels decrease, as they near the
B. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)
ocean
C. National Environmental Policy Act
487. Which of the following is a level of gov- (NEPA)
ernment which takes part in regulation and
legislation? D. Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act (RCRA)
A. Regional
B. Provincial 492. What law restricts pollution into the at-
mosphere.
C. State
D. City
B. Clean Air Act
488. There is historical evidence that civiliza- C. Endangered Species Act
tions can crumple when pressures from
population and consumption overwhelm D. Clean Water Act
resource availability. Indeed many great
493. Which of the following is true regarding
civilizations have fallen after depleting re-
water resources?
sources from their environments, and each
has left devastated landscapes in its wake. A. Water is a renewable resource and
What did the people of Easter Island do to there is plenty of all people on the planet
make their society crumble? to use as they wish.
A. used their resources sustainably B. Water is a nonrenewable resource and
once it is all used up we will not have any
B. started fighting with each other
more.
C. used all of their resources without
C. Although water is a renewable re-
thinking about the future
source, it is currently being used faster
D. planted two trees for every tree that than it can be replenished.
they cut down
D. There is no need to be concerned
489. The buildup of pollutants in higher levels about the amount or quality of water on
of the food chain is called the planet.
A. Pollution 494. An underground system that contains
B. Wastewater groundwater is called an
C. Thermal pollution A. Groundwater
D. Biomagnification B. River system

C. Aquifer 500. All of the land area that supplies water

D. Recharge zone to a particular river system is included in
a(n)
495. Which of the following types of environ- A. aquifer
mental ethics places an emphasis on hu-
man interests? B. water table
A. Ecocentric C. watershed
B. Anthropocentric D. recharge zone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Biocentric 501. Coal is?
D. None of these A. something bad children get for christ-
mas
496. Layer of the atmosphere closest to
Earth’s surface B. a paint utensil
A. troposphere C. fossil fuel solid created by the remains
B. stratosphere of ancient plants mined from the earth
C. mesosphere D. fossil fuel containing methane
D. thermosphere 502. All of the following are ways we can prac-

tice to decrease the impact of human ac-
497. 1 All of the living and nonliving things in tivities on harming the environment, EX-
an area that interact with each other are CEPT?
called a/an
A. Organic farming
A. community
B. Biological control of pests
B. habitat
C. Developing alternative energy sources
C. population
D. ecosystem
D. Using more plastic products
498. what do we use quadrats for?
503. What is the name of the treaty nations
A. to examine plants signed to try to reverse the effect of CFC’s
B. to examine animals on the ozone layer?
C. to do nothing A. Montreal Protocol
D. to learn more about the enviornment B. Notre Dame treaty
499. Which of the following describes a single C. Paris Accord

population? D. Ozone treaty
A. All insects living in a coniferous forest
504. This described the likeliness of a common
area being exploited for short-term gain.
B. All the animals and plants living in a
A. Hetch Hetchy
farmer’s field
B. Silent Spring
C. All sea turtles of the same species liv-
ing on an isolated island C. The Tragedy of the Commons
D. none of above D. Harry Potter and the Sorcerer’s Stone

505. A hypothesis is A. We have a limited amount of fresh wa-

A. a possible answer to a question ter.

B. testable B. Pollution reduces the amount of usable
water.
C. part of the scientific method
C. Because we need to save it for the
D. all of these whales
506. A long ridge of sand or narrow island that D. Both a and b.
lies parallel to the shore
A. Barrier Island 511. Ozone is made up of oxygen atoms.
B. Coral Reef A. 3
C. Mangrove Swamp B. 2
D. Salt Marshes C. 1
D. 5
507. Environmental science is a(n) because
it uses knowledge to solve practical prob-
512. To stabilize carbon dioxide in the atmo-
lems.
sphere human emissions must
A. Earth
A. be kept at current levels
B. Applied
B. be decreased
C. Physical
C. be increased
D. none of above
D. grow exponentially
508. preserves natural resources for future
generations 513. Which of the following is true regarding
A. biodiversity extinction of species?
B. built environment A. Extinction if only caused by humans; it

is not a natural process
C. sustainable society
B. Humans have never caused the extinc-
D. none of above tion of a species, but have caused some to
be reduced in number.
509. In longwall mining
A. a network of entries is cut into the C. Humans do not have the ability to
seam of ore deposits. cause a species to go extinct.
B. ore is mined downward layer by layer. D. Humans have greatly accelerated the
rate of species extinction.
C. a shearer is moved back and forth 514. Stockholm Conference held in
across the face of a seam.
A. 1972
D. hot water is injected into the ore to dis-
solve the ore. B. 1982
C. 1992
510. Why do water sources need to be con-
served? D. 2002

515. A certain plant needs moisture, carbon D. have an overhang to shade the house
dioxide, oxygen, light, and minerals to sur- from direct winter sun.
vive. This scenario shows that this partic-
ular living organism depends on . 520. The ultimate source of energy in our Solar
System comes from:
A. Biotic and Abiotc Factors
B. Biotic Factors A. water
C. Abiotic Factors B. oxygen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the Above C. the sun
D. forces within the earth
516. Environmental science is a study of which
types of interactions between humans and
521. Define Nuclear energy?
the environment?
A. how humans use natural resources A. An icotope
B. how human beings relate to the nonliv- B. The stuff you see in a power plant.
ing environment C. Energy stored in the nucleus of an
C. how human actions alter the environ- atom
ment D. Energy stored in an objects height
D. all of the above
522. This species has a wide-reaching impact
517. is the process in which the plant cell on a community.
makes its own food using the sun light.
A. ecological succession
A. Photosynthesis
B. natural selection
B. Denaturation
C. speciation
C. Transportation
D. keystone species
D. none of above
518. Using scientific information from chem- 523. the practice of growing, breeding, and
istry and biology to devise a plan to clean caring for plants and animals that are used
up a lake and make it healthy again defor food
scribes A. agriculture
A. ecology B. ecology
B. environmental science C. solar farm
C. earth science
D. biochemistry
D. social science
524. Predator prey relationships are an exam-
519. A house that uses passive solar heating ple of a
in the Northern Hemisphere will
A. system with no feedback
A. be built of a material such as concrete
or adobe that stores heat well. B. positive feedback loop
B. have little insulation. C. negative feedback loop
C. have large north-facing windows. D. destabilizing system

525. What percent of species will be gone in 530. A time period in which crops and livestock
100 years? became domesticated and the population
began to grow rapidly is

A. 10%
A. The Industrial Revolution
B. 25%
B. Hunter Gatherers
C. 50%
C. The Agricultural Revolution
D. 75%
D. Space Exploration
526. An excess of nutrients in the water is
called 531. The lithosphere combines what two lay-
ers?
A. groundwater pollution
A. Athenosphere & Crust
B. thermal pollution
B. Crust & Upper Mantel
C. eutrophication
C. Mantel & Athenosphere
D. biomagnification
D. none of above
527. In the fourth stage of the demographic
532. What are materials and energy found nat-
transition
urally that we can use to survive? Both
A. birth rates stay high but death rates renewable and non-renewable
start decreasing increasing population
A. Greenhouse effect
size
B. Renewable resources
B. birth rates and death rates are both
low so population starts decreasing C. Natural resources
C. birth rates and death rates are high D. Non-Renewable resources
meaning high stable population
533. What is the application of ethical stan-
D. birth rates and death rates are de- dards to relationships between humans
creasing so population growth starts and their environment?
slowing down
A. Sustainability
528. Air pollution is B. Environmental science
A. the addition of any substance that has C. Environment
harmful or toxic effects to air D. Environmental ethics
B. the addition of any good substance
that benefits air 534. What exactly does biodiversity measure
within an ecosystem?
C. a chemical reaction
A. The number of different species within
D. none of above an ecosystem
529. Sediment is B. The number of different animals within
an ecosystem
A. Eroded particles of rock
C. The total population of every living or-
B. Rocks themselves
ganism within an ecosystem
C. Large bodies of land D. The total population of a single species
D. A slime that is sedated within an ecosystem

535. What is not a consequence of acid precip- C. If I close my blinds during the day,
itation? then my room will be cooler because sun-
light can’t get in.
A. an increase in the pH of soil and water
D. Sunlight actually cools down a room.
B. the death of aquatic plants and ani- 539. Decreased pH
mals A. acid precipitation
C. the destruction of calcium carbonate B. temperature inversion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
in building materials
C. lung cancer
D. a change in the balance of soil chem-
D. deafness
istry
540. The basic units of matter, the smallest
536. Sponge-like formations of rock, sand, or units that maintain the chemical properties
gravel that hold water are known as of an element, are called
A. aquifers A. compounds
B. well B. macromolecules
C. recharge zone C. lipids
D. spring D. atoms
541. infiltration
537. What is one way the tragedy of the com-
mons can be avoided? A. when pollution soaks into an aquifer
A. people need to only take what they B. when water soaks into an aquifer
NEED instead of trying to take ALL THEY C. when water runs into a river
WANT D. when pollution runs into a river
B. People need to be aware that our re-
542. This is the measure of relative clarity or
sources and commons areas are limited
cloudiness of a liquid.
and everyone has to share and care for
these things A. Turbidity
C. People need to quit thinking that com- B. Flocculation
mons areas are places where they can ex- C. VOCs
ploit and use for profit for themselves be- D. ppm
cause that causes others to not be able to
use these areas for what they need 543. Which of these events during the mod-
ern environmentalism era was the result
D. all of these answers are correct
of a town constructed on a chemical waste
538. Choose the best-written hypothesis that dumpsite, and raised awareness of the
answers the question :question : Why is problem of hazardous waste disposal?
my room warmer during the day than at A. Love Canal
night? B. Nuclear testing in the Marshall Islands
A. Sunlight is making my room warmer.
B. Mr. Rivas has the heat turned on in the C. The Donora fluoride smog
morning. D. The burning of the Cuyahoga River

544. This is the variety of life across all levels B. are less economically developed and
of ecological organizations have a less average income

A. biodiversity C. US and Canada
B. ecology D. Most European countries
C. environmental science 550. Which of the following is NOT a type of
D. species renewable energy?
A. biomass
545. How many people live on less than $2
per day? B. solar
A. 6 billion C. deep geothermal
B. 2.5 billion D. entropy
C. 2.8 billion 551. Who was Garret Hardin?

D. 4 billion A. Author of pride & Prejudice
B. Father of Evolution
546. Citizens often have the most direct role
with which of the following levels of gov- C. Won the nobel prize in ecology
ernment? D. Author of the essay Tragedy of the
A. Federal Commons
B. Regional 552. Agricultural Revolution?
C. State A. large cities where foods/goods where
D. Local mass produced, causing pollution the en-
vironment
547. Are federally-managed, but do allow B. small family groups who hunted and
commercial logging and recreational hunt- gathered their food, moving on before
ing and fishing. they used all the resources
A. National Parks C. small communities who produced their
B. National Forests own food, causing fragmentation of their
environment
C. National Wildlife Refuges
D. none of above
D. none of above
553. How would you describe the current
548. Factor in an experiment that is tested or trends in global human population?
changed.
A. logistic growth
A. independent variable
B. exponential growth
B. dependent variable
C. equilibrium
C. control group
D. constant growth
D. experimental group
554. Environmental decision making requires a
549. Less-Developed Counties are balance between the needs of the people
A. industrialized with low average in- and what?
come A. The location of the environment

B. the needs of the environment 560. The study of disease in human popula-
C. the needs of the animals tions is
D. the wants of the people A. epidemiology.
B. toxicology.
555. Which of these words is analogous (sim-
ilar in meaning) to pollution? C. a dose-response relationship.
A. degradation D. risk assessment.
B. improvement
NARAYAN CHANGDER
561. Which is the least sustainable?
C. replenishment
A. all but the healthiest trees are cut
D. decomposition down
556. Which of the following is a natural source B. the highest-value trees are cut down
of air pollution? C. the shade-intolerant trees are cut
A. Burning Fossil Fuels down
B. Volcanic Eruptions D. all of the trees are cut down
C. Factory Emissions
562. What is biomass?
D. Vehicle Emissions
A. A lot of food
557. is a complex plant-supporting system
B. Plants that can be used for fuel
made up of disintegrated rock, remains
and wastes of organisms. C. Oil, gasoline, and coal
A. dirt D. none of above
B. soil
563. The Montreal Protocol
C. bedrock
A. was established to protect the ozone
D. soil profile from CFC’s and other hazardous com-
558. Which zone of an aquatic ecosystem tend pounds.
to have more life- both producers and con- B. was designed to protect the thermo-
sumers? sphere from meteorites.
A. aphotic zone C. was designed to reduce the rate of
B. photic zone cancer in the city of Montreal, Canada.
C. benthic zone D. was a treaty designed to establish
vehicle emissions to protect the tropo-
D. all have roughly the same amount of
sphere.
life
559. Environmental science is a(an) science 564. In a food chain involving a mouse and the
because it uses knowledge to solve practi- snake that eats it, the mouse and snake
cal problems are
A. overconsumption A. both consumers
B. applied B. consumer and decomposer
C. analysis C. producer and consumer
D. ethics D. none of above

565. is eutrophication caused by humans. 570. are broader explanations that apply
to a wider range of situation and observa-
A. Thermal pollution
tions.

B. Artificial eutrophication
A. theories
C. Point source pollution
B. prediction
D. Pollution
C. variable
566. Why is the ecosystem important? D. ethics
A. It can sustain overpopulation.
571. Possible long-term effect of noise pollu-
B. It sustains the balance of life in nature. tion
A. nausea
C. It allows humans to exploit natural re-
B. lung cancer
sources.
C. deafness
D. It can absorb all the toxins humans dis-
pose of. D. pollution control
567. The run-of-the-river approach to generat- 572. In the US, more coal is used for than
ing hydroelectric power for any other use.
A. requires constructing of a dam A. making chemicals
B. takes advantage of a river’s natural B. heating buildings
flow.
C. making steel
C. causes more extensive habitat de-
D. generating electricity
struction than the reservoir storage
method does 573. Which pair below are the two main
D. involves burning of fossil fuels sources of air pollution in urban areas
A. vehicles and volcanoes
568. Which is a health problem directly con-
nected to air pollution? B. vehicles and industries
A. cancer C. industries and agriculture
B. hearing loss D. none of these
C. asthma 574. Which of the following describes the de-
D. sun burn pletion of a renewable resource?
A. hunting of excess deer to maintain a
569. How large has the Human population has
healthy population size
increased in the past 150 years
B. intensive cultivation of farm land that
A. 1 million people
exhausts soil nutrients
B. 1billion people
C. mining coal
C. 7.8 billion people
D. increasing use of solar energy to gen-
D. 20 billion people erate electrical power

575. Nitrous oxides enter the atmosphere C. environmental science

from D. Ecological footprint
A. fossil fuels
580. 3-3.4 An organism that obtains energy
B. meteorites by eating other organisms.
C. ozone depletion A. Consumer
D. CFC’s B. Producer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
576. Which major category of water use C. Decomposer
would include watering grain to feed to D. Detriov
livestock?
581. the study of how living things interact
A. personal
with each other and their non-living envi-
B. agricultural ronment
C. industrial A. environmental science
D. electrical B. ecology
577. Which BEST explains what scientists are C. biology

referring to when they use the term con- D. zoology
servation?
582. Which laws work to prevent water pollu-
A. nonliving parts of the environment tion?
B. living organisms in the environment A. Clean Air Act
C. health of the living organisms in the en- B. Resource Conservation and Recovery
vironment Act (RCRA)
D. protection, management, and renewal C. Clean Water Act
of resources
578. Which of the following is not a subsurface
583. After a catastrophe, soil formation is the
mining method?
first step in
A. quarrying
A. primary succession
B. solution mining
B. secondary succession
C. long-wall mining
C. a climax community
D. room-and-pillar mining
D. none of above
579. What do we call the environmental im- 584. An experiment is performed on plants
pact of an individual or population in terms to see how different liquids affect plant
of the total amount of land and water regrowth. Each plant in the experiment is
quired (1) to provide the raw materials given a different liquid; water, apple juice,
and the individual or population consumes or milk. Each plant has the same amount
and (2) to dispose of or recycle the waste of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same
the individual or population produces? music. In this investigation, what is the
A. Environmental ethics dependent variable?
B. Global warming A. Type of plant

B. Water, apple juice, milk C. 100, 000

C. Plant growth D. 10-100 million

D. Color of the plant’s leaves 590. Much of today’s environmental problems
began in which period(s) of human his-
585. What forms in the second step of water
tory?
treatment?
A. Hunter gather period
A. flocs
B. agriculture revolution
B. alum
C. industrial revolution
C. aeration
D. two answers are correct
D. clorine
591. Convection causes huge slabs of rock to
586. The largest population size a given envi-
rise and sink slowly through Earth’s man-
ronment can sustainably support is known
tle. The main heat source for this move-
as its
ment is
A. limiting capacity.
A. Earth’s mantle and core
B. logistic limit. B. radiation from the sun
C. carrying capacity. C. friction produced by plate motions
D. biotic potential. D. magma from Earth’s crust
587. Which of the following is an example of 592. An increase in the amount of nutrients,
how biomass fuel is currently being used? such as nitrates, in a marine or aquatic
A. biogas digesters ferment manure and ecosystem is
produce methane A. Benthos
B. dung fired power stations produce B. Nekton
electricity
C. Eutrophication
C. ethanol from fermenting corn is added
D. Plankton
to gasoline
D. all of these 593. An example of abiotic in an environment
includes
588. Which two events in history attributed
A. plants
the population growth?
B. sunlight
A. Agriculture Revolution and Plague
C. trees
B. Agricultural Revolution and Industrial
Revolution D. animals
C. Industrial Revolution and Plague 594. According to the Law of Supply and De-
D. The burning of the Cuyahoga River mand, if the amount of oil extracted world-
wide were to increase and the demand
589. How many species of living things are es- stayed the same, the price of oil should
timated to live on the planet?
A. 1-2 million A. Increase
B. 1-2 billion B. Decrease

C. Remain stable. 600. What is photosynthesis?

D. Fluctuate randomly. A. how fungi obtain energy
B. The process in which green plants use
595. Humans play an important role in main-
oxygen to make carbon dioxide
taining our environments. The act of main-
taining the earth for the generations after C. the process in which green plants use
us is called what? carbon dioxide to make oxygen
A. Pollution D. the process of absorbing energy by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
touching things
B. Contamination
C. Deforestation 601. Sunlight, wind and water are re-
sources
D. Sustainability
A. renewable
596. What percentage of the atmosphere is
B. nonrenewable
composed of oxygen?
C. semirenewable
A. 12
D. unrenewable
B. 21
C. 58 602. Mr. K is studying the effects of low calo-
rie diets on lifespan. He wants to know
D. 78
if a diet under 1500 calories will increase
597. is the percentage of the total volume life span. What is the Dependent variable
of rock that has spaces (pores). in this statement?
A. Calories
A. Recharge zone
B. Lifespan
B. Aquifer
C. Humans
C. Porosity
D. Mr. K
D. Pathogens
603. A sustainable world would be character-
598. Principles or standards we consider im-
ized by the
portant are known as
A. preservation of rare animals by relo-
A. Models
cation from natural habitats to laborato-
B. Morals ries. d.’indefinite existence of human pop-
C. Values ulations in a healthy and prosperous con-
dition.
D. Data
B. ’invention of safer storage facilities for
599. In a controlled experiment, how many increased amounts of toxic wastes.
variables can be worked with at a time? C. maximum exploitation of natural re-
A. one sources using more advanced technolo-
gies.
B. none
D. indefinite existence of human popula-
C. two or more tions in a healthy and prosperous condi-
D. how ever many makes sense. tion.

604. What is the main source of thermal pollu- A. ’the availability of abundant resources.
tion?

A. Gardening B. ’the relationship between the availabil-
B. Batteries ity and the worth of resources.
C. Power Plants C. ’the worth of nonrenewable resources.

D. Radioactive landfills
D. reduced demand resulting from a lack
605. Plants both trying to get sunlight are of available resources.
A. commensalism
610. Which of the following determines
B. mutualism whether a resource is a renewable or non-
C. compeition renewable resource?
D. parasitism A. The cost for obtaining and using the re-
source.
606. A resource that can be replaced relatively
B. The effect of the resource on the envi-
quickly by natural processes.
ronment
C. whether the resource is used to gener-
B. Non Renewable Resource ate energy or is made into products
C. Biodegradable D. the rate at which the resource can be
D. Non Biodegradable replaced
607. A poorly planned development that 611. Which of the following is the diverse
spreads a city’s population over a wider study of life and organisms and their per-
and wider geographic area is sonal attributes?
A. industrialization A. Chemistry
B. urban sprawl B. Ornthology
C. urbanization C. Biology
D. metropolitan area D. Earth Science
608. What is the palm oil crisis?
612. Which statement is an accurate interpre-
A. its not a cris tation of the outcome in an ecosystem
B. a crisis that destroys wildlife when a major predator is removed?
C. a crisis that kills animals in the pro- A. The remaining community adjusts and
cess of burning down wildlife for palm oil quickly becomes stable.
B. The diversity of the ecosystem actually
D. a crisis that kills animals in the process increases.
of burning down wildlife for olive oil C. The diversity of the ecosystem de-
creases and the prey population in-
609. Using economic considerations of re-
creases.
source use, the law of supply and demand
describes D. none of above

613. The very bottom of a body of water is C. organism

the D. population
A. benthic zone
619. Normal precipitation has a pH of about
B. photic zone 5.6. What pH might acid precipitation
C. aphotic zone have?
D. stream A. 4.6
B. 7
NARAYAN CHANGDER
614. Which of the following would cause the
greatest increase on your ecological foot- C. 9.6
print?
D. 12.6
A. Your car’s gas mileage
620. Animal wastes that runoff into water is
B. How many miles you drive each year
an example of which types of pollution?
C. International flights
A. bacterial & chemical
D. Eating chicken 3 times per week
B. chemical & sediment
615. In Earth’s atmosphere water vapor and C. nutrient & bacterial
pressure have a
D. sediment & nutrient
A. intermittent relationship
621. Smog is
B. indirect relationship
A. A type of acid rain
C. direct relationship
B. A chemical reaction between the wa-
D. undetermined relationship
ter in the air, pollution and the sun.
616. A nonliving element in an ecosystem is C. A type of cloud
an
D. none of above
A. animal
B. abiotic factor 622. The key goal of environmental science
is to figure out how humans can achieve
C. biotic factor ?
D. organism A. Population Stabilitiy
617. This is a pebbly or sandy shore, espe- B. Profits
cially by the ocean between high- and low- C. Sustainability
water marks.
D. Biodiversity
A. Beach
B. Salt marsh 623. A hypothesis that is supported by the re-
sults of repeated experimentation and ob-
C. Swamp servation.
D. none of above A. conclusion
618. 1 An individual living thing is a/an B. theory
A. habitat C. scientific law
B. ecosystem D. variable

624. The approach to development LEAST 629. What is a fossil fuel?

likely to result in sprawl is
A. Coal

A. leapfrog development.
B. Oil
B. commercial (strip) development.
C. Natural gas
C. high-density multi-use development.
D. All of these
D. low-density single-use development
630. Match the Definition: A natural environ-
625. The study of the air, water, and land
ment or area in which an organism lives.
surrounding the organism or community,
which ranges from a small area to Earth’s A. habitat
entire Biosphere; It includes the study of B. niche
the impact of humans on the environment
C. threatened species
A. Biology
D. conservation
B. Ecology
C. Environmental Science 631. What occurred in the 1700’s and led to
D. Geology expansion in the US.
A. The Renaissance
626. Group of similar things that is being stud-
ied. B. The Industrial Revolution
A. average C. Pearl Harbour
B. mean D. World War 1
C. statistical populations
632. The “lesson” of Easter Island was that:
D. probability
A. conservation of resources is always
627. Which step in the environmental decision- necessary for sustainable societies
making model should include read- B. we never comprehend resource issues
ing newspapers and listening to well- until the resource is gone
informed people on all dies of an issue?
C. political support is required to ensure
A. Evaluating all the information sustainable societies
B. Gathering information D. economics is an important facilitator
C. Considering values of sustainable societies
D. Exploring consequences
633. comes from many different sources and
628. Power plants create electricity by can be more difficult to identify. An ex-
ample would be a river polluted by runoff
A. converting oil directly into electricity. from any of the land in its watershed
B. creating steam which turns turbines A. Point source pollution
that power a generator.
B. Nonpoint-source pollution
C. only burning fossil fuels.
C. Reservoir
D. rubbing copper against substances
that conduct electricity. D. Thermal Pollution

634. An attempt to design cities so as to max- B. A document focused on the economic

imize their functionality and beauty is growth potential of a proposed construc-
A. city planning. tion project.
B. sprawl. C. A document required for any actions

that may significantly impact the environ-
C. urbanization. ment.
D. ecological restoration.
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
635. The layers of the Earth from center to the
surface go in order from 640. Group that is tested on during an experi-
ment.
A. Outer core, inner core, mantle, crust
B. Crust, mantle, inner core, outer core A. control group
C. Inner core, outer core, mantle, crust B. experimental group

D. none of above C. independent variable
636. In estuaries, fresh water and salt water D. dependent variable

mix, forming a(n) trap!
641. Antarctic Circumpolar Current is unique
A. salt because
B. calcium
A. if flows from the north to the south
C. nutrient onle
D. water B. it moves around the entire world
637. Soil with a relatively even mixture of the C. it is extremely warm for its location
three particle sizes.
D. it does not move at all
A. sand
B. loam 642. Which of the following are problems as-
sociated with landfills?
C. silt
D. clay A. composting of organic materials at the
site
638. Gas that makes up highest percentage of
B. production of leachate and methane
Earth’s current atmosphere
C. surface impoundment
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen D. All of the above
C. nitrogen 643. Leaky underground storage tanks are a
D. hydrogen major source of what type of pollution?
639. What is an Environmental Impact State- A. groundwater

ment (EIS)? B. non-point source
A. A document that clears government
C. biological
red tape so projects important to the na-
tional economy can begin. D. sediment

644. In the U.S, which agency takes the lead B. 1978

for responding to emerging diseases? C. 1979

A. Centers for Disease Control and Pre- D. 1980
vention (CDC)
B. Environmental Protection Agency 650. The variable a scientist manipulates in an
(EPA) experiment is called the
C. World Health Organization (WHO) A. controlled variable
D. Federal Emergency Management B. observation variable
Agency (FEMA). C. dependent variable
645. The law of of energy states that en- D. independent variable
ergy cannot be created or destroyed, only
651. Contains largest percentage of Earth’s
transformed or changed.
water
A. renewal
A. atmosphere
B. refreshing
B. ice and snow
C. battery storage
C. oceans
D. conservation
D. vegetation
646. Compared to central Canada, currents
652. Point-source pollution and non-point
make winter in England
source pollution differ in
A. colder
A. The kind of biological agents causing
B. warmer the pollution
C. snowier B. Whether the source of pollution is agri-
D. longer cultural or industrial
C. The number of sources from which the
647. This gas makes up 21% of the atmo-
pollution is discharged
sphere
D. none of above
A. ozone
B. oxygen 653. The basic support systems needed to
C. nitrogen keep an economy going, including power,
communications, transportation, sanita-
D. water vapor tion, and education form a country’s
648. Majority of Earth’s freshwater is in A. urbanization.
A. lakes B. infrastructure.
B. plants C. industrialization.
C. atmosphere D. urban geography.
D. icecaps and glaciers 654. The purpose of is to answer question
649. The Clean Water Act was established in s about the natural world.
the following year. A. a hypothesis
A. 1977 B. science

C. history 660. Matter that organisms require for their

D. a procedure life processes are
A. biogeochemical cycles.
655. Under water, photosynthesis by aquatic
B. producers.
plants and phytoplankton is mostly limited
by the amount of available. C. nutrients.
A. phosphorus D. decomposers.
661. Public land is overgrazed by privately
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. carbon
owned cows. This is an example of the
C. oxygen
A. Tragedy of the commons
D. sunlight
B. Rule of seventy
656. It refers to the removal of salt from C. Principle of manifest destiny
ocean water
D. Swapping of debt for nature
A. dam
662. Which of the following pollutants is the
B. reservoir
leading cause of lung cancer in the United
C. salination States?
D. desalination A. Mercurary
B. Radon
657. This law establishes testing protocols for
municipal tap water C. Lead
A. Clean Water Act D. Copper
B. Clean Air Act 663. The law of conservation of mass is a
C. Safe Drinking Water Act A. theory
D. Endangered Species Act B. hypothesis
C. principle
658. Any inherited characteristics that in-
creases an organisms chance of survival is D. none of above
a (n)
664. The “triple bottom line” of sustainability
A. natural selection includes:
B. niche A. Environmental, social and economic
factors
C. adaptation
B. Architectural, engineering and finan-
D. mutation
cial factors
659. Choose which of the following is NOT an C. Human, animal and plant factors
example of a natural resource. D. All choices are correct.
A. coal
665. What percentage of Earth’s surface is
B. sunlight covered in water?
C. timber (trees) A. 75%
D. plastic B. 90%

C. 25% B. irrigation
D. 50% C. salinization

666. The lithosphere is carried on a softer, but D. fertilization
still firm, layer of rock called the 671. The United States uses which percentage
A. geosphere of the world’s fossil fuels?
B. core A. 75 percent
C. crust B. 25 percent
D. asthenosphre C. 18 percent
667. Which of the following is true regarding D. 10 percent

food production and availability? 672. Urban sprawl
A. There is not enough food produced in A. is when cities spread out using up sur-
the world to adequately feed everyone. rounding land.
B. There is enough food produced to feed B. puts a strain on existing infrastruc-
everyone, and everyone has enough food tures.
to live.
C. creates an increase in pollution.
C. There is more than enough food pro-
duced, but not everyone has access to ad- D. all of these.
equate nutrition. 673. The place where an organism lives is it’s
D. Everyone that wants to can buy or
grow enough food for themselves. A. water
668. Which of the following energy sources is B. principal
useful in most parts of the world? C. overconsumption
A. tidal power D. habitat
B. OTEC
674. Procedure used to test a hypothesis
C. geothermal energy
A. Observation
D. active solar energy
B. Hypothesis
669. Which environmental problem is an unde- C. Prediction
sirable change in an environment caused
by the introduction of a substance that can D. Experiment
harm living organisms? 675. Why are fossil fuels considered nonre-
A. Resource Depletion newable resources if they are still forming
B. Pollution beneath the surface today?
C. Loss of Biodiversity A. They are being formed as a type of
methane which we cannot use.
D. Sustainability
B. We are depleting the fossil fuels much
670. Watering crops by way of human- faster than they can form.
constructed structures is known as C. They are being formed too far beneath
A. precipitation the surface of the ocean

D. The fossil fuels are being broken down B. Decreased

by a natural process faster than they can C. Stayed the same
form.
676. Climatographs are useful tools in describ-
ing a biome’s climate. They typically show 681. In which part of a nuclear power plant
patterns in annual does nuclear fission occur?
A. rainfall and snowfall. A. reactor vessel
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. precipitation and humidity. B. heat exchanger
C. precipitation and temperature. C. condenser
D. temperature and sunlight. D. cooling tower
677. Which of the following types of organ- 682. The pH of the water in several lakes in
isms experience seasonal loss of leaves as Norway and Sweden had decreased to be-
an adaptation to their climate? low 5.0 due to an increase in acid rain.
Which of the following is most likely to
A. coniferous trees happen in these lakes?
B. succulent plants A. the decline of several fish populations.
C. deciduous trees
D. grasses B. an increase in numbers of fish
678. What does “fitness” mean when describ- C. an increase in the amount of primary
ing an organism? producers
A. a nonnative organism that spreads D. increased predator-prey relationships

widely in a community 683. Which is a major cause of global climate
B. the process of selection conducted un- change?
der human direction A. ozone in the upper atmosphere
C. a heritable trait that increases the like- B. nuclear power plants
lihood of an individual’s survival and re-
production C. burning fossil fuels
D. how reproductively successful an or- D. dumping plastic in the ocean

ganism is in its environment 684. Which energy source contributes to air
679. the trapping of gases around the earth to pollution?
ensure that life can exist is called A. hydropower
A. global warming B. solar
B. climate change C. geothermal
C. deforestation D. biomass
D. harvesting 685. One important scientific habit of mind is
680. In the last several hundred years, human the ability of new ideas, called
population has dramatically. A. Intellectual honesty
A. Increased B. Curiosity

C. Imagination 691. Environmental Ethic is the moral relation-

D. Skepticism ship that humans have with the environ-
ment.

686. Used to run a turbine at a powerplant A. True
A. steam
B. False
B. fossil fuel
C. Neither
C. nuclear reactor
D. none of above
D. oi refinery
692. Water shortages can be created by
687. One of the three major environmental
problems is resource depletion. Which is a A. weather related issues like drought
major contributing factor to this problem? B. human consumption
A. Developing countries have a much C. human withdrawal
higher rate of resource consumption than
others. D. All of these reasons.
B. Developed countries have a much 693. An impermeable layer of soil and rock
higher rate of resource consumption than
others. A. has many large pore spaces
C. The human population overall is too B. has few or no pores

small. C. is very likely to contain pollution
D. Each country uses approximately the D. is usually full of water.
same amount of resources.
694. Which is a practical method for managing
688. Infectious diseases can be spread by a commons, like the oceans of the world?
A. contaminated water. A. divide the resources into sections and
B. human contact. assign them
C. animals. B. eliminate all private ownership of the
D. all of the above. resource
C. make the resource cheaper to access
689. are caused by a pathogen, such as a
virus or a bacterium. D. offer tax breaks to resource users
A. carcinogens
695. Which is true of air pollution and human
B. neurotoxins health
C. infectious diseases A. years of research link air pollution to
D. none of above lung disease
B. air pollution is commonly listed as a
690. The ozone layer protects us from
cause of death
A. Increased atmospheric heat
C. none of the health effects of air pollu-
B. CFCs tion are reversible
C. UV rays D. healthy adults are most affected by air
D. Decreased atmospheric heat pollution

696. The study of how organisms interact with 701. Match the Definition: These Bees are fe-
one another and with their environments male. They do most of the work in and
is called out of the hive, including collecting pollen,
A. Sustainability caring for the larvae, and building the hive.
They are the smallest bee and can live 5-7
B. Biodiversity weeks.
C. Ecology
A. Queen Bee
D. Environmental Science
B. Drone Bees
NARAYAN CHANGDER
697. An ecological footprint is
C. Worker Bees
A. Roughly a men’s size 8
D. none of above
B. A big footprint in the mud
C. the amount of land and water needed 702. What is the name of Georgia’s largest
to supply an individual or a population monadnock?
with renewable resources and to absorb A. Lake Lanier
and recycle the wastes and pollution
these resources produce B. fall line
D. is when people continually waste, de- C. pole cat
plete, and degrade much of Earth’s natu-
D. Stone Mt.
ral capital.
698. Which organism is most likely to be at 703. This term describes the number of individ-
the bottom of a forest food chain? uals in a population per unit of area
A. Shrubs A. demography
B. Mouse B. population density
C. Mushroom C. population distribution
D. Insect D. ecology
699. Which of the following is a threat to coral
704. Excess nutrients cause sudden explosions
reefs?
of algal growth.
A. oils spills
A. cultural eutrophication
B. sewage
B. wastewater
C. pesticides
D. all of the above C. Algal Blooms
D. pathogens
700. Oceans affect global climate by
A. fish taking oxygen out of the atmo- 705. A possible explanation or solution to a
sphere problem.
B. plants decaying and using up carbon A. observation
dioxide
B. hypothesis
C. storing and transferring heat
C. conclusion
D. breaking up water intro hydrogen and
oxygen D. theory

706. Select the correct answer from each drop- 711. Scientists once thought that the conti-
down menu.What did the Romans build nents had formed in their current locations.
as a step toward environmental manage- Alfred Wegener first published this theory

ment?The Romans built to carry water of continental drift in 1915. Which of the
from abundant water areas to areas with following provides evidence for continen-
high chances of drought. tal drift?
A. pipes A. Movement of the Australian continent
was observed
B. aqueducts
B. Africa and South America have the
C. tunnels
same type of climate.
D. none of above
C. Plants and animals found in Africa dif-
707. Variable that stays the same during an fer from those found in Australia
experiment is D. Africa North America and South Amer-
ica fit together like puzzle pieces.
A. hypothesis
B. independent variable 712. Which of the following is NOT a MAIN
environmental problem?
C. dependent variable
A. Resource Depletion
D. constant
B. Pollution
708. Coal, oil and gas are examples of C. Climate Change
A. Shell Fuels D. Poverty
B. Bone fuels
713. What are wind and water erosion not
C. Fossil fuels likely to affect?
D. Sea fulels A. mountains
709. A habitat is the place where an animal B. rocks

lives. Which animal’s habitat is probably C. tides
not in the desert?
D. soil
A. an insect
714. When energy from the sun is used to heat
B. lizard something directly (with no moving parts),
C. desert rat it is called
D. bear A. active solar heating
B. passive solar heating
710. The number of bee visits is recorded for
different types of flowers. What is the In- C. photovoltaic cells
dependent variable in that statement? D. none of above
A. Different flower types
715. UV light and chlorine are used during the
B. Number of bee visits process of water treatment.
C. Bee species A. coagulation
D. Amount of flowers B. flocculation

C. aeration C. sustainable society

D. disinfection D. none of above
716. One process used to obtain fresh water 722. describes the average conditions,
from salt water is called including temperature and precipitation,
A. coagulation. over long periods in a given area.
B. filtration. A. climate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. recharge. B. weather
D. desalination. C. biome
717. is the efficient use of resources. D. climatograph
A. Fossil Fuels
723. What is a renewable resource?
B. Conservation
A. one that can be replaced quickly
C. Recycling
B. one that is man-made
D. Natural Resources
C. one that comes from the sun
718. Preserving natural resources for future
D. one that will never run out
generations is part of a(n)
A. natural environment 724. Explain what Environmental Wisdom
B. sustainable society Worldview means.
C. ecosystem A. Worldview belief that we are totally de-
pendant in nature and should preserve na-
D. built environment
ture as much as possible to maintain our
719. What is Meteorology? own species.
A. The study of meteors. B. Depends on nature to guide natural be-
B. The study of the atmosphere. lief.
C. The study of rocks. C. Matter doesn’t enter or leave it in

large amounts.
D. The study of organisms.
D. none of above
720. 2 During which period in human history
were most of our modern environmental 725. What is Agriculture?
problems introduced? A. The study of how living things interact
A. Hunter-gatherer with each other and their nonliving envi-
B. Agricultural ronment
C. Industrial Revolution B. Any natural material that is used by hu-
mans
D. Biotechnology Era
C. The practice of growing, breeding, and
721. the parts of the world that humans have caring for plants and animals that are
made used for food, clothing, housing, trans-
A. natural environment portation, and other purposes.
B. built environment D. none of above

726. As you go higher in the troposphere, the 731. Which was not a direct result of the In-
temperature dustrial Revolution.

A. decreases A. shift to the use of fossil fuels
B. increases B. improvement in quality of life
C. stays the same
C. growth of cities
D. gets very hot
D. overhunting of large mammals
727. What is the name of the type of large
brown algae that grows from the ocean 732. What is the purpose of adding alum to
floor of continental shelves, reaching up- water during the treatment process
ward toward the sunlit surface?
A. to filter and remove large organisms
A. coral and trash
B. chiton
B. to form flocs that bacteria and other
C. kelp impurities will cling to
D. phytoplankton C. to prevent bacterial growth
728. When experimenting with the growth of D. to remove unwanted gases
a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same
type of) plants, two different fertilizers, 733. OTEC works because water boils at low
equal light, and equal water. What type temperatures when
of variable is the fertilizer?
A. high pressure chamber
A. Dependent
B. cooled in a vacuum chamber
B. Independent
C. Control C. under low pressure in a vacuum cham-
ber
D. Compound
D. pumped from the ocean
729. Which is the best example of the tragedy
of the commons? 734. The mesosphere has the atmosphere’s
A. Depletion of fish in the North Atlantic lowest temperatures at approximately
B. Collective grape farming in French A. -80
communities
B. -85
C. Using national forests for timber pro-
duction C. -90
D. Restriction of nuclear wastes to a sin- D. -95
gle site in Nevada
735. Ozone acts as a
730. What is the estimated temperature of
Earth’s inner core? A. shield from UV radiation for living crea-
tures on Earth.
A. 3, 000◦ C to 4, 000◦ C
B. 4, 000◦ C to 5, 400◦ C B. pollutant in the stratosphere.
C. 400◦ C to 500◦ C C. pollutant in the thermosphere

D. 300◦ C to 425◦ C D. carcinogen in the stratosphere.

736. What word describes a trait that helps 741. This is the outcome of the experiment.
an organism survive in its environment? We get data and results from this.
A. natural selection A. Independent Variable
B. mutation B. Dependent Variable
C. camouflage C. Control
D. adaptation D. Constant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
737. Hydroelectric power produces electricity 742. What does the Law of Unintended Conse-
using quences mean?
A. Wind A. States that the actions of people and
B. Sunlight governments always have unexpected ef-
fects.
C. Moving water
B. Negative rates of different species liv-
D. Dung
ing in the same area.
738. Criteria such as salinity, depth, and C. Takes perspective that humans should
whether the water is flowing or standing manage the Earth’s resources to achieve
are used by scientists to maximum benefits.
A. classify aquatic ecosystems D. none of above
B. measure net primary productivity from
terrestrial ecosystems 743. Geothermal energy is obtained by har-
nessing
C. distinguish aquatic ecosystems from
terrestrial ecosystems A. sunlight
D. determine the number of species in a B. wind energy

body of water C. energy from tides
739. Our effect on the environment - a com- D. hot underground water or steam
bination of what we consume, and the
waste we produce. 744. What happens to the air pressure the
higher up in space you go?
A. Carbon Footprint
A. the air pressure increases
B. Ecological Footprint
B. the air pressure decreases
C. Biocentric
C. the air pressure stays the same
D. None of these
D. there is no air pressure
740. Do not allow commercial activities, but
may allow recreational hunting and fish- 745. Seeks to define what is right and
ing. what is wrong.
A. National Wildlife Refuges A. Ethics
B. National Parks B. Ecology
C. National Forests C. Environment
D. none of above D. educators

746. Largest number of individuals of a popula- B. Carbon dioxide

tion that the environment can support C. nitrogen

D. argon
B. population crash
C. lag phase 752. The uppermost level at which the water
in a given area fully saturates rock or soil.
D. mutualism
A. Impermeable surface
747. What is air pollution? B. Rock and mantle
A. Any harmful substance that builds up
C. water table
in the air
D. groundwater recharge
B. pollen, dust, gases
C. industrial pollution 753. What is evaporation?
D. chemicals in the water A. The part of the water cycle when the
sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid
748. A hybrid car uses into water vapor or steam. It rises from
A. a photovoltaic cell and an electric mo- the ground into the air.
tor
B. The part of the water cycle when the
B. an efficient gasoline engine and an water vapor in the air gets cold. The water
electric motor turns back into a liquid and forms clouds.
C. a fuel cell and a solar cell
D. an efficient gasoline engine and a fuel C. The part of the water cycle when
cell clouds get heavy and can no longer hold
the liquid water. This causes the water to
749. This described the likeliness of a public fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow,
area being exploited for short-term gain. sleet, or hail.
A. Hetch Hetchy D. none of above
B. Silent Spring
754. An essential feature of every good exper-
C. The Tragedy of the Commons iment is that it should
D. Harry Potter and the Sorcerer’s Stone A. Use a control
750. % of toxins such as mercury that accumu- B. Test a single variable
late in the tissues of organisms as we go
C. Graph data
up the food pyramid.
A. 1% D. Both a and b
B. 10% 755. A decomposer?

C. 50% A. Eats dead plants or animals and
D. 100% breaks down to put nutrients in the soil
B. Eats plants or other animals for food
751. Which gas makes up 78% of our atmo-
sphere? C. Makes its own food
A. oxygen D. Machine that gathers trash

756. The disappearance of a species from B. stratosphere

Earth is called C. thermosphere
A. Extinction
D. mesosphere
B. Competition
762. Which statement about the littoral zone
C. Niche
in a lake or pond is true?
D. Artificial Selection
A. there are no rooted aquatic plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
757. The crust, mantle, asthenosphere, and B. it has deep water
core are all parts of Earth’s
C. it is far from the shore
A. atmosphere.
D. it is rich in invertebrates
B. biosphere.
C. hydrosphere. 763. What is the term used for the largest pop-
ulation that an environment can support at
D. geosphere.
any given time?
758. This variable in an experiment is the one A. carrying capacity
being deliberately changed by the scien-
tist. B. full level
A. dependent variable C. organism scope
B. independent variable D. biotic factor

C. data 764. The percentage of energy put into a sys-
D. control group tem that does useful work is
A. energy conservation.
759. What is biodiversity?
A. the similarity of life in the world or in B. renewable energy.
a particular habitat or ecosystem C. energy efficiencty.
B. the variety of life in the world or in a D. energy conversion.
particular habitat or ecosystem
765. Trophic levels are represented by
C. the study of biology
A. squares
D. the difference between the earth and
mars B. circles
760. Radon gas C. pyramids
A. primary pollulant D. lines

B. secondary pollulant 766. When scientists formulate a testable idea
C. indoor air pollulant about their scientific question s, they have
formed a(n)
A. conclusion.
761. The lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere,
B. hypothesis.
the one directly above the ground, is called
the C. question .
A. troposphere D. observation.

767. Direction currents move across the equa- 772. A possible explanation to a problem that
tor has not yet been tested.

A. northeast towards higher latitudes A. data
B. west across the equator B. theory
C. always southwest C. hypothesis
D. varies depending on the season D. fact
768. Environmental Science is 773. Which of the following symbiotic relation-

ships is considered parasitic?
A. The study of living things and how they
grow and change A. ticks feeding on a dog
B. The study of the relationships of the B. bees transporting pollen from flowers
natural world and the relationships be-
tween organisms C. pilotfish swimming under sharks
C. The study of weather and climate D. birds eating the insects from the back
D. none of above of a hippopotamus
774. In what ways could we help our environ-

769. An area of the Earth’s surface from which
ment in the face of global warming?
water percolates down into an aquifer is
called a A. Rooftop gardens
A. Surface water B. Solar panels
B. Recharge zone C. Plant trees
C. Potable D. All of these
D. Dam 775. The behaviors and physical characteris-
tics of species that allow them to live suc-
770. Burning of gasoline is contributing to the cessfully in their environment are called
current imbalance in the cycle.
A. habitats
A. water
B. adaptations
B. nitrogen
C. limiting factors
C. carbon
D. biotic factors
D. none of above
776. Which of the following is not charac-
771. A material or energy that is replenished teristic of salt marshes and mangrove
(returns) in a short period of time. Exam- swamps?
ple: water, solar, wind
A. both provide habitats for wildlife
A. Greenhouse effect
B. both are dominated by marsh grasses
B. Natural resource
C. Renewable resource C. both are found along coastal areas
D. Non-renewable resource D. both are threatened by development

777. Life underwater is greatly affected by A. Seasons

light availability, which is directly related B. Climates
to
C. Temperatures
A. water quality.
D. Soil characteristics
B. water depth.
782. Match The Definition: Pollution that
C. salinity. comes from many different sources.
D. temperature. A. pollution prevention
NARAYAN CHANGDER
778. In the scientific method, what is used to B. hybrid vehicle
test a hypothesis? C. nonpoint source
A. control group D. ozone
B. experiemnt 783. Which of the following is not an environ-
C. exam mental function of wetlands?
D. none of above A. increasing runoff
B. absorbing and removing pollutants
779. Which of the following statements de-
from water
scribes the process by which modern nu-
clear power plants use nuclear energy? C. trapping carbon that would otherwise
be released into the air
A. Power plants use nuclear fusion to
split uranium atoms and release nuclear D. controlling floods
energy. 784. Secondary succession is all of the follow-
B. Power plants use nuclear fusion to ing except
combine atomic nuclei and release nu- A. occurs where there was an ecosystem
clear energy. before
C. Power plants use nuclear fission to B. can start on bare rock
split uranium atoms and release nuclear
C. can occur after a natural disaster
energy.
D. starts with soil followed by the appear-
D. Power plants use nuclear fission to ance of pioneer plants
combine atomic nuclei and release nu-
clear energy. 785. Earth’s earliest life forms appeared in the
780. Methane + Oxygen + Nitric Oxide =

A. soil
A. Water+ formaldehyde + Nitrogen
B. lava
Dioxide
C. air
B. Water+ methane + Nitrogen Dioxide
D. oceans
C. Water+ smog + Nitrogen Dioxide 786. Global warming is due to

D. Water+ terpenes + Nitrogen Dioxide A. Greenhouse gases
B. Nitric and sulfuric acids
781. Which of the following are varying condi-
tions, nutrient levels and physical compo- C. CFCs
nents which describe soils within biomes? D. Ozone depletion

787. Population density is .. 792. are natural resources that are natu-
A. tbe arrangement of individuals in a rally formed much more slowly than we
use them. Once they are completely de-

space
pleted, they are gone forever.
B. the growth rate
C. the number of individuals per unit area A. nonrenewable resources
or volume B. renewable resources
D. the maximum number of offspring
each member can produce C. ethics
788. Two historical events during which smog D. prediction

killed many citizen and made thousands
sick 793. Human activities and natural events can
A. Donora Fluoride Fog and London Smog have a large effect on populations, bio-
diversity and ecosystem processes. How
does the growth of the human population
B. London Smog and Exxon Valdez
into rural areas affect the environmental
C. China Smog and Fluoride Fog quality of the native ecosystem?
D. none of above
A. Human population growth produces
789. Which Worldview explains beliefs that new resources that benefit the native
humans should manage the Earth but in a ecosystems.
more ethical and sustainable way?
B. Human population growth in rural ar-
A. Planetary Management eas help organisms evolve in order to sur-
B. Stewardship vive in harsher urban environments.
C. Environmental Wisdom C. Human population growth in rural ar-
D. none of above eas creates additional waste that is put
back into the environment and lowers en-
790. A group of parts that work together to
vironmental quality.
achieve a goal.
A. matter D. Human population growth in rural ar-
eas creates additional living areas for hu-
B. system
mans to populate, which would increase
C. conduction the value of the land.
D. solar energy
794. The atmosphere is?
791. An increase in the pH of a lake would
most likely indicate A. All of the rocks and minerals on or be-
A. the lake suffers from acid shock low the earths surface
B. calcium carbonate has been released B. law regulating the releae of ollutants
into the lake into the atmosphere
C. the area in which the lake is located
suffers from acid percipitation C. green house gases
D. higher than average sulfur oxide levels D. all living and nonliving things with
in the atmosphere which organisms interact

795. What type of symbiosis?* The Red- 800. What will happen to fossil fuel reserves
Chested cuckoo birds find an unattended if humans continue to burn them?
robin nest, push out the robin eggs, and lay A. The fossil fuel reserves will be quickly
their eggs in the robin’s nest, and leave.* resupplied and so humans will never run
Robin babies die and robin parents feed out.
and take care of the cuckoo babies.
B. The fossil fuel reserves will be com-
A. commensalism pletely depleted, or totally used up.
B. mutualism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The fossil fuel reserves will stay under-
C. parasitism ground.
D. predation D. The fossil fuel reserves will definitely
NOT turn into carbon dioxide in Earth’s at-
796. Which of the following is an interaction in mosphere.
which both organisms are harmed (-/-)?
801. Nitrogen oxides
A. parasitism
A. primary pollulant
B. predation
B. secondary pollulant
C. competition
C. indoor air pollulant
D. commensalism
797. Without the greenhouse effect Earth
802. The Earth is similar to being on an island
would be
because
A. much warmer
A. we are isolated in space
B. much colder
B. we cannot really leave our planet and
C. about the same settle other places
D. extremely variable C. we have limited resources like food,
water, and other things
798. There are limits to many of our , ma-
terials and energy sources provided by na- D. all of these answers are correct
ture, that humans need to survive. 803. Wind, moving water, sunlight, and heat
A. Natural Resources from Earth’s interior are sources of
B. Ecology A. alternative energy
C. Environment B. geothermal energy
D. none of above C. renewable energy
D. ocean thermal energy
799. A carbon-containing fuel formed over mil-
lions of years from the remains of living 804. To lesson carbon dioxide emissions peo-
things is called ple should
A. Biodiversity A. burn more coal
B. Environment B. drive more cars
C. Fossil Fuel C. use solar electricity
D. Sustainability D. cut down trees

805. Which of the following is NOT one of C. ice

Earth’s 5 sphere? D. nitrogen gas

A. Mantle
811. An animal that hunts and eats other ani-
B. Biosphere mals for energy
C. Atmosphere A. prey
D. Lithosphere
B. predator
806. Long term symbiotic relationship where C. decomposer
on organism feeds off a host
D. none of above
A. predation
812. During a lab you should always
B. parasitism
A. Wear sandals
C. competition
B. Wear your hair down
D. mutualism
C. Wear gloves
807. To ensure proper segregation, collection,
D. Wear socks
storage, treatment, and disposal of solid-
waste through the formulation and adapta- 813. Which of the following activities accounts
tion of the best ecological wasteproducts. for the greatest percentage of fresh water
A. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 used worldwide?
B. Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Man- A. drinking
agement Act of 2000 B. washing
C. Climate Change Act of 2009 C. manufacturing
D. none of above D. irrigating crops
808. Human leisure activities 814. Which is NOT a way to decrease your eco-
A. Ethical/moral value logical footprint?
B. Environmental value A. Eating less meat and processed foods
C. Educational value
D. Recreational value B. Walking or biking to school
C. Carpool to work
809. The more links in a food chain or food
web D. Driving a Hummer (SUV) around for
fun
A. the fewer animals it will have
B. the greater the biodiversity 815. Habitat loss, soil erosion, and air pollu-
tion are disadvantages of which renew-
C. the more unhealthy the habitat able energy source
D. the biodiversity is decreased A. solar
810. The biosphere includes B. wind
A. living things C. biomass fuel
B. rocks D. moving water

816. When it rains or snows, most water that 821. 97% of scientists believe what is causing
doesn’t evaporate soaks into the ground. climate change?
This is called - A. Animals and Plants
A. Ice B. Eco-Friendly Cars
B. Groundwater C. Humans
C. Habitat D. Conservation of energy
D. Freshwater 822. Oil, natural gas, and coal are called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
resources because they are not easy to
817. Heat is transferred by movement of cur-
replace.
rents within a fluid.
A. fossil fuels
A. Conduction.
B. conservation
B. Convection.
C. natural resources
C. Radiation.
D. nonrenewable
D. none of above
823. Hunter Gatherers?
818. Which sphere are humans apart of?
A. small family groups who hunted and
A. hydrosphere gathered their food, moving on before
B. geosphere they used all the resources
C. biosphere B. large cities where good/good where

mass produced, causing pollution to the
D. atmosphere environment
819. Regions of the world with the largest C. small communities who produces their
populations tend to own food, causing fragmentation of their
environment
A. have the largest share of global wealth.
D. none of above
B. have a smaller share of global wealth. 824. Which does NOT create a significant po-
tential obstacle which could impact the de-
velopment of a child?
C. use the most resources per person.
A. birth order
D. have the largest ecological footprints.
B. birth trauma
820. Which of the following is not characteris- C. poor nutrition
tic of wetlands?
D. prenatal problems
A. wetlands have plentiful nutrients and
the capacity for photosythesis 825. In aquatic ecosystems, net primary pro-
ductivity is related to
B. wetlands are limited to inland freshwa-
ter environments A. whether the water is fresh water or
saltwater
C. wetlands are perceived historically as
disease-infested wastelands. B. the speed at which the water moves
D. wetlands have varies populations of C. available sunlight and nutrients
plants and animals. D. waves and tides

826. Sea Turtle hatchlings require a full moon C. carnivores

to find their way to the sea. Why could D. none of above
coastal residences be required to turn off

lights at night during this time? 831. Uses the sun’s energy to heat a liquid,
A. The excess light pollution causes sea which then heats a building
turtles to move to the shore instead of fol- A. Active solar heating
lowing the full moon to the sea. B. passive solar heating
B. The excess light pollution causes sea C. photovoltaic cell
turtles be more easily seen by predators.
D. fuel cell
C. The excess light pollution has no im- 832. The near-extinction of the whooping
pact on the sea turtles. crane helped lead to the passage of this
law.
D. none of above
827. Which of these would NOT be included as
B. Clean Water Act
part of the environment?
C. Resource Conservation and Recovery
A. What the soil is made of.
Act
B. Animals and plants in the region and
surrounding areas.
C. The average temperature, wind, pre- 833. In the zone, life is diverse and abun-
cipitation, and other climate factors. dant.
D. All of these would be considered part A. Benthic
of the environment. B. Eutrophic
828. A frog eats a fly. The frog and fly are C. LIttoral
demonstrating D. Plankton
A. mutualism
834. A scientist who is experimental data
B. competition checks to see if it supports or rejects the
C. predator/prey hypothesis.
D. parasitism A. analyzing
B. observing
829. All of the following are examples of non-
living things in the environment EXCEPT C. creating
THIS ONE D. question ing
A. oceans 835. Trend in water consumption compared to
B. buildings population from 1950-2000.
C. mountains A. population and water consumption
D. trees both decreased
B. population and water consumption
830. All primary consumers are both increased
A. herbivores C. population increased and water con-
B. large animals sumption decreased

D. population decreased and water con- D. Parts of the preserve can be used for
sumption increased hiking and picnicking.
836. Within an ecosystem, a tree is a 841. The inner core is ?

A. primary consumer A. rigid rocky outer surface of the earth
B. decomposer B. water flowing to the center of the
C. producer earth
C. solid iron-nickel that is very hot and un-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
der great pressure
837. Herbivore
D. ph 0-6
A. an animal that feeds on plants
842. Possible long-term effect of air pollution
B. an animal that feeds on both plants
and animals A. lung cancer
C. an animal that feeds on animals B. deafness
D. none of above C. nausea
D. acid precipitation
838. An undesired change in air, water or soil
that adversely affects the health, survival, 843. Renewable resources are
or activities of humans or other organ-
isms. A. replenished naturally and over rela-
tively short periods of time.
A. Pollution
B. deplete naturally and over relatively
B. Loss of Biodiversity short periods of time.
C. Natural Resource Depletion C. depleted indefinitely.
D. none of above D. are more expensive.
839. Competition happens when organisms 844. variables are kept constant in a
seek the same study.
A. habitat destruction
A. Controlled
B. invasive species
B. Dependent
C. limited resources
C. Independent
D. artificial selection
D. Two
840. Which of the following would be consid-
845. In order to reach the aquifer we build a
ered a long term negative consequence to
the question “Should Valley County set A. dike
aside a nature preserve? B. aqueduct
A. Habitat destruction is slowed or C. well
stopped.
D. spring
B. Property outside the preserve may
have less restrictions on development. 846. Which of the following is the fourth layer
C. Habitat may be damaged or overdevel- of the atmosphere?
oped and result in endangered species. A. Thermosphere

B. Stratosphere 852. Ground level ozone

C. Exosphere A. primary pollulant

D. Mesosphere B. secondary pollulant
847. Which of the following is NOT a layer of
the atmosphere? D. pollution control
A. Stratosphere 853. Approximately what percentage of

Earth’s water is SALT water?
B. Hemisphere
A. 97 %
C. Troposphere
B. 71%
D. Exosphere
C. 30%
848. Earth’s layers are divided by D. 3%
A. change in temperature
854. The variable that is being measured and
B. amount of water vaopr is responding to a change is known as the
C. amount of pressure A. Independent variable
D. amount of oxygen B. Dependent variable
C. Control group
849. In experimental design, which variable is
labeled on the x-axis? D. Hypothesis
A. independent variable 855. is when human needs are met so that

the population can survive indefinitely.
B. control variable
A. conservation
C. dependent variable
B. recycling
D. criterion variable
C. sustainability
850. Which ethical attitude believes ’bigger is D. Ecological footprint
better?’
856. In a controlled study, all variables are
A. The Business Ethic controlled except
B. The Development Ethic A. 1
C. The Conservation Ethic B. 2
D. The Preservation Ethic C. 3
851. How did the Industrial Revolution affect D. 4

the cities? 857. On a biome map, patches representing
A. Made the crime rate decrease the same biome tend to occur at similar
B. Led to an increase in farm workers A. longitudes
C. Make the cities cleaner and safer B. meridians
D. Led to an increase in population in the C. latitudes

cities D. doldrums

858. Geologists have learned that Earth’s inte- C. can magnify over time within food
rior is composed of layers by studying chains
A. the presence of fossils in Earth’s crust D. result mostly from point-source pollu-
tion sources
B. the size of volcanoes
863. Resources are said to be when a large
C. the speed and path of seismic waves fraction of the resource has been used up
as they travel through Earth
A. Depleted
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the pattern of earthquakes that occurs
B. Extinct
on Earth’s surface
C. Abundant
859. Which does NOT describe a natural re-
source? D. none of above
A. May be renewable or non-renewable 864. The main objective of this law is to main-
B. Includes tress, water, oil, sunlight tain the balance between the environment
and thesocio-economic development of the
C. Occurs naturally in the environment
country.
D. Includes man made materials such as
A. RA 9003-ECOLOGICAL SOLID WASTE
plastic
MANAGEMENT ACT OF 2000
860. What does the acronym “GMO” stand B. RA 9512- ENVIRONMENTAL AWARE-
for? NESS EDUCATION ACT
A. Genetically Modified Organisms C. PD 1586-ESTABLISHING AN ENVIRON-
B. Ground Molecule Oxygen MENTAL IMPACT STATEMENT SYSTEM
C. Girls Move Out D. RA 8749-PHILIPPINE CLEAN AIR ACT
D. Gulf of Mexico Oil 865. A species living together in one area is
861. The Law of Unintended Consequences called a:
states that A. species
A. actions of people and governments B. community
have effects that are unanticipated.
C. ecosystem
B. everything can always be predicted
D. population
ahead of time.
C. things which look good on paper work 866. Fertilizers are classified as which kind of
out well in reality. water pollutant?
D. disasters can usually be avoided with A. organic chemicals
enough money and time planning.
B. inorganic chemicals
862. The effects of water pollution on ecosys- C. heavy metals
tems
D. physical agents
A. can be demonstrated by natural eu-
trophication 867. Sets rules for the disposal of hazardous
B. are always immediate and highly lethal waste.

B. Resource Conservation and Recovery 873. What is made up of all the living and non-
Act living things which an organism interacts
with?

C. Endangered Species Act
D. Clean Air Act A. Atmosphere
868. Which sphere of Earth is made of all the B. Water Supply

rock above and below Earth’s surface? C. Environment
A. lithosphere D. Soil
B. atomospere
C. geosphere 874. Butter bean seeds were placed in dishes
lined with moist paper towel for 5 days at
D. hydrosphere different temperatures & germination was
869. 1 Carbon-containing fuels, or fossil fuels, measured. Which of the following is the
formed millions of years ago from the re- independent variable?
mains of A. Number of seeds
A. gases in the atmosphere B. Time
B. chlorofluorocarbons
C. Temperature
C. living organisms
D. Type of seed
D. volcanic eruptions
870. 3-3.4 The efficiency of energy transfer 875. Ecology was coined by
from a lower trophic level to the next high- A. Haeckel
est level is roughly
B. Tansley
A. 1%
C. Harrison
B. 10%
D. None of these
C. 100%
D. 1000% 876. are natural resources that are nat-
urally replenished or renewed over short
871. A life scientist who observes the relation-
periods of time.
ships between plants, animals, weather
and soil on a mountaintop is studying a(n) A. renewable natural resources
A. community B. nonrenewable natural resources
B. ecosystem C. data
C. population D. independent variable
D. organism
877. Removing salt from salt water to make
872. A human-centered view of our relation- fresh water is called
ship with the environment is known as
A. recharging
A. anthropocentrism
B. biocentrism B. point source
C. ecocentrism C. water purification
D. environmentalism D. desalination

878. The process through which pollutants get 883. Match The Definition: An area of land
increasingly more concentrated at each where all water that drains off goes into
step up the food chain is a river, river system, or other body of wa-
ter.
A. biomagnification.
B. anaphylaxis. A. watershed
C. toxicity. B. hybrid vehicle
D. bioaccumulation. C. nonpoint source
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ozone
879. Which of the following would be charac-
teristic of an animal rights activist? 884. Ecologists use similarities between
A. Animals have feelings ecosystems to classify them into broad
categories called
B. Animals have the same rights as hu-
mans A. biomes
C. Experts are reliable and impartial B. littoral zones
D. Concern about environmental conse- C. estuaries
quences D. benthic zones
880. Which of the following is NOT responsi-
885. What is NOT a sustainable practice?
ble for increasing human populations?
A. recycling
A. Advancements in medicines
B. reducing
B. Improved living conditions
C. reusing
C. Declining animal populations
D. buying
D. Increased food supply
881. Frank has researched how solar technol- 886. Percentage of scientists that agree cli-
ogy can help save energy. Which group mate change is real and caused by humans
should Frank approach to share his find- A. 10%
ings?
B. 45%
A. SERI/NREL
C. 70%
B. IPCC
D. 97%
C. EPA
D. NOAA 887. Compare carnivores from herbivores.
A. Carnivores eat grass, herbivores eat
882. An arctic ecosystem depends almost en- meat
tirely on for its available food.
B. Carnivores eat meat, herbivores eat
A. pond life plants
B. the ocean C. Carnivores eat people, herbivores
C. estuaries don’t
D. penguins D. The both eat meat and plants.

888. Any useful material that is found in na- B. driving to school

ture:
C. blowdrying your hair

A. Natural Resource
D. change your clothes
B. Human Resource
C. Plants 894. The portion of the Earth’s atmosphere
closest to us is known as the:
D. none of above
A. troposphere
889. Before the Neolithic (Agricultural) Revo-
lution many of the people lived as B. stratosphere
A. Hunters-gatherers C. exosphere
B. Aristocrats D. none of above
C. Factory Workers 895. The lithosphere includes all but
D. Laborers
A. rocks
890. natural material formed at a much slower B. mountains
rate than it is depleted
C. lava
A. recycle
D. plants
B. renewable resources
C. nonrenewable resources 896. Energy resources such as fossil fuels must
D. ecology be transported to power stations before
they can be used to generate electricity.
891. What is a trophic level? The transportation significantly adds to
A. Each level represented within a food the cost of power production. How is the
chain or web. cost of transportation reduced in geother-
mal power stations?
B. Levels of ecosystems that the world is
divided into. A. The power stations are built along with
thermal power stations
C. Different levels of nutrients present
within an organism. B. The power stations are built close to
the hot springs
D. The levels of sunlight an autotroph
needs to survive. C. Plastic pipes, which are cheaper than
metal pipes, are used to pipe steam
892. This is the measure of the amount of salts
dissolved D. The power stations are built close to
the cities
A. estuary
B. flood plain 897. What is perhaps the biggest environmen-
tal issue we are faced with today is
C. salt marshes
D. salinity A. Empathy
B. Sympathy
893. What is something we do daily that does
NOT affect our ecological footprint? C. Telepathy
A. taking a shower D. Apathy

898. The majority of marine organisms are C. littoral zones and benthic zones
found in D. marshes and swamps
A. deep ocean waters
904. characterized by high personal wealth,
B. shallow, coastal waters
and high levels of consumption
C. fisheries
A. pollution
B. developing country
899. “A testable idea that attempts to explain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. resource depletion
a phenomenon or answer a scientific ques-
tion ” is the definition of a(n) D. developed country
A. prediction 905. Which air pollutant scars the lungs

B. hypothesis A. adbestos
C. theory B. radon
D. experiment C. fungi
900. Kepler’s second law or the equal area law D. ozone
states that the closer a planet is to the sun
the it travels. 906. When dos The Industrial Revolution
Start?
A. Faster
A. 1760
B. Slower
B. 1681
C. Higher
C. 1540
D. Lower
D. 1626
901. Prescribed burns are fires that
907. In which of the following ways can inva-
A. caused by lightning.
sive species be harmful to a community?
B. set by humans.
A. It may have no natural predators and
C. never get out of control. overpopulate an area
D. increase the risk of injury. B. It may compete for resources with na-
902. Potable water means tive species
A. Water which comes straight from a C. It may bring unequilibrium to a com-

river or reservoir munity by causing an imbalance or distur-
bance
B. Water containing bacteria
D. All of the Above
C. Water which is safe to drink
D. Water which contains a high concen- 908. “Everything an organism does and when
tration of salt it does it” describes an organism’s
A. niche
903. What are the two main types of freshwa-
ter wetlands? B. evolution
A. lakes and ponds C. fitness
B. rivers and streams D. adaptation

909. The air you breathe in from the atmo- 914. A focus of environmental science not stud-
sphere is made mostly of ied in ecology is the

A. oxygen A. interaction among living things
B. carbon dioxide B. use of natural resources
C. nitrogen C. influence of humans on the environ-
D. argon ment.
910. What is Deforestation? D. none of above
A. A forest in which there are too many 915. Which method of tree harvesting would
deers. cause fragmentation and a decrease in bio-
B. A forest party where deers hang out diversity?
C. The adding of trees in a forest. A. clear-cutting
D. The clearing of trees; transforming of B. shelter-wood cutting
a forest into cleared land.
C. slash and burn clearing
911. Tropical climates were mentioned as suit- D. gleaning
able environments for which of the follow-
ing animals? 916. What is ecology?
A. Cats A. raising crops and animals
B. Snakes
B. Study of interactions with living organ-
C. Birds isms
D. Squirrels C. Shift from energy sources
912. Coral polyps secrete skeletons of that D. none of above
slowly accumulate and form coral reefs.
917. Many factory farms dump animal waste
A. salt
products into neighboring streams, rivers
B. oxygen and lakes. How might this affect the
C. limestone health of the people living in these areas?
D. algae A. The water will clean the waste prod-
ucts, therefore it does not affect them.
913. What do scientists believe has caused the
B. The smell from the waste products de-
hole in the ozone of the atmosphere?
ter people from living in the surrounding
A. Chlorofluorocarbons used in agricul- area.
ture.
C. The farmers clean the waste prod-
B. Chlorofluorocarbons used in nuclear ucts before it is put into the environment,
energy. therefore it will not affect them.
C. Chlorofluorocarbons used in coolants, D. The waste products enter the drinking
cleaning solvents, and propellants in water and other parts of the environment,
spray cans. which could cause people in the surround-
D. none of above ing areas to become sick

918. Uses the sun’s energy to heat a building 923. In order to use a resource sustainably you
directly should
A. passive solar heating A. use it a a rate where it can be replen-
B. active solar heating ished
C. photovoltaic cell B. use as much as you want, the people
D. fuel cell in 3rd world countries do not need it
C. use it before someone else does and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
919. What is the last step of the scientific there is none left for you
method?
D. don’t use any at all
A. communicate results
B. experiement 924. Urban land use does not typically
C. observation include
D. ask question s A. farming
920. Facts, figures, and other evidence learned B. residential

through observations C. industrial
A. data D. commercial
B. hypothesis
C. scientific law 925. During summer in the Southern Hemi-
sphere, the Northern Hemisphere experi-
D. observation ences
921. The “Primary Air Pollutants” are A. Summer
A. carbon monoxide, volatile organic com- B. a tilt towards the sun
pounds, particulate matter, sulfur dioxide,
and oxides of nitrogen C. Winter
B. radon, particulate matter, sulfur diox- D. excess rainfall
ide, and CFC’s
926. These are disease carrying organisms
C. photochemical smog, VOC’s, PM, and
such as fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes:
oxides
D. None of these are correct A. Vectors
B. Virus
922. An estuary functions as a mineral trap
due to C. Toxicology
A. its great depth and particularly sticky D. Chemical Hazard
sediment
B. the mixing action of river water and 927. What does every food chain start with?
ocean water A. producers
C. its storing of pesticides from agricul- B. sun
tural runoff and ocean water
C. consumer
D. the filtering action of bottom-feeding
fish species D. decomposers

928. Ecosystem Services: 933. expresses the environmental effects

A. contribute to keeping ecosystems eco- of an individual or population in terms of
the total amount of land and water re-

nomically productive
quired to live.
B. are economically valuable services
provided by natural systems A. ecological footprint
C. are required to rebalance natural sys- B. renewable resource

tems that we have disturbed C. natural resoures
D. are focused on providing humans with D. theory
the essential life services
934. Which of the following statements pro-
929. Where you will find the ozone layer. vides a reason for the widespread use of
fossil fuels?
A. stratosphere
A. Fossil fuels are a renewable source of
B. thermosphere
energy.
C. exosphere
B. Fossil fuels are readily available and
D. mesosphere inexpensive.
930. Which of the following best describes a C. Fossil fuels are not harmful to the en-
community? vironment.
A. A group of the same species in the D. All of the above.
same location at a given time.
935. What is ecological footprint?
B. Different species groups in the same
A. the condition in which human needs
location at a given time
are met in such a way that a human popu-
C. All of the biomes of the planet intercon- lation can survive indefinitely.
nected.
B. the greater the demand for a limited
D. A single individual organism. supply of something, the more that thing
is worth
931. Which of the following would have a neg-
ative impact on an ecosystem C. the productive area of Earth needed to
support one person in a particular country
A. constructing highways
B. planting trees
D. none of above
C. recycling paper
936. Abiotic means?
D. none of above
A. Nonliving
932. Scientists hypothesize that global warm- B. Living
ing may be due to
C. Pizza
A. Using Chlorofluorocarbons found in
coolants, cleaning solvents, and propel- D. Crustain
lants in spray cans. 937. Which of the following gives value to all
B. Smog living things, both human and nonhuman?
C. Burning fossil fuels A. biocentrism
D. none of above B. environmentalism

C. anthropocentrism C. VOCs
D. ecocentrism D. ppm
938. Which of the following is also referred to
as geoscience? 943. What products are created by the process
of photosynthesis?
A. Physics
A. the sun’s light and energy
B. Earth Science
B. oxygen and carbohydrates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. chemistry
D. Cosmology C. phosphorus and nitrogen
939. In the third stage of the demographic D. carbon dioxide and water
transition
A. birth rates stay high but death rates 944. One major environmental problem is re-
start decreasing increasing population source depletion. Which is a major con-
size tributing factor to this problem?
B. birth rates and death rates are both A. Non developed countries use more re-
low so population starts decreasing sources than others.
C. birth rates and death rates are high B. Developed countries have a much
meaning high stable population higher rate of resource consumption than
D. birth rates and death rates are de- others.
creasing so population growth starts C. The human population overall is too
slowing down small.
940. 3-3.4 What is the term for each step in D. Each country uses approximately the
the transfer of energy and matter within same amount of resources.
a biological community?
A. energy path 945. How does the availability of fresh fruit
B. food web and vegetables affect the human popula-
tion?
C. trophic level
D. food pyramid A. Everyone has access to fresh fruits
and vegetables, therefore it does not af-
941. Which of the following is an example of fect the human population.
quantitative data?
B. Human populations who do not have
A. There are 3 tulips. access to fresh fruits and vegetables are
B. The tulips are red. more likely to develop health conditions
C. The tulips are prettier than the roses. C. Everyone can supplement fresh fruits
D. The tulips smell nice. and vegetables with vitamins, therefore it
does not affect the human population.
942. This is the measure of relative clarity of
a liquid. D. Human health is only affected by the
things you eat, therefore not eating fruits
A. Turbidity and vegetables can not affect the human
B. Flocculation population.

946. Combines hydrogen and oxygen to pro- C. ecological footprint

duce electrical energy
D. fossil fuel

A. Active solar heating
B. Passive solar heating 952. In which main layer of Earth’s atmo-
sphere does most weather occur?
C. Photovoltaic cell
A. thermosphere
D. Fuel cell
B. mesosphere
947. Which biome would have the lowest net
C. troposphere
primary production?
D. stratosphere
A. tropical rain forest
B. temperate grassland 953. A group of individuals that interbreed and
C. coral reef produce fertile offspring is a common defi-
nition for
D. desert
A. ecology.
948. Uranium-bearing rocks underneath a
B. species.
house can be a source of
C. population.
A. ozone
B. asbestos D. community.
C. radon 954. 3-3.4 What is the original source of al-

D. formaldehyde most all energy in most ecosystems?
A. carbohydrates
949. organisms that cannot create their own
food and must eat others to obtain food B. sunlight
A. producers C. water
B. consumers D. carbon
C. decomposers
955. Sprawl affects which of the following?
D. predators
A. pollution
950. Which of the following is the most ge- B. public health
ologically active region on the surface of
Earth? C. economics
A. glacial valleys D. all of these
B. mountain peaks
956. Bees pollinate the fruit trees and get nec-
C. boundaries between tectonic plates tar and pollen to feed their young, this is
D. recharge zones an example of
A. mutualism
951. A material or energy source provided by
nature that people need to survive B. commensalism
A. natural resource C. predation
B. environment D. parasitism

957. Select the best definition for the term bio- 963. What type of symbiosis?* Gall Insects
diversity. lays their eggs in the leaves or branches
A. able to decompose or break down nat- of Oak trees causing a lump to form.* Oak
urally trees provide shelter and food to the insect
larvae, but are not harmed.
B. the variety of organisms in an area
A. commensalism
C. organic
B. mutualism
D. a native species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. parasitism
958. Longshore and rip currents are examples
of D. predation
A. local surface currents 964. Water beneath the Earth’s surface in sed-
B. melt water currents iment and rock formations is known as
C. mid-level currents A. Seawater
D. deepwater currents B. groundwater
C. Fresh water
959. The negative particles in an atom.
A. elements D. potable
B. electrons 965. Which of the following equations summa-

C. protons rizes population growth?
D. neutrons A. immigration - emigration
B. (immigration + births) + (emigration
960. Which of the following pH measurements
+ deaths)
of rainwater would indicate acid precipita-
tion? C. births-deaths
A. pH 6.0 D. (immigration + births) - (emigration +
B. pH 4.1 deaths)
C. pH 7.3 966. The eyewash station should always be
D. pH 9.6 used
A. when you get glass in your eye
961. A(n) lake has a large amount of plant
growth due to nutrients. B. when you get a chemical in your eye
A. salty C. for approximately 15 minutes after an
B. nutrient incident
C. mineral D. All of the above

D. eutrophic 967. A population of mice lives in a barn com-
munity. A cat population has just joined
962. What does “geo-” mean?
the community. What will happen?
A. Earth
A. Mouse and cat populations both go up?
B. sun
C. Center B. Mouse and cat populations both go
D. none of above down

C. Mouse population goes down as cat 973. What has the largest impact on reproduc-
population goes up tive potential?

D. Mouse population goes up as cat pop- A. having a larger number of offspring at
ulation goes down a time
968. A consumer that hunts is called: B. living longer
A. a producer. C. reproducing at a younger age
B. an omnivore. D. having offpspring more often
C. a predator.
D. a herbivore. 974. When Earth first formed, its surface was
so hot it was liquid or , rock.
969. is a variable that depends on the con-
ditions set up in the experiment. Scientists A. solid
have no control over it. B. molten
A. independent variable C. toxic
D. cyanobacteria
C. hypothesis
D. prediction 975. When a resource like timber is used as
fast as or slower than it regrows it is be-
970. Smog is an example of pollution. ing used
A. land A. nonrenewably
B. air
B. unsustainably
C. water
C. sustainably
D. none of above
D. synthetically
971. To facilitate the attainment and main-
tenance of rational and order balancebe- 976. Main reason major surface currents
tween socio-economic development and change direction is
environmental protection.
A. sand builds up on the ocean floor
A. Philippine Environmental Impact State-
ment System of 1978 B. heat from the Sun causes them to sink
B. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
C. Philippine Water Act of 2004 C. they run into continents
D. National Environmental Awareness D. minor currents push them
and Education Act of 2008
977. What is the biocapacity for the United
972. Scientific method is States?
A. is a systematic and logical approach to
A. -4.5 gha
find new things.
B. making an observation B. 4.5 gha
C. Mathematical technique C. -6.7 gha

D. making conclusion D. 7.3 gha

978. The 2 primary gases in Earth’s atmo- 983. Why do we want to use more renewable
sphere are and energy sources?
A. oxygen and nitrogen A. They cause more pollution
B. oxygen and ozone B. They will go away if we don’t use them
C. nitrogen and CO2
C. They cause less pollution
D. CO2 and methane
D. They are easier to create
NARAYAN CHANGDER
979. is the information obtained from a sci-
entist 984. Where is the majority of fresh water on
Earth found?
A. data
A. lakes
B. variable
B. rivers
C. hypothesis C. ice caps and glaciers
D. prediction D. underground
980. 1-2.2 Process in which individuals that 985. A is being tested in an experiment
have favorable variations and are better
A. variable
adapted to their environment, survive and
reproduce more successfully than those B. analysis
less well adapted (survival of the fittest) C. built
A. Evolution D. habitat
B. Natural Selection 986. How has the human population grown
C. Artificial Selection over the past 200 years?
D. Resistance A. linearly
B. exponentially
981. Day-to-day conditions in Earth’s atmo-
sphere, such as “sunny and humid, ” de- C. it hasn’t
scribe D. it has decreased
A. climate 987. A is a group of ecosystems that share
B. climatograph similar abiotic and biotic conditions.
C. weather A. species
D. biome B. community
C. population
982. Time period in which people used re-
sources straight from nature and animal D. biome
resources such as saber toothed cats, gi- 988. An organism that must get nutrients by
ant sloths and mastodons. eating other organisms is called a
A. Industrial Revolution A. producer.
B. Agricultural Revolution B. consumer.
C. Hunter Gatherer C. decomposer.
D. Space Exploration D. nitrifying bacterium.

989. Coal, gasoline and oil are resources 994. Deposition is

A. renewable A. The depositing of oxygen into the atmo-

B. nonrenewable sphere
C. semirenewable B. Depositing money into a bank
D. unrenewable C. The depositing of material in a differ-
ent location
a primary pollutant? D. Cleaning up an area
A. ground level ozone 995. Where did the Exxon Valdez oil spill oc-
B. soot from smoke cur?
C. radon A. the gulf of Mexico
D. all of these B. of the coast of Alaska
991. In the zone, the water is cool and C. off the coast of Maine
dark. D. Dallas, Texas
A. Benthic
996. Why is the loss of biodiversity a con-
B. Eutrophic cern?
C. Littoral A. Species extinctions are decreasing.
D. Plankton B. We would increase our ability to find
992. The one part of an experiment that is new plan species.
changed by the scientist is called a vari- C. Food webs do worse with more diver-
able. sity.
A. independent D. Humans rely on biodiversity for items
B. dependent such as food, medicine, aesthetics, and
C. control oxygen.
D. constant 997. Heat is transferred by this method when

two objects are in direct contact with one
993. A well-designed and well-controlled ex-
another.
periment includes:
A. Conduction
A. a testable hypothesis, one indepen-
dent variable, replicates, and a quantifi- B. Convection
able dependent variable C. Radiation
B. a testable hypothesis, several inde- D. Currents
pendent variables, one replicate, and a
quantifiable dependent variable 998. Which of the following organisms is a de-
C. a testable hypothesis, one indepen- composer?
dent variable, replicates, and several A. a plant
quantifiable dependent variables
B. a tiger
D. a testable hypothesis, a quantifiable in-
dependent variable, one replicate, and a C. a mushroom
qualitative dependent variable D. a deer

999. Which rock will most likely contain fos- 1004. Energy from sources that are constantly
sils? being formed.
A. sedimentary A. alternate energy
B. metamorphic B. geothermal energy
C. intrusive igneous rock C. hydroelectric energy

D. renewable energy
D. extrusive igneous rock
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1005. What is a major disadvantage of using
1000. As species go extinct what will happen nuclear power to generate electricity?
to the biodiversity in that ecosystem?
A. A small amount of power is produced
A. Decrease
B. No greenhouse gases are produced
B. Increase
C. The power plants are inexpensive to
C. Stay the same build
D. none of above D. The by-product of nuclear power is ra-
diation
1001. What impact does deforestation have
on the carbon cycle? 1006. Which of the following is NOT an advan-
tage of hydrogen as a source of energy?
A. increase the amount of CO2 in the at-
mosphere A. It usually produces few pollutants
B. Hydrogen is the most abundant ele-
B. decrease the amount of CO2 in the at-
ment in the universe
mosphere
C. It can be stored and transported.
C. increase the amount of photosynthesis
D. It is inexpensive to produce.
D. deforestation has no impact on the car- 1007. is the variety of life on Earth
bon cycle A. ethics
1002. In what two forms can energy enter into B. theory
an ecosystem? C. built
A. Cynicism & Xegenesis D. biodiversity
B. Photosynthesis & Luconogesis 1008. How does a bird “change its environ-
C. Photosynthesis & Chemosynthesis ment” to meet its NEEDS?
D. Chemosynthesis & Trophic Gradation A. builds a nest

B. flies around
1003. Disease causing organisms and viruses
C. catches bugs
are known as
D. looks for something to eat
A. pathogens
1009. Name the levels of ecological organiza-
B. forms of thermal pollution
tion
C. forms of chemical pollution
A. biome, ecosystem, community, popula-
D. helpful tion, individual

B. population, pie, individual, together 1015. 3-7.4 Which human activity contributes
C. together, poplutation, science, mehh the most carbon dioxide to the atmo-
sphere?

D. biocentrism, ecocentrism, anthro-
pocentrism A. fishing
B. breathing
1010. The variable is the result of an ex-
periment, and is measured by the scien- C. burning fossil fuels
tist. D. farming
A. independent
1016. Mandates the restoration and mainte-
B. dependent
nance of the chemical, physical, and biolog-
C. control ical integrity of the nation’s waters
D. constant A. Safe Drinking Water Act
1011. The accumulation, sharing of knowl- B. Clean Water Act
edge
C. Clean Air Act
A. Recreational value
D. Resource Conservation Recovery Act
B. Educational value
C. Environmental value 1017. What is one of the main concerns related
to the increase of waste materials humans
D. Ethical/moral value put back into the environment?
1012. the place where an organism lives A. creating too much pollution
A. natural environment B. using waste as compost or biofuel
B. habitat C. clearing forests for land development
C. built environment D. Monetary cost of trash disposal in
D. none of above landfills
1013. The variety of organisms living in an an 1018. The difference between biotic and abi-
environment refers to its otic is
A. Biodiversity A. biotic is anything that is or was alive
B. Risk Assessment B. biotic is anything that is or never was
C. Law of Supply and Demand alive
D. Habitat Loss C. abiotic is anything that is dead
1014. Which of the following is the manage- D. abiotic is anything that is or was alive
ment and enforcement of standards, usu-
ally controlled by various levels of govern- 1019. The human population experienced ex-
ment bureaucracy? ponential growth just after
A. Legislation A. agriculture began.

B. Management B. plowing and irrigation began.
C. Local government C. the bubonic plague began.
D. Regulation D. the Industrial Revolution began.

1020. Group of individuals or events selected 1025. What is the process of making sense of
to represent the population the results of an experiment?
A. sample A. publication
B. population B. analysis
C. risks C. communication
D. stats D. none of above
1026. What is the average Salinity in the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1021. Several of the least expensive ways to
achieve a sustainable lifestyle would in- Ocean?
clude: A. 35/100 (parts per)
A. using only renewable energy sources B. 35/1000 parts per)
B. employing water conservation and re- C. 10/35 parts per)
cycling, bicycling, and eating local pro- D. none of the above
duce
1027. Environmental science is an interdisci-
C. recycling, water conservation, and
plinary area of the study that deals with
purchasing carbon offsets
all of the following except.
D. using tidal and solar energy, recycling,
A. politics
and water conservation
B. economics
1022. What adaptation prevents phytoplank-
C. ethics
ton from sinking into deep waters?
D. all of these are correct
A. whiskers
B. streamlined body shape 1028. is when an area is disturbed due by
a natural disaster (forest fire) all of the
C. flagella plants return in a very specific order.
D. tentacles A. Primary Succession
1023. Meaning all forms of life have an inher- B. Secondary Succession
ent right to exist. C. Climax Community
A. biodiversity D. Ecological Succession
B. ecology 1029. The maintenance of human conditions,
C. ecofeminism their values, and their traditions
D. Biocentrism A. Ethical/moral value
B. Recreational value
1024. Compared with their counterparts in de-
veloped countries, individuals in develop- C. Social/cultural value
ing nations typically have a D. Educational value
A. higher standard of living.
1030. This renewable resource is often cap-
B. larger ecological footprint. tured by large panels on rooftops.
C. shorter life span. A. Wind Energy
D. greater dependence on fossil fuels. B. Solar Energy

C. Geothermal C. natural resources

D. Biomass D. renewable resources

1031. Where rivers flow into the ocean, mix-
1036. A resource is considered (thought of as)
ing fresh water with saltwater, brackish
renewable if it is
ecosystems occur which are called
A. Can be replaced in a short time
A. bogs
B. flood plains B. Takes over a million years to replace
C. estuaries C. Is made from minerals
D. limnetic zones D. Can be turned into energy
1032. How do we calculate biodiversity 1037. Primary succession would occur on a

A. total number of organisms/ number of A. meadow destroyed by a flood
different species
B. newly created volcanic island
B. total number of organisms/ total num-
ber of organisms C. section of forest destroyed by fire
C. number of different species/ total D. none of above
number of organisms
D. number of different species/ number 1038. All of the following are types of pollu-
of different species tion except
A. water
1033. Which of the following is NOT protected
or managed by regulation? B. air
A. Technology C. littering
B. Native habitat D. recycling
C. Plants and animals
D. Water 1039. Which of the following animals are car-
nivores? I Tiger II Eagle III Rabbit IV
1034. Any substance that human activity re- Chicken
leases to the environment that is harmful A. I and II
to human health or the health/functioning
of an ecosystem. B. I and IV
A. Pollution C. II and III
B. Nonrenewable resources D. III and IV
C. Water
1040. This variable is the actual data collected
D. Solar
during the experiment.
1035. Includes all the living and nonliving A. independent variable
things with which organisms interact is
called B. dependent variable
A. environment C. control group
B. natural world D. data group

1041. A dog is scratching a flea on its back. A. The waste produced lingers in the at-
The organism that is the host is the , mosphere, causing climate change.
and the is the parasite. B. Fossil fuels are difficult to pump out of
A. dog, flea the ground.
B. flea, dog C. Fossil fuels will run out eventually.
C. predator, prey D. Energy harnessed from using fossil fu-
D. none of above els can be cheap for consumers to pur-
chase and for companies to produce.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1042. What types of contaminants can be
1047. Which element might be the fuel of the
found in stormwater runoff?
future?
A. Turbid
A. oxygen
B. Snow
B. carbon
C. road salt, pesticides and animal waste
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
D. Bacteria
1048. What law restricts pollution into rivers,
1043. In temperate rain forests, trees such as lakes, oceans, and ponds.
cedars and spruces, which do not lose their
leaves at any time of year, are called A. Clean Air Act
A. coniferous B. Clean Water Act
B. succulent C. Safe Drinking Water Act

C. chaparral
D. deciduous 1049. An organism that can make its own
food
1044. may be broken down by natural pro-
A. decomposer
cesses
B. producer
A. renewable
C. consumer
B. biodegradable
D. none of above
C. ferment
D. none of above 1050. Human-centered
A. Ecocentric
1045. This type of thought gives value to all
living things. B. Eccentric
C. Anthropocentric
A. ecocentrism
D. Dysfunctional
B. biocentrism
C. anthropocentrism 1051. This gas makes up 78% of the atmo-
sphere
D. none of above
A. oxygen
1046. Electrical companies use fossil fuels to B. nitrogen
generate energy. Which of the follow-
ing would be a short term positive conse- C. ozone
quence of using fossil fuels for energy? D. carbon dioxide

1052. For a long time, Earth’s atmosphere was 1057. A resident of is likely to leave the
too toxic for life to exist. It wasn’t until largest ecological footprint.
photosynthetic blue-green algae called

A. Indonesia
that the atmosphere changed.
A. cyanobacteria B. Britain
B. extremophile fungus C. the United States

C. plants D. India
D. bacteria
1058. An oil spill off the eastern U.S coast is
1053. An underground layer of rock or sedi- an example of a(n) pollution problem.
ment that holds water A. local
A. watershed
B. regional
B. groundwater
C. global
C. permeability
D. none of above
D. aquifer
1054. When the air quality is bad, what type 1059. The United States government encour-
of alert do we receive? aged the use of cars as transportation in
part by
A. Ozone Action Day
A. building interstate highways
B. Ozone Alert
C. Air Quality Alert B. charging high gasoline taxes
D. none of above C. tax credits for automobile owners
1055. Which of the following uses solar collec- D. constructing mass public transporta-
tors to heat water? tion like subways and trains
A. passive solar heating 1060. What causes the most coastal pollution
B. active solar heating in the United States?
C. photovoltaic cells A. Overfishing
D. all of these B. Temperature changes
1056. In the second stage of the demographic C. Industrial waste and sewage
transition
D. Lakes and Ponds
A. birth rates stay high but death rates
start decreasing increasing population 1061. This warning exhibits bright coloration
size among organisms that act as signal to their
B. birth rates and death rates are both predators that they are poisonous or dis-
low so population starts decreasing tasteful.
C. birth rates and death rates are high A. warning hazard
meaning high stable population B. warning coloration
D. birth rates and death rates are de-
C. warning adaptation
creasing so population growth starts
slowing down D. cryptic coloration

1062. 6-5.8 How can the planting of new 1067. A group of organisms that are similiar
trees help reduce climate change? and reproduce to produce fertile offspring
A. Trees help create breezes. A. Species
B. Trees release moisture that cools the B. limiting factor
atmosphere. C. predator
C. Trees take in carbon dioxide from the D. parasite
atmosphere during photosynthesis.
1068. Sustainability Science is the study of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Trees block the release of greenhouse
concepts of sustainable development and
gases from soil.
.
1063. Which of the following statements is A. environmental science
true in terms of the passing of energy in B. general science
an ecosystem?
C. social science
A. soil -> bacteria -> plants -> animals
D. geo science
B. plants -> animals -> decomposers 1069. biomes have the lowest primary
production.
C. decomposers -> plants ->. animals
A. cold and dry
D. sun -> plants -> animals -> decom-
posers B. warm and wet
C. warm and dry
1064. Which of these are important sources of
drinking water in the US? D. cold and wet
A. Rivers 1070. Which of the following is not a major
B. Lakes requirement for the survival of all living
things?
C. Reservoirs
A. clothes
D. All options are correct
B. oxygen
1065. People can conserve energy in their C. nutrients
daily lives by driving a vehicle
D. energy
A. mostly for short distances
1071. . Oil refineries and gasoline stations are
B. instead of taking a bus or train both sources of
C. with a large gas tank A. particulate matter
D. that is fuel efficient B. volatile organic compounds
1066. Solar power, wind power, and water C. smog
power are good because D. all of these
A. they are expensive
1072. The removal of snags following a fire is
B. they are not powerful called
C. they don’t create much pollution A. monoculture.
D. none of above B. prescribed burn.

C. salvage logging. C. Hydropower

D. sustainable forestry. D. Biomass

1073. Which of the following was NOT listed 1078. Which worldview believes that Humans
as a component of physics? should manage the Earth, but in a more
ethical and sustainable way?
A. Water
A. Planetary management
B. Heat
B. Gross domestic product
C. Light
C. Stewardship
D. Radiation D. Environmental wisdom
1074. Which layer of the atmosphere contains 1079. What are the living and nonliving things
the ozone layer? in an environment or area?
A. troposphere A. predator
B. thermosphere B. producer
C. methosphere C. ecosystem
D. stratosphere D. abiotic factor
1075. An example of an inexhaustible re- 1080. A well tested hypothesis that explains
source would be: many scientific observations?
A. Sunlight A. question
B. data
B. Coal
C. principle
C. Iron Ore
D. theory
D. Trees
1081. What two main factors would best indi-
1076. Choose the best definition for sustain- cate quality of life of a country’s popula-
ability tion?
A. using as many resources as you want, A. The total fertility rate and the death
whenever you want rate
B. only using renewable resources and B. The crude birth rate and the crude
not using many nonrenewable resources death rate
C. The birth rate and the infant mortality
C. only using nonrenewable resources rate
and not using many renewable resources D. The life expectancy and the infant mor-
tality rate
D. using only just enough resources for 1082. A potential problem with incineration is
survival
1077. What kind of power comes from the A. reducing the volume of garbage.
movement of water? B. trash falling off conveyer belts.
A. Hydroelectric C. harmful air emissions.
B. Wind D. danger to birds flying into smokestack.

1083. This renewable resource comes from 1088. Over a given unit of time, the rate at
deep within the Earth. which plants and algae convert solar or
A. Biomass chemical energy into energy stored in the
bonds of organic sugars is called
B. Geothermal Energy
A. natural selection
C. Hydropower
B. gross primary production
D. Solar Energy
C. salinity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1084. What are three advantages of geother-
D. estivation
mal energy?
A. Eco-friendly, widely available, creates 1089. Which of the following activities has a
jobs positive effect on the environment?
B. Cheaply utilized, no potential emis- A. recycling
sions, surface stability
B. deforestation
C. Highly efficient, extraction without fos-
sil fuels, low risk C. pollution
D. Stronger, faster, better than ever D. none of above
1085. One important scientific habit of mind, 1090. 10 Invasive species have a negative im-
the ability to think of new ideas, called pact on
A. Intellectual honesty A. the ecosystem
B. Curiosity B. the economy
C. Imagination C. Both the ecosystem and the economy
D. Skepticism D. None of these
1086. What mainly distinguishes nekton from 1091. Which country is most likely to have ei-
benthos? ther a stabilized or a slowly growing pop-
A. One lives in a freshwater ecosystem ulation?
and the other lives in salty water. A. India
B. One swims freely and the other often
B. Canada
lives attached to a hard surface
C. Mexico
C. One is a predator and the other is a
primary producer D. Pakistan
D. All of the above
1092. The boundary between the zone of aer-
1087. Water hardness is a measurement of ation and the zone of saturation in an
the amount of in a water sample. aquifer is
A. dissolved minerals A. ecology

B. sediment B. urban zone
C. bacteria C. water table
D. chlorine D. wind farm

1093. This historical event led to exponential 1098. The pattern of air during thermal inver-
growth of the human population sion is

A. industrial revolution A. warm- cold- warm
B. agricultural revolution B. cold- warm- cold
C. dust bowl C. there is no pattern, it is only cold
D. revolutionary war D. none of above
1094. Restrictions pollution into the atmo-
1099. Which zone of an aquatic ecosystem
sphere.
tends to have the highest temperatures?
A. photic zone
B. Clean Water Act
B. aphotic zone
C. Clean Air Act
C. benthic
Act D. all have roughly the same tempera-
tures
1095. More- Developed Countries are
1100. VOCABULARY: The number of individu-
A. industrialized with high average in-
als in a population per unit of area.
come
A. Population
B. industrialized with low average in-
come B. Population Density
C. have high poverty rates C. Invasive Species
D. have low ecological footprints D. Predation
1096. Visible light reaches Earth’s surface 1101. How much energy is available to be
while infrared light is trapped as heat. passed on to the next trophic level in an
Which characteristic of Earth’s atmosphere ecosystem?
causes this to happen?
A. 100%
A. the hole in the ozone
B. 10%
B. the greenhouse effect
C. 50%
C. atmospheric pressure
D. 75%
D. the inversion layer
1097. An example of an observation would be 1102. If the number of births in a population is

the same as the number of deaths in a pop-
A. Using your opinion to tell someone ulation, what will happen to the growth of
they’re wrong the population?
B. Using your sight to watch dolphins A. It will increase.
swimming
B. It will decrease.
C. Using your friends to help you with an
experiment C. It will stay the same.
D. Using your experiment to make money D. It will fluctuate.

1103. What is the name of the Georgia State B. Stratosphere

Tree? C. Meteorological conditions
A. Live Oak
D. Thunderstorms
B. Pine Tree
C. Magnolia 1109. Earthquakes create vibrations called
seismic waves. What is a characteristic of
D. Peach Tree S waves?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1104. Producers are also A. The cause large waves in the ocean.
A. heterotrophs B. They cause the ground to roll like
B. autotrophs ocean waves.
C. fungi C. They arrive after P waves
D. none of above D. They move the ground only up and
down.
1105. Compounds that produce (H+) hydrogen
ions in a solution and ranges from 0-6.5 1110. Which of the following is an adverse
on the pH scale health effect from air pollution?
A. acid A. allergic reactions
B. base B. bronchial inflammation
C. neutral C. eye and lung irritants
D. none of above D. All of these are correct
1106. Which of the following examples would 1111. Claire is estimating the portion of his
be undergoing primary succession? ecological footprint that arises from the
A. an abandoned potato farm food she eats. What property of the food
B. a coastal grassland damaged by a hur- should she measure?
ricane A. its cost to Claire or her family
C. rocks in a national park covered by B. the carbon dioxide that its production
mosses and lichen adds to the atmosphere
D. none of above C. the total area of land or water re-
sources that is needed to provide and
1107. is a branch of philosophy that in-
transport the food
volves the study of good and bad, right
and wrong. D. the total volume of fossil fuels, fer-
A. Ecology tilizer, fresh water, and other resources
that are needed to provide the food
B. Environmental
C. Ethics 1112. This term means change over time.
D. Biology A. Mutation
B. Evolution
1108. Which of the following is known to
cause poor air quality? C. gene
A. Mesosphere D. extinction

1113. This is the process by which primary pro- 1118. Which government agency is responsi-
ducers use sunlight to convert carbon diox- ble for enforcing laws such as the Clean
ide and water into sugars, releasing oxy- Air Act and Clean Water Act?

gen along the way. A. The FDA
A. Photosynthesis B. The IRS
B. Cellular respiration C. The EPA
C. Eutrophication D. The NRA
D. Decomposers
1119. Ecologists studying the ecosystem in
Lake Lanier notice an increase in the
1114. Rivers and streams are types of
amount of phytoplankton. Scientists test
freshwater ecosystems.
the water and find samples are high in ni-
A. standing trogen, a nutrient found in common lawn
B. flowing fertilizer. This is an example of
C. stagnant A. point-source pollution.

B. non-point source pollution.
D. diverse
C. thermal pollution.
1115. Which of the following is NOT a main D. none of above
use of fuel?
A. transportation 1120. Globally, the leading cause of biodiver-
sity loss is
B. manufacturing
A. invasive species
C. heating and cooling buildings
B. poaching and overharvesting
D. cooking
C. pollution
1116. To protect the country’s water bodies D. habitat change and loss
from pollution from land-based sources.
1121. 6-8.8 Sprawl increases carbon dioxide
A. Philippine Environmental Impact State- emissions by
ment System of 1978
A. generating more factories.
B. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
B. increasing the need to drive.
C. Philippine water act of 2004
C. resulting in more tree growth.
D. Climate Change Act of 2009
D. expanding the use of public transporta-
tion.
1117. The differences observed between con-
trol groups and experimental groups can 1122. A procedure used to test a hypothesis
help identify relationships would be known as a
A. Cause-and-effect A. experiment
B. Inverse-and-converse B. guess
C. Conditional C. conclusion
D. Unconditional D. theory

1123. A large area of cropland seeded with 1128. Population describes how a popula-
one crop is a(n) tion is clumped, spatially.
A. monocultre A. size
B. polyculture B. density
C. organic practice C. distribution
D. traditional farming technique D. transition
1129. is the undesired change in air, wa-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1124. The environment effects of an individual
or population based on the amount of land ter or soil the adversely affects the health,
and water needed for raw materials and survival or activities of humans or other
for disposing of or recycling their waste. organisms.
A. fossil fuel A. Biodiversity
B. ecological footprint B. Pollution

C. Resource Depletion
C. sustainability
D. Loss of Biodiversity
D. natural resource
1130. A condition that cannot continue at its
1125. Select the best definition for the term current rate.
sustainable.
A. Unsustainability
A. able to meet the current demand for a
resource without depleting the future sup- B. Commons
ply C. The Law of Unintended Consequences
B. the amount of a product or service of-
fered for sale at a given price D. none of above
C. the amount of a product or service peo- 1131. is a branch of philosophy that in-
ple will buy at a given price if free to do so volves the study of behavior- good and
bad, right and wrong
D. upsetting the ecological balance by de- A. ethics
pleting natural resources B. hypothesis
1126. Biodiversity refers to C. data
A. extinct species D. variable
B. the variety of species on Earth 1132. This law aims to merge environmental
C. nonrenewable resources protection with economic pursuits recog-
nizing the re-orientation of the commu-
D. the rate of species decline
nity’s view on solid waste, thereby provid-
1127. Nearly all nutrients present in tropical ing schemes for waste minimization, vol-
rain forests are contained in the ume reduction, resource recovery utiliza-
tion and disposal.
A. soil.
A. RA 9003-ECOLOGICAL SOLID WASTE
B. epiphytes. MANAGEMENT ACT OF 2000
C. emergent layer. B. RA 9512- ENVIRONMENTAL AWARE-
D. trees, vines, and other plants. NESS EDUCATION ACT

C. PD 1586-ESTABLISHING AN ENVIRON- 1137. Percentage of Earth’s water that is

MENTAL IMPACT STATEMENT SYSTEM freshwater
A. 3%

D. RA 8749-PHILIPPINE CLEAN AIR ACT
B. 27%
1133. As the human population grows, re-
sources C. 68%
A. decrease D. 97%
B. increase 1138. All of these fields of study contribute to
C. stay the same environmental science except
A. linguistics.
D. increase, then decrease
B. biology and earth sciences
1134. In the first stage of the demographic
C. social sciences
transition
D. physics and chemistry
A. birth rates stay high but death rates
start decreasing increasing population 1139. Plankton from the of the marine
size food web.
B. birth rates and death rates are both A. top
low so population starts decreasing B. base
C. birth rates and death rates are high C. middle
meaning high stable population D. none of above
D. birth rates and death rates are de-
creasing so population growth starts 1140. Each of the following is an abiotic factor
slowing down in the environment EXCEPT
A. temperature
1135. What is the name of the Georgia State
B. soil
Reptile
C. sunlight
A. Gator
D. plant life
B. Gopher Tortoise
1141. Which worldview takes perspective
C. Rat snake
that humans should manage the Earth’s re-
D. Beaver sources to achieve maximum benefits?
1136. Many power plants use water from A. Stewardship Worldview
rivers in the process to generate electric- B. Environmental Wisdom Worldview
ity. Although much of this water is recy- C. Planetary Management Worldview
cled, some is returned back to the river at
a higher temperature., changing the habi- D. none of above
tat for organisms that live there. Which 1142. The largest watershed in the United
type of pollution is this? States is the
A. Nutrient A. Rio Grande
B. Bacterial B. Colorado River
C. Thermal C. Yukon River
D. none of above D. Mississippi River

1143. The number and variety of a species that A. computers

live in a given area is the B. machines
A. Variability C. animals
B. community D. plants
C. species
1148. As they flow down a mountain to flatter
D. biodiversity ground, rivers generally become
A. wider
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1144. Which of the following identifies the lay-
ers of the atmosphere in correct order, be- B. warmer
ginning with the lowest layer?
C. slower
A. mesosphere, thermosphere, strato- D. All of the above
sphere, troposphere
B. thermosphere, stratosphere, tropo- 1149. A material or energy that is formed
sphere, mesosphere slower. Not able to be replaced in a short
amount of time. Ex: oil, gas, coal
C. troposphere, stratosphere, meso-
sphere, thermosphere A. Environmental ethics
D. troposphere, mesosphere, thermo- B. Natural Resources

sphere, stratosphere C. Renewable Resources
D. Non-Renewable Resources
1145. Why are Americans warned to avoid
drinking the water when visiting develop- 1150. What does a close system mean?
ing countries?
A. Only things can enter but not leave
A. Water in developing countries is discol-
B. Only things can leave but not enter
ored.
C. Nothing can enter or leave
B. Water in developing countries is com-
posed of different elements. D. Things can enter or leave at will
C. Water in developing countries may be 1151. Which one of the choices below is NOT
minimally treated and could cause illness. a cause for global warming?
A. Having too many farm animals
D. Water in developing countries con- B. Burning Fossil Fuels
tains large amounts of chlorine from over
treatment. C. Planting new trees
D. Industrialization
1146. What is the main qualification of a hy-
pothesis? 1152. Which law is a framework to conserve
and protect endangered and threatened
A. It’s testable
species and their habitats?
B. It’s a question
C. It’s educated
B. Resource Conservation and Recovery
D. Stop asking me question s Act (RCRA)
1147. During the Agricultural Revolution, C. Clean Water Act
provided power. D. Endangered Species Act

1153. Industrial Revolution? C. oil

A. large cities where food/good where D. soil

mass produced, causing pollution to the
environment 1158. Which of the following is a major source
of biomass fuel in developing countries?
B. small family groups who hunted and
gathered their food, moving on before A. wood
they used all the resources
B. dung
C. small communities who produced their
C. corn
own food, causing fragmentation of their
environment D. both of wood and dung
D. none of above
1159. Mosses use to anchor themselves to
1154. Catalytic converters, scrubbers, and rocks near churning river headwaters
electrostatic precipitators are examples of A. flagella
A. technologies used to treat sick build- B. rhizoids
ing syndrome
C. hooks
B. technologies used to counteract the
effects of acid precipitation on aquatic D. algae
ecosystems
1160. Which of the following descriptions of
C. technologies used to capture radon hybrid cars is correct?
gas
A. hybrid cars do not use gasoline en-
D. technologies used to control pollution gines
emissions
B. hybrid cars haver not been made yet
1155. A natural resource that is formed much
C. hybrid cars are energy efficient
more slowly than we use it is called
D. hybrid cars rely on biomass fuel
A. sustainable
B. ecological 1161. 1-9.3 Increase in which gas is primar-
C. nonrenewable ily responsible for increased global warm-
ing?
D. renewable
A. Carbon dioxide
1156. Scrubber
B. Water vapor
A. primary pollulant
C. Methane
B. secondary pollulant
D. Nitric oxides
D. pollution control 1162. Living part of an ecosystem.
A. abiotic factor
1157. Which of the following is ALWAYS a non-
renewable natural resource? B. biotic factor
A. wind C. niche
B. fresh water D. habitat

1163. Elements of Environment are 1169. The climate, air, water, soil, and living
A. Physical elements organisms are all part of the
B. Biological elements A. population

C. Cultural elements B. community
D. All of these C. environment
1164. Organisms that create their own energy D. species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
from sunlight or chemicals
1170. Tidal power, hydrogen fuel cells, and
A. Herbivore ocean thermal energy conversion are
B. Omnivore sources of
C. Autotroph A. alternative energy
D. Heterotroph B. geothermal energy
1165. Landforms include C. nonrenewable energy
A. aquifers. D. hydroelectric energy
B. tectonic plates.
1171. Hydrogen could be used as a fuel source
C. mountains. in the future because it
D. all of the above. A. is used in fuel cells
1166. When one large nucleus is split into two B. can be burned as fuel
smaller nuclei, the process is nuclear
C. is abundant
A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Tracing 1172. Match the Definition: These bees are
D. Decay males. Their job is to mate with the Queen
bee so she will lay eggs that make more
1167. 5 It refers to the removal of salt from bees!
ocean water A. Drone Bees
A. dam
B. Worker Bees
B. reservoir
C. Queen Bee
C. salination
D. none of above
D. desalination
1173. The Tragedy of Commons describes
1168. are resources that continue at the
same rate into the foreseeable future. A. what a tragedy common areas are
A. sustainable resources B. how we abuse resources that are
B. independent resources shared.
C. dependent resources C. A Shakespearean play
D. natural resources D. none of these

1174. What term best describes a social move- C. shift in the use of fossil fuels
ment dedicated to protecting the natural
D. growth of cities
world from undesirable changes brought

about by human actions? 1179. How can fishing be an example of the
A. ecological footprint tragedy of the commons?
B. environmentalism A. fishing companies compete for the
C. the environment shared resource and extract it unsustain-
ably
D. environmental science
B. decreasing fish populations cause de-
1175. Which scenario shows positive environ- creases in predator populations
mental ethics being practiced?
C. the fish industry’s collapse would lead
A. Johnny threw his banana peel into the
to job losses
grass everyday as he walked to school
since he figured it was decomposable D. fish farming uses selective breeding
B. Herald carpooled to work with a friend
1180. Which biome would have the highest net
that lived next to him since they both
primary production?
worked in the same area
C. Susie threw trash in the recycling bin A. savanna
to save herself a couple steps since the B. boreal forest
trash can was further away
C. coral reefs
D. none of above
D. desert
1176. A bog is a wetland that
A. is entirely covered in thick, floating 1181. Which of the following factors that in-
mats of vegetation fluence the value of fuels is most directly
related to the environmental consequences
B. has shallow water and tall, grasslike of the fuel’s use?
plants
A. byproducts
C. has shallow water and woody shrubs
and trees B. availability
D. has mostly salt water C. cost
1177. Any natural material that is used by hu- D. energy content
mans is called a
1182. Ecosystem services can be provided by
A. natural resource.
agroecosystems. These services help to
B. agriculture. support production of agricultural products.
C. animal domestication Which of the following belongs to the ser-
vices by agroecosystem?
D. consumption
A. water quality degradation
1178. The was not a direct result of the
Industrial Revolution. B. habitat loss
A. overhunting of large mammals C. Soil enhancement
B. improved quality of life D. Pest damage

1183. A social movement dedicated to protect- C. area of low oxygen and abundunce of
ing the natural world, including people, agae due to pollution
from undesirable changes brought about D. none of above
by human actions.
A. The environment 1189. Adding data and dividing it by the num-
ber of objects
B. environmental science
C. enviromentalism A. mean
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. natural resources B. mode
C. median
1184. The protection of natural resources
D. stats
A. Social/cultural value
B. Educational value 1190. A compound made of three oxygen
C. Environmental value atoms is called
D. Recreational value A. acid rain

B. smog
1185. The variable that is changed on purpose
is: C. ozone
A. Control D. carbon dioxide
B. Dependent
1191. The most energy-efficient vehicles avail-
C. Independent able today are
D. Outcome A. cars with gasoline engines.
1186. In which country is the population likely B. hybrid cars.
to be increasing most rapidly? C. fuel cell cars.
A. Kenya
D. cars that use biomass fuel.
B. Germany
1192. New nuclei and neutrons result from
C. Australia
D. Norway A. nuclear fusion.
B. the release of electrons from a posi-
1187. Which of these properties is measured tively charged atom.
on the pH scale?
C. the splitting of an atom’s nucleus.
A. acidity
D. the splitting of an atom’s neutron.
B. hardness
C. salinity 1193. Why do we not have more nuclear
D. dissolved oxygen power plants?
A. It doesn’t produce a lot of electricity
1188. El nino is?
B. risk of radioactive leaks
A. warming of the pacific ocean, near the
equator C. we are running out of uranium
B. cooling of pacific ocean, near the equa- D. we are using the uranium for bombs
tor instead of energy

1194. Which is most likely to happen after C. its salinity

clearcutting a forest?
D. universal solvent

A. a decrease in runoff volume
1200. the study of how humans interact with
B. a decrease in water temperature
the environment
C. an increase in topsoil depth
A. biology
D. an increase in nitrates in local streams
B. chemistry
1195. Renewable energy is energy from C. environmental science
sources that
D. algebra
A. are not used up faster than they are
formed 1201. What does ecological footprint mea-
B. will take years to deplete sure?
C. humans can manufacture A. How the quantity of natural resources
D. were once living organisms humans need compare to the earth’s ca-
pacity to provide those resources
1196. Environmental science applies to all of B. The size of cities across the world
the following EXCEPT
C. The amount of fossil fuels that are
A. How the natural world works burned for energy
B. How much greenhouse gas is pro-
D. The shoe size of the average human
duced
C. How our environment affects us 1202. Modern understandings of sustainable
development hold that sustainability oc-
D. How we affect our environment
curs when:
1197. High blood pressure and stress are both A. biodiversity resources exceed human
human health effects linked to demand
A. smog B. external costs are factored into the
B. air pollution value of all converted ecosystems
C. light pollution C. environmental goals overlap with so-
D. noise pollution cial and economic goals, achieving a triple
bottom line
1198. Which is not an ocean? D. all economic costs of altering, devel-
A. Atlantic oping, and maintaining converted ecosys-
B. Pacific tems are taken into consideration
C. American 1203. A testable explanation that is based on

D. Southern observations and research is known as a
A. Conclusion
1199. The three properties of water that make
it unique include all, EXCEPT: B. Variable
A. cohesion C. Hypothesis
B. resistance to temperature changes D. Control

1204. Which terms best describe het- 1209. The ozone layer occurs naturally in what
erotrophs? layer of the atmosphere?
A. Plants; producers A. Troposphere
B. Animals; producers B. Stratosphere
C. Plants; consumers C. Mesosphere
D. Animals; consumers D. Thermosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1205. The arrows in a food chain or web rep- 1210. Scientist believe that there have been
resents what? mass extinctions, and we are currently
A. They point to the organism that is be- creating the ?
ing eaten. A. 3, 4
B. It shows how sunlight flows within an B. 4, 5
ecosystem.
C. 5, 6
C. They show what direction the energy
is flowing between organisms. D. 6, 7
D. They represent how water is trans- 1211. A person holding a sign during a protest
ferred within a habitat. against cutting down trees in a forest
would be considered a(n)
1206. The uppermost layer of an aquatic
ecosystem, where there is enough sunlight A. ecological footprint
for photosynthesis, is called the B. environmental scientist
A. benthic zone C. peer reviewer
B. photic zone D. environmentalist
C. aphotic zone
1212. Food Chain
D. stream
A. Organisms that make their own food
1207. A rock containing iron turns red as its
B. path of energy as it moves from one
surface is exposed to air and water over
organism to another
time. This is an example of
C. System of several overlapping food
A. physical weathering
chains
B. chemical weathering
D. none of above
C. decomposition
D. primary succession 1213. The human population has grown from 1
billion in the 1800s to more than billion
1208. Groundwater depletion can occur from today.
A. pollution A. 2
B. drought B. 6
C. runoff C. 9
D. leaking D. 12

1214. How did the Himalaya Mountains 1219. Which of the following statements helps
form? to explain why fresh water is a limited re-
source?

A. erosion
A. most of Earth’s water is salt water
B. convection
B. about 71 percent of Earth’s surface is
C. glacial movements
covered by water
D. colliding tectonic plates
C. most of Eath’s fresh water is not liquid
1215. Which of these is not an example of a water usable by humans
commons? D. both (a) and (c)
A. Air 1220. As global temperature rises precipita-
B. Privately owned farms tion
C. Ocean A. increases
D. Rivers B. deceases
C. remains the same
1216. What is the difference between swamps
and freshwater marshes? D. can no longer be measured
A. swamps have deep water, but 1221. A region of land that drains into a river.
marshes have shallow water
A. water reclamation
B. swamps have mostly woody shrubs
B. watershed
and trees, but marshes have mostly
grasses C. aquifer
C. swamps usually have saltwater, but D. irrigation
marshes have fresh water
1222. Which one of the following environmen-
D. swamps have lots of wildlife, but tal issues can be considered the primary
marshes do not cause of all the others?
1217. Carnivore A. Increasing resource use
A. an animal that feeds on plants B. Destruction of habitat
B. an animal that feeds on both plants C. Premature extinction

and animals D. Human population growth
C. an animal that feeds on animals 1223. When did congress creat the National
D. none of above park Serves
A. 194
1218. This group in an experiment does not
change anything in the experimental group B. 1994
is the C. 2013
A. Independent variable D. 1916
B. Dependent variable
1224. What is one disadvantage of using wind
C. Control group power?
D. constant A. It is renewable

B. The wind is everywhere 1230. What will reduce population growth?

C. It is not always windy A. decreasing literacy and women having
D. none of above more children
B. starving some people and taking away
1225. Many individuals of the same species necessities of life
living together in a defined area form
C. more people in cities with large fami-
A. A population lies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. A community D. increasing literacy, education, and ac-
C. An ecosystem cess to healthcare as well as economic
D. none of above stability
1226. Plant material, manure, and wood 1231. An area in which fresh water from
a river mixes with salt water from the
A. biomass fuel ocean
B. fuel cell A. Mangrove Swamp
C. active solar heating B. Estuary
D. none of above C. Marshes
1227. What type of symbiosis?* The plover D. Wetland
picks and eats scraps of meat from the
crocodile’s teeth.* The crocodile gets a free 1232. What type of urban pollution is a result
teeth-cleaning! of smoke and fog produced from industrial
pollutants and fossil fuels?
A. commensalism
A. acid rain
B. mutualism
B. smog
C. parasitism
C. ozone depletion
D. predation
D. none of above
1228. Which of the following forms of renew-
able energy uses the sun’s energy most di- 1233. What layer of the atmosphere do we
rectly? live in?
A. biomass fuel A. Stratosphere
B. passive solar heatin B. Troposphere
C. geothermal energy C. ionosphere
D. a hydrogen fuel cell D. none of above
1229. The process of making sense of the re- 1234. Radiation, conduction, and convection
sults of an experiment is called are the three main methods of
A. variable A. calculating relative humidity
B. analysis B. modeling climate
C. natural C. measuring air pressure
D. habitat D. transferring heat

1235. Since the year 2000, May 23 has 1240. An abiotic factor affecting another abi-
been observed worldwide to bring atten- otic factor would be
tion and increase knowledge of a cer-

A. rainfall causing erosion of a mountain
tain species of marine animal. These
are reptiles under the order Testudines B. rainfall giving water to an insect
and are one of the oldest living animal C. a stone being pushed by an insect
groups, having lived alongside the early
dinosaurs. Easily identifiable by the carti- D. the migration of birds
laginous carapace they have, their biggest
threat has been commercial fishing and de- 1241. What provides the raw material for
struction of habitat. What is May 23 ob- adaptation to local conditions?
served as? A. ecosystem diversity
A. World snake day B. species diversity
B. World fish day
C. extirpation
C. World Turtle Day
D. genetic diversity
D. World marine day
1242. Which of the following is a non-point
1236. What is the definition of climate?
source of water pollution?
A. The condition of the air around the
Earth A. Effluent from a sewage treatment
plant
B. The rainforest
B. BP refiner in Indiana discharging am-
C. The pattern of weather over time
monia in a river.
D. How hot it is in a certain place
C. Runoff of pesticides from regional
1237. Which of the following offers the great- farms into the Illinois River.
est conservation of water?
D. Hot water discharges from a nuclear
A. center pivot sprinkler systems power plant.
B. LEPA sprinkler systems
1243. Time it takes carbon dioxide in the at-
C. drip irrigation
mosphere to disperse
D. flood irrigation
A. 1 day
1238. Plants are
B. 1 year
A. producers
C. 10 years
B. herbivores.
D. 100 years
C. consumers
D. omnivores 1244. Which of the following atmospheric
gasses is changing the global climate?
1239. An oil spill is an example of
A. ozone
A. point-source pollution.
B. nonpoint-source pollution. B. nitrogen
C. reversible pollution. C. carbon dioxide
D. natural pollution. D. none of above

1245. Global population is projected to be C. Humans have evolved a resistance to

about in 2050 pesticides
A. 7 billion D. Insects cannot evolve if pesticides are
B. 8 billion used.
C. 9 billion 1251. The number of individuals that a partic-

D. 10 billiion ular area can support is called the
A. Biotic Potential
1246. Which is a secondary air pollutant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Survivorshop
A. ozone
C. Community
B. carbon monoxide
D. Carrying Capacity
C. particulate matter
1252. What is NOT a way to conserve en-
D. nitrogen oxides
ergy?
1247. What happens to plastics in the ocean? A. Take a short shower instead of a long
A. they breakdown quickly in 5-10 years one.
B. they breakdown slowly 10-50 years B. Turn off the lights when leaving a room.
C. they take hundreds of years to break
down C. Recycle old newspapers and drink
cans.
D. they never really breakdown
D. Driving a car instead of riding a bike.
1248. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of a natural resource? 1253. 3 The largest watershed in the United
States is
A. Coal
A. Mississippi River
B. Sunlight
B. Delaware River
C. Timber
C. Colorado River
D. Plastic
D. Cooper River
1249. Which layer of the atmosphere helps us
1254. A snake is eaten by a hawk. The hawk
by burning up incoming meteors?
is the
A. exosphere
A. prey
B. troposphere
B. parasite
C. mesosphere
C. predator
D. thermosphere
D. all of these
1250. How is pesticide resistance related to
1255. Region where strongest and earliest
evolution?
global warming impacts have occurred
A. Humans have used chemicals to con- A. polar
trol pests which has now made them re-
sistant to insecticides. B. temperate
B. Using the wrong insecticide has made C. tropical
insects stronger D. sub-tropical

1256. The environment is all living and C. all types of organisms living in the
nonliving things in nature. same place

A. natural D. all members of the same species
B. biology
1262. All of the living AND non-living things in
C. oxygen an particular area is called a(n):
D. variable A. ecosystem
1257. What best identifies a biome? B. house
A. exists in limited regions of the world C. community
B. contain two ecosystems, hence the D. mountain
name biome
1263. What % of freshwater is on Earth?
C. usually described by their vegetation
A. 97%
B. 71%
1258. The energy in most ecosystems origi-
C. 3 %
nally comes from
D. 1 %
A. green plants.
B. wind. 1264. The container is filled to the 350 mL
C. the sun. mark with water.
D. All of the above A. observation

B. inference
1259. the variety of life on Earth
C. problem
A. biodiversity
D. hypothesis
B. natural environment
C. built environment 1265. In an experiment, a scientist adds fertil-
izer to one pond in order to compare the
D. none of above
algae growth to a pond that does not re-
1260. Most trees in tropical dry forests are ceive fertilizer. The amount of algae that
which means they lose their leaves grows would represent a(n)
and stop photosynthesis during part of the A. model
year.
A. coniferous
C. independent variable
B. deciduous
D. prediction
C. elms
D. fir trees 1266. How does density play a role in convec-
tion currents?
1261. Which of the following best describes a
A. warm air is more dense and rises
population?
B. warm air is more dense and sinks
A. members of the same species living in
the same place at the same time C. cold air is more dense and sinks
B. all the red birds in an area D. cold air is more dense and rises

1267. What type of pollution is the result of a 1273. Which of the following is a developing
chemical reaction? nation?
A. Primary pollutant A. the United States
B. Secondary Pollutant B. France
C. Smog
C. Canada
D. Water pollution
D. Ethiopia
1268. The depletion in the Ozone layer is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
caused by: 1274. Which ecosystem has the highest level
of salinity?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrous oxide A. salt marsh
C. Methane B. brackish marsh

D. Chlorofluorocarbon C. river
1269. Photochemical smog is mostly cre- D. pond

ated when primary pollutants from vehicle
exhaust react to sunlight. 1275. What is the greenhouse effect?
A. industrial smog A. The warming of a planet due to
trapped radiation.
B. tropospheric ozone
C. smoke and soot from fire B. The cooling of Earth due to air pollu-
tion.
D. none of above
C. The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
1270. Human activity worldwide that uses the
most water D. Releasing Earth’s radiation back into
space.
A. bathing
B. agriculture 1276. Which of the following is not a result of
overconsumption?
C. industry
D. drinking A. Decrease in available natural re-
sources.
1271. Energy of motion is which type of en-
B. Increase in available natural re-
ergy?
sources.
A. Potential
C. Increase in pollution.
B. Kinetic
D. Loss of biodiversity.
C. Sound
D. Gravitational 1277. This describes the average conditions of
an area over long periods of time
1272. Erosion is most likely when the soil is
A. Weather
A. bare and exposed to wind and rain.
B. covered with grass. B. Climate
C. plowed along the contour of the land C. Temperature
D. covered with forest. D. Precipitation

1278. What does the demographic transition 1283. What characteristic do all renewable re-
model not consider? sources share?

A. immigration A. Produced by waste products of ani-
B. life expectancy mals
C. education of women B. Form underground from dead organ-
D. industrialization isms
C. Allow energy to pass through them
1279. The rise in global temperature is due in easily
part to increased amounts of gas in the
air. D. Replaced in a reasonably short time
period
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen 1284. The least productive marine ecosystem
C. methane is the
D. carbon dioxide A. open ocean
1280. The term Ecological Footprint includes B. salt marsh
A. the environmental impact of an indi- C. lake

vidual or population in terms of the total D. pond
amount of land and water required.
B. providing raw materials the individual 1285. What is the primary source of energy in
or population consumes. a ecosystem?
C. disposal or recycling of waste the indi- A. cellular respiration in plants
vidual or population produces. B. energy from minerals in the soil
D. all of the other options are correct C. fossil fuels
1281. The condition in which human needs D. solar energy
aremet in such a way that a human popula-
tion can surviveindefinitely at a standard 1286. During a temperature inversion
of living similar to the currentone is A. sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides com-
A. ecological footprint bine with water in the atmosphere
B. sustainability B. an influx of acidic water causes a rapid
C. biodiversity change in the pH of water
D. longevity C. levels of ground level ozone decrease
1282. The principle framework for national, D. pollutants are trapped near Earth’s
state, tribal, and local efforts to protect surface
air quality in the United States is found in
1287. 3O2 + UV =
A. The Clean Air Act A. 3O3

B. The Constitution B. 2O3
C. The Montreal Protocol C. 1O3
D. The congressional mandate D. 2O2

1288. Energy within the nucleus of an atom 1293. Why do shorter trees and plants that
make up the understory in tropical rain
A. Nuclear energy
forests have large, flat leaves?
B. Fossil Fuel A. to shade themselves from excessive
C. Steam sunlight
D. Nuclear reactor B. to create habitat for forest insects
C. to offer protection from the rain
1289. The uppermost layer of an aquatic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. to allow maximum surface for light ab-
ecosystem, where there is enough sunlight
sorption
for photosynthesis to occur, is called the
zone. 1294. Which of the following is NOT classified
A. limnetic as one of the 3 major threats to the envi-
ronment?
B. aphotic
A. Pollution
C. photic B. Loss of Biodiversity
D. benthic C. Resource Depletion
1290. What element makes up the ozone D. Habitat Reconstruction
layer/ 1295. Pollution that is will break down
A. 3 oxygen molecules over time. A good example would be
B. 3 carbon molecules A. Biodegradable / A styrofoam box
B. Biodegradable / Grass clippings
C. 3 hydrogen molecules
C. Persistant / An aluminum can
D. 3 nitrogen molecules
D. Persistant / Lead
1291. The volcanoes along convergent oceanic-
1296. A scientist must remain objective so
oceanic plate boundaries may form
that or personal belief does not affect
A. a hot spot their experimental results.
B. a part of the mid-ocean ridge A. bias
C. an island arc B. ethics
C. data
D. a subduction plate
D. control group
1292. What is one way you and your family
1297. The term ’biodiversity’ refers to
can help to conserve water at home?
A. The number of species living on Earth.
A. watering the garden at the hottest
time of the day
B. The number and variety of species liv-
B. using the longest cycle to wash clothes ing on Earth.
C. The number and variety of species that
C. turning off the faucet while brushing are considered renewable.
your teeth
D. The number and variety of species that
D. none of above live in an area.

1298. An idea must effectively explain a phe- C. no way to tell the rate.
nomenon, make accurate predictions in a D. faster than the past
wide range of situations, and have under-

gone extensive, rigorous testing, to be ac- 1304. What type of symbiosis?* Remora use
cepted as a scientific suckers to attach temporarily to large ma-
A. hypothesis rine animals such as sharks, manta rays,
whales, turtles, or large fish.* The shark
B. theory provides free transportation, protection,
C. ethic and dropped food and feces which the
remora feeds on. The host is not injured.
D. prediction
A. commensalism
1299. Corn can be a source of
B. mutualism
A. ethanol
C. parasitism
B. ground source heat
D. predation
C. hydropower
1305. Which of the following is NOT a world
D. photovoltaic power biome?
1300. An independent variable is A. Desert
A. the one that the scientist changes B. Forest
B. the one that is measured C. Grassland
C. the one that is not measured D. Swamp
D. the one that is not included in the ex- 1306. Sunlight falls on a semiconductor, caus-
periment ing it to release electrons, in a
1301. Open pits called are used to mine A. photovoltaic cell
stone and gravel. B. fuel cell
A. overburdens C. battery
B. cyanide heaps D. solar collector
C. quarries 1307. “Tragedy of the Commons” addresses
D. solar evaporation ponds the conflicts associated with what environ-
mental challenge?
1302. Most of the food in aquatic ecosystems
A. Preventing pollution
is produced by
B. Preserving biodiversity
A. phytoplankton
C. Curbing overpopulation
B. zooplankton
D. Protecting shared resources
C. algae
D. animals 1308. What are some threats to biodiver-
sity?
1303. Animals are becoming extinct at A. climate change, pollution, and green-
A. the same rate as the past house gasses
B. slower than the past B. there are no threats

C. fish 1314. The maximum population of a particular

D. just polutions species that an ecosystem can support in-
definitely.
1309. All of the following can limit a popula- A. limiting resource
tions growth except B. carrying capacity
A. lack of food C. population growth
B. no shelter D. density dependent factor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. drought
1315. What is conservation?
D. plenty of water A. Use something again and again
1310. The ethical theory that humans are the B. Protect and use carefully
most important thing on Earth is known as C. Turn it into something else
A. Ecocentrism D. Use less of and item
B. Envirocentrism 1316. Buildings, roads, schools and bridges
C. Humancentrism are examples of the
D. Anthropocentrism A. natural environment
B. anthropology
1311. What percentage of Earths water is
C. built environment
fresh water?
D. ecology
A. 1%
B. 1.5% 1317. Which topic would an astronomer
study?
C. 3%
A. pollution
D. 2.5%
B. galaxies
1312. is a formal way for the researcher C. mountains
to get comments and criticism from the sci- D. rain
entific community.
1318. All of the energy in an ecosystem comes
A. ethics
from
B. peer review
A. decomposers
C. hypothesis B. plants
D. data C. bacteria
1313. The vertical movement of cold, nutrient- D. sun
rich water from the ocean depths to its sur- 1319. The Industrial Revolution increased the
face is called amount of released into the air.
A. upwelling A. ozone
B. downwelling B. oxygen
C. tides C. water vapor
D. surface currents. D. carbon dioxide

1320. Student has found the following infor- A. Environmental Protection Agency
mation: * Blades of a turbine that is turned (EPA)
by water* Located near rivers and large

B. Clean Water Act
lakesWhat alternative energy source does
this information describe? C. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
A. Solar energy
D. Clean Air Act
B. Hydroelectricity
C. Biofules 1325. The water in salt marshes is saltier than
the water in marshes.
D. Wind
A. brackish
1321. Which of the following is a density inde- B. freshwater
pendent limiting factor?
C. marine
A. weather
D. estuary
B. disease
C. predation 1326. presence of abnormally high concentra-
tions of harmful substances in the environ-
D. competition ment, often put there by people
1322. A scientific hypothesis: A. Pollution
A. is a testable proposition that explains B. Pollutant
an observed phenomenon or answers a C. Water Quality
question
D. Turbidity
B. is a prediction about something that
has not yet been observed but that you 1327. Which has the least negative impact on
want to test in a controlled manner wildlife habitat?
C. includes the design of an experiment A. agriculture
that can be used in scientific inquiry B. development
D. always consists of one independent C. deforestation
variable to be measured by a scientist
D. recreation
1323. In an effort to improve crop production,
a farmer applies excess fertilizer to one of 1328. A bear eats fish out of the river
her fields. What kind of pollution is this A. mutualism
most likely to lead to when it rains? B. parasitism
A. Toxic C. predator / prey
B. Sediment D. none of above
C. Nutrient
1329. Scientists work exclusively in the
D. none of above
A. Supernatural world
1324. Which policy requires government agen- B. Natural world
cies to evaluate the impacts of a project on
the environment before proceeding with a C. Experimental world
design? D. True World

1330. All the possible feeding levels within an C. the asthenosphere

ecosystem make up D. the geosphere
A. a food chain
1336. The tragedy of the commons refers to
B. a biome
A. the productive area of Earth needed
C. a food web
B. a group of various species that live in
D. none of above
the same habitat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1331. Where do our primary air pollutants C. gathering plants that grow naturally in
come from? their surroundings
A. Vehicles D. when humans over use the resources
B. Power plants in an area
C. All of the above 1337. 4 The collection of materials that can
D. none of above be broken down and reprocessed to make
new items is
1332. Which of the following is an advantage A. composting
of nuclear energy?
B. incinerating
A. It does not produce solid waste.
C. e-waste
B. It is cost-efficient.
D. recycling
C. It poses no safety risks.
D. It does not produce air pollution. 1338. An area of land that is periodically un-
derwater
1333. Which of the following is made from the
A. Coral Reef
remains of swamp plants that lived mil-
lions of years ago? B. Marshes
A. ioron ore C. Wetland
B. natural gas D. Swamp
C. coal 1339. Worldwide areas with freshwater
D. petroleum stress in the future are predicted to
A. decrease
1334. Renewable resources include soil, fresh
water, wild animals, and B. increase
A. minerals C. stay the same
B. coal D. impossible to predict
C. timber 1340. Processes that transport water from
D. petroleum ocean to clouds
1335. Which of Earth’s spheres encompasses A. evaporation and condensation

all of Earth’s water? B. condensation and freezing
A. the hydrosphere C. precipitation and condensation
B. the atmosphere D. evaporation and precipitation

1341. Which of the following is an interaction and it should always be cleaned up by the
in which one organism benefits and the teacher.
other is harmed (+/-)?

A. spilled water
A. parasitism B. shredded paper
B. mutualism C. used gloves
C. competition D. broken glass
D. commensalism 1347. According to the webquest we did in
class, a place in which scientists are not
1342. Upstream, a river is usually cold and
finding a diverse population of organisms
flows through a shallow riverbed.
is
A. swiftly
A. the plains of Africa
B. slowly B. the sandy areas of Australia
C. parallel C. the beach in Madagascar
D. none of above D. the coral reefs in the Bahamas
1343. Acid rain impacts the environment in all 1348. When humans are able to live with a
of the following ways EXCEPT : high quality of life while not depleting non-
A. Lower water temperature renewable resources, a level of has
been reached.
B. Reduction in the number of aquatic an-
A. Sustainability
imals and plants
B. Depletion
C. Eggs that will not hatch in aquatic
ecosystems C. Desparation
D. none of above D. Overuse
1349. An estimated percent of all coral
1344. Matter that organisms require for their
reefs are threatened by human activities.
life processes are called
A. 27
A. decomposers
B. 72
B. legumes
C. 50
C. nutrients
D. 38
D. fertilizers
1350. How does the predator-prey relation-
1345. What is the top of the water-filled ship affect a population?
spaces in the ground called? A. The predators and prey are in compe-
A. Groundwater tition with each other.
B. Reservoir B. Usually either the predator or the prey
will become extinct.
C. Water Table
C. The predator species usually has expo-
D. Well
nential growth.
1346. should always be thrown in the D. The relationship controls the popula-
proper bin (and not in the regular trash) tion size of both species

1351. Results published in are the most C. 500 parts per million
respected in science because they have D. none of above
passed through a rigorous evaluation pro-
cess involving feedback from multiple 1356. Erosion is
sources. A. A body of water crashing against a ma-
A. peer-reviewed journals terial
B. web journals B. The process of naming rocks
C. The process of removing material from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. news magazines
something
D. weekly newspapers
D. Rocks
1352. Why do we use non-renewable re-
sources instead of renewable resources? 1357. Which is an example of the direct use of
fossil fuels?
A. Less Expensive
A. a nuclear reactor
B. More Energy
B. an oil-fired furnace
C. All of the above
C. a wind generator
D. none of above
D. a wood-burning stove
1353. What is the triple bottom line?
1358. What kinds of resources make up your
A. belief that companies should commit ecological footprint?
to focusing as much on social and environ-
mental concerns as they do on profits A. water and energy use
B. belief that companies should commit B. food and shelter

to focusing more on social and environ- C. clothing and transportation
mental concerns than they do on profits D. All of the above
1359. What treaty was signed to reduce the
C. belief that companies should commit
amount of chlorofluorocarbons in the atmo-
to focusing less on social and environmen-
sphere?
tal concerns than they do on profits
A. Montreal Protocol
D. none of above
B. Treaty of Versailles
1354. Most fresh water on Earth is
C. Kyoto Protocol
A. liquid
D. none of above
B. solid ice
1360. As an environmental scientist, Mike
C. gas
wants to address the issue of climate
D. none of above change. Studying which aspect will help
Mike address the issue?
1355. If 50 molecules of carbon monoxide are
detected in a volume of air containing 1 A. higher levels of ultraviolet rays reach-
million molecules, the carbon monoxide ing Earth
reading would be: B. higher number of fish eaters
A. 50 parts per million C. emission of greenhouse gases
B. 500 parts per billion D. burning of forests

1361. It has been well documented that 1366. All the living and nonliving things with
world population growth negatively im- which organisms interact is called
pacts ecosystem services. The current

A. the environment
world population is estimated to be clos-
est to: B. environmentalism
A. 3 billion C. Natural resource
B. 5 billion D. renewable natural resource
C. 7 billion
1367. United States imports from China are
D. 10 billion represented by which of the following per-
1362. Globally, MOST fresh water used by hu- centages? A. 22 percent B. 80 percent C.
mans is for 50 percent D. 25 percent
A. drinking and cooking. A. 22 percent

B. washing and home use. B. 80 percent
C. agricultural irrigation. C. 50 percent
D. electrical production. D. 25 percent
1363. All of the following sciences contribute 1368. According to the law of supply and de-
to environmental science except mand, what would occur if the supply of
A. physics oil declined and the demand remained the
B. biology same?
C. earth sciences A. .’oil prices would drop

D. linguistics B. ’oil prices would increase
C. oil usage would drop
1364. Which of the following includes only bi-
otic factors? D. oil usage would increase
A. ecosystem
1369. Layer of the atmosphere where ozone
B. habitat absorbs UV radiation
C. biosphere A. troposphere
D. population
B. stratosphere
1365. Which of the following linking women C. mesosphere
to population growth is not true?
D. thermosphere
A. Educated women find they need to
bear less children to survive 1370. Bad or Hazardous ozone is found in the
B. Educated women are aware of family
planning techniques A. troposphere
C. Educated women contribute less to
B. stratosphere
their family income
C. mesosphere
D. Educated women spend less energy on
raising children D. thermosphere

1371. Acid precipitation is formed when 1376. Which of the following is NOT a way
A. sulfur oxides or nitrogen oxides com- that humans add greenhouse gasses to the
bine in the air atmosphere?
B. sulfur oxides combine with nitrogen ox- A. The use of solar energy
ides B. The combustion of fossil fuels
C. ozone combines with automobile ex- C. Using tractors and machines in agricul-
haust tural practices.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. nitric or sulfuric acids combine with D. none of above
ozone
1377. is the study of how the natural
1372. The MAIN goal of environmental science world works, how our environment af-
is to study fects us, and how we affect our environ-
A. interaction among living things ment.
B. the study of ecosystems A. Environmentalism
C. influence/interaction of humans and B. Environmental Science
the environment
C. Biocentrism
D. none of above
D. Ecological Footpring
1373. Which gas constitutes the highest per-
centage of the atmosphere? 1378. Why does Exponential Growth in a pop-
ulation not generally last very long?
A. Oxygen
A. A population might reach its carrying
B. Nitrogen
capacity which limits its growth
C. Hydrogen
B. Resources may run out, causing the
D. Carbon Dioxide population to fall
1374. Environmental Science is concerned C. Diseases may cause the population to
about fall
A. Pollution D. All of the Above
B. Sustainable Development
1379. What are the two main causes of water
C. Biodiversity Conservation pollution?
D. All of these A. Industry along waterways and human
1375. Emma is studying the water quality in population growth
the Puget sound, her study includes many B. Deforestation along waterways and
variables. Which example is a quantita- global warming
tive data example? C. Factories and industry along water-
A. The water is acidic. ways and desalination plants.
B. The water has low sediment content. D. none of above
C. The water has a high quantity of plas-
1380. NO2 + = O + NO
tic debris.
D. The water has an average tempera- A. Water
ture of 51.9 degrees F. B. Sunlight

C. O3 1386. “Everything an organism does and

D. CH4 when it does it” (it’s job) describes an or-
ganism’s

1381. What is environment? A. tolerance.
A. everything B. community.
B. surroundings
C. character displacement.
C. objects
D. niche.
D. living things
1387. Uses sun’s energy and a semiconductor
1382. A fuel’s suitability is dependent on all to produce a very small amount of electri-
the following factors EXCEPT cal energy
A. energy content. A. Photovoltaic cell
B. cost. B. fuel cell
C. availability. C. Passive solar heating
D. magnetism. D. Active solar heating
1383. A controlled scientific experiment: 1388. Consumers
A. preferably involves collection of quan-
A. Organism the break down dead organ-
titative data over qualitative data
ism
B. is always designed to generate new
B. Organisms that make their own food
scientific hypotheses advance science
C. Organisms that get their food by eat-
C. is an activity designed to test the valid-
ing other organism
ity of a hypothesis
D. none of above
D. involves manipulating only the depen-
dent variable and measuring the indepen- 1389. What does symbiosis mean?
dent variable
A. A.living separately, no relationship be-
1384. A testable idea that attempts to explain tween 2 species
a phenomenon or answer a scientific ques- B. A.living together, close relationship be-
tion tween 2 species
A. observation
C. A.Living separately, long distance rela-
B. hypothesis tionship between 2 species
C. theory D. When one species kills and eats an-
D. idea other
1385. How much energy is passed from one 1390. Collection of data in the form of num-
trophic level to another? bers.
A. 10% A. statistics
B. 1% B. models
C. 15% C. correlations
D. 20% D. history

1391. Which of the following describes a pop- 1397. Primary convert solar or chemical
ulation that is distributed evenly across an energy into energy stored in the bonds of
area? organic sugars.
A. random A. producers
B. uniform B. consumers
C. clumped C. detritivores
D. crowded D. decomposers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1392. Oil, coal and gas 1398. What percent of water on Earth is fresh,
drinkable, and easily accessible?
A. are renewable
A. 25%
B. are called biomass
B. 20%
C. can be recycled
C. 5%
D. are non-renewable
D. <1%
1393. Groundwater is primarily used for
1399. 2-1.3 Which biome, because of its cli-
A. industrial uses mate, has the largest number of species
B. irrigation of plants and animals?
C. personal uses A. tundra
D. drinking water B. desert
1394. Made up of the solid outer layer of the C. tropical rainforest

Earth D. pine forest
A. biosphere 1400. Made up of all the water on Earth
B. lithosphere A. atmosphere
C. atmosphere B. hydrosphere
D. hydrosphere C. biosphere
1395. The Earth’s crust consists of two types D. lithosphere
the lighter continental crust and the heav- 1401. Uses low pressure and warm water to
ier located under the ocean. boil cold water
A. hydro-crust A. Ocean thermal energy conversion
B. hydrolic crust B. Fuel cell
C. oceanic crust C. photovotaic cell
D. none of above D. active solar heating
1396. A hole dug or drilled into the ground to 1402. What is the name of the Georgia State
provide a supply of water. insect.
A. watershed A. Wasp
B. desalination B. Lady Bug
C. groundwater C. Honey Bee
D. well D. Dragon fly

1403. Density independent factors are all of C. installing solar panels

the following except D. air conditioning

A. population size matters
1408. the following is a consumer
B. all members are affected in a uniform A. flower
manner
B. tree
C. pollution
C. racoon
D. more common in unpredicable environ-
D. mushroom
ments
1409. Rocks, soil, air and water are consid-
1404. The “Tragedy of the commons” de- ered to be factors.
scribes the problem between
A. abiotic
A. Short-term interests of individuals &
B. biotic
long term interests of the Earth
C. non-biotic
B. Farmers & industrialized society
D. man-made
C. Poor people & rich people
D. People & animals 1410. Today, mass extinction is going on at an
alarming rate and is principally caused by:
1405. Excessive nutrient growth in an aquatic A. Meteorites hitting the earth
ecosystem can be accelerated by
B. Human activties
A. air pollution C. Climatic change
B. runoff D. Pest and predator control
C. salt
1411. Transpiration occurs in:
D. minerals A. land plants
1406. A student hypothesized that robins pre- B. groundwater
fer large birdhouses to small ones. He C. bacteria
build four birdhouses of different sizes to
D. none of above
test his hypothesis. What was the inde-
pendent variable in the students study? 1412. Which of the following organisms would
A. The size of the birdhouse be considered a producer?
B. The number of birds in the house A. green plant
B. rabbit
C. The location of the birdhouse
C. jackal
D. The season of the year
D. wild cat
1407. When constructing a new building,
which of the following measures would 1413. A well-texted hypothesis that explains
have little impact on increasing the en- many scientific observations is a
vironmental sustainability of the building A. theory
site? B. variable
A. waste compost site C. ethics
B. recyclables all in one area D. analysis

1414. What can poison our water and air and 1419. All of the members of a particular
harm all life on earth? species that live in one area are called
a(an)
A. Burning wood for heat
A. ecosystem.
B. Space Exploration
B. population.
C. Pollution
C. community.
D. none of above
D. biome.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1415. succession occurs on a surface
1420. In the 1970’s scientists began investi-
where no ecosystem existed before.
gating the chemical reactions that caused
A. Secondary the destruction of the ozone in the upper
atmosphere. Which statement BEST de-
B. Tertiary
scribes a direct result of their research on
C. Primary society and on the environment?
D. none of above A. Global positioning technology was in-
vented. (GPS)
1416. People could reduce environmental
B. Research on a reusable space shuttle
degradation
was initiated (started/began).
A. by slowing the population growth rate C. Alternatives to ozone depleting
aerosols were invented.
B. by increasing the population growth D. Plastic bags were invented as an alter-
rate native to paper bags.
C. using more energy
1421. What is a watershed?
D. creating more carbon emissions
A. Land that collects and channels water
froma small body of water to a larger body
1417. Sustainable energy
of water
A. can not be used over time
B. the shape of the land determined by el-
B. can be used over a long period of time evation
C. A natural stream of water of consider-
C. is less efficient. able volume
D. all of the answers are correct D. a river and all its tributaries
1418. is the development that meets hu- 1422. Omnivore

man need without compromising the abil- A. an animal that feeds on plants
ity of future generations to meet their own B. an animal that feeds on both plants
needs and animals
A. sustainability C. an animal that feeds on animals
B. renewable resource D. none of above
C. nonrenewable
1423. The clearing of a forest and its replace-
D. carrying capacity ment by another land use is called

A. forestry C. exemplary in sustainable design, espe-

B. clear-cutting cially energy efficiency

D. constructed to function sustainability
C. timber harvesting
without electricity from fossil fuels
D. deforestation
1429. When neighborhood residents noticed a
1424. Cities become known as because large number of dead fish in a local creek,
they heat up and cool down faster than they traced the problem to a nearby gas
their surrounding areas. station. It turned out that a tank of gaso-
A. hot spots line had developed a leak. This is an ex-
ample of
B. heated lands
A. point-source pollution.
C. heat islands
B. non-point source pollution.
D. hot islands
C. thermal pollution.
1425. Compared to washing clothes in warm D. none of above
water, washing clothes in cold water uses
1430. The ’Tragedy of the Commons’ describes
A. much more energy
the conflict between
B. the same amount of energy
A. developing and developed nations
C. much less energy B. farmers and industrialized society
D. a little more energy C. individuals and society
1426. Earth’s early atmosphere was formed D. Canada and Mexico
by outgassing of
1431. Three groups of aquatic organisms in-
A. volcanoes clude plankton, , and benthos.
B. sea vents A. zooplankton
C. plants B. nekton
D. shelled organisms C. whales
1427. Which of the following is the first step D. crustaceans

in the experimental design process? 1432. Which of the following is quantitative
A. Make observations/ask a question data?
B. Test hypothesis with an experiment A. The dog is brown.
C. Analyze data B. The dog is a german shepherd.
D. Create a hypothesis that can be tested C. The dog is 18 in tall at the shoulder.
D. The dog belongs to Mrs. Folks.
1428. Structures given a LEED platinum rank-
ing are: 1433. Who wrote the book “Silent Spring”
A. inefficient and need to be renovated which described the changes to the envi-
and upgraded to meet green standards ronment by pesticides?
B. especially high in heavy metal content A. Hetch hetchy

B. Teddy Roosevelt

C. Bopal, India 1438. is a variable that the scientists

D. Rachel Carson changes in the experiment on purpose.
A. dependent varibable
1434. Which of the following is an example of B. independent variable
exponential growth?
C. data
A. Mold on Bread
D. resource
B. Each generation replacing themselves
1439. What are two goals that water treat-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ment plants fulfill?
C. Whales having 1-2 offpsring a year
A. Clean and disinfect the water
D. Birds laying 3-4 eggs a year
B. Boil and evaporate the water
1435. Volatile organic compounds C. Remove the animals and plants
A. are tiny particles of liquid or solid mat- D. Add chemicals and remove pesticides
terr
1440. What gas from the list below is a cause
B. are produced by chemical interactions for global warming?
between sulfur and oxygen
A. Nitrogen
C. arean odorless colorless poisonous B. Oxygen
gas
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. are organic chemicals that form toxic
D. Sulfur
fumes
1441. When organisms move out of the popu-
1436. A ratio that compares the amount of wa- lation, this is known as
ter vapor the air contains to the maximum
amount that the air could hold at that tem- A. emigration
perature is B. abandonment
A. temperature inversion C. immigration
B. radiation D. succession
C. relative humidity 1442. Layer of the atmosphere farthest to

Earth’s surface
D. convection
A. troposphere
1437. Environmental science is the study of B. stratosphere
the interaction of humans with the envi-
C. mesosphere
ronment. Which of these would NOT be
included as part of the environment? D. thermosphere
A. What the soil is made of. 1443. Which of these is an example of light
B. Animals and plants in the region and energy being transformed into chemical en-
surrounding areas. ergy?
A. A glow stick lights up when broken.
C. The average temperature, wind, pre-
cipitation, and other climate factors. B. Water heated by the sun evaporates.
D. All of these would be considered part C. A plant makes sugar in the sunlight.
of the environment. D. A battery causes a buzzer to vibrate.

1444. Nonrenewable resources 1450. The includes all the living and nonliv-
A. Solar, wind, geothermal ing things with which organisms interact.

B. There is an indefinite supply A. Economy
C. Coal, oil, natural gas, petroleum B. Ecosystem
D. Made in only a few years
C. Environment
1445. Condition in which human needs are met
D. Ecological
in such a way that a population can survive
indefinitely.
1451. Match the definition: Organisms of the
A. developed nation same group or species living in the same
B. carrying capacity area and are able to interbreed.
C. ecological footprint A. population
D. sustainability
B. ecosystem
1446. biomes have the highest net primary
C. biosphere
production.
A. cold and wet D. Symbiosis
B. cold and dry
1452. What is global warming?
C. warm and wet
A. The gradual increase in the average
D. warm and dry
global temperature due to a higher con-
1447. Wind, geothermal, and solar energy are centration of gasses, such as carbon diox-
all what type of energy resources? ide in the atmosphere.
A. cheap B. The sun streams through the atmo-
B. potential sphere and heats the Earth. Some of the
heat escapes to space while some is ab-
C. renewable
sorbed to keep Earth warm.
D. chemical
C. The gradual increase in the average
1448. What kind of organisms can become in- global temperature due to a higher con-
vasive? centration of VOCs (volatile organic com-
A. Lions, Tigers, Bears pounds) the atmosphere.
B. Plants, Animals, or Pathogens D. none of above
C. Animals
1453. What is the extended period of deep,
D. Plants
sleeplike inactivity that an animal enters
1449. Oil, iron ore and diamonds are examples for the winter?
of what?
A. hibernation
A. Renewable Resources
B. estivation
B. Nonrenewable Resources
C. Biodegradable substances C. drought
D. Biotic examples D. emigration

1454. What is an example of a nonrenewable 1459. Under the frozen ocean are vast quanti-
resource? ties of?
A. Water A. Ethane
B. Trees B. Gold
C. Paper C. methane
D. Fossil Fuels
D. iron ore
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1455. Relationship between a country’s
wealth and water use 1460. Which of the following would be consid-
ered a primary consumer?
A. more wealthy countries use less water
A. green plant
B. more wealthy countries use more wa- B. kite
ter C. snake
C. less wealthy countries use more water
D. rabbit
D. no relationship 1461. What is the definition of “Greenhouse

Effect?”
1456. 4-8.5 Genetic engineering relies on plac-
ing a gene that codes for a desired trait A. Gases that increase Earth’s tempera-
into the of a different organism from ture
the organism where the gene was origi- B. when the gases in Earth’s atmosphere
nally harvested trap heat from the Sun and keep the
A. protein planet warm
B. amino acid C. the pattern of weather that occurs
C. helix over time
D. genome D. When our climate changes
1457. Environmental science involves the fol- 1462. Which of the following is an advantage
lowing disciplines. of recycling garbage over burying waste
in landfills or incinerating trash?
A. Math, English and psycology
B. earth science, physics and Politics A. Lowers cost
C. Sports, fitness and weight training B. Saves raw materials

D. none of above C. Reduces volume by 90%
1458. Which organism in the food chain below D. Generates energy

is the producer?plant–> grasshopper –>
1463. all living and nonliving things in nature
bird –> hawk
A. plant A. biodiversity
B. grasshopper B. built environment

C. bird C. natural environment
D. hawk D. sustainable society

1464. is a region in which the organisms 1469. Information gathered in an experiment

and the physical environment form an in-
A. Hypothesis
teracting unit

B. Prediction
A. earth
C. Experiment
B. environment
C. cave D. Data
D. ecosystem 1470. A resource which will replenish to re-

place the portion depleted by usage and
1465. How did scientists determine where the
consumption, either through natural repro-
layers of the atmosphere are divided?
duction or other recurring processes is
A. a change in elements
A. biodegradable
B. a change in compounds
B. renewable
C. a change in temperature
C. constant
D. a change in ozone
D. nonrenewable
1466. Barnacles are a type of , or bottom-
dwelling organism. 1471. Bioremediation involves
A. open ocean organism A. usage of microbes to create new or-
ganisms
B. plankton
C. benthos B. usage of anaerobic bacteria to create
new antibiotics
D. nekton
C. usage of microbes to destroy environ-
1467. Which of the following is true about mental pollutants
species extinction?
D. usage of aerobic bacteria to create
A. Species extinction is a naturally occur- new vaccines
ring process.
B. The rate of species extinction can in- 1472. A field called , the study of the envi-
crease during periods of rapid environ- ronment that includes the physical, biolog-
mental change ical, and social sciences
C. The current rate of species extinc- A. ecology

tion is much faster than the normal back- B. biodiversity
ground rate.
C. environmental science
D. All of the above are true
D. natural science
1468. Something that has no pores, and does
not allow water to flow through it is 1473. Developing countries have all but which
known as of the following?
A. permeable A. lower average incomes
B. dry B. a good amount of land per person
C. impermeable C. rapid population growth
D. groundwater D. agriculture based economies

1474. A logical statement about what will hap- 1480. Preserved areas that are relatively un-
pen next altered from their original state.
A. Observation A. National Forests
B. Hypothesis B. National Wildlife Refuges
C. Prediction C. National Parks
D. Experiment D. none of above
1475. Necessary to control acid precipitation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1481. The effects of urban areas on the envi-
A. nausea ronment are
B. international agreement A. negative only.
C. pollution control B. positive only.
D. indoor air pollution C. both positive and negative.
1476. Eutrophication of a body of water is of- D. nonexistent.
ten caused by the addition of
1482. Because of their large size, proteins, nu-
A. carbon and/or proteins. cleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids are
B. lipids and/or hydrocarbons. together called
C. carbon and/or phosphorus. A. solutions
D. phosphorus and/or nitrogen. B. elements
1477. Most of Earth’s freshwater is C. macromolecules
A. under ground D. hydrocarbons
B. as a liquid on the surface
1483. what happened in 1897?
C. frozen
A. Congress passes the ForestManage-
D. in Olympic swimming pools ment Act, which names someForest Re-
serves as nationalresources for timber
1478. A branch of philosophy that involves the
harvesting, grazing, and mining.
study of behavior- good vs. bad, right vs.
wrong. B. Congress passes legislationthat estab-
A. ethics lishes SequoiaNational Park, and less
than aweek later, Yosemite and GrantNa-
B. data tional Parks.
C. peer review C. Wildlife and conservationclubs, such
D. theories as the Audubon Society, Boone & Crock-
ett Club, and SierraClub began forming
1479. Water with a salinity that is greater across America.
than freshwater but less than saltwater
is classified as D. Yellowstone Park becomesthe first na-
tional park inAmerica.
A. photic
B. aphotic 1484. how do consumers get their energy?
C. brackish A. eating other organisms
D. littoral B. breaking down dead organisms

C. makes its own food 1490. All of the following populations are
more sensitive to biological and chemical
D. none of above
hazards, EXCEPT:

1485. A is what should remain the same A. Elderly
in each trial of an experiment no matter B. Overweight
what.
C. Young
A. Independent variable
D. Immune-compromised
B. Dependent variable
1491. NON-living things found in an ecosys-
C. Constant
tem
D. Conclusion A. biotic
1486. Which of the following is NOT a B. abiotc
weather system? C. habitat
A. Hurricane D. none of above
B. Frontal systems 1492. not having enough of something
C. Mid-latitude cyclones A. scarcity
D. Temperature inversion B. abundance
C. growth
1487. Made up of the gases that surround
Earth D. none of above
A. hydrosphere 1493. Overpopulation, overconsumption, pol-
B. cryosphere lution, and loss of biodiversity are exam-
ples of
C. atmosphere
A. environmental challenges
D. lithosphere
B. pollution
1488. Precipitation that can carry pollutants C. envirnomental factors
from land into bodies of water is D. none of above
A. Benthic Zone
1494. Why can’t the Great Pacific Garbage
B. Eutrophication Patch simple be scoped up out of the
C. Runoff ocean?
A. it’s always moving
D. Nekton
B. it’s mostly tiny plastics
1489. Information gathered by using the C. it’s not easily see with the naked eye
senses
D. all of these are true
A. Prediction
1495. This describes the process by which two
B. Observation
species evolve in response to changes in
C. Experiment each other.
D. Data A. Predation

B. Coevolution 1501. Geothermal energy is

C. parasitism A. heat energy naturally produced in
earthquakes
D. herbivory
B. is heat naturally produced in space
1496. 4-2.5 The first organisms that appear in C. is heat naturally produced within Earth
an ecological community
A. ecological succession D. is heat energy naturally produced in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. primary succession the water
C. secondary succession 1502. Freshwater makes up how much of the
D. pioneer speciles Earth’s water supply?
A. 97%
1497. Which organism produces most of the
B. 75%
food in an aquatic ecosystem?
C. 25%
A. fish
D. 3%
B. barnacles
C. phytoplankton 1503. Ocean currents make the California
coast colder because the
D. zooplankton
A. currents are very salty
1498. Testable explanation for an observa- B. currents are very dry
tion C. currents are very light
A. Data D. currents are very cold
B. Prediction
1504. Which of the following would decrease
C. Experiment your carbon footprint?
D. Hypothesis A. Using less plastic bags
B. Driving alone everywhere
1499. What is being tested in an experiment?
C. Leaving water running
A. ideas
D. Leaving the lights on
B. hypothesis
C. rules 1505. When an environment has reached its
carrying capacity for a certain population,
D. none of above which of the following is true?
1500. The tundra A. Growth and immigration rate is equal

to death and emigration rate.
A. has a layer of soil that is permanently
frozen B. Growth and immigration rate is
greater than death and emigration rate
B. is resistant to environmental damage
because it is frozen.
C. Growth and immigration rate is less
C. is too cold to support insect life. than death and emigration rate.
D. All of the above D. Growth rate is exponential.

1506. Nitrogen monoxide pollution is reduced A. It is limited to only one branch of sci-
by which mechanism below? ence; ecology.

A. catalytic converter in automobiles B. Each environmental issue is specific to
B. the muffler in automobiles only one type of science.
C. the transmission in automobiles C. Multiple branches of science only (biol-

ogy, chemistry, etc) are covered.
D. the rear winds on an airplane
D. Many science and non-science fields of
1507. All of these fields of study contribute to study, such as economics and politics, are
environmental science EXCEPT: included.
A. languages 1512. Hydrogen gas could be used as a fuel
B. biology source in the future because it
C. earth science A. is abundant.
D. none of above B. can be burned as fuel.
C. is used in fuel cells.
1508. The common name for Asclepias
Tuberosa? D. All choices are correct.
A. sea turtle 1513. This type of thought judges actions in
B. pole cat terms of their benefit or harm to the in-
tegrity of the whole ecological system.
C. chrysalis
A. biocentrism
D. milkweed
B. ecocentrism
1509. Which law reduces air pollution by limit-
C. anthropocentrism
ing air emissions from stationary and mo-
bile sources? D. none of above
A. Clean Air Act 1514. Which is a social movement dedicated to
B. Resource Conservation and Recovery protecting the natural world from human
Act (RCRA) actions
C. Clean Water Act A. Environmental Science
D. Endangered Species Act B. Environmental Policy
C. Environmental Ethics
1510. Which best describes the ozone layer?
D. Environmentalism
A. Protection from ultraviolet radiation
B. Formation of severe storms 1515. Overall, our t-shirts seemed to be man-
ufactured in countries with which type of
C. Increases the amount of nitrogen in at-
gross domestic product (GDP)?
mosphere
D. Forms a magnetic field in the Meso- A. negative GDP
sphere B. Very high GDP
1511. Environmental science is an interdisci- C. low GDP

plinary field of study. This means that D. no GDP

1516. Match the definition: This is a commu- B. Philippine Toxic Substances, Haz-
nity of living organisms (plants, animals, ardous, and Nuclear Waste Control Act
microbes) and nonliving things (rocks, soil, of 1990
etc.). C. National Environmental Awareness
A. Community and Education Act of 2008
B. ecosystem D. none of above
C. biosphere 1521. Which terms best describe autotrophs?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Symbiosis A. Plants; producers
1517. What is an advantage of using natural B. Animals; producers
gas as an alternative form of energy? C. Plants; consumers
A. More needs to be burned because it is D. Animals; consumers
less concentrated
1522. The area inside the city is called
B. There is a limited supply
A. urban
C. It tends to be more expensive com-
pared to other fossil fuels B. suburban
D. It releases lower emissions compared C. rural
to other fossil fuels D. none of above
1518. Energy produced from material that 1523. a calculation of the amount of land and
comes from living organisms is known as resources needed to support one person in
A. geothermal energy a certain country.
B. biomass energy A. ecological footprint
C. electrical energy B. newsprint

C. biodiversity
D. wood energy
D. ecology
1519. After a primary succession, when all or-
ganisms in an ecosystem are destroyed or 1524. This is the study of the interaction of hu-
removed, the first species to colonize the mans and the natural environment.
fresh ecosystem is referred to as what? A. Ecology
A. The Keystone Species B. Environmental Science
B. The Pilgrim Species C. Anthropology
C. The Homesteader Species D. Geology
D. Pioneer Species
1525. The main reason for the worldwide
1520. To regulate restriction or prohibited slowdown in the construction of nuclear
the importation, manufacture, processing, power plants is that
sale, distribution, use, and disposal of A. we have run out of uranium fuel.
chemical substances and mixtures, unrea- B. the electricity from nuclear power is
sonable risk to human health. generally more expensive to produce than
A. Climate Change Act of 2009 electricity from other sources.

C. Nuclear reactors are inherently un- 1531. Environmental science is most accu-
safe. rately viewed as a science

D. nuclear reactors release large quanti- A. incorporating economics, social sci-
ties of greenhouse gases. ences, geography, and policy
1526. Loss of wetlands causes local humidity B. incorporating all the sciences, politics,
to which can reduce the wetland’s ex- economics, and social sciences
tent. C. incorporating world politics, decision
A. increase making, and the environment
B. decrease D. designed to solve environmental prob-

lems using current technologies
C. stay the same
D. vary 1532. A geothermal power plant can be used
to generate electrical energy
1527. Land that supplies water to a river sys- A. anywhere in the US
tem.
B. in areas where reservoirs of water are
A. wetlands heated inside Earth
B. watershed C. in areas where the ground stays warm
C. estuary throughout the year
D. river system D. none of above
1528. About 500 years ago, the world’s pop- 1533. Having the rate of use be equal to the
ulation started rate of replenishment for resources now
and into the future is called being
A. decreasing.
A. Sustainability
B. to reach carrying capacity.
C. growing more rapidly.
C. natural resources
D. to level off.
D. environmentalism
1529. A natural resource that is naturally
formed much more slowly than we use it 1534. Different organisms living together in
is called the same area:
A. renewable A. community
B. ecological B. population
C. non-renewable C. species
D. sustainable D. ecosystem
1530. What is abiotic components? 1535. Among the choices below, which best
defines the word ecosystem?
A. living things
A. interaction of living organism and their
B. objects non living environment
C. non - living things B. consumption of predators to their prey
D. element

C. decomposition of the carcass made by 1540. Which of this is considered to be part of

decomposer the environment?
D. all of the above A. Deer
B. Grass
1536. The world’s average ecological footprint
is about 2.7 hectares/person compared to C. Water
the U.S. average of 9.5 hectares/person. D. All of these
The world is depleting renewable re-
1541. A simple food chain is composed of corn,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sources approximately % faster than
a corn-fed chicken, and a human who eats
they can be replenished; however, the U.S.
the chicken. Suppose the corn contains
impact alone is approximately times
10, 000 energy units. How many energy
greater than the world average
units are available to the chicken from the
A. 30%;3 corn?
B. 15%;2.5 A. 10, 000
C. 30%;5 B. 1, 000
D. 30%;2.5 C. 100
D. none of above
1537. To provide the promotion of environ-
mental awareness through environmental 1542. A process using microbes to convert
education. toxic industrial wastes to less toxic or non-
toxic compounds is
A. Philippine Water Act of 2004
A. Green Technology
B. Climate Change Act of 2009
B. Bioremediation
C. National Environmental Awareness
C. Biology
and Education Act of 2008
D. Biotic Components
D. none of above
1543. uses collectors with moving parts to cap-
1538. At a convergent plate boundary where ture the sun’s energy
the plates are moving together, what is
A. passive solar heating
least likely to occur?
B. active solar heating
A. earthquakes
C. energy efficiency
B. volcanoes
D. geothermal energy
C. sea-floor spreading
1544. All of the following issues involve envi-
D. mountain building ronmental science except
1539. Forest fires produce about 40% of the A. measuring smog levels in cities.
world’s B. asking people question s about the
A. ozone cost of various resources.
C. studying the loss of plant and animal
B. carbon dioxide
species
C. sulfur dioxide
D. publishing the results of a study on fos-
D. water vapor sil fuel depletion

1545. A group of students were having a class 1549. Ozone is formed in the
discussion about how humans influence A. troposhere
the environment. Choose the person you

agree with. B. stratosphere
A. Jonathan says that “humans are de- C. mesosphere

stroying habitats and polluting the water D. thermosphere
and atmosphere.”
1550. Saltwater makes up how much of the
B. Becca says that “humans are polluting Earth’s water supply?
the water and air, but they do not destroy
habitats.” A. 97%
C. Donald says that “all of the methane B. 75%

from cows is polluting the atmosphere, C. 25%
and humans should eat less red meat.” D. 3%
D. Caitlin says that “humans are destroy-
1551. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ing habitats by building more houses and
ple of a social hazard?
stores, but since we have cleaner burning
fossil fuels they are not harming the envi- A. Poverty
ronment.” B. Power Plant worker
1546. Which of these accurately describes a C. Hurricane
developing country compared to a devel- D. Smoking
oped country?
1552. The most common source of carbon
A. Higher total fertility rate.
monoxide comes from
B. Greater resource consumption per
A. vehicles
person
B. swamp gases
C. Higher life expectancy.
C. industrial sources
D. These all describedeveloping coun-
tries. D. none of these
1547. is all the organisms that belong to 1553. When the consumption of natural re-
the same species living in a community. sources are equal to nature’s ability to re-
A. Species plenish then sustainability is
B. Community A. not sustainable
C. Population B. carrying capacity
D. Niche C. environmentally sustainable

D. steady state economy
1548. Rank of USA compared to other coun-
tries in average daily water use per per- 1554. Which ecosystems are considered stand-
son ing freshwater ecosystems?
A. lowest A. lakes
B. highest B. wetlands
C. in the middle C. ponds
D. not ranked D. all of these

1555. Which correctly states the flow of en- 1560. The Hetch Hetchy dam construction was
ergy in a food chain? one of the first debates between the an-
thropocentrist and ecocentrist environmen-
A. sun–deer–grass–coyote
tal philosophies. What decision was even-
B. deer–grass–sun–coyote tually made regarding the dam?
C. sun–grass–deer–coyote A. A dam was built in another location
D. sun–grass–coyote–deer that was not a National Park
B. The dam was built in the Hetch Hetchy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1556. Match The Definition: Activities that valley
prevent the amount of pollution made by
C. A dam was constructed, then later re-
people. It can be done through consumer
moved
consumption, driving, or industrial produc-
tion. D. No dam was constructed; San Fran-
cisco had to find another source of fresh
A. pollution prevention
water.
B. hybrid vehicle
1561. A particular sub-species is known as the
C. nonpoint source ‘Western Lowland’ and is found in cen-
D. ozone tral Africa. Unfortunately critically endan-
gered. Their scientific name is unique as it
1557. What is the source of the energy that is the same word thrice (trinomial nomen-
drives air movement in the troposphere clature). What is the scientific name of this
and influences weather and climate? sub-species.
A. ocean A. Gorilla gorilla gorilla
B. volcanoes B. Ape ape ape
C. ozone layer C. Monkey monkey monkey
D. sun D. gorilla gorilla gorilla
1558. The place where an organism lives is 1562. Made up of the living things on the
called Earth
A. natural environment A. biosphere

B. lithosphere
B. habitat
C. atmosphere
C. built environment
D. troposphere
D. none of above
1563. Is the practice of growing, breed-
1559. Which of the following did not happen ing, and caring for plants and animals that
as a result of the Industrial Revolution? are used for food, clothing, and other pur-
A. The world’s population decreased. poses
B. The world’s population increased. A. Ecology
C. More goods and services became B. Environmental science
available. C. Agriculture
D. Pollution increased. D. Biodiversity

1564. What is sustainability? 1569. The ability to self-correct and improve.

A. diversity among plant and animal A. Biocentrism

species B. Ecocentrism
B. harmful substances or products in the C. Anthropocentrism
environment
D. Environmentalism
C. to take care of or control the environ-
ment 1570. Which of the following is NOT a type of
consequence to consider when making an
D. materials that occur in nature and can environmental decision?
be used for economic gain
A. Short term positive
1565. What is a social movement or aware- B. Long term negative
ness dedicated to protecting the natural C. Long term positive
world?
D. Distance future negative
A. Environmental Science
1571. Relationship in which individuals or pop-
B. Environment ulations attempt to use the same resource
C. Environmental ethics A. predation
D. Environmentalism B. parasitism
C. competition
1566. Restricts pollution into rivers, lakes,
oceans, and ponds D. mutualism
A. Safe Drinking Water Act 1572. science is the interdisciplinary field
B. Clean Water Act that includes both scientific and social as-
pects of human impact on the world
C. Clean Air Act
A. Earth
B. Environmental
Act
C. Biological
1567. A rabbit that eats a plant is a D. Physical
A. second order consumer 1573. is the water that collects in spaces
B. herbivore and soil UNDERGROUND.
C. producer A. Soil water
D. none of above B. Groundwater
C. under pools
1568. All the organisms in a given area along
D. ice caps
with their physical environment is a(n)
A. biosphere 1574. A symbiotic relationship that involves
species having to fight for something they
B. population both need or want
C. ecosystem A. competition
D. biome B. predation

C. commensalism B. fitness
D. parasitism C. speciation
1575. A theory may eventually become a D. evolution

A. hypothesis 1581. What is the most plentiful fossil fuel?
B. principle A. Oil
C. question B. Natural Gas
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above C. Petroleum
1576. All the living and non-living things that D. Coal
interact in an area
1582. The probability of an unwanted outcome
A. Ecosystem is
B. community A. gambling
C. Natural Selection B. insurance
D. Symbiosis C. risk
1577. Birds eat the flies off of a rhino’s back D. my grades
in the savannah
1583. To help them survive in the tundra, cari-
A. commensalism bou have various adaptations, such as
B. Mutualism A. thin coats of fur to prevent overheating
C. parasitism
D. none of above B. wide hooves for travel on mud and
snow
1578. The variety of life in the world, a habi-
tat, or an ecosystem C. a diet that consists mostly of decidu-
ous tree leaves
A. biodiversity
D. the ability to hibernate
B. ecosystem
C. mutations 1584. An example of an renewable resource
would be:
D. diversity
A. Sunlight
1579. Which of these factors does NOT affect
B. Coal
population growth?
C. Iron Ore
A. educating women
D. Trees
B. poverty
C. statistics 1585. water that flows over land and has not
been absorbed into the ground.
D. policy
A. runoff
1580. What is the term scientists use to de-
scribe how reproductively successful an or- B. surface water
ganism is in its environment? C. watershed
A. adaptation D. river system

1586. The was the time period when hu- condense into liquid water and clouds are
mans began to farm and raise animals. formed

A. hunter-gathering period A. Condensation
B. Industrial Revolution B. Evaporation
C. Agricultural Revolution C. Transpiration
D. none of above D. Interception
1587. This describes the ratio of water vapor 1592. All of the following are true of density
the air contains to the maximum amount it dependent factors except
could have at a particular temperature. A. death occur more quickly in a crowded
A. Condensation population
B. Precipitation B. disease is an example
C. Relative Humidity C. population size determines the impact

of the factor
D. Altitude
D. natural disasters are an example
1588. A kind of forest that consist of tall trees
1593. Water move toward areas of salin-
with minimal branches and considered as
ity.
major source of timber and other major for-
est products. A. higher
A. mangrove forest B. lower
B. dipterocarp Forest C. diminished
C. Mossy Forrest D. changing
D. Pine Forest 1594. In the Tragedy of the Commons, Hardin

is concerned with which of the following:
1589. Which topic might an environmental sci-
A. overpopulation
entist study?
B. biodiversity
A. energy resources
C. natural disasters
B. mountains
D. shared resources
C. hurricanes
D. comets 1595. The field of science that focuses on the
environmental effects of human activities
1590. At sea level the troposphere has the is called?
highest A. Chemistry
A. temperature B. Ecology
B. ozone levels C. Environmental Science
C. altitude D. Physics
D. pressure
1596. A company is likely to mine a site if the
1591. As water vapor rises, it enters into a site ?
colder atmosphere, causing the water to A. is rich in minerals

B. does not contain gangue minerals 1601. What Act describes rules of handling
C. contains gold toxic and hazardous waste?
D. contains minerals that can be econom-
ically extracted B. Clean Air Act
C. Resource Conservation and Recovery
1597. Which is the correct order of trophic lev-
Act
els in a food chain?
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. plants - tertiary consumers - sec-
ondary consumers - primary consumers 1602. 1-9.3 What is the definition of “Green-
B. plants - primary consumers - sec- house Effect?”
ondary consumers - tertiary consumers A. Gases that increase Earth’s tempera-
C. plants - decomposers - secondary con- ture
sumers - tertiary consumers B. when the gases in Earth’s atmosphere
D. plants - primary consumers - tertiary trap heat from the Sun and keep the
consumers - secondary consumers planet warm
C. the pattern of weather that occurs
1598. Claire wants to present scientific infor- over time
mation on climate change. Which group
should Claire approach? D. When our climate changes
A. SERI/NREL 1603. Why should we remove an invasive

species?
B. IPCC
A. They won’t be able to survive in a new
C. EPA
environment.
D. NOAA
B. They will eat native species and cause
1599. A modern day example of the “tragedy other species to decrease.
of the commons” would be: C. We should not remove them and let na-
A. strip-mining in a national park or nature be.
tional forest D. none of above
B. use of herbicides and pesticides by in- 1604. Magma that cools deep underground
dustrial agriculture in California produces
C. acid precipitation falling throughout A. extrusive igneous rock
the northeastern United States
B. intrusive igneous rock
D. grazing sheep in private park
C. metamorphic rock
1600. What displays trends of data or data in D. sedimentary rock
motion?
1605. Which pollutant is most likely to be re-
A. graphs
leased into groundwater supplies without
B. tables human intervention?
C. baby animal pictures A. Phosphates
D. verbal expression B. Lead

C. Arsenic 1611. Groundwater is

D. Mercury A. recharge water

B. seepage water
1606. Farming supports over 500 times as
many people as C. aquifer water
A. industry D. surface water
B. searching and moving 1612. A hole dug into an aquifer to reach
C. raising cows groundwater is called a
A. watershed
D. hunting and gathering
B. well
1607. Sustainability is defined as
C. drainage basin
A. Consuming at a rate to satisfy the cur- D. spring
rent generation.
B. Rapidly increasing resource consump- 1613. All of the following increase the amount
tion over time. of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere EX-
CEPT:
C. Maintaining a rate of resource con-
A. photosynthesis
sumption that will allow the population to
survive indefinitely. B. burning fossil fuels
D. Not consuming any resources at all. C. respiration
D. none of above
1608. Which layer of Earth has the GREATEST
density and is solid? 1614. Who established the first national park
A. crust (Yosemite)?
A. George Perkins Marsh
B. mantle
B. John Muir
C. outer core
C. Theodore Roosevelt
D. inner core
D. Gifford Pinchot
1609. Which of the following sciences was
NOT mentioned as a component of environ- 1615. Layers containing spaces, or pores,
mental science? through which water can pass.
A. water table
A. Geology
B. permeable
B. Physics
C. groudwater
C. Biology
D. well
D. Chemistry
1616. Which of the following is a nonrenew-
1610. Aqueduct able energy resource?
A. a pollution prevention device A. coal
B. built to hold back water B. natural gas
C. built to prevent flooding C. oil
D. a man made river to divert water D. water

1.12 Agricultural engineering 372
1617. Which was the first law written to pro- A. Kenya

tect the quality of our waterways?
B. Canada
A. clean water act
C. Bangladesh
B. safe drinking water act
D. India
C. oceans act
D. stop being dirty act 1620. A group of the same species of organ-
isms would best be known as a
1618. Which statement about science is true?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. population
A. It assumes that the natural world
works according to rules that do not B. community
change unpredictably.
C. ecosystem
B. It attempts to explain the mysteries of
D. biome
the supernatural world.
C. It deals mostly with things in the syn- 1621. Pollution that comes from a specific site
thetic or unnatural world. is called
D. It asserts that although the boiling A. reservoir
point of water is 100◦ C today, it may be
different in the future. B. potable
C. point-source
1619. All of the following countries are in-
creasing in population size except D. permeability
1.12 Agricultural engineering

1. Which of the following is a possible draw- 3. The appropriate tool for turning various
back to using chemicals such as fertilizers size nuts and bolts is a/an:
and pesticides that increase crop yields? A. adjustable wrench.
A. Runoff from farms could cause pollu- B. allen wrench
tion of nearby bodies of water.
C. auger bit.
B. More rainforests will be cut down to
make fields for planting. D. extension.
C. Increased erosion may lead to dust 4. What tool is used to push nail heads below
storms. the surface of the wood?
D. none of above A. Screwdriver
B. Drill press
2. Which is best to use when greater pres-
sure is needed for gripping wood, metal, C. Nail set
or other materials? D. Nail punch
A. Groove joint pliers
5. What are some goals of agricultural engi-
B. Combination wrench neering?
C. Long nose pliers A. to increase food production
D. Adjustable wrench B. to boost nutrient content

1.12 Agricultural engineering 373
C. to extend the average human life span 11. Which of the following statements about
by preventing malnutrition the characteristics of organisms is cor-
rect?

D. all answers are correct
A. Genes alone determine the character-
6. What is the best tool for driving out metal istics or organisms
pins? B. A combination of genes and the envi-
A. Pin punch ronment determine the characteristics of
organisms.
B. Nail set
C. organisms have the same characteris-
C. Hacksaw
tics as their parents
D. Countersink D. Environment alone determines the
characteristics of organisms
7. Most tape measures found in the agricul-
ture shop will measure to an accuracy of: 12. If a new technology makes food easier to
A. 1/8 inch produce, what is likely to happen to the
price of the food?
B. 1/16 inch
A. The price is likely to stay the same, be-
C. 1/32 inch. cause the food itself hasn’t changed.
D. 1/64 inch. B. The price is likely to increase, because
the technology might be expensive.
8. Which modification made to a spoon and
fork helps to make them more of an assis- C. The price is likely to decrease, be-
tive device for small children learning to cause there is likely to be more food pro-
feed themselves? duced.
D. The price is likely to increase, because
A. Brightly colored
more people will want the technology-
B. cartoon pictures on the handles enhanced food.
C. larger thicker handles 13. When laying out projects to be built, one
D. none of above may create 45- and 90-degree angles by
using a:
9. Tools may be classified according to: A. framing square.
A. use B. ruler
B. color C. combination square
C. construction. D. try square.
D. origin. 14. Which of the following would result in a
good outcome from advances in agricul-
10. What is the best tool for cutting thin
ture.
metal?
A. more crops being produced
A. Arc welder
B. use of pesticides and fertilizer in-
B. Hacksaw creases
C. Handsaw C. soil erosion increases
D. Oxyacetylene torch D. none of above

1.13 Veterinary Science 374
1.13 Veterinary Science

1. Anesthesia is the processes of 6. List the two bones located in the lower
forelimb.
A. Putting an animal to sleep for surgery
A. Tibia and fibula
B. Killing an animal
B. Humerus and femur
C. Causing the animal pain
C. Metacarpals and metatarsals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Eating the animal
D. Radius and ulna
2. The process of providing or obtaining
the nutrients necessary for health and 7. Which of the following systems is made up
growth of the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi, and
lungs?
A. nutrition
A. Integumentary
B. grain
B. respiratory
C. a diet
C. digestive
D. a ration
D. endocrine
3. A continuous suture has how many
8. What does the word ethics mean?
knots?
A. no rules at all
A. 2
B. moral principles that govern a per-
B. 1
son’s behavior or the conducting of an ac-
C. 100 tivity
D. As many as necessary C. a set of rules for everyone
D. being inappropriate in behavior or in
4. An 11 pound cat is being prescribed Amoxi-
conducting an activity
cillin at 50 mg/kg. The Amoxicillin is avail-
able in 100 mg tablets. How many tablets 9. Define Dysotomy
will you give?
A. Difficulty looking at the ear
A. 1.5 tablets
B. Difficulty cutting into the ear
B. 2 tablets
C. Difficulty seeing the ear
C. 2.5 tablets
D. Difficulty listening
D. 3 tablets
10. There are two main genera of cattle. One
5. What is the average temperature for both is Bos taurus (taurine cattle) and
cats and dogs?
A. Bos africus
A. 98-100
B. Bos mississippus
B. 99-104
C. Bos indicus (indicine cattle from the In-
C. 97-101 dus River)
D. 99-102 D. Bos californicus

11. Modern goats come from the Pasang (Per- C. Vet Tech Specialist
sian Ibex) also close related to the
D. Vet assistant

A. Bezoar Ibex
B. Mouflons 17. Porcine stands for
C. Wild bighorn sheep A. Horses

D. Asiatic Urial B. Dogs
C. Pigs
12. A 11 lb cat needs an antibiotic at a dose of
15 mg/kg. The antibiotic comes in liquid D. Mouse
form at a concentration of 125 mg/5mL.
How many mL do you give? 18. An otherwise health vet tech, Anna is
bitten by a 2-year-old mixed breed dog,
A. 5 mL
“Tow Tow, ” while restraining her for a
B. 3 mL pedicure. The bite does not cause severe
C. 7 mL tissue damage, but the canine teeth pen-
etrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow
D. 2.5 mL
Tow is currently on all his vaccinations in-
13. Hypo- is the prefix for cluding rabies. He lives primarily in the
backyard of his owner’s suburban home.
A. Abnormally high What is the best, first action Anna should
B. Abnormally low take following the bite?
C. Excessively fast A. Tell a coworker about it, but take no
D. Excessively slow more action regarding the incident
B. Wash the wound immediately with
14. Which of the following terms means
soap and water, then with povidone-
“NEAR the center of the body”?
iodine, and follow with a thorough irriga-
A. proximal tion with water, then inform the veterinar-
B. caudal ian or office manager.
C. ventral C. Ignore the bite until she has time to
wash it, even though this may not be for a
D. saggital
few hours. Once there is time, also inform
15. Turkeys are named after the country the veterinarian or office manager.
Turkey. But likely originate in D. Wait until she gets home and clean
A. Asia the wound, without notifying the veteri-
narian because she fears she will be rep-
B. Canada
rimanded.
C. Africa
D. Mexico and North America 19. The phalanges are the
A. Fingers
16. They bath, clip nails, and trim hair of ani-
mals. B. Pelvis
A. Groomers C. Ankle
B. Kennel Assistants D. Shoulder

20. The Yersinia pestis bacteria causes what kg how many 500 mg capsules should be
disease? dispensed?
A. Ringworm A. 10 tablets
B. Plague B. 15 tablets
C. Rabies C. 20 tablets
D. Hantavirus D. 25 tablets
26. Dried bone consists of % inorganic and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. Veterinary science studies what aspect of
animals? % organic materials.
A. Habitat A. 70% and 30%

B. 60% and 40%
B. Predators
C. 80% and 20%
C. Disease
D. none of above
D. Herbivores
27. This term refers to a collection of pus (dead
22. Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are white blood cells) that has accumulated in
usually fed to provide a cavity formed by the tissue due to an
A. carbohydrates infection or other foreign material.
B. fat A. Abscess
C. oil B. Slab
D. protein C. Antigen
D. Bruise
23. Which type of plague is contagious be-
tween humans? 28. What is it called when the temperature of
A. Bubonic plague an animal is below normal?
A. shock
B. Septicemic plague
B. inspiration
C. Cutaneous plague
C. hypothermia
D. Pneumonic plague
D. expiration
24. They analyze lab data, evaluate animals,
and assist veterinarians, and collect sam- 29. What is fed to provide amino acids, but
ples generally not used to provide energy?
A. Vet technician A. carbohydrates

B. fats
B. Vet assistant
C. protein
C. Veterinarian
D. nutrients
D. Vet specialist
30. How does the sagittal plane divide the
25. Zeus bit Zack on the foot. After looking body?
at the wound the doctor prescribed Zack
antibiotic BID for 10 days. The dosage is A. front from back
5 mg/lb twice a day. If Zack weighs 45 B. left side from right side

C. head from tail A. 0.3 mL

D. none of above B. 0.6 mL

31. Any animal we raise for the purpose of C. 0.8 mL
eating, or deriving some other value out D. 1 mL
of is called
37. Which nutrient provides amino acids and
A. Pets nitrogen for maximum growth and liveli-
B. Livestock hood?
C. Exotic A. Carbohydrate
D. Scientific B. Nucleic Acid
C. Protein
32. The is a thin connective tissue that cov-
ers bones. D. Fats and oils
A. Epiphysis 38. Which of the following is a word which has
B. Diaphysis two or more roots?
C. Medullary cavity A. compound word
D. Periosteum B. root word
C. combining word
33. Bone marrow produces
D. prefix
A. Blood cells
B. Periosteum 39. Bird wings and butterfly wings are an ex-
ample of
C. Calcium and phosphorus
A. Homologous structure
D. Spongy bone
B. Analogous structure
34. A sunburn (which animals can suffer from) C. Mimicry
might be an example of a..
D. Camouflage
A. 1st degree burn
40. Unlike exocrine glands, endocrine
B. 2nd degree burn
glands
C. 3rd degree burn
A. are ductless
D. 4th degree burn
B. have ducts
35. Dehorning is the process of: C. do not secrete hormones
A. Removing their head D. do not secrete directly into the blood.
B. Removing the horns
41. A simple definition of Domestication is
C. Removing the tail A. selecting animals with desirable char-
D. Removing an ear acteristics and breeding them
36. A cat weighing 8.8 lbs needs insulin at 1.5 B. one that lives in the wild but is de-
IU per kg. The insulin comes in a strength scended from domesticated specimens.
of 10 IU per mL. How much insulin will you C. the process of converting feed into
give? food (meat)

D. to adapt the behavior of an animal to D. 70 mL

fit the needs of people
47. -logyis the suffix for?
42. Reports critical patient information to a A. Cell
veterinary technician.
B. Tumor
A. Groomers
C. Breathing
B. Veterinary technicians
D. Study of
C. Kennel Assistants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Veterinary Assistants 48. They help at the front staff and make sure
everything is going well.
43. Which of the following is an example of a A. Office Managers
long bone?
B. Receptionists
A. Scapula
C. Practice managers
B. Mandible
D. student
C. Carpal bones
49. In charge of of bills, budgets, planning
D. Femur
events, and creating structure for the prac-
44. The bones of the tail are called: tice.
A. Gluteals A. Practice Manager
B. Alveoli B. Veterinarian assistant
C. External abdominal oblique C. Hospital Manager
D. Coccygeal vertebrae D. Kennel Assistant
45. Horses are a source of food (meat and 50. Which type of bone cell is responsible for
milk) but more important they were and maintaining the bone matrix?
are still used for transportation and A. Osteoblasts
A. pets B. Osteocytes
B. housing C. Osteoclasts
C. work (draft work) D. none of above
D. eating grass
51. Equus is latin for
46. Peter the barn cat developed a nasty ab- A. Horses
scess on his leg. After looking at the B. Dogs
wound, the veterinarian prescribed Clava-
mox BID for 10 days. The dosage is 25 C. Pigs
mg/kg twice a day. The concentration of D. Mouse
Clavamox is 50 mg/mL. If Peter weighs
12 lbs, how many mL of Clavamox should 52. Give another name for phalanges.
be dispensed? A. Wrist
A. 54.5 mL B. Ankle
B. 2.7 mL C. Kneecap
C. 30.1 mL D. Toes

53. Avis the latin for 59. The rabies virus is most commonly trans-
A. Birds ferred through what?

A. Saliva
B. Sheep
B. Plant material
C. Cattle
C. Air
D. Rats
D. Food
54. Poultry rely on a , a strong muscular
60. Which of the following is the meaning for
organ that may contain grit, to grind their
the abbreviation, TID?
food.
A. Once a Day
A. Gizzard
B. Every other day
B. Gosling
C. Three times a day
C. Gaggle
D. Four times a day
D. Gander
61. They diagnose the animals, perform
55. What direction is cranial? surgery, and they care for the animal .
A. towards the tail A. Veterinarian
B. towards the stomach or chest B. Vet technician
C. towards the head C. Vet assisting
D. towards the vertebrae D. Practice manager

62. Where is the most accurate place to read
56. An immature male of the equine species: an animal’s temperature?
A. Stallion A. mouth
B. Colt B. ear
C. Mare C. belly
D. Foal D. rectally
57. Where are the lumbar vertebra located? 63. An interrupted suture has how many
knots?
A. Neck
A. 2
B. Rib cage
B. 1
C. Lower back
C. 100
D. Pelvis
D. As many as necessary
58. Pelleting, hammering, roller milling and 64. What is the average heart rate/pulse for
steam flaking are examples of a cat?
A. extrusion A. 120-130bpm
B. processing B. 120-140bpm
C. rations C. 110-130bpm
D. diets D. 32-42bpm

65. Sheep tails are removed in order to: C. proximal

A. Limit disease D. rostral
B. Spread disease
71. They take care of calls, receives money,
C. Sell them helps the staff, and greets customers.
D. Eat them
A. Vet assistant
66. This surgical procedure is used to improve B. Vet tech specialist
NARAYAN CHANGDER
meat qualities and control breeding:
C. Office manager
A. Dehorning
D. Receptionist
B. Castration
C. Docking 72. The most important nutrient is
D. Suturing A. protein
67. The hollow center of the long bone is called B. fat or oil
the C. water
A. Epiphysis b. D. carbohydrates
B. Diaphysis
C. Medullary cavity 73. Which organ system removes waste from
the body?
D. Periosteum
A. excretory
68. Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all
B. cardiovascular
have similar arm bones. What is the rea-
son for this? C. endocrine
A. The function of these bones is the D. skeletal
same in all animals
B. They live in similar environments 74. Which of the following is defined as la-
bored breathing?
C. They have a common ancestor
A. dsypnea
D. All organisms resemble humans
B. anemia
69. The medical abbreviation for immediately
is: C. hypothermia
A. Stat D. shock
B. Now 75. Swine are descended from two wild stock.
C. Pronto One is the Sus vittatus (East Indian wild
pig) and
D. Immediatamente
A. Sus cofra (South American wild boar)
70. Which of the following terms means near
the tail? B. Sus scrofa (European wild boar)
A. cranial C. Sus Africa (African wild boar)
B. caudal D. Sus dr sues (American wild boar)

76. The abbreviation for Intensive Care Unit 82. The technique used to veterinarians to pre-
is: pare themselves before surgery is:

A. IDU A. Sterilization Technique
B. IKU B. Hand Washing Technique
C. ICU C. Aseptic Technique
D. IDK
D. Gloving Technique
77. The removal of female sex organs is
known as: 83. For every pound of feed consumed by the
animal
A. Castration
A. two to five pounds of water will be con-
B. Neuter
sumed
C. Spay
B. six to nine pounds of water will be con-
D. Surgery sumed
78. The composition of the feed, the feedstuffs C. 10-14 pounds of water will be con-
and the manufacturers location sumed
A. is listed at the store D. 15 - 18 pounds of water will be con-
B. is listed on the feed sack sumed
C. is listed on the feed tag 84. A 33 pound dog needs 100 mg/kg of med-
D. is not be listed anywhere ication that comes in tablets of 500 mg.
How many tablets do you give?
79. The pigs left ear represents the
A. 1.5 tablets
A. Litter number
B. 2 tablets
B. Individual pig number
C. 3 tablets
C. Day of birth
D. Gender D. 4 tablets
80. What type of plague occurs when the bac- 85. Dent/o is the root for
teria enters the lymphatic system? A. Brain
A. Bubonic plague
B. Ears
B. Cutaneous plague
C. Teeth
C. Inhalation plague
D. Thorax
D. Septicemic plague
86. Which of these is the scientific name for
81. This method of dehorning uses a hot iron
hookworm?
or electrical cauterization.
A. Caustic A. Dipylidium Caninum
B. Guillotine Shears B. Toxocara Canis

C. Horn Scoop C. Ancylostoma Caninum
D. Heat disbudding D. None of these

87. Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of 92. Which nutrient is the major source of en-
feed for ergy for animals?
A. cattle A. carbohydrate
B. horses B. nucleic acid
C. sheep and goats C. protein
D. dogs and cats D. fat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
88. A bony structure that distinguishes most 93. Fat soluble vitamins are
laboratory animals as vertebrates is the A. B and C
B. zinc and copper
A. Cranium
C. calcium and potassium
B. Tailbone
D. A, D, E and K
C. Vertebral column
D. Dorsal nervous system 94. Calcium and phosphorus are found in the
bone as crystals of:
89. Horses evolved from a tiny four-toed an- A. Collagen fibers
cestor called
B. Hydroxyapatite
A. Draft
C. Osteoclasts
B. Morgan
D. Bone matrix
C. DeSoto
D. Eohippus (dawn horse) 95. What molecule directly provides stimula-
tion and growth of bone and cartilage?
90. What does the Kennel Assistant do? A. Vitamin D
A. Keep patients clean and notice B. Somatotropin
changes in behavior
C. Somatomedin
B. Reports critical patient info to a vet.
D. Thyroxine
tech
C. Perform technical skills to care for pa- 96. Which organ system identifies foreign
tients and satisfy clients agents and protects us from infections?
D. Keep the entire team working together A. cardiovascular
and report to hospital manager B. endocrine
91. A dog weighing 88 lbs requires a dose of C. excretory
Simplicef at at 5mg/kg. The tablets are D. immune
available in 100 mg per tablet. How many
tablets will you give? 97. Canine stands for
A. 1 tablet A. Birds
B. 1.5 tablets B. Dogs
C. 2 tablets C. Cats
D. 2.5 tablets D. Mouse

98. A Veterinarian orders Amoxicillin for a 103. A balanced (nutrients) portion of feed
110 lb dog. The dose is 5 mg/kg. The given an animal each feeding is called
Amoxicillin is available in 250 mg tablets.

A. a diet
How many tablets will you give in one
dose? B. a ration
A. 1 tablet C. feed
B. 2 tablets D. food
C. 1.5 tablets 104. A vet in a critical care unit determines

D. 2.5 tablets that one calf was given the following in-
travenous solutions in a 24 hour period:
99. A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nu- 745 mL of .9% normal saline, 420 mL of
trients to an animal is lactated ringers, 1, 250 mL of 5% dex-
trose, and 15 mL of an antibiotic solution.
A. feed How many total mL of IV solution did the
B. a diet patient receive?
C. food A. 2430 mL
D. a ration B. 3430 mL
C. 4430 mL
100. Which system is in charge of transmit-
ting signals to the body and operates basic D. 1430 mL
functions like breathing and digestion?
105. The pigs right ear represents the pigs
A. cardiovascular
A. Litter number
B. digestive
B. Individual pig number
C. neurologic
C. Day of birth
D. endocrine
D. Gender
101. Which of the following is an example of 106. This method of castration uses small rub-
a monogastric? ber rings to cut off the circulation to the
A. Deer testicles:
B. steer A. Surgical cutting method
C. lamb B. Burdizzo
D. horse C. Emasculator
D. Banding
102. Which of the following bones is part of
the axial skeleton? 107. Rx is the abbreviation for:
A. Sternum A. Prescription
B. Scapula B. Heart Rate
C. Femur C. Red Blood Cell
D. Pelvis D. Dead on Arrival

1.14 Fisheries science 384
108. The vascular layer of the skin is the D. Vet assistant

A. Dermis
112. Poly- is the prefix for
B. Epidermis
A. Many
C. Hypodermis
B. One
D. Stratum basale
C. Around
109. Which of the following prefixes means D. After
“above”?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. sub 113. Our modern sheep are descended from
possibly three different sources. The most
B. supra popular one is
C. peri A. Mouflons
D. post
B. Zebras
110. Complete authority over the facility C. Mountain goats
which means they are in charge of paying
D. Bighorn sheep
the facilities bills, setting budgets for the
facility, planning events and creates struc- 114. ot/o is the root for
ture.
A. Brain
A. Hospital administrators
B. Ears
B. Vet techs
C. Teeth
C. Groomers
D. Thorax
D. Vet tech specialist
115. This method of castration crushes the
111. They keep the entire team working to-
spermatic cord while also cutting it:
gether and report back to the hospital man-
ager. A. Surgical cutting method
A. Office manager B. Burdizzo
B. Practice manager C. Emasculator
C. Vet technologist D. Banding
1.14 Fisheries science

1. It is the type of agriculture where large 2. The first step of the water treatment pro-
quantities of crops and livestock are process is
duced through industrialized techniques A. Coagulation
for the purpose of sale
B. Filtration
A. Subsistence Agriculture
C. Sedimentation
B. Industrialized Agriculture D. Flocculation
C. Commercial Plantation Agriculture
3. As oceans become deeper, the water pres-
D. none of above sure

A. increases 9. Setting an upper limit on the amount of

B. decreases fish that can be caught

C. stays the same A. Fishing limits
D. none of above B. Fishing methods

C. Aquaculture
4. improved water quality can be achieved
by D. Sustainable yield
A. appropriate use of water 10. This kind of vitamins assist in calcium

metabolism
B. careful water storage and handling
A. Vitamin A
C. proper land management
B. Vitamin B
D. all of the above
C. Vitamin D3
5. Erosion is on disadvantage of
D. Vitamin B2
A. selective cutting
11. Induced breeding technique is used in——
B. sustainable yield
-
C. certified wood
A. Marine fishery
D. clear-cutting
B. Capture fishery
6. The type of agriculture when a farmer C. Culture fishery
lives on a small amount of land and pro-
D. Inland fishery
duces enough food to feed his or her house-
hold and have a small cash crop 12. A slimy mud-like substance is known
A. Subsistence Agriculture as
B. Industrialized Agriculture A. Floc
C. Commercial Plantation Agriculture B. Coagulant
D. none of above C. Sludge
D. Turbidity
7. In charge of administering the CITES licens-
ing system 13. Biosafety committee for Fisheries
A. CMAs A. DA
B. CSAs B. DOH
C. CAAs C. DENR
D. CBAs D. DOST
8. The fins of fishes are used for the prepa- 14. The third step of the water treatment pro-
ration of ———- cess is
A. soup A. Disinfection
B. cakes B. Filtration
C. biscuits C. Sedimentation
D. breads D. Flocculation

15. A logging method is less damaging to habi- 20. medium fat:2*-8% ; lean fat:
tats, but can be dangerous to loggers.
A. 1%
A. Clear-cutting
B. 2%
B. Selective cutting
C. 3%
C. Fishing method
D. Aquaculture D. 4%
16. Fisheries can be managed to produce a 21. 50% of the world’s major ones have been
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sustainable yield by setting fishing limits, overfished
changing fishing methods, finding new re-
A. Fisheries
sources, and
A. redesigning boat motors B. Aquaculture
B. closing sushi restaurants C. Bass Pro Shops
C. developing aquaculture techniques D. Forests
D. banning water sports
22. Why is the ocean called a carbon sink?
17. Facilitates the exchange of information on
living modified organisms, and has partic- A. Ocean water destroys trace carbon el-
ular relevance to Philippine aquaculture ements.
A. Biosafety Clearing-house (BCH) B. Organisms in the water release car-

bon dioxide into the air.
B. CMAs
C. CSAs C. Ocean water dissolves carbon dioxide
from the atmosphere.
D. none of above
D. Ocean water becomes saltier with high
18. Management measures includes establish- carbon levels
ing a system of protected areas and restor-
ing degraded ecosystems. 23. They advise the CMAs on whether exports
A. CBD are sustainable and not detrimental to the
B. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety survival of a species in the wild.
C. UNCLOS A. CSAs
D. CITES B. CMAs
19. Marine organisms help maintain the chem- C. CBAs

ical balance of ocean water by removing D. CIAs
nutrients and
A. returning other nutrients and gases to 24. When fish are small during extraction of
the water oil, grinding process are omitted.
B. producing bacteria that destroy pollu- A. True
tants
B. False
C. adding no new elements to the water
C. Maybe
D. introducing minerals and trace ele-
ments to the water D. Neither

25. BONUS question : What is the name of C. maintaining aquaculture bays

your instructor in Aquaculture Engineering D. fishing off the California and New Eng-
land coasts

A. Marjorie S. Lucas
B. Marjorie L. Lucas 31. ———– Species of freshwater prawn is
C. Marjorie F. Lucas most commonly used for culturing in India
D. Marjorie A. Lucas A. Macrobrachium rosenbergii
B. Palaemon longicorni
26. The second step of the water treatment
process is C. Metapenaeus affinis
A. Disinfection D. Penaeus monodon
B. Filtration 32. Setting is an approach to managing

fisheries that can involve banning or re-
C. Sedimentation
stricting fishing of certain species.
D. Flocculation
A. fishing limits
27. Because new trees can be planted to re- B. target populations
place trees that are cut down, forests can C. no-fish zones
be
D. Rivers and Ponds
A. renewable resources
33. Enzyme is said to be a non-living organism;
B. select cut
however, they are responsible in the self-
C. certified digestion of fish muscle. What are the sub-
D. Used to make farm land. stance releases by enzymes that causes
disintegration of muscle tissue?
28. An area with a large population of valu-
A. protiolitic substance
able ocean organisms is called a(n)
B. proteolitic substance
A. ecosystem
C. proteolytic substance
B. spawning zone
D. protiolytic substance
C. fishery
34. It is a branch of Agriculture that is keep-
D. tourism
ing cattle while moving from one region in
29. The unpleasant odor when the protein de- search of pasture and clean water.
teriorates during oxidation A. Pig farming
A. rancid B. Poultry farming
B. rancidity C. Aquaculture
C. spoilage D. Nomadic Pastoralism
D. stale 35. Trees are a benefit to people because they
produce this
30. Fishing methods that have been outlawed,
to manage resources for a sustainable A. Carbon dioxide
yield, include B. Oxygen
A. using nets with a large mesh size C. Water
B. poisoning fish with cyanide D. Nitrogen

36. this factor is affected by the amount of the masses and the products are sold
solar energy an area receives and by the worldwide.
movement of water
A. Subsistence Agriculture
A. pack ice
B. Industrialized Agriculture
B. thermocline
C. Commercial Plantation Agriculture
C. density
D. none of above
D. ocean temperature
NARAYAN CHANGDER
42. Formula to get moisture content is
37. If more than single species of fish is cul-
A. Moisture Content = dry weight / wet
tured at a time, then it is called———
weight x 100%
A. Monoculture
B. Moisture Content = dry weight / wet
B. Aquaculture weight x 100
C. Polyculture C. Moisture Content = wet weight / dry
D. Mori culture weight x 100%
D. Moisture Content = wet weight / dry
38. The final step of the water treatment pro-
weight x 100
cess is
A. Disinfection 43. involves cutting down only some trees
in a forest and leaving a mix of tree sizes
B. Filtration
and species behind.
C. Sedimentation
A. Old growth
D. Flocculation
B. Logging
39. Preliminary treatment C. Selective cutting
A. prevents toxic chemicals. D. Tree health and care.
B. removes large objects.
44. Water that has been used by humans, but
C. is unnecessary. doesn’t contain sanitary waste is called
D. is useless.
A. gray water
40. CBD stands for?
A. Convention on Biological Diversity B. septic water
B. Convention on Biosafety Development C. potable water

D. none of these
C. Convention on Biosafety Diversity
45. a measure of the amount of dissolved
D. Convention on Biological Development solids in a given amount of liquid
41. The goal of this agriculture is to increase A. DDT

crop yield, which is the amount of food B. plankton
that is produced for each unit of land.
C. salinity
Crops and livestock made through this
type of agriculture are produced to feed D. icee

46. Below is the structure of fish, select all C. Maybe

that apply. D. Neither

A. Skin
52. Covers the “ transboundary movement,
B. Viscera transit, handling and use of all living mod-
C. Muscle ified organisms that may have adverse ef-
fects on the conservation and sustainable
D. All of the above use of biological diversity, taking into ac-
47. The designated CITES Management Author- count risks to human health
ity (CMA) in the Philippines is A. CITES
A. DA-BFAR B. UNCLOS
B. UPV C. CBD
C. UP-MSI D. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
D. National Museum 53. Commercial enzymes responsible in disin-

tegrating liver during enzyme digestion
48. EPA stands for method
A. Eicosapentaenoic acid A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Eicosahexaenoic acid B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Eicosatetraenoic acid C. Bacillus subtillis
D. Eicosapentainoic acid D. Bacilus subtilis
49. This fishing method has been outlawed to 54. Traces international trade of endangered
help manage resources for a sustainable marine species through a permit system
yield. A. CITES
A. Using nets with a large mesh size B. UNCLOS
B. Poisoning fish C. CBD
C. Maintaining aquaculture bays D. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
D. Fishing off the coast of California and 55. It is a bacterium that causes food poison-
New England ing
A. Bacillus subtilis
50. The sunlight zone can look green because
B. Bacillus cereus
A. someone poured dye into it
C. Bacillus anthracis
B. the sun reflects the green plants
C. the fish are all green from envy
56. A regular amount of a renewable resource
D. they grow peas and spinach in this that can be harvested without reducing the
zone future supply
51. Cheese has a low moisture content and A. Selective cutting
high-water activity compared to bread. B. Sustainable limits
A. True C. Sustainable method
B. False D. Sustainable yield

57. Mollusk and crustaceans are important B. UNCLOS

source of the following EXCEPT: C. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
A. Vitamin B6 D. CITES
B. Vitamin B3
63. Raising fish for food in an artificial pond is
C. Vitamin D3
known as
D. none of above
A. harvesting
NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. The most valuable resource found in the B. trawling
ocean is
C. aquaculture
A. salt
D. Fish food production.
B. fish
64. Provides a standard permitting/licensing
C. petroleum
system for the import, export, re-export,
D. trace elements and introduction of endangered species
59. is the MAJOR cause of extinction. A. UNCLOS
A. Poaching B. CITES
B. Habitat Loss C. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
C. Pollution D. CBD
D. Introduction of Non-Native Species 65. It is the farming of fish, crustaceans, mol-
60. Policy issued to establish the National lusks, aquatic plants, algae, and other or-
Biosafety Network ganisms. (fish farming)
A. E.O. 514 A. Pig farming
B. E.O. 430 B. Poultry farming
C. RA 10654 C. Aquaculture
D. RA 9147 D. Nomadic Pastoralism
61. Fish flour is rich in —— 66. In the benthic zone of the ocean, you
would most likely find
A. Fat
A. dolphins
B. Protein
B. whales
C. Vitamins
C. swordfish
D. Minerals
D. starfish
62. Includes the international listing of fishery
resource species as threatened or endan- 67. BONUS question : Who is the President of
gered and seeks to preserve or prevent Camarines Norte State College?
long term decline of biological diversity to A. Marlo M. Dela Cruz, RFT
maintain its potential to meet the needs
and aspirations of present and future gen- B. Marlo A. Dela Cruz, PECE
erations C. Marlo M. Dela Cruz, PECE
A. CBD D. Marlo A. Dela Cruz, RFT

68. The Largest Ocean is ? C. Commercial Plantation Agriculture

A. Pacific D. none of above

B. Atlantic
74. Cod liver oil is rich in————
C. Indian
A. Vitamins A and D
D. Arctic
B. Vitamins A and C
69. Nearly a third of the area of the U.S. is cov-
ered with this renewable natural resource C. Vitamins A and B
A. Fisheries D. Vitamins A and E

B. Aquaculture 75. What 2 important nutrients are tested for
C. Forests in a body of water to check for eutrophica-
D. Coal tion levels?
A. nitrates and phosphates
70. Raising fish in an artificial pond
B. dissolved oxygen and pH
A. Aquaculture
B. Fishery C. CO2 and O2
C. Sustainable yield D. nitrates and dissolved oxygen

D. Fishing methods 76. The proportion of the United States’ land
71. Which zone is completely dark, very cold, area made up of forests is about
has little life and immense pressure? A. one half
A. sunlight B. one third
B. twilight C. two thirds
C. midnight D. Almost all of it.
D. none of above
77. The breakdown of protein during the pro-
72. a layer in a body of water in which water cess of extraction whether in liver or flesh
temperature drops with increased depth of fish is called
faster than it does in other areas
A. protein slicing
A. thermocline
B. protein denaturation
B. incline
C. protein breakdown
C. saline
D. decline D. all of the above
73. This type of agriculture is very labor- 78. It describes the practice of growing crops
intensive because all of the work is done or raising animals
by humans and animals and only hand A. Agriculture
tools and simple machines are used to
work the land. B. Cultivating
A. Subsistence Agriculture C. Farming
B. Industrialized Agriculture D. Tilling

79. A(n) label on wood signifies that the C. clear-cutting

forest that produced the wood is managed D. Mudslides
for sustainable yields.
A. “well-managed” 84. important resources supplied by the ocean
B. “gold-ribbon” A. minerals, sediments, salt

B. food, minerals, fresh water
C. “eco-friendly”
C. salt, humus, oxygen
D. “Save the Earth, your finest option”
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. fresh water, nodules, salt
80. Aims to ensure that international trade in
specimens of wild animals and plants, in- 85. In extraction of oil are used to sepa-
cluding their products and derivatives does rate disintegrated liver and supernatant
not threaten their survival, with benefits- A. Autoclave
for the livelihoods of local people and the
B. Grinder
global environment.
C. Centrifugal
A. UNCLOS
D. Centrifuge
B. CITES
C. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety 86. Trees help other organisms by producing
oxygen and absorbing
D. Convention on Biological Diversity
A. carbon dioxide
81. Succession that occurs in areas that previ- B. hydrochloric acid
ously didn’t support life, such as on rocks
C. hydrogen peroxide
or ice
D. Pollution.
A. primary succession
B. secondary succession 87. It serves as muscle bundle
C. quaternary succession A. muscle structure
D. New Growth succession B. perimysium
C. endomysium
82. Select the correct order for the water
treatment process. D. none of the above
A. Sedimentation - Chlorination - Filtra- 88. It is the cultivation of bees on a commer-

tion cial scale for the production of honey: bee-
keeping
B. Sedimentation - Filtration - Chlorina-
tion A. Pig farming
C. Filtration - Chlorination - Sedimenta- B. Aquaculture
tion C. Apiculture
D. Filtration - Sedimentation - Chlorina- D. Poultry farming
tion
89. Runoff of sewage and agricultural wastes
83. Erosion is one disadvantage of into coastal waters introduce
A. sustainable wood A. algae growth
B. certified wood B. rainwater

1.15 Plant Biotechnology 393
C. surface runoff A. keystone species

D. oil spill B. main species

90. Species that are clearly critical to the func- C. native species
tioning of an ecosystem are known as D. Important and maintain the forest.
1.15 Plant Biotechnology

1. An example of a genetic trait in humans 5. Gregor Mendel mixed different types of
is: peas to bring out their desirable traits.
This mixing to produce a better crop is
A. Being left handed or right handed.
called:
B. Being happy or sad.
A. Pollination.
C. Having one brother and one sister. B. Gene therapy.
D. Having a weight problem. C. Composting.
2. Which is a way the agricultural industry D. Selective breeding. (Hybridization)

could have a positive impact on the envi- 6. What living organism did the Egyptians
ronment? discover that made bread rise?
A. by increasing the use of wind farms to A. Helium
produce electricity
B. Egg
B. by making robots to produce large C. Yeast
farm machines
D. Bacteria
C. by reducing the need for countries to
import food 7. Biotechnology is developing a new source
for rennin. The old way to get rennin was
D. none of above
from:
3. Which of these is a concern about the use A. Sheep liver extract.
of biotechnology? B. Inside a calf?s stomach.
A. increased crop yield C. Ground horse?s hooves.
B. development of new vaccines D. Lemon peels.
C. increased job opportunities 8. The male part of the flower is known as
D. creation of new pathogens. the
A. stamen
4. What plant substance turns plants green
B. pistil
and helps the plant capture light?
C. ovary
A. Eosinophil
D. petal
B. Chlorophyll
9. How many independent variables should
C. Slime
be tested at a time in a scientific investi-
D. Pollen gation?

A. none 15. process of removing and inserting genes

B. one from one organism and inserting them into
the DNA of another
C. two
D. three A. Gene splicing
10. What is the function of phloem tissue? B. Gene mapping

A. Transport water and minerals C. Heredity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Support plants
D. Gene
C. Photosynthesis process occur
D. Transports glucose and other nutri- 16. Mr. McNeice wanted to know if differ-
ents ent types of music affected people’s heart
11. What percent of time is the procedure, rates, so he played different music and
DNA microinjection, successful? checked their pulses. What is the depen-
dent variable?
A. 3%
B. 30% A. type of music
C. 60% B. heart rate
D. 90%
C. how long they listend to music
12. What plant is an example of a tuber?
D. Mr. McNeice
A. Spider plant
B. Geranium
17. 2) In what way is biotechnology useful to
C. Irish potato law enforcement agencies such as the po-
D. Onion lice or FBI?
13. Which area of biotechnology would create A. It can help identify who was present at
ethical issues within human society? the scene of a crime.
A. insulin produced by bacteria B. It can help undercover officers dis-
B. organ cloning for use in transplants guise themselves.
C. genetic engineering to improve agri- C. It might help determine who might be
cultural yields the victime of a future crime.
D. DNA and forensic testing of crime
scene evidence D. It can help determine who is most
likely to become a criminal in the future.
14. The Human Genome Project has made di-
agnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a
18. Regions containing actively dividing cells.
genetic disorder is diagnosed, can be
used as a possible treatment. A. Phloem
A. cell cultures
B. Guard Cells
B. gene therapy
C. DNA fingerprinting C. Meristem
D. PCR D. Xylem

19. 8) Scientists implant a gene into a species 24. The pistil is the:
of tomato plant that makes them ripen
A. Part of the plant where flowers first ap-
faster and stay firm as they are trans-

pear.
ported to stores. What is the benefit of
this technology? B. Part of the flower that breathes.
A. Increased toxins in the food. C. Female part of the flower.
B. Increase shelf life and availablity. D. Male part of the flower.
C. Decreased size of tomatoes.
25. Which is a benefit of genetically-modified
D. Increased seed production foods?
20. Which field would most likely NOT incor- A. The cost of research is included in the
porate biotechnology? cost to the consumer
A. Agriculture B. The cost of food decreases and the

quality of food increases
B. Genetics
C. genetically modified foods won’t need
C. Medicine to be studied
D. Mining D. “gmo’s” are completely resistant to
disease and drought
21. An example of the benefits of transgenic
animals is:
26. Asexual plant reproduction requires:
A. A cow that produces pork.
A. Only one organism.
B. A chicken that lays hard boiled eggs.
B. A male and a female.
C. Larger sheep that grow more wool.
C. A clone.
D. A pig that makes no waste.
D. A pistil and a stamen.
22. When scientists combine different plants
in an attempt to grow a plant with the best 27. The process by which water evaporates
traits from both parents, the new plant is out of a leaf is called
called a(an): A. Transpiration
A. Hybrid B. Absorption
B. Clone C. Transport
C. Variation D. Vascular tissue
D. Pistil
28. When we cut a gene out of a strand of
23. What is the name of the tiny plant inside DNA and paste it into another strand of
a seed? DNA, we have:
A. Nectar A. Ribosomes.
B. Fruit B. Message DNA or RNA.
C. Stem C. Lycopene.
D. Embryo D. Recombinant DNA.

29. A calf with a pair of white genes is all C. The pig?s offspring inherit the new
white, a calf with red genes is red, and a gene
calf with one white and one red gene has D. The pig is able to reproduce
a roan coat. If two red cows have four
calves, what color are the calves? 34. Which agricultural benefit can biotechnol-
A. Two red and two roan ogy provide?
B. One red, one white and two roan A. developing plants that are less depen-
dent on the sun for energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Four roan
B. developing plants that are less sensi-
D. Four red tive to variations in environmental temper-
atures
30. Some dairy farmers refuse to inject their
cows with recombinant BST, even through C. developing plants with inheritable
it might make their cows give more milk. traits unrelated to the genetic material
Why would they refuse? they contain
A. The milk might be unhealthy D. developing plants that will not die
B. The use of recombinant BST is illegal 35. A rhizome is a(n):
C. The use would drive down the cost of A. Plant cutting.
milk B. Underground stem.
D. Because they are completely unin- C. Flower.
formed about current uses of biotechnol-
ogy D. Bulb.
36. What characteristic is MOST LIKELY bred

31. The Wisconsin Fast Plant is from what
for in grapes?
species of plant?
A. Cost
A. Dandelion
B. Seedlessness
B. Brassica
C. Bruising
C. Sapian
D. Carbohydrates
D. Diffenbachia
37. 6) What type of job would a person who
32. creating an exact genetic duplicate of an- studied biotechnology in college be likely
other organism to have?
A. cloning/micropropagation A. A job making medicines
B. gene mapping B. A job studying stars.
C. biofuels C. A job studying the physical features on
D. base pairs Earth.
D. none of above
33. Scientists in a lab attempt to create a
transgenic pig. How can they tell if they 38. What two types of asexual reproduction
were truly successful? are the MOST similar?
A. The pig lives to adulthood A. Runners and tissue cultures
B. The pig does not have any seizures B. Bulb and corms

C. Clones and cell cultures D. Increased food production and income

D. Rhizomes and cuttings for the farmers.

43. Using oil eating bacteria to clean up an oil
39. Jennie’s friend, Molly, has a beautiful
spill is called?
African violet. Molly removes a stem and
leaves from the African violet and puts it A. Biostimulation
in soil, hoping to grow an African violet for B. Bioremediation
Jennie. This is an example of what type of
C. Phytoremediation
asexual reproduction?
D. none of above
A. Cloning
B. Creeping 44. Xylem and phloem are examples of what
tissue type?
C. Cuttings
A. Vascular tissue
D. Canteens
B. Root tissue
40. In the article “Herman Becomes a Father”, C. Dermal tissue
how did scientists get Herman to carry the
human gene for lactoferrin? D. Ground tissue
A. The gene was added in vitro when Her- 45. Which of the following subjects would
man was an embryo. someone most likely study if he or she
wanted to work in the biotechnology
B. When Herman was a calf, they fed him
field?
with human milk containing lactoferrin.
A. Chemistry
C. They did a bone marrow transplant
with human marrow. B. Genetics
D. The gene was injected into the nucleus C. Physics
of his brain cells. D. Environmental Science
41. ONE cell from a carrot taproot is put into 46. How can biotechnology help farmers over-
a tube of water with plant nutrients, and come sudden changes in the environment?
can regenerate into an entire plant. This is A. by developing crops which are resis-
an example of a: tant to winter weather
A. Clone. B. by changing the types of soil where the
B. Runner. crops are planted
C. Cell culture. C. by rotating the crop within the same
field by using simple machines
D. Throat culture.
D. to grow crops in the laboratory
42. 4) How can using genetically engineered
crops impact North Carolina’s economy? 47. All living things receive ALL their genetic
traits from their:
A. Improve quality of farm equipment.
A. Parents.
B. Decreased availability of productive
land. B. Mother.
C. Decreased food production and more C. Father.
debt for farmers. D. Brother.

48. What substance in flowers attracts bees 53. Which process uses a body cell to create a
and butterflies? new organism?
A. Embryo A. Crossbreeding
B. Periosteum B. cloning
C. Carbon dioxide C. genetic modification
D. Nectar D. gene splicing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. In the fall of the year, the days get shorter 54. What is a transgene?
and trees change colors. Why do leaves A. A mutant chromosome
change their colors?
B. A gene that is different as a result of
A. Because they dry up. genetic engineering
B. They stop making chlorophyll. C. The offspring of a genetically engi-
C. They become coated with colorful al- neered animal
gae. D. A gene that does not carry any traits
D. The air temperature causes the color
55. Before transgenic animals, farmers prac-
change
ticed selective breeding. An example is
crossing a horse with a donkey to produce
50. Strawberries have been genetically modi-
a:
fied to resist frost. How does this benefit
farmers? A. Kangaroo.
A. A longer growing season. B. Mule.
B. A pest-resistant berry. C. Gelding.
C. A larger berry. D. Race horse.
D. Easier harvesting. 56. Which of these would be a concern about
the use of biotechnology?
51. How long does it take for a Wisconsin Fast
Plant to mature? A. creation of new pathogens
A. 4 days B. making of new vaccines
B. 28 days C. increased opportunities for jobs
C. 40 days D. increased crop yield
D. 200 days 57. What benefit will transgenic cow?s milk

LIKELY have?
52. Which career field is most related to
A. It will contain Vitamin D.
biotechnology?
B. Diseases such as PKU and cystic fibro-
A. journalism
sis can be treated.
B. medicine
C. It will contain no calories.
C. meterology
D. No refrigeration will be needed be-
D. political science cause it never spoils.

58. DNA is wound tightly to form a ? 64. open and close the stomata.
A. DNA A. Guard cells

B. Chromosome B. Xylem
C. Gene C. Roots
D. none of above D. Phloem
59. The differences that occur within the off-
65. The process of creating an exact copy of
spring of a particular species are called:
the parent plant.
A. Selection.
A. crossbreeding
B. Extension.
B. cloning
C. Variation.
C. genetic modification
D. Closure.
D. gene splicing
60. Process of both finding and recording the
locations of genes 66. Small section of DNA is called?
A. cloning/micropropagation A. DNA
B. gene mapping B. Gene
C. biofuels C. Clone
D. base pairs D. Double Helix
61. How are scientists able to produce a type
of corn that will repel insects? 67. Plants take in carbon dioxide from the air
and give off:
A. by not spraying the corn plants
A. Oxygen.
B. by soaking corn seeds in insect spray
B. Nectar.
C. by changing the genetics of the corn
plants C. Sugar.
D. by altering the temperature of soil so D. Steam.
the insects will die
68. Using poplar trees to remove toxins from
62. Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cyto- soil is called what?
sine are called?
A. Bioremidation
A. Base Pairs
B. Biostimulation
B. Genes
C. Phytoremediation
C. Double Helix
D. none of above
D. Chromosome
63. Which of these is not a way in which 69. The first successful transgenic animal in
biotechnology can benefit agriculture? 1980 was a:
A. increasing crop yield A. Dog.
B. reducing the loss of crops to insects B. Cow.
C. producing better-tasting fruits C. Horse.
D. improving farm machinery D. Mouse.

1.16 Molecular biology 400
1.16 Molecular biology

1. Which best describes respiration? 6. How does the enzyme that makes RNA
A. a cell process that releases energy know where to start transcribing the
from food DNA?
B. a cell process that converts carbon A. The enzyme starts at a promoter,

dioxide into energy which is a region of DNA that has specific
base sequences.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. a plant process where sunlight is con-
verted into energy B. The enzyme starts at a start codon.
D. a plant process where chlorophyll pro- C. The enzyme does not know where to
duces sugar energy start it just starts at a random point on
the DNA.
2. Transcription starts with and results in
D. The enzyme uses the tRNA and rRNA
to determine the spot on the DNA where
A. DNA / mRNA the transcribing begins.
B. mRNA / DNA
7. Proteins are polymers with a large range
C. mRNA / tRNA
of structures and functions because
D. mRNA / Amino Acid Chain
A. Each individual has a unique proteome
3. HISTORY: Discovered Bacterial Transfor-
mation B. They can be folded into different three
A. Fredrick Griffeth dimensional shapes
B. Erwin Chargaff C. They are made of amino acids which
C. Rosalind Franklin are amphoteric
D. Martha Chase D. They contain the element nitrogen
4. If the DNA molecule with 6 paired nitrogen 8. Conservative transposons refers to the
bases were transcribed, how many codons movement of elements
would the resulting mRNA molecule con-
A. Large
tain?
B. Small
A. 1
B. 2 C. Medium
C. 3 D. none of above
D. 6 9. Starch and water molecules in potato cells
5. Which ratio is constant for DNA? are stored in what organelle?
A. A + G / T + C A. mitochondria
B. A + T / G + C B. nucleus
C. A + C / U + G C. cell wall
D. A + U / G + C D. vacuole

10. Aerobic respiration requires C. Cytosine

A. water D. Thymine

B. oxygen
15. Which molecule is broken down during
C. glucose cellular respiration to produce energy for
D. none of above plants and animals?
A. glucose
11. Which best describes how a diet with low
carbohydrate intake would affect glucose B. alcohol
levels and cellular respiration?
C. oxygen
A. Glucose levels would decrease, and
D. carbon dioxide
cellular respiration would decrease.
B. Glucose levels would increase, and cel- 16. DNA can only be copied in the:
lular respiration would decrease.
A. eukaryotic cell
C. Glucose levels would increase, and cel-
B. 5’ to 3’ direction
lular respiration would increase.
C. 3’ to 5’ direction
D. Glucose levels would decrease, and
cellular respiration would increase. D. reverse order
12. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in 17. The percentage of thymine in the DNA
the following of an organism is approximately 30 %.
A. Cytosine What is the percentage of guanine?
B. Thymine A. 70 %
C. Uracil B. 30 %
D. Adenine C. 40 %
13. What is the basis for the difference in how D. 20 %

the leading and lagging strands of DNA
18. An enzyme is a
molecules are synthesized?
A. DNA polymerase can join new nu- A. carbohydrate.
cleotides to the 3’ end of the preexisting B. protein.
strand.
C. lipid.
B. Helicases and single-strand binding
D. nucleic acid.
proteins work at the 5’ end.
C. The origins of replication occur only at 19. Which of the following help(s) to hold the
the 5’ end. DNA strands apart while they are being
D. DNA ligase works only in the 3’ to 5’ replicated?
direction A. RNA primase
14. Guanine bonds with B. single-strand binding proteins
A. Adenine C. DNA polymerase I
B. Guanine D. DNA ligase

20. Unbranched starch in helix form 26. Under light, a plant would grow well
A. Amylopectin because chlorophyll would the pho-
tons.
B. Glycogen
A. red, reflect
C. Amylose
B. green, reflect
D. Cellulose
C. red, absorb
21. What bonds hold DNA bases together? D. green, absorb
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. nitrogen bonds 27. The codon chart contains what informa-
B. hydrogen bonds tion?
C. phosphorus bonds A. amino acids
D. carbon bonds B. DNA sequences
C. protein chains
22. What is the name for this RNA –> pro-
teins? D. sugars
A. translation 28. The two polynucleotide chains of DNA are

held together by bonds between
B. transcription
A. amino acids.
C. replication
B. sugars and phosphates.
D. none of these
C. complementary bases.
23. What organelle surrounds and supports D. adenine and uracil.
plant cells?
29. Cytosine always pairs with
A. Cell Membrane
A. Adenine
B. Cell Wall
B. Thymine
C. Nucleus
C. Uracil
D. Golgi Complex
D. Guanine
24. Carbohydrates are broken down into
smaller molecules for what purpose? 30. Further processing of eukaryotic mRNA in-
cludes
A. to form cell membranes
A. Splicing and tailing
B. to form muscle
B. Caping and tailing
C. to transmit genetic information C. caping, tailing and splicing
D. to provide energy D. Splicing only
25. REPLICATION:DNA Replication is: 31. The site where transcription begins
A. Is Semi-conservative A. Rho factor
B. Is a double helix B. In nucleus
C. Has no hydrogen Bonds C. promoter
D. Makes a protein D. template

32. How to start or initiate the lac operon func- 36. what do the lines between the A-T and G-
tion? C pairs represent?

A. Glucose is available, lactose not avail- A. ionic bonds
able B. hydrogen bonds
B. Sucrose not available, pentose is avail- C. covalent bonds
able
D. van der walls forces
C. Pentose not available, sucrose is avail-
able 37. In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene
D. Glucose not available, lactose is avail- called dnaB that alters the DNA helicase
able that normally acts at the origin. Which of
the following would you expect as a result
33. Meselson and Stahl conducted experi- of this mutation?
ments using the isotopes 14N and 15N A. Replication will occur via RNA poly-
which showed that DNA replication is semi- merase alone.
conservative. What would they have ob-
served about the distribution of isotopes B. The DNA will supercoil.
in the DNA after one round of replication C. No replication fork will be formed.
if DNA replication was conservative rather D. No proofreading will occur.
than semi-conservative?
38. Which is true about active transport?
A. Only 14N DNA
A. It requires energy
B. Only 15N DNA
B. it does not require energy
C. All DNA half 14N and half 15N
C. It moves substances down the concen-
D. Half the DNA with only 14N and half
tration gradient
with only 15N
D. it moves material from high to low con-
34. What will be the sequence on the mRNA centration
molecule that is produced when the
DNA base sequence ACTGATGCC is tran- 39. is important characteristics of IS se-
scribed? quence 5’ - 3’ end 5 - 11bps are generated
from target site DNA
A. ACTGATGCC
A. Direct repeat
B. ACUGAUGCC
C. TGACTACGG B. Indirect repeat
D. UGACUACGG C. Inverted repeat

D. none of above
35. When people exercise and limit fluid in-
take, the kidneys reduce the amount of 40. Sickle Cell Anemia is caused by a “point”
water taken from the blood to maintain mutation. Which of the following correctly
balance. What best explains why less wa- describes this type of mutation?
ter is removed? A. A nucleotide or group of nucleotides
A. Homeostasis is inserted into the wrong location in the
B. Cellular Respiration DNA. This changes the order in which the
nucleotides are “read” and results in the
C. Fermentation synthesis of an incorrect amino acid se-
D. Diffusion quence.

B. A nucleotide or group of nucleotides is B. 60

deleted from the DNA. This changes the C. 90
order in which the nucleotides are “read”
and results in the synthesis of an incorrect D. 10
amino acid sequence. 45. Which of these is in order from largest to
C. An incorrect nucleotide is substituted smallest.
for the correct nucleotide. This changes A. chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nu-
one codon in the gene sequence. This re- cleotide
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sults in a change in one amino acid in the
B. nucleotide, DNA, chromosome, nu-
protein. This change in one amino acid
cleus, cell
changes the overall shape/function of the
protein. C. cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nu-
cleotide
D. Several incorrect nucleotides are sub-
stituted for their correct counterparts. D. cell, nucleotide, DNA, chromosome,
This changes several of the amino acids nucleus
in the protein and results in a protein that 46. Which enzyme help in the synthesis of ATP
is misshapen and not functional.
A. Enolase
41. A process in which DNA has the unique abil- B. ATP Synthase
ity to make an exact copy of itself.
C. Hexokinase
A. Replication
D. none of above
B. Translation
47. If a section of a gene with the base se-
C. Transcription
quence ATTGC is transcribed, what is the
D. none of above sequence of the RNA made?
42. At room temperature, water is a liquid and A. UAACG
methane is a gas. Which molecular prop- B. AUUGC
erty explains this difference? C. UUUGC
A. Higher molecular mass of water D. TAACG
B. Dipolarity of water
48. Which molecule provided by plants ac-
C. Presence of more hydrogen in counts for the energy in an animal’s diet?
methane
A. glucose
D. Higher boiling point than methan
B. protein
43. Amino acids are the building blocks of C. salt
A. Fats D. oxygen
B. Minerals
49. What is the amino acid code for start
C. Carbohydrates codon?
D. Protein A. Phe
44. How many nitrogen bases would code for B. Met
a polypeptidethat is 30 amino acids long? C. Leu
A. 30 D. Ile

50. Why do we sweat? When water evapo- 55. Which type of reaction is the breakdown
rates, it a lot of energy from the sys- of starch into sugars?
tem due to the fact that it has a high latent

A. Denaturation
heat of evaporation. This is felt as a
sensation. B. Reducation
C. Catabolic
A. removes, cooling
D. Condensation
B. removes, heating
56. Which of the following is considered a pro-
C. adds, cooling
tein’s secondary structure?
D. adds, heating
A. alpha helices
51. James exercises for 30 minutes per day, B. beta sheets
five days a week. This moderate exercise C. interactions between close amino
program most likely provides which bene- acids
fit?
D. all of the above
A. loss of bone and muscle strength
57. Mutations are
B. improvement in overall health
A. Changes in the sequence of DNA
C. increased blood pressure
B. Broken chromosomes
D. decreased energy levels C. Bad genes
52. The shape of ribose is D. none of above
A. square 58. Where does photosynthesis occur?

B. pentagon A. mitochondria
C. hexagon B. stomata
C. xylem
D. octagon
D. chloroplast
53. Which is necessary for a plant to convert
the energy of the sun into energy it can 59. Which of the following would be a nu-
use? cleotide found in DNA
A. Ribose + phosphate + uracil
A. calcium chloride
B. Deoxyribose + phosphate + uracil
B. chlorophyll
C. Deoxyribose + phosphate + adenine
C. glucose
D. Ribose + phosphate + adenine
D. oxygen
60. Which of the following describes RNA?
54. DNA stands for: A. RNA is usually double-stranded and
A. Deoxyriboclean contains the base thymine.
B. RNA is usually single-stranded and
B. Does Nothing Always
contains the base uracil.
C. Did Not Attempt
C. RNA is longer than DNA and uses five
D. Deoxyribonucleic acid bases to encode information.

D. RNA is made in the nucleus of eukary- 66. What are Okazaki fragments?
otic cells and stay there to carry out its
A. pieces of new DNA forming on the lag-
functions.
ging strand
61. Which digestive process STARTS cellular B. pieces of new DNA forming on that
respiration? leading strand
A. Eliminating waste C. pieces of DNA that are discarded
B. Filtering out harmful substances
D. pieces of RNA that serve as primers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Breaking down food into glucose
D. Chewing up food in your mouth into 67. fills the single stranded gaps in mech-
smaller pieces anism of bacterial IS element transposi-
tions
62. The induced fit model is preferred over the
A. RNA polymerase
lock-and-key model because
A. some enzymes catalyze multiple reac- B. DNA polymerase
tions. C. RNA ligase
B. all substrates have the same shape. D. DNA ligase
C. the active site is a polar region.
68. What is a difference between the sense
D. the enzyme and substrate match each and antisense strands of DNA?
other structurally and chemically.
A. Nucleotides are linked to the sense
63. How many amino acids are coded for by strand by hydrogen bonding during tran-
this sequence of nucleotides:ATG GGA ACT scription, but not to the antisense strand.
CCA
A. 4 B. The sense strand has the same base
B. 2 sequence as tRNA, but the antisense
C. 6 strand does not.
D. 12 C. Nucleotides are linked to the anti-
sense strand by hydrogen bonding during
64. An insertion sequence or IS element is a transcription, but not to the sense strand.
short sequence moves from one loca-
tion to another
D. The antisense strand has the same
A. DNA base sequence as mRNA but the sense
B. RNA strand does not.
C. mRNA
69. Which best describes the process by which
D. tRNA the energy from the sun is used to create
glucose (sugar) molecules?
65. DNA has the following bases EXCEPT:
A. Cytosine A. Fermentation
B. Adenine B. Photosynthesis
C. Guanine C. Chemosynthesis
D. Uracil D. Cellular respiration

70. Which food provides the most energy for C. neutral

the body in the shortest amount of time? D. none of above

A. potato
75. A mutation can occur if a base pair is ,
B. meat deleted, or substituted for another.
C. milk A. modified
D. fruit B. added
71. Why is the action spectrum for photosyn- C. transferred
thesis similar to the absorption spectra of D. none of above
photosynthetic pigments?
A. Photosynthetic pigments have the 76. A polymer of alpha-D-glucose found in
same optimum temperature as the en- plants has mostly 1, 4 linkages and some
zymes used in photosynthesis. 1, 6 linkages. Which molecule fits this de-
scription?
B. Plants absorb the same photosyn-
thetic pigments for use in photosynthesis. A. Glycogen
B. Cellulose
C. Only wavelengths of light absorbed by C. Amylose
pigments can be used in photosynthesis.
D. Amylopectin
D. The amount of energy absorbed by
photosynthetic pigments is equal to the ac- 77. Where is replication located?
tivation energy for photosynthesis. A. nucleus
72. The enzyme during transcription moves in B. cytoplasm
direction and construction of mRNA is C. ribosome
in direction.
D. nucleolus
A. 3’ to 5’, 3’ to 5’
B. 3’ to 5’, 5’ to 3’ 78. Crystal is trying to increase the protein in
her diet. Which foods will best satisfy this
C. 5’ to 3’, 5’ to 3’ nutritional need?
D. 5’ to 3’ and 3’ to 5’ A. peas, fish, milk, and beans
73. Where in the cell does translation occur? B. apples, carrots, juice, and rice
A. always the cytoplasm C. kiwi, lettuce, tea, and strawberries
B. always the nucleus D. watermelon, spinach, coffee, and
C. in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes and the pasta
nucleus in prokaryotes 79. Which biomolecule is your main source of
D. in the cytoplasm in prokaryotes and energy?
the nucleus in eukaryotes A. Nucleic Acid
74. What charge is DNA? B. Protein
A. positive C. Lipid
B. negative D. Carbohydrate

80. A template strand of DNA is 3’ TAG- C. Rosalind Franklin

GCATTGCA 5’.What is the complementary D. Linnus Pauling
DNA strand that is created from this tem-
plate during replication? 85. In bacteria, transposons jump from
A. 5’ TGCAATGCCTA 3’ A. Plasmid DNA to chromosomal RNA
B. 5’ TAGGCATTGCA 3’ B. Chromosomal DNA to plasmid DNA
C. 5’ AUCCGUAACGU 3’ C. Plasmid RNA to chromosomal DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 5’ ATCCGTAACGT 3’ D. Chromosomal RNA to plasmid DNA
81. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses 86. Because some amino acids can be coded for
by fragmenting viral DNA with by multiple codons, this type of mutation
A. Ligase is possible.
B. Endonuclease A. Nonsense Mutation
C. Exonuclease B. Missense Mutation
D. Gyrase C. Degenerate Mutation
82. Some yeast genes can be replaced by hu- D. Silent Mutation

man genes that then continue to produce
87. If a DNA molecule is 18% Guanine which
the same human proteins in the yeast cells.
of the following is correct
Which statement helps to explain this evi-
dence? A. 18% cytosine, 32% adenine, 32%
thymine
A. The DNA of yeast and humans is iden-
tical. B. 32% cytosine, 18% adenine, 32%
thymine
B. Yeast and humans have the same num-
ber of chromosomes. C. 18% cytosine, 64% adenine, 64%
thymine
C. The genetic code is universal.
D. 32% cytosine, 32% adenine, 18%
D. Yeast and humans are both eukary-
thymine
otes.
83. Which of the following is the correct equa- 88. Which molecule carries the protein code
tion for PHOTOSYNTHESIS? from the nucleus to the ribosome?
A. 6CO2 + 6H2O –> 6O2 + C6H12O6 A. tRNA
B. 6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O –> O2 B. rRNA
C. 6O2 + 6H2O –> 6CO2 + C6H12O6 C. mRNA
D. C6H12O6 + 6O2 —> 6H2O + 6CO2 D. DNA
84. HISTORY: Two time Nobel Prize winner 89. In cellular respiration, approximately
who suggested a structure for DNA - but 38% of the energy contained in glucose is
got it completely wrong released for an organism to use carrying
out life processes. Which best explains
A. James Watson what happens to the remaining 62% of
B. Francis Crick the energy contained in glucose?

A. The energy is used to start the process 93. The enzyme catalase hydrolyzes H2O2
of cellular respiration when more glucose (hydrogen peroxide) into what products?
is consumed by the organism.

A. H2O + O2
B. The energy is used to convert leftover
glucose into protein to be stored by the B. H2O2 + O2
cells of the organism. C. CO2 + O2
C. The energy is stored by the cells and D. NH3 + O2
released later when needed by the or-
ganim. 94. The addition of nucleotides to a growing
D. The energy is converted to thermal en- mRNA strand is called
ergy, which provides heat to the organ-
A. splicing
ism.
B. frameshift
90. Which would NOT be a part of production
of lactose-free products? C. elongation
A. filter milk over enzyme immobilized in D. mutagen
mesh
B. hydrolysis of lactase 95. Which nutrient should be consumed after
intense workouts or games for recovery
C. hydrolysis of lactose of damaged muscle tissue?
D. adding digestive enzyme to dairy prod-
A. Protein
ucts
B. Carbohydrate
91. What process forms triglycerides?
C. Fat
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation D. Water
C. Hydrolysis 96. What is the location in the cell for transla-
D. Glycolysis tion?
92. What is the function of telomeres on a A. nucleus
DNA strand? B. mitochondria
A. They are used as a recognition site for
C. ribosome
DNA helicase to bond & begin “unzipping”
the strand for replication. D. chloroplast
B. They bond the Okazaki fragments to-
gether forming a continuous replication of 97. If a solvent moves 8 cm up a piece of chro-
DNA on the lagging strand. matography paper and a pigment moves 5
cm, what is the piment’s retention factor
C. When cell continually replicate, the (Rf)?
DNA gets shorter so by adding telomeres
to the ends of DNA, they extend the life of A. 0.63
a cell. B. 0.40
D. They help untangle the DNA strand
C. 0.16
prior to DNA helicase’s arrival to unzip the
DNA strand, readying it for replication. D. 1.60

98. For which discovery about DNA do Watson 103. Which process uses oxygen and food
and Crick receive credit? molecules to produce energy for animal
cells.
A. The shape of DNA is a double helix.
A. digestion
B. DNA is the molecule that genes are
made of. B. glycolysis
C. Phosphate-pentose bonding along the C. cellular respiration
nucleotide backbone is covalent. D. photosynthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The amount of adenine equals the
104. In which year was chemical hypothesis
amount of thymine in an organism.
proposed
99. Which is true of DNA? A. 1967
A. bases are A, T, C, G B. 1963
B. sugar is ribose C. 1972
C. it is single stranded D. 1973
D. it is short 105. Which of the following processes pro-
duces CO2?I. PhotosynthesisII. Alcohol
100. Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA? (ethanol) fermentationIII. Lactic acid pro-
A. pair of nucleic acid and sugar duction
B. pair of phosphate and sugar A. I only
C. three-base code B. II only
D. two-base code C. I and III only

D. I, II and III
101. Which is most likely a potential high
risk health problem for someone who con- 106. The molecule that copies the genetic in-
sumes a diet high in sugar and fat and low structions from DNA is
in protein and fiber? A. rRNA
A. obesity B. mRNA
B. blindness C. tRNA
C. lung cancer D. none of above
D. stomach ulcers 107. Which of the following best describes the
flow of information in a cell?
102. Which team of scientists ultimately dis-
covered the double-helical structure of A. mRNA → DNA → tRNAtrait
DNA and what was their technique? B. tRNA → mRNA → proteintrait
A. Watson&Crick, cardboard models C. DNA → mRNA → proteintrait
B. Watson&Crick, X-ray diffraction D. protein → DNA → mRNAtrait
C. Franklin&Wilkins, cardboard models
108. The process in which an RNA polymerase
D. Franklin&Wilkins, X-ray diffraction molecule assembles a mRNA molecule

whose nucleotide sequence is complemen- C. unstable.

tary to the DNA sequence is called D. unconcentrated.

A. gene amplification
114. UAG, UGA, and UAA are stop codons.
B. translation
What does that mean?
C. transcription
A. the building of the mRNA is complete
D. PCR
B. the building of the polypeptide is com-
109. Which best describes a result of a well- plete
balanced diet? C. the replication of the DNA is complete
A. regulation of blood sugar levels
B. elevation of the heart rate D. the building of the tRNA is complete
C. accumulation of fat reserves 115. These are the region of lac operon EX-
D. reduction in energy production during CEPT
respiration A. cAMP site
110. Uncontrollable cell growth is known as B. operator
C. promoter
A. obesity D. lacZ, lacY and lacA
B. cancer
116. These are the stop codon sequence EX-
C. diabetes CEPT
D. hepatitis A. UAA
111. TRANSLATION: Smaller segments of B. UAG
clover leaf shaped RNA that transport C. AUG
amino acids:
D. UGA
A. Messenger RNA
B. Transfer RNA 117. How do gene mutations contribute to
evolution?
C. Ribosomal RNA
A. Beneficial mutations are passed on to
D. Okazaki Fragments
several members of a generation, quickly
112. Where does DNA replication take place? taking hold in a population.
A. Nucleus B. Unfavorable mutations have a more
significant effect on genes than do fa-
B. Ribosome
vorable mutations, so they are spread
C. Cytoplasm through the population.
D. Golgi Body C. Natural selection favors beneficial mu-
tations, so they survive and are passed on
113. Enzymes used in industry are commonly to future generations.
A. immobilized. D. Beneficial and unfavorable mutations
B. replaced after every catalysis reaction. take hold in the population equally over nu-
merous generations.

118. The central dogma of biology states that are sections of mRNA that were fine with
information flows in one direction from no mutations.
A. nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm D. Introns are sections of mRNA that had
B. ribosomes to proteins to DNA mutations which have been fixed. Exons
are sections of mRNA that were fine with
C. genes to nuclei to ribosomes
no mutations.
D. DNA to RNA to proteins
123. Protein is broken down into be-
119. The region of an operon where regulatory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
fore they are asborbed into the small in-
proteins bind is the testines.
A. operator A. fatty acids
B. anticodon B. amino acids
C. codon
C. citric acid
D. RNA
D. hydrochiloric
120. As temperature increases toward the op-
timal level, the kinetic energy of the en- 124. When a DNA molecule is replicated, how
zyme and substrate , resulting in do the new molecules compare to the orig-
collisions. inal molecule?
A. increases, more frequent A. Each new DNA molecule has half of the
information of the original.
B. increases, less frequent
B. Each new DNA molecule has double
C. decreases, more frequent
the information of the original.
D. decreases, less frequent
C. Each new DNA molecule is an exact
121. Where in the cell does the first step of complement of the original.
protein synthesis take occur? D. Each new DNA molecule is an exact du-
A. in the cell membrane plicate of the original.
B. on the rough ER 125. convert light energy into food
C. in the nucleus through photosynthesis.
D. at the ribososmes A. Vacuoles
122. What is the difference between an intron B. Ribosomes
and an exon? C. The Golgi apparatus
A. Exons are sections of mRNA that are D. Chloroplasts
not needed for protein synthesis. Introns
are sections of mRNA that are needed for 126. A mutation that changes a thymine nu-
protein synthesis. cleotide to a guanine nucleotide is what
B. Introns are sections of mRNA that are type of mutation?
not needed for protein synthesis. Exons A. frameshift mutation
are sections of mRNA that are needed for
B. point mutation
protein synthesis.
C. Exons are sections of mRNA that had C. reading frame mutation
mutations which have been fixed. Introns D. all of these are correct

127. Which is an effect of protein denatura- C. in a mitochondrion near a ribosome

tion? D. on the vacuole attached to the nucleus

A. The order of amino acids is changed
132. What is the maximum number of fatty
when the protein overheats.
acids that can be condensed with glyc-
B. The bonds between amino acids are erol?
broken by condensation.
A. 1
C. Parts of the protein become linked to- B. 2
gether by hydrolysis.
C. 3
D. The three-dimensional structure of the
protein is altered. D. 4
133. If 20% of a DNA sample is made up of
128. What is the opposite reaction of photo-
thymine, T, what percentage of the sample
synthesis called?
is made up of cytosine, C?
A. Cellular Respiration A. 15%
B. Fermentation B. 30%
C. Photosynthetic Process C. 35%
D. Non-photosynthesis D. 50%
129. What is the name for this: each se- 134. In the making of a protein, the amino acid
quence of DNA bases encodes the informa- order is determined by which of the follow-
tion needed to make a unique protein ing?
A. replication A. the amount of glucose present in the
cell
B. one-gene, one-protein theory
B. the order of genes expressed in the
C. one-gene, one-protein hypothesis
chromosomes
D. transcription
C. the order of nitrogenous bases in DNA
130. What is formed during transcription?
A. RNA strand complementary to DNA D. the random addition of amino acids
strand, formed by RNA polymerase from the tRNA
B. DNA strand complementary to DNA 135. The process of making an mRNA strand
strand, formed by DNA polymerase from a DNA template is called
C. RNA strand complementary to RNA A. Replication
strand, formed by DNA polymerase B. Transcription
D. DNA strand complementary to RNA C. Translation
strand, formed by RNA polymerase D. Protein Synthesis
131. Which best describes where the process 136. How are plant cells and human cells the
of translation happens within a living same?
cell?
A. They can produce their own oxygen.
A. in the nucleus B. They can receive nutrients through the
B. at a ribosome in the cytoplasm cell wall.

C. They make their own glucose from sun- 141. Which best describes the purpose of
light during photosynthesis. food?
D. They use mitochondria to release en- A. to kill bacteria
ergy from glucose during cellular respira-
tion. B. to prevent disease
C. to eliminate waste materials
137. This is high between active site and sub-
strate and low between active site and D. to provide fuel for cell processes
product
NARAYAN CHANGDER
142. Which of the following is a base that is
A. orientation
NOT contained in DNA?
B. lowers activation energy
A. Adenine
C. induced fit
B. Thymine
D. affinity
C. Uracil
138. The only N-containing nutrient available
to a group of bacteria is heavy (15N) nitro- D. Guanine
gen, All the bacteria divide just once and
the new DNA in these new cells is exam- 143. Mode of DNA replication is
ined (after DNA replication). What type of A. Conservative and bidirectional
nitrogen would you find in that DNA?
B. Semiconservative and unidirectional
A. Only heavy nitrogen (15N) strands in
the DNA molecules C. Semiconservative and bidirectional
B. Some heavy (15N) and some light nitro- D. Conservative and unidirectional
gen strands in the DNA molecules
144. What is an example of a protein you
C. One heavy (15N) and one light strand
could add to your plate?
in each DNA molecule
D. Variable nitrogen in the DNA A. Apple
molecules B. Carrots
139. What do we call DNA replication since C. Chicken
new DNA has 1 parent strand and 1 new D. Olive oil
strand?
A. Conservative 145. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA ac-
B. Semiconservative cording to size. Which is true regarding
movement of the DNA?
C. Dispersive
A. the longest pieces of DNA will move
D. none of above
the least distance
140. During , cells break down simple food B. . the longest pieces of DNA will move
molecules and release energy. the greatest distance
A. photosynthesis
C. . the shortest pieces of DNA will move
B. cellular respiration the least distance
C. glycolysis D. the shortest pieces of DNA line up
D. anaerobic respriation along the middle

146. TRANSCRIPTION:Transcription occurs in 152. Which of the following statements is true

the: about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A. nucleus A. Extensive RNA processing is required
B. cytoplasm before prokaryotic transcripts can be
translated.
C. ribosomes
B. Prokaryotic cells have complicated
D. kitchen
mechanisms for targeting proteins to the
147. Which DIRECTLY determines the sequence appropriate cellular organelles.
of amino acids in a polypeptide chain? C. Translation can begin while transcrip-
A. mRNA tion is still in progress.
B. tRNA D. Translation requires antibiotic activity.
C. rRNA 153. What is the name given to the first step
D. DNA of protein synthesis?
148. The cell theory said that A. transcription
A. Atoms create all matter B. translation
B. Living things evolve C. translocation
C. Cell activities depends on the activities D. protein synthesis
of subcellular structures within the cell
154. Gel electrophoresis
D. Cells are the basic unit of structure
and organization of organisms A. The method of copying strands of DNA
149. What replaces thymine in the RNA?

B. The method for cutting strands of DNA
A. adenine
B. uracil C. The method for separating strands of
C. guanine DNA
D. cytosine D. none of above
150. The two strands in DNA 155. Which of the following would comple-
A. run in opposite directions (antiparallel) ment the mRNA codon for CAG (DNA)
A. CAG
B. run in perpindicular directions B. AUG
C. run in the same direction (parallel) C. GUC
D. run in random directions D. UAC
151. What is the role of DNA ligase enzyme in
156. A covalent bond that joins amino acids,
Replication?
at the carboxyl group of one amino acid to
A. sealing of nucleotides nicks the amino group of the other amino acid,
B. Synthesis of DNA strand with the release of a molecule of water.
C. Lagging strand synthesis A. Ionic Bond
D. All of the above B. Glycosidic bond

C. Peptide bond 162. The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to pre-
D. Ester bond pare for replication
157. Which practice will most likely decrease A. helicase

the chances of developing long-term ill- B. replicase
ness?
C. polymerase
A. eating a high-fat diet
D. synthase
B. taking an aspirin every day
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. sleeping for five hours each night 163. What applications can gel electrophoresis
D. developing a regular exercise routine be used for?
158. Which statement correctly describes a A. Parental Testing

way that bacteria are used in biotechnol- B. Criminal Investigations
ogy?
A. Bacteria make human cells that make C. Sequence Endangered Species DNA
insulin. D. All of the above
B. Human insulin made by bacteria is in-
jected into humans. 164. Carbohydrates give us
C. Bacteria that make insulin are im- A. calcium
planted in humans
B. energy
D. Human insulin coding bacterial genes
are spliced into human cells. C. vitamins
159. What kind of mutation is the result of an D. strenght

insertion?
165. What is survival of the fittest?
A. Silent Mutation
B. Missense mutation A. The competition between organism
with same species and morphology
C. Nonsense mutation
B. Survival of organism in certain area
D. Frameshift mutation
C. Individuals with variations that are
160. Transcription is the process of:
better adapted will be more likely to sur-
A. Making DNA vive than those without
B. Making mRNA from DNA D. Characteristics that will be passed to
C. “Unzipping” the molecule of DNA the offspring.
D. Assembling a protein from RNA
166. Which scientist(s) said that adenine and
161. apart from proteins what else is found in guanine equals thymine and cytosine
the cell membrane
A. Franklin & Watkins
A. phospholipids
B. Chargaff
B. high energy electrons
C. hydrogen C. Griffith
D. enzymes D. Hershey & Chase

167. This produces cells for growth and re- C. during cell division, to ensure that the
pair. DNA will fit into the resulting new cells
D. after a cell divides, to provide each of

A. mitosis
B. meiosis the resulting new cells with a complete
set of DNA instructions
C. lipids
173. Number of hydrogen bonds between ade-
D. proteins
nine and thymine?
168. mRNA is A. 1
A. used as a template to make protein B. 2
B. part of a ribosome C. 3
C. a small molecule used by the ribosome D. 4
and is not made into protein
174. G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)
D. all of the above have transmembrane domains and are
associated with an intracellular G-protein
169. Gene occupies a specific position called
A. five
A. Histones
B. seven
B. Vacuole
C. nine
C. Orbit
D. none of above
D. Locus
175. Ubiquitin is about amino acid long
170. True or False: in translation, the lan-
A. 72
guage of the information is changed
B. 74
A. true
C. 76
B. false
D. none of above
C. it depends
176. If energy is needed to move materials
D. none of above
into or out of a cell, what is most likely
171. The genetic code consists of letter occurring?
words. A. active transport
A. one B. passive transport
B. two C. osmosis
C. three D. diffusion
D. four 177. How do diets high in fat affect the body?
172. At what point in the cell cycle does DNA A. Fat provides needed nutrients to help
replication occur and why? respiration.
A. before a cell divides, to provide each B. Fat supplies a majority of energy for
of the two resulting cells with a complete life processes.
set of DNA instructions C. Fat clogs blood vessels and reduces
B. before a cell divides, to ensure that the flow of oxygen.
DNA will fit into the resulting cells D. none of above

178. Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell 183. Which DNA has identical base pair se-
be passed on to an organism’s offspring? quences?
A. Yes, because any change to the DNA is A. DNA that segregates during mitosis
passed on to the offspring
B. DNA that segregates during mitosis 2
B. Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the
C. DNA that segregates either in mitosis
body’s genetic code. It might get the copy
or meiosis 1
of a gene that wasn’t mutated.
C. No. Only mutations that occur in the D. DNA that segregates during meiosis 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the 184. The directions found in a strand of DNA
offspring are copied onto mRNA during which pro-
D. Without knowing the animal, it would cess?
be hard to tell whether or not the muta-
A. replication
tion would be passed on.
B. synthesis
179. Restriction enzymes were discovered by
C. transcription
A. Alexander Fleming
D. translation
B. Smith and Nathans
C. Berg 185. controls what goes in and out of the cell
D. None A. cell membrane
180. What is the process in which an unspecial- B. nucleus

ized stem cell turns into a specialized body C. endoplasmic reticulum
cell? D. none of above
A. DNA Replication
186. Thymine makes up 42% of the nu-
B. Differentiation
cleotides in a sample of DNA from an or-
C. Respiration ganism. Approximately what percentage
D. Genetic Modification of the nucleotides in this sample will be
cytosine?
181. The element is found in all of the or-
ganic compounds. A. 42%
A. Iron B. 31%
B. Nitrogen C. 16%
C. Carbon D. 8%
D. Oxygen 187. In which of the following would there
182. Which of the following is directly in- NOT be a change in the amino acid se-
volved in the transportation of materials quence of the peptide coded for by this
inside/within the cell? DNA?
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum A. changing AAA to AAG
B. Vacuole B. changing TTC to ATC
C. Lysosome C. changing CCG to GCG
D. Mitochondria D. deleting the first A from AAA

188. Where are amino acids joined together to C. All species of life have evolved over
make polypeptides? time from common ancestors through the
process called natural selection

A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus D. Organisms are arranged from simple
to complex
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosomes 194. The codon is located on the
A. DNA
189. If the mRNA strand is AUG CCC GGG
what would the complementary tRNA B. mRNA
strand look like? C. tRNA
A. AUG CCC GGG D. rRNA
B. GGG CCC AUG
195. What is the enzyme responsible for DNA
C. UAC GGG CCC replication?
D. TAC GGG CCC A. DNA polymerase
190. DNA Probe B. RNA polymerase
A. The other side of a code for gene C. ribosome
B. An electric measuring tool D. nucleolus
C. A short sequence of radioactive nu- 196. PROCESSES: RNA making a protein is
cleotides called:
D. none of above A. Transmutation
191. A DNA molecule produced by combining B. Transferrance
DNA from different sources is called? C. Transcription
A. Mutant DNA D. Translation
B. Polyploid DNA
197. Genes may exist in several alternate
C. Diploid DNA forms called
D. Recombinant DNA A. Alleles
192. Avery and his coworkers showed the B. Clones
“transforming principle” as C. Purines
A. protein D. Pyrimidines
B. polysaccharide
198. What are Watson and Crick famous for?
C. DNA
A. confirming results that DNA was the
D. lipid genetic material in cells
193. What does Lamarck’s Theory state? B. inferring that genetic information can
A. Evolution occurred by the inheritance be transferred
of acquired characteristics C. making a 3D model of the double helix
B. Environment pressure causes body structure of DNA
changes D. taking x-ray images of DNA’s structure

199. Which best describes the hierarchy of cell 204. When the strong transcription occur?
organization? A. Glucose present, lactose absent
A. organ systems, cells, organs, tissues B. Glucose present, lactose present
B. tissues, organ systems, cells, organs C. Glucose absent, lactose absent
C. organs, cells, organs systems, tissues D. Glucose absent, lactose present
205. A codon consists of how many nu-

D. cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cleotides
200. Which statement about cells and sugar is A. 1
true? B. 2
A. Both animal cells and plant cells use C. 3
sugar. D. 4
B. Animal cells use sugar, but plant cells
206. In trying to determine whether DNA or
do not.
protein is the genetic material, Hershey
C. Animal cells do not use sugar, but and Chase made use of which of the fol-
plant cells do lowing facts?
D. Neither animal cells nor plant cells use A. DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein
sugar. does not.
B. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas
201. The anticodon is located on
protein does not.
A. DNA C. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas pro-
B. mRNA tein does not.
C. tRNA D. DNA contains purines, whereas pro-
tein includes pyrimidines.
D. rRNA
207. A single-base mutation in a messenger
202. The chain of amino acids that are trans- RNA molecule could transcribe the DNA se-
lated using a codon chart creates: quence CAGTAT into
A. Phosphate A. GTCATA
B. Protein B. GUCAUA
C. Sugar C. GTCUTU
D. Base D. GUAAUA
208. E. coli cells grown on N-15 medium are

203. Which two colours of light does chloro-
transferred to N-14 medium and allowed
phyll absorb most?
to grow for 2 more generations. DNA
A. Red and yellow extracted from these cells is centrifuged.
What density distribution of DNA would
B. Green and blue
you expect in this experiment?
C. Red and green
A. one high-density and one low-density
D. Red and blue band

B. One intermediate-density band 214. The process of using plasmids to clone

C. one high-density and one intermediate- genes is known as

density band A. Cloning
D. one low-density and one intermediate- B. Transformation
density band
C. Recombination
209. RNA stands for: D. Transgenics
A. Ribose, nucleotide, acid
215. An organism’s phenotype
B. Ribonucleic acid
A. is the code for its traits
C. Ribonucleic base
B. is all of its traits
D. Run N’ Attack
C. fruit smoothie
210. DNA that has been separated so that only
D. is its genotype
one strand remains leaving the bases fac-
ing upwards for probes to find and attach
216. During DNA replication, a DNA strand
to
that has the bases AGCTTG produces a
A. rRNA strand with the bases
B. mRNA A. TCGAAC
C. ssDNA B. TCCGCA
D. siRNA C. AGCTTG
211. Which is an effect of regular exercise? D. GAUCCA
A. better hearing
217. A student observes black circular patches
B. stronger heart on rose leaves. The weather was warm
C. weaker bones and humid for two weeks prior to the ap-
pearance of the black patches. What is the
D. less energy most likely reason the leaves developed
the black patches?
212. Which molecule is a monosaccharide?
A. inheritance of traits from parents
A. Ribose
B. growth of rose plants in excess sun-
B. Glycogen
light
C. Amylase
C. presence of fungal spores on leaves
D. Glycerol
D. presence of caterpillars on leaves
213. Which step would be the first step in a
signal transduction pathway? 218. What amino acid does AUG code for?
A. phophorylation of proteins A. Pro
B. activation of protein B. Lys
C. binding a ligand to a receptor C. Met
D. none of above D. Phe

219. Which organelle is DNA usually found 224. Many factors affect human health. Which
in? term BEST describes diet and exercise for
MOST adults?
A. cell membrane
A. lifestyle choice
B. vacuole
B. environmental factors
C. chloroplast
C. genetic predisposition
D. nucleus
D. medically prescribed behavior
NARAYAN CHANGDER
220. Which of the following processes does
not occur in prokaryotes? 225. Which of the following is NOT a part of
My Plate?
A. Transcription
A. Grains
B. Splicing
B. Fruit
C. Translation
C. Candy
D. Replication
D. Protein
221. What are the amino acid produced from
these two codons, CGU and CGA? 226. Enzymes act as catalysts to the rate
of a biochemical reaction by the acti-
A. Arg and Ala
vation energy needed for the reaction to
B. Ser and Pro occur.
C. Phe and Leu A. increase, lowering
D. Ala and Asp B. decrease, lowering
222. In what way did gene therapy, the re- C. increase, raising
placement of a faulty gene with a normal D. decrease, raising
one, stimulate medical research?
227. What enzyme is responsible for laying
A. New medications had to be developed
down the RNA primers during DNA Repli-
and tested.
cation?
B. The effects of viral DNA had to be stud-
A. Helicase
ied.
B. RNA Primase
C. The way in which DNA replicates had
to be determined. C. Ligase
D. The genes on each chromosome had to D. There are no RNA primers during DNA
be mapped and described. Replication
223. Which nutrient molecules are most 228. The function of is to combine with pro-
closely linked to heart disease in humans? teins to form ribosomes.
A. Fats A. rRNA
B. Nitrates B. tRNA
C. Proteins C. mRNA
D. Carbohydrates D. DNA

229. Prokaryotic does not have 234. What advantage do SUGARS provide for
A. membrane bound organelles an organism’s diet?

B. cell membrane A. Produce ENERGY for cells
C. DNA or RNA B. Provide code for DNA of offspring

D. life C. Supply amino acids needed to build
muscle tissue
230. The four nitrogenous bases of DNA are
D. Provide minerals needed to build
A. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil strong bones
B. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and 235. Transcription takes place in the

thymine A. cytoplasm
C. Adenine, guanine, ribose and deoxyri-
B. ribosome
bose
C. mitochondrion
D. Adenine, deoxyribose, cytosine, and
uracil D. nucleus
231. Phosphorylation is the process by which 236. What was Watson and Crick’s main sci-
a is added to a protein to activate it. entific accomplishment?
A. acetyl A. Building the first accurate model of
B. sulfate DNA
C. phosphate B. Isolating strains of pneumonia causing
D. none of above bacteria
C. Determining base pairing rules
232. The five carbon sugar found in RNA
D. Discovering the process of genetic
A. Ribose
transformation
B. Deoxyribose
C. Glucose 237. An RNA molecule is
D. none of above A. double helix
233. Which of the following sequences of B. always double stranded

processes correctly reflects the central C. usually double stranded
dogma?
D. single stranded
A. protein synthesis, transcription, trans-
lation 238. The first transposable element was dis-
B. protein synthesis, translation, tran- covered in
scription A. 1930’s
C. transcription, translation, protein syn- B. 1940’s
thesis
C. 1950’s
D. translation, transcription, protein syn-
thesis D. 1980’s

239. The color of a rose in an inherited trait. C. protein

The molecular basis for the expression of D. nucleic acid
the color trait depends directly on which of
these cell function? 245. The elongation of the leading strand dur-
ing DNA synthesis
A. respiration
A. progresses away from the replication
B. photosynthesis
fork.
C. protein synthesis B. occurs in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. hormone production C. produces Okazaki fragments
240. The “central dogma” states that genetic D. depends on the action of DNA poly-
information flows from merase
A. Protein–>mRNA–>DNA 246. The main function of tRNA is to
B. Protein–>DNA–>mRNA A. carry a message that, when translated,
C. mRNA–>DNA–>Protein forms proteins
D. DNA–>mRNA–>Protein B. form a portion of ribosomes
C. string together complementary RNA
241. Which of the following is NOT a Dairy and DNA strands
source?
D. bring amino acids from the cytoplasm
A. Milk to the ribosomes
B. Yogurt
247. 10 µ g is equivalent to mg.
C. Cheese
A. 10.0 × 103
D. Eggs
B. 0.1
242. The cAMP/PKA signal transduction path- C. 0.01
way is used in cells is an example of D. 1000
A. “fight or flight” response
248. Which would be MOST beneficial to an in-
B. Changes in motility dividual suffering from heart disease?
C. Changes in gene expression A. Eating foods with a high calorie con-
D. none of above tent
B. Drinking a glass of fruit juice with ev-
243. Which enzyme bonds together the
ery meal
Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand?
C. Walking on a treadmill for 30 minutes
A. Helicase every day
B. Polymerase D. Playing Fortnite for 6 hours a day
C. Ligase
249. Chargaff’s rules for pairing of nitrogen
D. Primerase bases is
244. Which organic molecule contains phospho- A. A=C and G=T
rus? B. A pairs with T and G pairs with C
A. carbohydrate C. A pairs with G and C pairs with T
B. lipid D. A pairs with C and G pairs with T

250. The base sequence of a fragment of DNA 256. Which of the following organic com-
is:ACC GTG CAG GATWhat is the base se- pounds is the main source of energy for
quence on the messenger RNA (mRNA) living things?

molecule transcribed from it? A. carbohydrates
A. UGG CTC GUC CUT B. lipids
B. TGG CAC GTC CTA
C. nucleic acids
C. TGG CUC GTC CTU
D. proteins
D. UGG CAC GUC CUA
257. A gene gives the instructions for protein
251. What is the composition of nucleoside? synthesis. Which type of molecule is re-
A. a sugar + a phosphate sponsible for “reading” the instructions
B. a base + a sugar and then creating the protein?
C. a base + a phosphate A. ATP

D. a base + a sugar + phosphate B. RNA
C. DDT
252. PCR technique was invented by
D. DNA
A. Karry Mullis
B. Boyer 258. The following strand of DNA is tran-
C. Sanger scribed:51 TGA ACT GCT 31What will be
the second codon of the mRNA formed
D. Cohn from transcription?
253. STRUCTURE: Which 2 molecules form the A. AGU
sides of the DNA ladder? B. UGA
A. deoxyribose and adenine C. TGA
B. deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
D. AGT
C. sugar and the nucleus
259. A frameshift mutation could result from
D. deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
A. a base insertion only.
254. Crick and Watson elucidated the structure
of DNA using which of the following? B. a base deletion only.
A. Model making C. a base substitution only.

B. Gel Electrophoresis D. either an insertion or a deletion of a
base.
C. X-ray crystallography
D. Condensation reactions 260. Which best explains why organisms need
food?
255. In prokaryotes, DNA molecules are lo-
A. Food is the source of energy required
cated in the
for growth and repair of tissues.
A. nucleus
B. Food provides the raw materials for
B. ribosomes producers to produce more food.
C. cytoplasm C. Food is the source of water needed to
D. histones hydrate the surface of cells.

D. Food provides the oxygen necessary B. UUCGT

for plant and animal survival. C. AACGU
261. In his work with pneumonia-causing bac- D. AACGT
teria & mice, Griffith found that
266. Which characteristic do all single-celled
A. the protein coat from pathogenic cells
and multicellular organisms have in com-
was able to transform nonpathogenic
mon?
cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. heat-killed pathogenic cells caused A. They release carbon dioxide as a
pneumonia. waste product.
C. some substance from pathogenic cells B. They require oxygen for the production
was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, of glucose and water.
making them pathogenic. C. They take in nutrients and break down
D. the polysaccharide coat of bacteria the nutrients to release energy.
caused pneumonia. D. They consume other organisms to ob-
tain energy from food.
262. Which pair of nitrogen bases are correctly
matched? 267. Which macromolecule causes newly
A. adenine with cytosine formed cells to specialize?
B. adenine with thymine A. lipids
C. cytosine with thymine B. steroids
D. guanine with adenine C. nucleic acids
263. The artificial production of which sub- D. carbohydrates

stance (normally produced by living organ-
268. The greatest amount of ATP is produced
isms) helped disprove vitalism?
during
A. urea
A. fermentation
B. urine
B. anaerobic respiration
C. uric acid
C. glycolysis
D. ammonia
D. aerobic respiration
264. The enzyme that unzips DNA during tran-
scription 269. If carbon dioxide is completely removed
from a plant’s environment, what would
A. DNA polymeras
you expect to happen to the plant’s produc-
B. RNA polymerase tion of glucose (rate of photosynthesis)?
C. RNA primase A. Sugar production will likely increase.
D. Ligase B. Sugars will not be produced.
265. If one strand of DNA is TTGCA, what is C. The rate of sugar production will de-
the sequence of the other complementary crease .
DNA strand? D. Fewer sugars will be produced at first,
A. TTGCA but then the plant will recover.

270. In RNA, the nitrogen base replaces C. amine

that was present in DNA. D. hydroxyl

A. A, U (adenine, uracil)
276. Where does transcription occur in eukary-
B. C, G (cytosine, guanine)
otic cells?
C. U, T (uracil, thymine)
A. Nucleus
D. U, A (uracil, adenine)
B. Ribosome
271. Pick the type of food that would be a C. Cytoplasm
good choice for a healthy snack?
D. Rough E.R.
A. Potato chips
B. candy bar 277. 00512 mL is equivalent to µ L.
C. nuts A. 0.0512 × 103

D. soda B. 0.00512 × 106
C. 5.12
272. pH less than 7.
D. 51.2
A. Acids
B. Bases 278. The second step of protein synthesis is
best summarized by which of the follow-
C. All
ing?
D. none of above
A. mRNA to DNA
273. What is the difference between DNA and B. DNA to protein
RNA in terms of bases?
C. mRNA to protein
A. RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
D. nucleus to ribosome
B. RNA contains uracil in place of adenine 279. Personal medical records become more
available and more detailed because of
C. RNA contains uracil in place of guanine biotechnological research. Based on this
information, which is a major concern to
the public?
D. RNA contains uracil in place of cyto-
sine A. transmission of more diseases
B. an increase in under qualified doctors
274. Where does photosynthesis take place in
the plant cell? C. inappropriate use of medical informa-
tion
A. Nucleus
D. overdiagnosis of certain medical con-
B. Cytoplasm
ditions
C. Chloroplast
D. Mitochondria 280. The individuality of an organism is deter-
mined by the
275. CH3 is a group A. sequence of nitrogenous bases in de-
A. carboxyl oxyribonucleic acid
B. methyl B. number of amino acids in a cell

C. position of the ribosomes on the endo- A. Watson and Crick

plasmic resticulum B. Avery
D. number of nitrogenous bases in a C. Griffith
codon
D. Franklin
281. When an organism oxidizes food, some 286. What is the shape of a glucose molecule?
of the energy is lost. Which explains this
loss of energy? A. straight chain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Energy is lost or released as heat. B. pentagon
C. hexagon
B. Energy is converted to waste
D. octagon
C. Energy is stored for later use.
D. Energy is converted to chemical com- 287. How can sticky ends be used?
pounds. A. to join pieces of DNA from different
sources
282. What is a codon?
B. to destroy DNA
A. A sequence of nucleotides on rRNA
C. To cut the DNA using restriction en-
that corresponds to an amino acid
zymes
B. A sequence of nucleotides on mRNA
D. none of above
that corresponds to an amino acid
C. A sequence of nucleotides on tRNA 288. Lipids that are healthier for your body
that corresponds to an amino acid are
D. A sequence of nucleotides on DNA that A. transfat

corresponds to an amino acid B. saturated fat
C. unsaturated fat
283. When an electrical current is used to sep-
arate a mixture of DNA D. available at mcdonalds
A. electricity 289. Cellulose is an important component of a
B. restriction maps plant’s cell wall and is made up of repeat-
ing units of carbon, hydrogen, and oxy-
C. gel electrophoresis gen. What type of organic molecule is cel-
D. electron map lulose?
A. carbohydrate
284. How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be
transcribed to mRNA? B. lipid
A. GCUAUA C. protein
B. CGATAT D. nucleic acid
C. CGAUAU 290. Building a healthy plate can help you

avoid:
D. GCUTUT
A. Obesity
285. The scientist(s) responsible for the the B. Diabetes
discovery of bacterial transformation in-
volving bacteria-causing pneumonia in C. Reduce risk of Heart disease
mice is (are) D. All

291. Which of the following are not the com- 297. Which was most likely the earliest way
ponents of RNA? biotechnology was used by humans?

A. Thymine A. finding evidence for crimes
B. Adenine B. making medicines to cure sickness
C. Guanine C. discovering the cause of hereditary
diseases
D. Cytosine
D. breeding better varieties of crops and
292. TRANSLATION:Translation occurs in the: livestock
A. office 298. RNA primase is used show where DNA
B. cytoplasm polymerase III is to attach to add nu-
C. nucleus cleotides on the exposed lagging strand.
What is the name of the promoter strand
D. cell membrane on the DNA lagging strand called?
293. Which nucleic acids are directly involved A. telomere
in transcription? B. TATA box
A. mRNA and one DNA strand C. primer
B. mRNA and both DNA strands D. topoisomerase
C. tRNA and both DNA strands 299. Which is NOT part of cellular respira-
D. tRNA and one DNA strand tion?
294. The defining property of transposable el- A. energy release

ements is B. production of ATP
A. Replicative C. catabolism of organic compounds
B. Non - replicative D. production of oxygen
C. Motility 300. Which best describes the technique of ge-
D. Non - motility netic engineering?
A. manufacturing synthetic DNA in the lab
295. What is the template for mRNA? from chemicals
A. DNA B. cutting out segments of DNA under a
B. tRNA microscope
C. rRNA C. exposing the DNA of an organism to ra-
diation to produce mutations
D. proteins
D. introducing foreign DNA into an organ-
296. What happens in Translocation? ism in order to modify the organism’s
A. They all live normaly DNA.
B. They all repeat each other 301. Which is LEAST likely to limit the rate of
C. Different chromosomes cross-over photosynthesis in a plant?
with each other A. temperature
D. Something happens B. light intensity

C. carbon dioxide concentration 307. Genes for medically important proteins

D. pH can be cloned and inserted into bacteria,
as shown in the diagram below. Why can
302. Which can be explained by the solvent bacteria recognize a human gene and then
properties of water? produce a human protein?
A. Sodium chloride is transported as Na+ A. DNA replication in bacteria and hu-
and Cl- in blood. mans is the same
B. Movement of water occurs under ten-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Bacterial cells contain the same or-
sion in the xylem. ganelles as human cells
C. Water is the coolant in sweat.
C. The basic components of DNA are the
D. Ice floats on liquid water. same in humans and bacteria
303. The most commonly occurring mutation in D. Bacterial cells contain the same or-
people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of ganelles as chromosomes
a single codon. This results in
A. a polypeptide missing an amino acid. 308. In DNA, A bonds to T and G bonds to C.
This is called
B. a base-pair substitution.
A. complementary base pairing
C. a frameshift mutation.
D. a nucleotide mismatch. B. polymerase chain reaction
304. According to Chargaff’s rule, what per- C. recombinant frequencies

centage of cytosine would be found in the D. binary fission
DNA of a bacterium if it has 13% ade-
nine? 309. is to transcription as is to trans-
A. 26% lation.
B. 74% A. mRNA / Amino Acid Chain
C. 37% B. Amino Acid Chain / mRNA
D. 30%
C. Ribosome / Nucleus
305. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is D. mRNA / tRNA
A. Pentose
B. Hexose 310. Jessica does not usually exercise, but de-
cides to begin a moderate exercise pro-
C. Tetrose gram. Which is most likely to occur in Jes-
D. Triose sica’s body?
306. Which molecule brings the amino acid to A. Digestion will slow down.
the ribosome? B. Glucose production will decrease.
A. DNA
C. Fat and calories will be burned more
B. mRNA rapidly.
C. tRNA D. Additional fat reserves will be created
D. rRNA to store excess energy.

311. Which of the following best explains why B. S

enzymes are necessary for many cellular C. G2
reactions?

D. M
A. Enzymes supply the oxygen necessary
for the reactions 316. Describes the twisted ladder-like shape
B. Enzymes change reactants from solid of a DNA molecule
to liquids during the reactions. A. Nitrogen Base
C. The reactions take up too much space B. Hexagon
in the cell if the enzymes are missing. C. Double Helix
D. The reactions are too slow to meet the D. none of above
needs of the cell if enzymes are missing.
317. Ligases are the glue of biotechnology.
312. Which scientist(s) mixed a heat-killed What enzymes act like scissors?
pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living
nonpathogenic strain can convert some of A. Restriction enzymes
the living cells into the pathogenic form? B. Helicases
A. Griffith C. Polymerases
B. Watson & Crick D. Primase
C. Meselson & Stahl
318. The reactants of photosynthesis are
D. Chargaff
A. sugar and water.
313. In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot B. sugar and oxygen.
begin until
C. carbon dioxide and water.
A. the two DNA strands have completely
D. carbon dioxide and oxygen.
separated and exposed the promoter.
B. several transcription factors have 319. Which of the following accurately de-
bound to the promoter. scribe the steps of recombinant DNA tech-
nology using bacteria?
C. the 5’ caps are removed from the
mRNA. A. plasmid & genes are cut –> cut DNA
joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids
D. the DNA introns are removed from the
–> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the
template.
bacteria –> bacteria & rDNA plasmid mul-
314. What happens in Inversion? tiply –> bacteria are broken open & pro-
tein is collected
A. Its repeated
B. cut DNA joined with ligase to make
B. They all get deleted rDNA plasmids –> rDNA plasmids are in-
C. A section of the chromosome gets serted into the bacteria –> plasmid &
flipped genes are cut –>bacteria & rDNA plas-
D. they start to cross-over mid multiply –> bacteria are broken open
& protein is collected
315. In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA C. plasmid & genes are cut –>bacteria
replication take place? & rDNA plasmid multiply –> bacteria are
A. G1 broken open & protein is collected–>cut

DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plas- 324. Which scientist(s) made an x-ray diffrac-
mids –> rDNA plasmids are inserted into tion photo of DNA?
the bacteria A. Rosalind Franklin
D. cut DNA joined with ligase to make B. Watson and Crick
rDNA plasmids –> rDNA plasmids are in-
C. Charles Darwin
serted into the bacteria –> bacteria &
rDNA plasmid multiply D. Erwin Chargaff
325. In a gel electrophoresis the short strands
NARAYAN CHANGDER
320. Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules
on the basis of their.. travel distances while the long strands
travel distances.
A. Ability to bind to mRNA
A. long, short
B. Size
B. short, long
C. Solubility in water.
C. it depends on the charge
D. Solubility in the gel. Solubility in the D. none of above
gel.
326. What is the gel-like substance inside of
321. Which is a difference between DNA and cells called?
RNA
A. photoplasm
A. RNA is double stranded
B. photosynthesis
B. RNA is not made of nucleotides C. cytoskeleton
C. RNA contains Uracil instead of D. cytoplasm
Thymine
327. Which refers to the breakdown of macro-
D. RNA does not contain a sugar
molecules into simpler building blocks?
322. How would the absence of sunlight affect A. metabolism
a plant’s ability to grow? B. catabolism
A. The plant could not absorb nutrients C. anabolism
from soil.
D. condensation
B. The plant could not absorb water from
the soil. 328. A student isolates, purifies, and com-
bines in a test tube a variety of molecules
C. The plant could not produce carbon
needed for DNA replication. After adding
dioxide and oxygen.
some DNA to the mixture, replication oc-
D. The plant could not produce food curs, but each DNA molecule consists of a
through photosynthesis. normal strand paired with numerous seg-
ments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides
323. Transcription happens in the and long. What has the student probably left
Translation happens in the out of the mixture?
A. Ribosome, nucleus A. DNA polymerase
B. Cytoplasm, nucleus B. DNA ligase
C. Nucleus, cytoplasm C. Okazaki fragments
D. Nucleus, nucleus D. primase

329. Enzymes are classified as which of the fol- 335. In gene regulation a gene is “turned on”
lowing biological organic compounds? by a(n)

A. carbohydrates A. activator
B. lipids
B. promoter
C. proteins
D. nucleic acids C. repressor
330. A mutation is defined as: D. stimulator
A. A change in the cell’s structure

336. When DNA is transcribed to RNA
B. Anything that changes in an embryo
C. Any change in the physical features of A. A pairs with U
a human B. C pairs with U
D. A change in the DNA sequence
C. A pairs with T
331. Which is the primary molecule in the cell
D. C pairs with T
that is broken down to get energy?
A. Salt
337. The two “backbones” of the DNA
B. Sugar molecule consist of
C. Water
A. adenine and sugars
D. Protein
B. phosphates and sugars
332. This nucleic acid is single stranded
C. adenines and thymines
A. DNA
B. RNA D. thymines and sugars
C. Both
338. What type of bond is formed when cor-
D. none of above
rect base pairs come together?
333. Codons contain bases
A. Sulphur bonds
A. 1
B. Ionic bonds
B. 3
C. 6 C. Hydrogen bonds
D. 9 D. Covalent bonds
334. This is a sequence of nucleotides from a
section of mRNA.AUGAAACGCACGCAGFrom 339. How many codons are needed to specify
which DNA sequence has it been tran- for five amino acids?
scribed? A. 3
A. ATGAAACGCACGCAG
B. 5
B. UACUUUGCGUGCGAC
C. TACUUUGCGTGCGTC C. 15
D. TACTTTGCGTGCGTC D. 30

340. What is the function of messenger RNA? 345. What part of your body will be most ben-
A. to transfer the code from the DNA in efited from exercise?
the nucleus to the ribosome in the cyto- A. Your bones
plasm B. Your muscles
B. to store and pass on genetic informa- C. Your heart
tion
D. All of these
C. to assist in building proteins by adding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
amino acids in the ribosome 346. In replication, DNA reads the strand
D. to create the energy needed for cellu- and attaches a complementary base pair
lar processes to the DNA
A. helicase
341. Which enyzme would be found only on
the lagging strand? B. phages
A. DNA polymerase C. polymerase
B. Primase D. bonds
C. Ligase 347. Which substance in organisms can contain

sulfur?
D. Topoisomerase
A. DNA
342. How many amino acids can be repre-
B. Phospholipids
sented by a single 3-base DNA sequence?
C. Proteins
A. 1
D. Triglycerides
B. 3
C. 6 348. RNA is read in sections called:
D. 8 A. Triplets
B. Genes
343. What enzyme builds the mRNA strand
during transcription? C. Codons
A. DNA polymerase D. Genes
B. Helicase 349. What is lac repressor?
C. Primase A. glucose sensor
D. RNA polymerase B. start acting as repressor when glu-
cose is present
344. Of the following products, which is pro-
duced by both anaerobic respiration and C. block transcription of operon in certain
aerobic respiration in humans?I. Pyru- condition
vateII. ATPIII. Lactate D. bind to isomer of allalactose
A. I only
350. Which choices describe DNA replication?
B. I and II only A. semiconservative
C. I, II and III B. produces two pieces of DNA identical
D. II and III only to the original

C. products are half original and half new 356. A triplet of mRNA is called a
A. codon

D. all of the above B. anticodon
351. Which of the following is used to cut DNA C. amino acid
from organisms? D. peptide bond
A. Gel Electrophoresis
357. A structural protein that forms strong
B. Restriction Enzymes fibers, found in skin, connective tissue and
C. Karyotypes bone (the most abundant protein in the an-
imal kingdom).
D. Haplotypes
A. Insulin
352. How many glycerol(s) and fatty acid(s) in B. Immunoglobulins
a diglyceride?
C. Rhodopsin
A. 1 glycerol + 1 fatty acid
D. Collagen
B. 1 glycerol + 2 fatty acids
358. Enzyme that connects the DNA to the
C. 2 glycerols + 1 fatty acid backbone (glues)
D. 2 glycerols + 2 fatty acids A. Ligase
353. Which would be most beneficial to an in- B. Polymerase
dividual suffering from heart disease? C. Helicase
A. eating foods with a high calorie count D. Primase
B. drinking a glass of fruit juice with ev-
359. Food is anything that we put into our bod-
ery meal
ies that give us , help us to grow and
C. walking on a treadmill for 30 minutes keep us healthy.
every day A. energy
D. none of above B. sugar
354. The region on the surface of the enzyme C. water
that the substrate binds to is the D. none of above
A. active site.
360. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitro-
B. activation energy. gen base form the building blocks of which
C. lock-and-key model. organic compound?
D. catalysis. A. carbohydrates
B. nucleic acids
355. The dairy on your plate should be:
C. lipids
A. Chocolate
D. proteins
B. low fat or fat free
361. Which does NOT need to be marked or
C. whole milk measured during separation of pigments
D. Cream by chromatography?

A. starting location of concentrated pig- MethioninePolypeptide chain is createdm-

ments RNA’s start codon AUG is translated by
B. distance moved by solvent tRNA’s anticodon (Methionine)
C. distance moved by pigment A A. 1, 5, 4, 3, 6, 2

D. distance between pigments A and B B. 2, 4, 5, 3, 6, 1
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
362. What happens in the lysogenic cycle?
D. 1, 6, 4, 2, 3, 5
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
B. Virus quickly kills the host cell 367. Which substances are made during pho-
C. Virus inject the nucleic acid into the tosynthesis and store energy that can be
host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates used by cells
into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant A. Carbon dioxide and glucose
for a long time
B. ATP and water
D. Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell
C. Water and glucose
363. If a cell is needing to pump additional
D. Glucose and ATP
sodium ions out of the cell, what would
that cell need in order to do so? 368. What is true of oxygen production in pho-
A. ATP tosynthesis?
B. oxygen A. formed during hydrolysis
C. water B. produced by chlorophyll
D. carbon dioxide C. produced by ATP synthase
364. Characteristic of tRNA D. formed from sunlight
A. carries the amino acids to the ribo-
369. Which one is the statement from Schlei-
some to be made into the protein
den & Schwann (1838-39)
B. copies the instructions from DNA
A. All cells come from preexisting cells
C. makes up the ribosome
B. All living things are made up of cells
D. is made in the nucleus and moves out
into the cytoplasm C. New cells arise from the pre-existing
cells
365. Which is the stronger acid?
D. Spontaneous generation does not oc-
A. pH 1 cur
B. pH 4
370. Which two scientists are accredited with
C. pH 8 correctly deducing the double helix model
D. pH 13 of DNA?
366. Place the order of events for creating a A. Watson and Crick
protein in order (1- 6)mRNA attaches to B. Wilkins and Franklin
rRNAcodons are continuously read by tR-
C. Wilkins and Crick
NAtRNA reaches a stop codontRNA con-
nects second amino acid by peptide bond to D. Watson and Franklin

371. These are the function of RNA poly- C. protein

merase EXCEPT D. sugar

A. bind to promoter region on the DNA
377. The making of a new DNA strand is called
B. unwind the DNA double helix
A. replication
C. start chain from stretch
B. regeneration
D. stop the transcription
C. transcription
372. Which is NOT a difference between DNA D. translation
and RNA?
A. DNA=double helix, RNA=single 378. The process of making proteins on the ri-
strand bosomes based on instructions from mes-
senger RNA is called
B. DNA=thymine, RNA=uracil
A. transcription
C. DNA=deoxyribose, RNA=ribose
B. transformation
D. DNA=antiparallel, RNA=parallel
C. translation
373. What happens during the process of
D. molecular biology
translation?
A. Messenger RNA is made from DNA 379. What type of bond joins amino acids to
form the polypeptide?
B. Transfer RNA is make from messenger
RNA A. peptide bonds
C. Copies of DNA are made B. polypeptide bonds
D. The cell uses messenger RNA to pro- C. hydrogen bonds
duce proteins D. ionic bonds
374. The end of meiosis results in to each 380. What is the product of transcription?
other.
A. DNA
A. 2 cells that are identical
B. mRNA
B. 4 cells that are identical
C. tRNA
C. 2 cells that are not identical
D. proteins
D. 4 cells that are not identical
381. The enzyme that cleaves DNA
375. synthesizes a short fragment of RNA
that allows DNA polymerase III to bind A. ligase
A. ligase B. polymerase
B. DNA polymerase I C. restriction enzyme
C. primase D. none of above
D. helicase 382. Which portion of the DNA molecule varies

from nucleotide to nucleotide and thus
376. DNA holds the code for serves as the portion of the nucleotide
A. lipids which codes for amino acid sequences?
B. carbohydrates A. phosphate sugar

B. ribose sugar 388. Where does transcription take place in a

C. nitrogenous bases cell?
D. hydrogen bonds A. always in the nucleus

B. always in the cytoplasm
383. If a code on a DNA molecule for a specific
amino acid is CTA, what would the mes- C. in the nucleus in eukaryotes and the
senger RNA codon and the transfer RNA cytoplasm in prokaryotes
anticodon be? D. in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes and the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nucleus in prokaryotes
A. mRNA = GAU and tRNA = CUA
B. mRNA = GAT and tRNA = CTA 389. How are plant and animal cells the
same?
C. mRNA = CUA and tRNA = GAU
A. They can produce their own oxygen.
D. mRNA = GTU and tRNA = CTA
B. They can make their own food from
384. William Hofmeister discovered sunlight.
A. Nucleic acid C. They can receive nutrients through the
B. Amino acid cell wall.
C. RNA D. They use mitochondria to release en-
ergy from sugars
D. Chromosomes
390. The property of water that results in wa-
385. How many amino acids are naturally oc- ter molecules “sticking” to one another is
curring (synthesized by ribosomes)? called
A. 19 A. cohesion
B. 20 B. adhesion
C. 21 C. high specific heat
D. 22 D. high heat of fusion
386. The enzyme that splits open the DNA cre- 391. DNA is composed of all of the following
ates what’s called a fork - where the DNA EXCEPT:
separates into the lagging strand and the
A. Phosphate group
strand.
B. Nitrogenous Base
A. leading
C. Cytoplasm
B. leveraging
D. Deoxyribose sugar
C. Okazaki
D. ligase 392. In Hershey and Chase’s experiment us-
ing bacteriophages and bacteria, the hered-
387. Where does translation take place in the itary nature of DNA was supported by the
cell? presence of in infected bacteria?
A. nucleus A. S-35
B. cytoplasm B. N-15
C. golgi apparatus C. C-14
D. endoplasmic reticulum D. P-32

393. Please select who performs cellular res- C. AUA, GCG and UGC
piration: D. TAT, CGC and ACG

A. Animals
398. STRUCTURE: The five-carbon sugar found
B. Both animals and plants in DNA.
C. Plants A. ribose
D. none of above B. guanine
394. “One amino acid is encoded by one or C. deoxyribose
more than one codons” Which property of D. helicase
the genetic code is best explained by this
statement? 399. Which term describes the synthesis
of complex molecules from simpler
A. Degeneracy of code molecules?
B. Universal nature A. adhesion
C. Non overlapping B. catabolism
D. Unambiguous C. metabolism
395. Which RNA bases would pair with TAC- D. anabolism
GAA in transcription? 400. All the statement are TRUE about Rho fac-
A. AUGCUU tor EXCEPT
B. ATGCTT A. binds to the transcription terminator
pause site
C. GCATCC
B. function by wrapping nucleic acid
D. GCAUCC
around the single cleft
396. What did Erwin Chargaff conclude from C. essential transcription protein in
his experiments? prokaryotes
A. Nitrogen bases are held together by D. unwinding the RNA transcript from
peptide bonds DNA template in elongation step
B. A and T, C and G always occur in equal 401. What is the location in the cell for tran-
amounts scription?
C. Proteins are the carriers of genetic in- A. nucleus
formation
B. cytoplasm
D. C and G rarely occur in eukaryotic or-
C. ribosome
ganisms
D. mitochondria
397. The antisense strand on the DNA
molecule coding for three codons of a gene 402. What is the role of DNA in translation?
is:TATCGCACGWhat are the anticodons of A. DNA is not involved in translation
the three tRNA molecules that correspond
B. DNA delivers the code to the ribosome
to this sequence?
A. UAU, CGC and ACG C. DNA delivers amino acids to the ribo-
B. ATA, GCG and TGC some

D. DNA serves as the original template 408. discovered transformation in bacte-

for protein synthesis ria.
A. Hershey and Chase
403. Seals the Okazaki fragments together
B. Griffith
A. DNA Polymerase
C. Messelson and Stahl
B. ligase
D. Franklin
C. helicase
409. What is the name of the second step of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. primase
protein synthesis?
404. The existence of cytoskeletal element A. transcription
was first postulated by
B. translation
A. Strasburger
C. transportation
B. Koltzoff
D. protein synthesis
C. Meischer
410. The process to go from DNA to mRNA is
D. Crick
405. Have you ever heard of a skin graft? A. translation

Skin cells can be harvested from one area B. transcription
and be grown in order to help burn vic-
C. replication
tims or other skin injuries. Which process
would result in the development of more D. none of above
skin cells in this treatment?
411. Which types of organisms use cellular res-
A. Mitosis piration in mitochondria to produce ATP?
B. Meiosis A. prokaryotes
C. Crossing Over B. eukaryotes
D. Interphase C. animals only
D. all of these
406. Which does not provide the body with the
energy necessary for survival? 412. What is catabolite activator protein?
A. milk A. lactose sensor
B. vegetables B. sense glucose through hunger signal,
C. water cAMP
D. steak C. active the transcription when the glu-

cose is high
407. The process of removing introns from the D. stop the transcription of the operon
mRNA in eukaryotes is called when the glucose is low
A. Capping
B. splicing product of transcription?
C. Tailing A. contains ribose and U”s
D. Slicing B. contains deoxyribose and T’s

C. contains ribose and T’s D. Mold spores are present in the air, and
D. contains deoxyribose and U’s the moisture in the air provides the energy
and building materials the mold needs to

414. Which is most likely the result of a diet survive.
HIGH IN SUGARS AND FATS?
418. Which nutrient helps cool the body down
A. Cancer and remove liquid waste?
B. Diabetes A. Water
C. Melanoma B. Fats
D. tuberculosis C. Vitamins
415. Which of the following describes the ma- D. Carbohydrates
jor energy transformation taking place in
photosynthesis 419. Where are rRNA and tRNA made in the
cell?
A. Radiant energy is being converted into
chemical energy A. the nucleolus in the cytoplasm
B. the nucleolus in the mitochondria
B. Sound energy is being converted into
potential energy C. the nucleolus in the nucleus
C. Chemical energy is being converted D. always in the cytoplasm
into electrical energy
420. If the percentage of DNA is made of 30%
D. Mechanical energy is being converted Thymine, what is the correct percentage of
into kinetic energy Guanine?
416. What did Hershey and Chase’s work A. 30
show? B. 15
A. Genes are probably made of DNA C. 20
B. Genes are probably made of protein D. 60
C. Viruses contain DNA but not protein
421. is/are the body’s main or 1st choice
D. Bacteria contain DNA but not protein of energy
417. Which best explains how mold is able to A. Water
grow on an old piece of cheese in the re- B. Carbohydrates
frigerator?
C. Protein
A. Mold is produced when the cheese
ages and reacts with moisture in the air. D. Fats
422. T6- In order to insert a human gene into

B. Mold is naturally contained within the plasmid, both must
cheese and starts growing when the A. code for the same gene product.
cheese becomes old.
B. be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
C. Mold spores are present in the air, and
the cheese provides the energy and build-
ing materials the mold needs to grow and C. originate from the same type of cell.
survive. D. have identical sequences.

423. Which events take place in DNA repli- alpha-D-glucoseII. It contains β -1, 4 gly-
cation?I. Formation of messenger RNAII. cosidic bondsIII. Hydrogen bonds form be-
Both strands act as templatesIII. Forma- tween parallel chains
tion of complementary strands by DNA A. I and II only
polymerase
B. I and III only
A. I and II only
C. II and III only
B. I and III only
D. I, II and III
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III 429. What is the goal of bacterial transforma-
tion?
424. If the structure of DNA were likened to A. grow bacteria
a ladder, what would make up the “sup-
porting structure” (not the “rungs”) of the B. cut DNA into fragments and compare
ladder? fragment sizes to determine genotype
A. amino acids and sugars C. amplify a small amount of DNA
B. nucleotide bases, including thymine D. insert a desired gene into a plasmid

and insert it into a bacterium
C. nucleotide bases, including uracil
430. Why do cells make RNA instead of mak-
D. sugar-phosphate molecules
ing protein directly from DNA?
425. Which do ALL proteins have? A. The DNA is used less to avoid damage
A. beta pleated sheets and can always remain in the nucleus in
eukaryotes.
B. globular shape
B. The amount of protein made can be
C. primary structure controlled by disposing of the RNA when
D. quaternary structure the protein is no longer needed.
C. By making many mRNA molecules of a
426. Where can you find the DNA in a prokary-
gene, a cell can make many copies of a
otic cell?
protein quickly.
A. The nucleus
D. All of the above.
B. The cell envelope
431. Nitrogenous bases are held together by
C. The ribosomes
bonds.
D. The cytoplasm
A. carbon
427. Where does translation take place? B. hydrogen
A. nucleus C. phosphate
B. smooth ER D. nitrogen
C. lysosome
432. Which type of chemical reaction is an ex-
D. cytoplasm ample of anabolism?
428. Which of the following is/are true of cel- A. Phytolysis

lulose?I. It is an unbranched polymer of B. Combustion

C. Hydrolysis 438. Classical concept of gene was introduced

D. Condensation by

A. Rosalind Franklin
433. In messenger RNA, each codon specifies
a particular B. Sutton
A. nucleotide C. Gregor Mendel

B. enzyme D. Watson and Crick
C. amino acid 439. What is need for a protein to achieve
D. promoter quartenary structure?
A. the right amino acid sequence
434. The strand of DNA that is replicated con-
tinuously from 5’ to 3’ is known as B. interactions between close amino
acids
A. leading strand
B. lagging strand C. interactions between distant amino
acids
C. parallel strand
D. 2 or more proteins together in a com-
D. antiparallel strand plex
435. HIGH LEVELS OF GLUCOSE in the blood 440. what controls a metabolic pathway
may be a symptom of which disease?
A. enzymes
A. Asthma
B. chemicals
B. Cancer
C. intermediates
C. Diabetes
D. energy
D. Heart disease
436. HISTORY: Rosalind Franklin used x-ray 441. Which type of cell is a stem cell?
crystallography to determine that the A. a cell that has not specialized yet
shape of the DNA molecule is:
B. a cell that has expressed its genotype
A. a cloverleaf
C. a cell that has specialized into a stem
B. a braided rope cell
C. a pleated sheet D. a cell that has changed from a skin cell
D. a twisted ladder to a stem cell
437. Which is most likely a potential health 442. Cellular respiration is

problem for someone with a diet high A. the process by which cells break down
in sugar and fat and low in protein and glucose into ATP energy.
fiber?
B. the process by which cells break light
A. obesity down into ATP energy.
B. blindness C. the process by which cells communi-
C. lung cancer cate with other cells.
D. stomach ulcers D. none of above

443. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA codon C. promoter

is composed of how many bases? D. operator
A. 2
449. Which of the following takes part in re-
B. 3
ceptor mediated endocytosis
C. 20
A. Carrier protein
D. 64
B. Caspase
444. Each amino acid is different from the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Coated vesicles
other due to
D. none of above
A. The R group
B. The amino group 450. The process in which the nucleic acid se-
quence information is changed into amino
C. The carboxyl group
acid sequence is
D. The central carbon
A. replication
445. What cell structure controls which mate- B. transcription
rials enter or leave a cell?
C. translation
A. nucleus
D. breaking the code
B. cytoplasm
C. cell membrane 451. Which of the following statements re-
garding mRNA is correct?
D. vacuole
A. Exons are included in the protein se-
446. What is the structure of the DNA during quence, while introns are left out
DNA replication?
B. Introns are included in the protein se-
A. wrapped around histones in chromatin quence, while exons are left out
form
C. Exons and Introns can both be in-
B. tightly coiled into chromosomes cluded or left out depending on the protein
C. just as it appears in a karyotype
D. DNA has no structure during replica- D. Exons and Introns are both part of the
tion mRNA sequence, but only exons are part
of the rRNA and tRNA
447. DNA has a strand; RNA has a
strand. 452. Offspring that result from asexual repro-
A. double/double duction?
B. double/triple A. are produced by one parent but are
very different from the parent
C. double/single
B. are produced by two parents but are
D. single/single
very different from the parent
448. A small molecule that binds to the repres- C. are produced from one parent and
sor and makes it inactive is have the same traits as that parent.
A. corepressor D. are produced from two parents and
B. inducer have some of the traits of each parent

453. A plant is exposed to increasing light in- B. carbohydrate

tensity from very dim to bright light, while C. protein
the carbon dioxide concentration and tem-

perature are kept at an optimum level. D. lipid
What will happen to the rate of oxygen 457. What does transgenic mean?
production?
A. An organism that can change its genes
A. It will increase exponentially. at will
B. It will remain constant. B. A stem cell that can differentiate into
C. It will decrease to a minimum level. anything
D. It will increase to a maximum level. C. An organism that has had another
species’ DNA put in it
454. Base pairing means matching a DNA nu-
cleotide base with its complement (A-T and D. A bacteria that reproduces asexually
G-C). How is base pairing involved in DNA 458. Protein synthesis takes place on the
replication?
A. plasma membrane
A. Base pairing is how chromosomes
are formed. Chromosome formation is B. nucleus
needed before DNA replication can begin. C. ribosomes
D. microbodies
B. In replication, base pairing ensures
that the new complementary strands are 459. Which best describes the primary func-
identical to the original strands. tion of carbohydrates in an animal cell?
C. In replication, base pairing ensures A. to provide cellular energy
that the new complementary strands are B. to store cellular information
the complement and not identical to the C. to store energy within the cell
original strands.
D. to provide structure to the cell mem-
D. In replication, base pairing ensures brane
that mutations are found and corrected
before the DNA copies itself. 460. What are the nucleotides made of?
455. In her biology class, Natasha has been A. Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
asked to complete a strand of DNA with B. Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
appropriate nucleotides. If half of the C. Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
strand is A-T-C-C-G-A-T-C, what would
she write for the other half? D. Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
A. T-U-G-C-G-U-A-G 461. What does “universal genetic code”
B. T-A-G-C-C-T-A-C mean?
C. T-U-G-G-C-T-U-G A. All living organisms have the same
DNA
D. T-A-G-G-C-T-A-G
B. All human cells have the same 46 chro-
456. What type of macromolecule are restric- mosomes
tion enzymes? C. All species use the same DNA codon
A. nucleic acid amino acid pairings

D. Living organisms share a common an- 468. What is the basic unit of a nucleic acid?
cestor A. nucleotide
462. The sugar in RNA is: B. amino acid
A. Uracil C. monosaccharide
B. Thymine D. fatty acid
C. Ribose 469. What feature of carbon makes it most
suitable as a basis for life?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Deoxyribose
A. Its abundance in nature
463. What form of energy is stored in glu-
cose? B. Its bonding properties
A. solar energy C. Its teativity to light
B. chemical energy D. Its presence in the early atmosphere
of the Earth
C. mechanical energy
D. thermal energy 470. When in the cell cycle is DNA replication?
A. S phase of interphase
464. D-loop replication is take place in
B. Go of interphase
A. Nuclear DNA
C. mitosis
B. Mitochondrial DNA
D. meiosis
C. Plasmid DNA
D. Bacterial DNA 471. The end products of translation are
A. polypeptide
465. Excision and insertion of a gene is called
B. lipids
A. Biotechnology
C. RNA
B. Genetic engineering
D. DNA
C. Cytogenetics
472. What are the backbones (sides) of the
D. Gene therapy
DNA structure made up of?
466. Human Genome A. repeating phosphates and sugars
A. all of the exons in the DNA B. nitrogen bases
B. all of the DNA in a human organized C. nucleotides
and readable
D. adenine and thymine
C. all of the introns in the DNA
473. Research has shown that the genetic code
D. none of above
is not entirely universal. Which research
467. Photosynthesis occurs in finding has shown this?
A. chloroplasts A. Some amino acids are coded for by
more than one codon.
B. mitochondria
B. There are differences between the
C. golgi aparatus base sequences of genes in different
D. thylakoid species.

C. In some organisms the genetic code 478. Any change in the sequence of DNA is
for mitochondria differs from the genetic A. transgenic shift
code for the nucleus.

B. Single Genotype
D. Some codons code for the addition of
an amino acid and some code for the ter- C. Monohybrid Trait
mination of translation. D. Mutation
474. The initial RNA formed is 479. Which of the following terms describes
the process of the uptake of recombinant
A. Mature RNA
plasmids into bacteria cells?
B. ScRNA A. rDNA technology
C. heterogenous nuclear RNA B. transferrence
D. tRNA C. transformation
475. What is one role of the element phospho- D. rDNA plasmid
rus?
480. Translation involves all of the following
A. It forms part of the structure of amino types of molecules except
acids.
A. amino acids.
B. It forms part of the structure of fatty B. mRNA.
acids.
C. tRNA.
C. It forms part of the structure of ribose.
D. DNA.
D. It forms part of the structure of nu- 481. The making of mRNA from DNA is
cleotides. called?
A. Transcription
476. Which is true of aerobic cellular respira-
tion? B. Translation
A. Lactate and large amounts of ATP pro- C. Replication
duced D. Duplication
B. Large amounts of CO2, H2O and ATP
482. How is the sequence of DNA conserved
produced
A. Separation of sister chromatids to op-
C. Large amounts of CO2, H2O and small posite poles during mitosis
amounts of ATP produced
B. Transcription into complementary RNA
D. Small amounts of lactate and ATP pro- for protein synthesis
duced
C. Complementary base pair matching
477. The strand on which the mRNA is con- during DNA replication
structed D. Conservation of DNA by the enzyme se-
A. template antisense quenceconservertase
B. coding strand 483. The double helix model was proposed by
C. sense strand A. Watson and Crick
D. RNA strand B. Griffith

C. Avery 489. What is the correct description of bacte-

D. Beadle and Tatum rial chromosomes?
A. many linear pieces of DNA in the cyto-
484. Which molecule is a polysaccharide? plasm
A. Triglyceride B. many linear pieces of DNA in the nu-
B. Lactase cleus
C. Glycerol C. one circular piece of DNA in the cyto-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plasm
D. Glycogen
D. many circular pieces of DNA in the nu-
485. The fragments on the lagging strand that cleus
are made up of repeating segments of DNA
and RNA Primers 490. The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
is
A. okazaki fragments
A. a summary of how DNA is used to
B. Primase make more DNA, RNA and protein
C. Polymerase B. a translation of DNA codons into amino
D. unused DNA acids
C. the base pairing rules
486. Which of the following statements about
the genetic code is true? D. no longer true
A. A codon can specify more than one 491. A scientist cloned a goat. Which of
amino acid. these is a true statement about the cloned
B. Every codon specifies a different goat?
amino acid. A. It has new genes and traits
C. Some codons specify the same amino B. It lacks the genes for reproduction
acid. C. It has the genes that are identical to
D. Some codons have no function at all. the original goat
D. It looks the same but has different
487. How many pairs of chromosomes are
genes.
found in human body cells?
A. 2 pairs 492. Where photosynthesis happens
B. 4 pairs A. chloroplast
C. 23 pairs B. nucleus
D. 46 pairs C. mitochondria
D. none of above
488. Which biomolecule is responsible for insu-
lation and energy storage? 493. In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA
molecules are made from
A. Protein
A. exons spliced together after introns
B. Nucleic Acid
are removed
C. Lipid B. introns spliced together after exons
D. Carbohydrate are removed

C. exons spliced together with introns 499. What is a promoter?

D. long pieces of RNA shortened by the A. Sequence of DNA at the beginning of

Dicer enzyme the gene that tells RNA polymerase where
to start transcription.
494. What is the process of converting mRNA
message into protein? B. Sequence of RNA that tells the ribo-
A. replication some where to start translation.
B. transcription C. Sequence of DNA at the beginning of

the gene that tells the ribosome where to
C. translation
start transcription
D. none of above
D. Sequence of RNA that tells RNA poly-
495. Which molecule can we find the promoter merase where to start translation.
and terminator in?
A. DNA 500. Which of the following one can be an ex-
ample of non-ionizing radiation
B. mRNA
A. UV-rays
C. tRNA
D. polypeptide chain B. X-rays
C. Gamma rays
496. How can the rate of photosynthesis be
measured? I. By the amount of oxygen D. All of them
produced II. By the increase in biomass III.
By the amount of carbon dioxide produced 501. How would smoking tobacco most likely
A. I only have a negative impact on the ability of
an individual to succeed at physical activi-
B. I and II only
ties?
C. I and III only
A. It interferes with balance and coordi-
D. I, II and III nation.
497. When the low level of transcription oc- B. It decreases the ability to make deci-
cur? sions rapidly.
A. Glucose present, lactose absent C. It decreases stamina and cardiovascu-
B. Glucose absent, lactose absent lar efficiency.
C. Glucose present, lactose present D. It decreases the speed and power of
D. Glucose absent, lactose present muscle contractions.
498. Which best describes the nutrients that 502. Branched, globular starch
are sources of energy for the body?
A. Amylopectin
A. fats and proteins
B. fats and carbohydrates B. Glycogen
C. water and carbohydrates C. Amylose

D. Calcium and fiber D. Monosaccharides

503. What must happen to a newly made 507. tRNA is

polypeptide before it can be secreted from
A. used as a template to make protein
a cell?
A. it must be translated by a ribosome B. part of a ribosome
found in the cytoplasm of the cell and then C. a small molecule used by the ribosome
sent toward the cell membrane and is not made into protein
B. it must be produced by a ribosome on D. all of the above
the rough ER and sent to the golgi appara-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tus 508. How does each person’s DNA differ?
C. It must be produced by a ribosome in
A. The bonds in the DNA are all different.
the golgi apparatus and sent to the rough
ER.
D. none of above B. There are different orders of nitroge-
nous bases.
504. Codons are found on which molecule?
C. The phosphates in the DNA are differ-
A. mRNA ent.
B. tRNA
D. There are different kinds of sugars in
C. rRNA the nucleotides.
D. DNA
509. Site where replication begins
505. Which of the following describe the
components and structure of a DNA nu- A. Polymerase action site
cleotide? B. Replication fork
A. a DNA nucleotide has three parts: a C. Replication Origin
sugar called deoxyribose, a phosphate
group, and a nitrogenous base D. In the front
B. a DNA nucleotide has three parts: a
510. What is the function of helicase?
sugar called ribose, a phosphate group
and a nitrogenous base A. It forms bonds between DNA nu-
C. A DNA nucleotide has four parts: ade- cleotides.
nine, guanine, cytosine and thymine B. It adds new nucleotides to the DNA he-
D. A DNA nucleotide has four parts: ade- lix.
nine, guanine, cytosine and uracil C. It forms the DNA helix.
506. Which of the following characteristics ac- D. It separates DNA strands.
curately describes lipids?
A. They are made up of monosaccharides. 511. Which body system is not involved in get-
ting nutrients to cells?
B. They contain nitrogen in their elemen- A. Circulatory System
tal composition.
B. Digestive System
C. They are produced in the nucleus of a
cell. C. Reproductive system
D. They are hydrophobic. D. none of above

512. Changes in DNA sequences that affect ge- 516. Half of your plate should be:
netic information are known as A. Fruits and Vegetables

A. replications B. Protein
B. mutations C. Grains
C. transformations D. Dairy
D. translations 517. Which of the following statements is not
true about RNA?
513. How are plant cells different from human
A. Does not have a double stranded struc-
cells?
ture
A. Human cells need food, but plant cells
B. Thymine is present
do not.
C. Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
B. Human cells need energy, but plant
cells do not. D. The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose
C. Plant cells make their own food, but hu- 518. What type of replication occurs in bacte-
man cells do not. rial plasmid?
D. Plant cells make their own energy, but A. D-loop Replication
human cells do not. B. Rolling Circle Replication
C. Theta model Replication
514. Which best describes how organisms pro-
cess materials to gain energy for life pro- D. None of the above
cesses? 519. Which of the following are examples of
A. Oxygen is broken down in a chemical correctly paired base pairs?
reaction with sugars to release energy. A. A-T, G-C
B. Sugars are broken down in a chemical B. A-A, C-C
reaction with oxygen to release energy.
C. G-G, T-T
C. Vitamins and minerals are used to D. A-G, C-T
build complex molecules that store en-
ergy. 520. A codon is a:
D. Vitamins and minerals are used to A. Series of two letter sequences
break down complex molecules that store B. Series of three letter sequences
energy.
C. Series of four letter sequences
515. Humans can respire aerobically and D. Made up biology word
anaerobically. Which are products of both
521. The most abundant structural protein in
aerobic cell respiration and anaerobic cell
the human body is found in ligaments and
respiration in humans?
skin. What is the name of this protein?
A. Pyruvate and ATP A. Collagen
B. Pyruvate and lactate B. Hemoglobin
C. ATP and carbon dioxide C. Myoglobin
D. Lactate and carbon dioxide D. Immunoglobulin

522. The production of mature mRNA in eu- A. GCG - TAA - CCA - TCG
karyotes involves B. CGA - UGG - UUA - GCG
A. cutting introns out and spicing exons C. CGA - TGG - TTA - CGC
together
D. CGG - TAA - TAA - CGC
B. adding the 5’ cap
C. adding the 3’ poly A tail 528. In what organelle is the genetic material
found inside?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
523. What are the code “words” of the ge-
B. Golgi Complex
netic code?
C. Nucleolus
A. operator
B. anticodon D. Nucleus
C. codon 529. HISTORY: Built the first correct model of

D. RNA DNA
A. Watson and Crick
524. Genes determine inherited traits such as
eye color. Genes contain the information B. Linnus Pauling
needed to form which of the following? C. Rosalind Franklin
A. chromosomes D. Hershey and Chase
B. proteins
530. Which of the following best represents
C. carbohydrates the Central Dogma?
D. hormones A. DNA –> RNA –> proteins
525. What is the purpose of transduction? B. RNA –> DNA –> proteins
A. send a signal to a target cell C. DNA –> proteins –> RNA
B. respond to a signal pass along inter- D. proteins –> RNA –> DNA
nally
531. The structure made from protein and
C. pass along a signal through the cell to rRNA that translates mRNA into protein
the location where the cell response will is
occur.
A. DNA polymerase
D. none of above
B. RNA polymerase
526. What is an example of a protein?
C. the ribosome
A. Strawberries
D. the nucleolus
B. Bread
532. Who coined the term Gene?
C. Pasta
A. Watson and Crick
D. Steak
B. Mendel
527. If DNA has a strand with a sequence of
GCT - ACC - AAT - GCG, the replicated DNA C. Rosalind Franklin
strand would be: D. Wilhelm Johannsen

533. Mutations usually C. fructose, glucose, galactose

A. Are helpful D. glucose, lactose, cellulose

B. Are harmful 539. Cellular Respiration’s goal is to
C. Are awesome A. make water
D. happen spontaneously B. make ATP
534. Proteins are provided by C. make glucose
A. dried beans, peas, and nuts D. make oxygen
B. milk and eggs
540. Which type of diet best contributes to a
C. meat, fish, and poultry healthy lifestyle? Which type of diet best
D. All choices are correct contributes to a healthy lifestyle?
A. a diet high in protein and fat
535. Which best describes how organisms ob-
tain energy from food? B. a diet high in fruits, vegetables, and
fats
A. Food (Glucose) reacts with water to re-
lease energy during photosynthesis. C. a diet high in carbohydrates, fruits,
and vegetables
B. Food (Glucose) reacts with oxygen to
release energy (ATP) during cellular res- D. a diet high in fruits, vegetables, and
piration. lean protein
C. Food (Glucose) reacts with sunlight to 541. What is another name for restriction en-
release energy during photosynthesis. zymes?
D. Food (Glucose) reacts with carbon A. restriction endonucleases
dioxide to release energy during cellular
B. DNA polymerase
respiration.
C. ligase
536. During the lytic infection by a virus, the
D. ligase
host cell is-
A. destroyed 542. What causes mutations?
B. copied A. Mistakes in replication or environmen-
tal substances
C. passed on to the lysogenic cycle
B. The amino acids
D. not affected
C. Passed down by genetics
537. Why we need exon only in translation?
D. It’s how your born
A. exon is coding sequence
B. to start initiation 543. Molarity of a given phosphoric acid solu-
tion (H3PO4) is 3M. It’s normality is
C. to start the transcription .
D. to terminate the transcription A. 1 N
538. Which molecules are monosaccharides? B. 2 N
A. starch, glycogen, cellulose C. 0.3
B. sucrose, maltose, lactose D. 9

544. What is a change in DNA called? 549. G-proteins are classified as ,

A. mutation A. heterotrimeric
B. anticodon B. tetrameric
C. codon C. trimeric
D. triplet D. none of above
545. DNA is the genetic information within all 550. The main enzyme involved in linking indi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
living cells. What is the purpose of DNA vidual nucleotides into DNA molecules is
within the cell? A. DNA protease
A. DNA is the material within the cell that B. ribose
regulates and controls cellular activity C. carbohydrase
B. DNA is used by the cell to fight off bac- D. DNA polymerase
terial infections
C. DNA provides energy for photosynthe- 551. Where in the cell does the second step of
sis protein synthesis occur?
A. in the DNA
D. DNA assembles the transport proteins
in a membrane B. in the nucleus
C. in the Golgi Apparatus
546. The folding and coiling into a three dimen-
sional structure based on interactions be- D. at the ribosome
tween R-groups is known as the struc-
552. During which process is mRNA formed?
ture of a protein.
A. transcription
A. primary
B. replication
B. secondary
C. translation
C. tertiary
D. mutation
D. quaternary
553. An RNA sequence includes 15 codons.
547. Which genetic abnormality can be identi- How many amino acids does this sequence
fied through karyotyping? have?
A. point mutation A. 3
B. recessive allele B. 5
C. extra chromosomes C. 15
D. sex-linked allele D. 45
548. Which is NOT an energetic exercise? 554. Which combination of foods BEST pro-
vides a healthy and nutritious meal? (not
A. Playing football
which one you like the best!)
B. Dancing
A. Steak, fries, orange juice, banana
C. Watching TV
B. Baked potato, chicken nuggets, fruits,
D. Swimming and orange juice

C. Apple, grilled chicken sandwich, or- 559. Genetic screening technologies allow sci-
ange juice, and yogurt. entists to take a small sample of DNA from
a developing organism and predict possible

D. Macaroni and cheese, orange juice, ice
cream, and pound cake diseases the organism may develop during
its lifetime. This is done by comparing the
555. DNA helicase “unzips” double-stranded genes of the developing organism to the
DNA to expose single-stranded section of specific genes that code for and possibly
DNA. New strands are generated using the develop into the disease later in life.Which
original strand as a template. How do the question is least likely to accompany the
newly-generated strands compare to the use of genetic screening technologies?
original template strands?
A. Who will be able to benefit from this
A. They are identical tchnology
B. They are twice as long
B. What effect will the use of this technol-
C. They are much shorter ogy have on the treatment of the common
D. They are complementary cold?
556. How can the activity of a human amylase C. Do the benefits of this technology out-
enzyme be increased during a laboratory weigh the risks involved?
experiment?
D. How will the knowledge obtained from
A. Adding sugar to the mixture. this technology affect an individual?
B. Decreasing the pH from 7 to 3
C. Increasing the temperature from 20◦ C 560. Which would NOT be considered a sub-
to 37◦ C. strate of cellular respiration?
D. Adding water to the mixture. A. C6H12O6
557. A new variety of rice called golden rice B. CO2
has been genetically modified to have vita-
min A. People in starving countries can eat C. ADP
this rice and receive the vitamin A. With-
D. O2
out this rice people go blind from vitamin
A deficiency. What word(s) below best de-
scribes this rice? 561. Which of the following mutations would
be most likely to have a harmful effect on
A. electrophoresis an organism?
B. DNA fingerprinting
A. a deletion of 3 nucleotides near the
C. G.M.O middle of the gene
D. clone
B. a single nucleotide deletion in the mid-
558. Which of these molecules is a disaccha- dle of an intron
ride?
C. a single nucleotide deletion near the
A. Galactose end of the coding sequence
B. Sucrose
D. a single nucleotide insertion down-
C. Cellulose stream of, and close to, the start of the
D. Ribose coding sequence

562. DNA mediated transposition includes C. Peter Mitchell

A. Viral retro transposons D. none of above
B. Eukaryotic transposons 567. Which choice describes DNA after replica-
C. Non - viral retro transposons tion has taken place?
D. none of above A. one molecule with two original strands
and one molecule with two new strands
563. What is the start codon which establishes
B. two molecules, each with one original
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the reading frame?
strand and one new strand
A. CCC C. two molecules, each with two new
B. GGG strands
C. AUG D. two molecules, each with two old
D. ACT strands
568. Which of these options is not good for our

564. DNA replication is referred to as the semi-
health?
conservative model because the two new
DNA molecules are A. Go to physical education class
A. each made of two new strands B. Swim
B. each made of one original and one new C. Be on the sofa all day
strand D. Run
C. each made of two original strands
569. What is 1 significant issue with many Ge-
D. none of above netically Modified Organisms?
565. What is chemical evolution? A. They are too expensive to be useful
A. Organic life sprung from non-organic B. Take a long time to make

matter exclusively through a natural C. May affect other organisms in their en-
mechanistic process on a pre-biotic earth. vironment
D. Might evolve more quickly
B. Newly formed organic molecules poly-
570. A nucleotide consists of a:
merized to produce larger molecules and
macromolecules A. Sugar, protein, and adenine
C. Chemoheterotrophs-consume organic B. Sugar, amino acid, and starch
molecules for both energy and carbon C. Sugar, phosphate group, and nitrogen
D. Organic compounds in organic soup base
became depleted, prokaryotes that are D. Starch, phosphate group, and nitrogen
able to make their own organic com- base
pounds from inorganic precursors
571. What is the anticodon on the tRNA for
566. Conformational hypothesis was postu- Methionine if the codon for Methionine is
lated by AUG?
A. P. D. Boyer A. UAC
B. E. C. Slater B. TAC

C. CAU 577. What is meant that DNA replication fol-

D. CAT lows a “semi-conservative” model?

A. After DNA replication, each strand con-
572. Which are necessary to make DNA repli- tains one side that is a parental strand and
cation semi-conservative?I. Separation of the other side is a daughter strand.
the strands by RNA polymeraseII. Com-
plementary base pairingIII. Use of a pre- B. After DNA replication, one completed
existing strand as a template strand contains only parental DNA while
the other contains only daughter DNA.
A. I and II only
C. None of these identify the “semi-
B. I and III only conservative” model.
C. II and III only D. After DNA replication, one com-
D. I, II and III pleted strand contains a mixture of both
parental DNA and daughter DNA dis-
573. Which of the following reactions occurs persed throughout the strand.
when a dipeptide is formed from amino
acids? 578. Both DNA and RNA are made up of build-
ing blocks known as
A. Hydrolysis
A. nucleotides
B. Denaturation
B. complementary base pairs
C. Condensation
C. amino acids
D. Oxidation
D. genes
574. What is the basic unit of a protein?
579. The genetic instructions for forming a
A. nucleotide
polypeptide chain are carried to the ribo-
B. amino acid some by the
C. monosaccharide A. tRNA
D. fatty acid B. rRNA
575. The main source of energy for all life orig- C. mRNA
inally comes from D. DNA
A. the Earth 580. What is the process for making another
B. the moon DNA copy of a chromosome?
C. the sun A. replication
D. the food we eat/make B. transcription
576. The process of capturing light energy and C. translation

converting it to sugar energy is D. chromatin
A. cellular respiration 581. Osmosis is the movement of across a
B. chemosynthesis membrane.
C. photsynthesis A. food
D. Kreb’s cycle B. energy

C. oxygen 587. Where the initiation of replication occurs

D. water in mitochondrial DNA?
A. H strand
582. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair
B. L strand
with this partial strandCAT TCA CTG
C. H and L strand
A. ATG TGA CAG
D. D and L stran
B. TAC ACT GTC
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. GTA AGT GAC 588. Which choice is an example of a food
item?
D. CAT TCA CTG
A. aspirin, because it is a medicine that
583. Information obtained by Franklin from reduces pain
X-ray crystallography on DNA suggested B. diet drink, because it tastes sweet but
that it is a does not have calories
A. helix C. water, because most of the human
B. ribbon body is made of water
C. hollow cylinder D. beans, because they contain protein
for muscle growth
D. pleated sheet
589. Why are insertion and deletion mutations
584. If a short sequence of DNA is AATTGC-
so harmful?
CGT, its complement is
A. They change all of the codons from the
A. AAAACDCCA
mutation on down the line, which changes
B. TTAACGGCT the amino acid sequence
C. TTAACGGCA B. They insert things that an organism
D. TTAAGCCGA doesn’t need.
C. They often delete things that organ-
585. Protein denaturation often leads to for- isms need.
mation of new hydrogen bonds. What is
the process called? D. Insertion and deletions are not any
more harmful than substitution mutations.
A. Denaturation
590. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair
B. Degradation
with this partial strandATG TGA CAG
C. Renaturation
A. ATG TGA CAG
D. Coagulation
B. TAC ACT GTC
586. The chemical bond connecting one nu- C. GTA AGT GAC
cleotide with the next one along the nucleic
D. CAT TCA CTG
acid chain is called a
A. C=C bond 591. Why are insertion and deletion
(frameshift) mutations so harmful?
B. peptide bond
A. They change all of the codons from the
C. phosphodiester bond mutation on down the line, which changes
D. hydrophobic bond the amino acid sequence

B. They insert things that an organism B. translation

doesn’t need. C. protein sysnthesis

C. They often delete things that organ- D. Splicing
isms need.
597. What is RNA Polymerase’ role in epige-
D. Insertion and deletions are not any
netics
more harmful than substitution mutations.
A. RNA polymerase is an enzyme that is
592. Process in which amino acids are assem- responsible for copying a DNA sequence
bled into proteins at the ribosome? into an RNA sequence
A. Translation B. RNA polymerase is an enzyme that un-
B. Transcription zips DNA
C. Meiosis C. RNA polymerase is a protein that
reads DNA
D. Replication
D. RNA polymerase is a gene responsible
593. Before the cell divides, what process for cancer
needs to happen?
598. The DNA strand that is transcribed is the
A. Transcription
A. coding strand
B. Translation
B. sense strand
C. Replication
C. template strand
D. Protein synthesis
D. none of these is correct
594. ATTTGAGCC- OriginalATTGAGCC - Mutat-
599. When a plant cell goes through cell divi-
edThe example above is an example of a
sion,
A. Insertion- Frameshift
A. the 2 new nuclei are separated by the
B. Deletion- Substitution cell membrane pinching off.
C. Deletion -Frameshift B. 4 new cells are formed
D. All of the above C. a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new
nuclei
595. How does a prokaryotic cell differ from a
eukaryotic cell? D. None of the above
A. A prokaryotic cell does not contain ri- 600. -COOH is a group
bosomes. A. amine
B. A prokaryotic cell does not contain ge- B. methyl
netic information.
C. carboxyl
C. A prokaryotic cell does not have a cell
D. carbohydrate
wall.
D. A prokaryotic cell does not have a nu- 601. in RNA, A bonds to
cleus. A. T
596. The process of converting transcribed B. U
mRNA to protein C. C
A. Transcription D. G

602. The parts of a gene that do NOT code for A. The double helix shows that one strand
amino acids in a protein are called of the DNA ladder is inherited from each
parent.
A. introns
B. The sugars and phosphates that make
B. exons
up the sides of teh DNA ladder twist and
C. codons curve to conserve space in the cell.
D. anticodons C. The double helix is a random occcu-
rance and DNA could just as easily be a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
603. Which of the following carries amino straight single-stranded molecule
acids to ribosomes?
D. The pattern of complementary bases
A. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules on each side of the DNA ladder ensures
that exact copies of the DNA are made dur-
B. transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules
ing replication.
C. messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules
608. Which enzyme is used to join nicks in the
D. none of above DNA strand?
604. T5- The unpaired nucleotides produced by A. Primase
the action of restriction enzymes are re- B. DNA polymerase
ferred to as
C. DNA ligase
A. sticky end. D. Endonuclease
B. base sequence.
609. What elements do proteins always con-
C. single strands. tain?
D. restriction fragments. A. C, H, O, N
B. C, H, O
605. C6H12O6 is the formula for
C. C, H, N, P
A. glucose
D. C, H, N
B. ribose
610. What are the subunits of DNA and their
C. amino acid
function?
D. triglyceride
A. nucleotides that store information
606. In eukaryotes, DNA is located in the B. monosaccharides that provide quick
energy for the cell
A. cytoplasm
C. lipids that store energy and provide in-
B. nucleus sulation
C. cell membrane D. proteins that provide the building
D. ribosome blocks for the structural components of or-
ganisms
607. James Watson and Francis Crick built a
model showing that the structure of DNA 611. What factor most affects the order of
is like a twisted ladder called a double he- amino acids in a protein?
lix. What purpose does the double helix A. the DNA located in the nucleus of the
structure serve? cell

B. the cell in which the protein is located 616. What is the function of a cell’s ribo-
C. the amount of ATP available for the somes?

cell’s use A. to remove wastes
D. the area in a cell where proteins are B. to make food
produced C. to make proteins
612. Protein synthesis is a process that uses D. to release energy
DNA, RNA and ribosomes to build proteins,
617. A 4 polypeptide globular protein in red
The protein are built from their building
blood cells. Binds oxygen in lungs and re-
blocks. What are the building blocks of
leases it in tissues.
proteins called?
A. Integrin
A. nucleotides
B. Hemoglobin
B. proteins
C. Lysozyme
C. amino acids
D. Rubisco
D. carbohydrates
618. Which of the following is the complemen-
613. Which of the following is true about plas- tary mRNA strand for this strand of DNA?
mids ATT-GCG-AGT
A. small circular piece of DNA A. UAA-CGC-TCA
B. small circular piece of RNA B. UAA-GCG-UCA
C. located in bacteria C. UAA-CGC-AGT
D. small circular piece of DNA that is lo- D. UAA-CGC-UCA
cated in bacteria
619. Arrange the steps for transcription in de-
614. Which statement best describes the pri- creasing order.
mary function of DNA replication A. initiation - elongation - termination
A. The ensure daughter cells have a com- B. initiation - termination - elongation
plete copy of the DNA
C. termination - initiation -elongation
B. To prevent mutations from occurring in
cells D. termination - elongation - initiation
C. To provide genetic variation within 620. What mutation has occurred here? T-G-
specific organisms A-C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A
D. To allow prokaryotic cells to undergo A. Substitution
meiosis B. Deletion
615. Which enzyme is needed to start DNA C. Insertion
replication? D. Frameshift
A. DNA Polymerase
621. How do cells obtain the energy and ma-
B. Topoisomerase terials necessary for the work they do?
C. Ligase A. They release nitrogen.
D. Primase B. They take in nutrients.

C. They move around in the body. B. mutation

D. They produce oxygen and carbon diox- C. DNA replication
ide. D. transcription
622. A base pair substitution can result in all 627. The bonds between water molecules are
of the following except bonds.
A. Missense mutation A. covalent
B. Frameshift Mutation B. ionic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Silent Mutation C. hydrogen
D. Nonsense mutation D. none of above
623. How many nucleotides are in 5 codons of 628. anabolic reaction

RNA? A. the build up of complex molecules from
A. 5 simpler molecules and requires energy
B. 10 B. the breakdown of bigger molecules to
smaller ones and uses energy
C. 15
C. the build up of small molecules into big-
D. 20 ger ones and doesn’t require energy
624. DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG D. the breakdown of complex molecules
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. into more simpler molecules and doesn’t
This is an example of mutation. require energy
A. Base Substitution 629. Transcription takes place in the , and
B. Base Insertion translation takes place in the
C. Base Inversion A. ribosome, cytoplasm
D. Translocation B. nucleus, ribosome
C. nucleus, Golgi apparatus
625. Which of the following are connected by
hydrogen bonds? D. cytoplasm, nucleus
A. Hydrogen to oxygen within a molecule 630. Which of the following is false about
of water purine and pyrimidine bases?
B. Phosphate to sugar in a DNA molecule A. They are hydrophobic and relatively in-
soluble in water at the near-neutral pH of
the cell
C. Base to sugar in a DNA molecule
B. At acidic or alkaline pH the bases be-
D. Hydrogen to oxygen between two dif-
come charged and their solubility in water
ferent molecules of water
increases
626. In order for DNA instructions to move C. Purines have two rings in their struc-
from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the ture, but pyrimidine bases have only one
cytoplasm of a cell, an RNA copy of a DNA ring
strand must be made. This process, which D. At acidic or alkaline pH the bases be-
takes place in a cell’s nucleus is called come charged and their solubility in water
A. translation decreases

631. The RNAs required in the cytoplasm for 636. According to Chargaff’s rule, in a DNA
protein synthesis molecule

A. rRNA and tRNA A. The amount of adenine and thymine is
equal to the amount of guanine and cyto-
B. rRNA and mRNA
sine
C. mRNA and tRNA
B. The amount of adenine and guanine is
D. rRNA, mRNA and tRNA equal to the amount of thymine and cyto-
sine
632. Which of the following foods is not a
grain source? C. The amount of adenine and uracil is
equal to the amount of guanine and cyto-
A. Brown Rice sine
B. Nuts D. The amount of adenine and guanine is
C. Wheat Bread equal to the amount of uracil and cytosine
D. Spaghetti 637. Introns are removed from mRNA by the
process of
633. Which statement about water is cor-
rect? A. splicing
B. frameshift
A. The atoms within a molecule of water
are held together by hydrogen bonds. C. elongation
B. Water has a low heat capacity allowing D. mutagen
enzymatic reactions to happen at a wide 638. Before DNA could definitively be shown
range of temperatures. to be the genetic material in cells, scien-
C. Water molecules are polar, therefore tists had to show that is could
fatty acids do not dissolve. A. tolerate high temperatures
D. Ice has a higher density than liquid wa- B. carry and make copies of information
ter, therefore some organisms can live un-
C. be modified in response to environ-
der the ice.
mental conditions
634. Which part of a gene has the code for an D. be broken down into small subunits
amino acid?
639. PROCESSES: DNA making RNA is called:
A. exons
A. Translation
B. introns
B. Transcription
C. upons
C. Transference
D. downons
D. Translocation
635. What does a flagellum do? 640. The process of consumption of liquid food
A. It helps the cell move. is
B. It helps the cell make protein. A. Phagocytosis
C. It stores water and energy for the cell B. Exocytosis
to use later. C. Pinocytosis
D. I don’t know, but it looks cool. D. none of above

641. Which 2 molecules form the sides (back- C. DNA

bone) of the DNA ladder? D. carbon dioxide
A. deoxyribose sugar and adenine
647. If DNA has a strand with a sequence of
B. deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen
TAC - GTG - CGA - ATT, the transcribed
bond
mRNA strand would be:
C. deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
A. AUG - CAC - GCU - TTT
D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ATG - CAC - GGG - TAA
642. Which would be the benefit of a trans- C. AUG - CAC - GCU - UAA
genic crop?
D. UAC - GGG - CCC - UAA
A. decreased drought tolerance
B. decreased disease resistance 648. A segment of DNA is called a
C. increased resistance to pests A. Chromosome

D. increased demands for nutrients B. Gene
C. Phenotype
643. Which part is LEAST associated with pro-
tein synthesis? D. Genotype
A. polymerase 649. Beans, poultry and fish are good sources
B. ribosomes of
C. mRNA A. lipids
D. anticodons B. protien
644. Which is a genetically modified crop? C. carbohydrate
A. Bt-cotton D. nucleic acid

B. Bt-brinjal 650. Why is protein an important part of a
C. Golden rice healthy diet?
D. All A. It is needed to change glucose to en-
ergy.
645. How do scientists cut DNA into smaller
B. It is needed to store nutrients.
strands?
C. It is needed to repair tissue.
A. restriction enzymes
D. It is needed to produce water.
B. scissors
C. ligase 651. Which of the following is true about phos-
D. agarose phodiester linkage?
A. 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide
646. In addition to mRNA and a ribosome, unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of
what other macromolecule is needed in the the next nucleotide
second step of protein synthesis?
B. 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide
A. lipids unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl group of
B. tRNA the next nucleotide

C. 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide 656. If a strand reads:3’ A A A T T T C 5’The

unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl group of matching strand would read
the next nucleotide

A. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’
D. 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide B. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’
unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of
C. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’
the next nucleotide
D. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’
652. RNA nucleotides contain which compo-
nents? 657. Name of the enzyme that cut out the in-
tron
A. a phosphate group, a nitrogenous
A. Splicosome
base, and deoxyribose
B. Rho independent
B. a nitrogenous base, ribose, and DNA
polymerase C. RNA polymerase
C. a phosphate group, deoxyribose, and D. Rho dependent

ribose 658. RNA is different from DNA, because
D. a phosphate group, a nitrogenous RNA:
base, and ribose A. Is a single strand
653. What enables bacteria to produce human B. Contains the sugar ribose
growth hormone? C. Replaces Thymine for Uracil
A. DNA replication is semi-conservative. D. All of these answers
B. The polymerase chain reaction can be 659. What is the name for when the RNA info
used. is read and turned into a protein?
C. They need the hormone for growth. A. transcription
D. The genetic code is universal. B. transcribation
C. translation
654. The function of β subunit of polymerase
isTemplate binding Catalytic binding Pro- D. replication
moter binding Cation binding 660. When a person is extremely cold, his
A. Template binding or her muscles will use energy to spasm
and generate heat, the act of shivering.
B. Catalytic binding
Which conclusion best explains why the
C. Promoter binding body does this?
D. Cation binding A. The body maintains homeostasis by
keeping the body at a specific tempera-
655. Which of the following one is a chemical ture.
agent that can cause mutation? B. The body tricks the mind into thinking
A. UV it is not cold so that it can maintain home-
ostasis.
B. X-rays
C. The body maintains homeostasis by re-
C. 5-bromouracil
leasing water to maintain the muscles’
D. Human Papiloma virus temperature.

D. The body loses mass through shivering 666. The bonds that hold the two strands of
so that it can better maintain homeosta- DNA together come from
sis. A. the attraction of phosphate groups for
661. The anticodon is found on what struc- each other
ture? B. strong bonds between nitrogen bases
A. mRNA and the sugar-phosphate backbone
B. tRNA C. weak hydrogen bonds between nitro-

gen bases
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. rRNA
D. carbon-to-carbon bonds in the sugar
D. DNA portion of the nucleotids
662. Which amino acids would be added to a 667. DNA strand has the following bases
polypeptide if the mRNA codons were CCC- AAGCCA what are the bases on the com-
GUC-AUA? plementary strand
A. proline-valine-isoleucine A. GGCTTA
B. glycine-glutamine-tyrosine B. TTGGGA
C. proine-alanine-threonine C. CCAGGT
D. leucine-cysteine-asparagine D. TTCGGT
663. Which of the following does NOT describe 668. What is the maximum number of bonds
the structure of DNA? a carbon atom can form with another
A. double helix atoms?
B. nucleotide polymer A. 3
C. contains adenine-guanine pairs B. 2
D. sugar-phosphate backbone C. 4
D. 6
664. You are given 100.0 ml of a 2.0 M solu-
tion of KOH. What would be the molarity 669. The sequence of amino acids forming a
of the solution if it is diluted to a volume polypeptide is known as the structure
of 1000 ml? of a protein.
A. 2 M A. primary
B. 0.02 M B. secondary
C. 0.2 M C. tertiary
D. 0.002 M D. quaternary
665. Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation 670. The process by which the genetic code
from the following DNA sequence: ATG of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is
CCA AAT called
A. ATG TCA AAT A. translation
B. ATG CCT AAA T B. transcription
C. ATC CA AT C. transformation
D. ATG CCA AAT D. replication

671. is thought to block the ”accidental” A. protein synthesis

transcription of “turned off” genes. B. respiration

A. smRNA C. photosynthesis
B. methylation of DNA D. nitrification
C. Dicer
677. When DNA is copied, the new DNA has
A. one molecule with 2 old strands and
672. According to Chargaff’s rules, if DNA of a one molecule with 2 new strands
species contains 20% thymine, what per- B. each molecule has one old strand and
cent of guanine will it contain? one new strand
A. 20% C. each molecule has sections from the
B. 30% old strand and sections from the new
strand
C. 40%
D. one molecule contains thymine and
D. 80%
one molecule contains uracil
673. Which is NOT scientific evidence for
678. Translation is the process of:
health risks associated with trans fats:
A. “Unzipping” the molecule of DNA
A. Increased HDL cholesterol
B. Making DNA
B. Increased LDL cholesterol
C. Assembling a protein from RNA
C. Increased coronary heart disease
D. Making mRNA from DNA
D. Increased coronary events (e.g. heart
attacks) 679. This enzyme is capable of breaking Hy-
drogen bonds found between the bases of
674. Which is not a benefit of lactose-free
DNA
dairy products?
A. Topoisomerase
A. suitable for lactose intolerant people
B. DNA Helicase
B. smoother consistency in ice cream
C. DNA Polymerase
C. sweeter taste for same amount of
sugar D. Exonuclease
D. lower calorie content 680. Which is NOT a polymer of nucleotides?
675. In translation, the language of the bases A. DNA
is turned into the language of B. tRNA
A. proteins C. mRNA
B. amino acids D. ATP
C. nucleic acids 681. Which is NOT a correct comparison be-
D. nucleotides tween water and methane?
676. Flower color is an inherited trait. On a A. Water has a higher boiling point
molecular level, which cellular function is B. Water freezes at a lower temperature
responsible for flower color?

C. water has stronger intermolecular A. it allows cell division to occur indefi-

forces nitely if there is an error in the cell cycle.
D. water has a higher heat capacity
B. it stops the division of the cell until er-
682. STRUCTURE: One difference between rors can be corrected.
RNA and DNA is -
C. it plays no role in cancer prevention.
A. RNA has thymine where DNA has
D. it prevents tumors by allowing the cell
ademine
to continue with cell division.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DNA is single stranded where RNA is
double stranded 687. The genetic code is
C. DNA is made in the nucleus where RNA A. unique in each species.

is made in the ribosomes B. ambiguous.
D. RNA is single stranded where DNA is C. uncommon.
double stranded D. redundant.
683. RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to a 688. RNA transcript grow in which direction
new RNA chain that are complementary to A. 5’ - 3’
A. the template strand B. 3’ end
B. mRNA C. 3’ - 5’
C. coding strand D. 5’ end
D. anticodon 689. Which nutrients most likely support a
684. What is cellular respiration? healthy BMI (body mass index)?
A. protein, water, and unsaturated fat
A. the breakdown of glucose to release
ATP B. water, saturated fat, and cholesterol
B. the breakdown of glucose to release C. unsaturated fat, simple sugars, and
NADH complex carbohydrates
C. the breakdown of glucose to release D. none of above
FADH 690. Which process is used in polymerase
D. the breakdown of glucose to release chain reaction (PCR)?
carbon A. Transcription
685. Which scientists determined that DNA B. Translation
was a double helix? C. Replication
A. Franklin & Watkins D. Mutation
B. Hershey & Chase 691. These chemical tags inactivate or silence
C. Meselson & Stahl a gene.
D. Watson & Crick A. acetyl groups
B. methyl groups
686. T5 - What role does the tumor suppressor
gene play in the cell cycle/cancer preven- C. histones
tion? D. genes

692. The molecule that is made by using a sec- 698. In replication, DNA strands are copied
tion of the nuclear DNA as a template is and in transcription DNA strands are
copied.

A. mRNA
B. tRNA A. only one of the, both
C. rRNA B. both, only one of the
D. RNA polymerase C. both, both
D. only one of the, only one of the
693. Which statement is a part of the cell the-
ory? 699. Which type of organic molecule can exist
A. All cells come from pre-existing cells as a single-stranded or double-stranded
helical molecule?
B. Cells bacteria are prokaryotic
A. carbohydrates
C. Eukaryotic cells are complex
D. Humans are multicellular B. lipids
C. proteins
694. What type of bond holds the two sides
of a DNA molecule together? D. nucleic acids
A. peptide bonds 700. WHICH MUTATION WOULD MOST LIKELY
B. polypeptide bonds HAVE THE MOST HARMFUL EFFECT?
C. hydrogen bonds A. A single addition
D. ionic bonds B. a single substitution
C. insertion of a triplet
695. More than one double bond
D. deletion of a triplet
A. Monounsaturated fatty acid
B. Unsaturated fatty acid 701. To catalyse a reaction, bind to the
C. Polyunsaturated fatty acid of enzymes.
D. Polysaccharides A. Substrate, active site

B. Inhibitor, active site
696. If an mRNA molecule has introns and ex-
ons in it, where is it? C. Substrate, allosteric site
A. At a ribosome D. Inhibitor, allosteric site
B. In the nucleus 702. What is RNA World theory?
C. in the rough ER A. Single RNA strands can copy in solu-
D. could be in the nucleus or the ribosome tions containing nucleotides without en-
zymes.
697. GENERAL: What kind of organic molecule
is DNA? B. RNA molecules called ribozymes have
been found to catalyze many different re-
A. Protein actions
B. Nucleic Acid C. RNA come first before DNA
C. Lipid D. Aggregates of artificially produced
D. Carbohydrate prebiotic molecules

703. Which of the following is NOT a function D. A diet high in fruits, vegetables, and
of mineral? lean protein
A. Help the body use the other nutrients
709. If there are 6 pairs of nitrogen bases,
B. Building bones how many nucleotides would be created?
C. Providing energy A. 2
D. Building Teeth B. 1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
704. Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can C. 6
be seen by
D. 12
A. Ultracentrifuge
B. X-Ray crystallography 710. True replication of DNA is due to
C. Light microscope A. Phosphate backbone
D. Electron microscope B. Hydrogen bonding
705. The process of making mRNA from DNA C. Complementary base pairing rule
is called. D. None
A. Replication
711. Saturated fats are
B. Transcription
A. Solid at room temperature
C. Translation
D. Protein synthesis B. liquid at room temperature
C. water soluble
706. RNA contains the sugar
D. soluble at high temperatures
A. ribose
B. deoxyribose 712. The DNA nucleotide is composed of three
C. glucose parts. Which two components make up the
nucleotide backbone?
D. lactose
A. ribose sugar and base
707. Building blocks of nucleic acids are
B. ribose sugar and phosphate group
A. Nucleotides
C. nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar
B. Nucleosides
D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
C. Amino acids group
D. Histones
713. A small molecule that binds to the repres-
708. Which type of diet BEST contributes to a sor protein and makes it inactive is a/an
healthy life style?
A. A diet high in protein and fat A. corepressor
B. A diet high in fruits, vegetables, and
B. inducer
fats
C. promoter
C. A diet high in carbohydrates, fruits,
and vegetables D. operator

714. Which most accurately describes how C. oxygen

plants and animals get the energy they D. protein
need for growth and survival?

719. In analyzing the number of different
A. Molecules are broken down during res-
bases in a DNA sample, which result would
piration to release stored energy.
be consistent with the base-pairing rules?
B. Molecules are broken down during A. A = G
photosynthesis to release stored energy.
B. A + G = C + T
C. A + T = G + G
C. Animals produce energy through pho-
tosynthesis, while plants produce energy D. A = C
through respiration 720. The end products of transcription are
D. Animals produce energy through res- A. mRNA
piration, while plants produce energy
through photosynthesis. B. DNA
C. lipids
715. What is a similarity between DNA and D. amino acids
RNA?
A. Both are polymers of nucleotides. 721. How does biotechnology most likely af-
fect North Carolina’s population?
B. Both are composed of antiparallel
A. Jobs are created attracting more peo-
strands.
ple to the area
C. Both contain adenine, cytosine and B. Research advancement causes people
thymine. in need of medicine to move to the area
D. Both contain ribose sugar. C. People are not concerned with biotech-
nology and overall population is not im-
716. What is the name of the binding site of
pacted
RNA polymerase?
D. The issue causes controversy and peo-
A. operator
ple hesitate to live in a state where a large
B. operon amount of research takes place.
C. inducer 722. What is the pigment in chloroplasts that
D. promoter performs photosynthesis?
A. Chlorosynthesis
717. What are the building blocks for DNA?
B. Chlorophyll
A. carbohydrates
C. ADP
B. nucleotides
D. Electron Transport
C. lipids
723. Identify the DELETION mutation from the
D. proteins following DNA sequence: ATG CCA AAT
718. Which molecule is a product of respira- A. ATG TCA AAT
tion? B. ATG CCT AAA T
A. carbon dioxide C. ATC CA AT
B. glucose D. ATG CCA AAT

724. Foreign, small, circular, self-replicating A. Polymerase

DNA molecule that inhabits bacteria and B. Reverse transcriptase
can express itself through the host bac-
terium. F plasmid contains genes for pro- C. Invertase
duction of a pilus; a cytoplasmic bridge con- D. None of the above
necting two cells that allows DNA to move
from one cell to another. R plasmid confers 729. DNA replication results in two DNA
resistance to an antibiotic on a host bac- molecules,
terium; can be transferred from one cell to A. each one with two original strands
NARAYAN CHANGDER
another by conjugation. B. each one with two new strands
A. plasmid C. each one with one new strand and one
B. pili original strand
C. exons D. one with two new strands and the
other with two original strands
D. introns
730. What structure carries that amino acid to
725. What is the advantage of membrane com- the ribosome?
partments
A. mRNA
A. increase surface area
B. rRNA
B. increase volume
C. tRNA
C. increase the surface area to volume
ratio D. DNA
D. increase surface area to diffusion ra- 731. True or False: in replication, the language
tio of the information is changed
A. true
726. What is the function of a cell wall?
B. false
A. to protect and support the cell
C. it depends
B. to perform different functions in each
cell D. none of above
C. to prevent water from passing through 732. An example of a simple carbohydrate
it could be
D. to prevent oxygen from entering the A. bread
cell B. oatmeal
727. What is the correct sequence of chemicals C. cupcake
produced in anaerobic respiration? D. pasta
A. Lactate → pyruvate → ethanol
733. The process to go from mRNA to a pro-
B. Ethanol → pyruvate → glucose tein is called
C. Glucose → lactate → pyruvate A. transcription
D. Glucose → pyruvate → lactate B. rRNA
728. Retrotransposons use to make DNA C. replication
copy from RNA D. translation

734. Which of the following would result in a 739. What is a Plasmid DNA?
frameshift mutation?
A. An extra-chromosomal double

A. Insertions only stranded circular DNA molecule
B. Substitution only B. An extra-chromosomal double
C. Deletion only stranded linear DNA molecule
D. Insertions and Deletions C. An extra-chromosomal single

stranded DNA molecule
735. Which best describes the process of pho- D. An extra-chromosomal triple stranded
tosynthesis? USE YOUR NOTES! DNA molecule
A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen are con-
verted into glucose and water 740. A 2021bp plasmid is cut at the 5th base,
the 1000th base, and the 1540th base.
B. Carbon dioxide and water are con- How many pieces are there and what’s the
verted into glucose and oxygen longest piece?
C. Oxygen and glucose are converted into A. 3, 995bp
carbon dioxide and water
B. 4, 540bp
D. Oxygen and water are converted into
carbon dioxide and glucose. C. 3, 486bp
D. none of these
736. According to Chargaff’s rule of base pair-
ing, which of the following is true about 741. The relaxation of base pairing rules for
DNA? the third nucleotide. Ex; UCU, UCC, UCA,
A. A=T and C=G and UCG. All code for the same amino acid,
serine.
B. A=C and T=G
A. mutation
C. A=G and T=C
B. codons
D. A=T=C=G
C. wobble
737. If a portion of DNA strand reads:3’ A A
D. RNA
A T T T C 5’The matching strand would
read 742. In the process of DNA replication, nu-
A. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’ cleotides are added as DNA is synthesized.
Which best describes how it is determined
B. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’
what nucleotides are added?
C. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’
A. The nucleotides are added to exactly
D. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’ match the sequence on the original strand
738. This cannot leave the nucleus
B. the nucleotides that are in the greatest
A. DNA supply in the cell are added first
B. RNA C. the nucleotides are added based in the
C. Both complementary base pairing rules
D. none of above D. the nucleotides are added randomly

743. What is the role of protein kinase in a B. makes DNA and protein
signal transduction pathway? C. makes DNA and fixes its mistakes
A. activates a molecule by adding a phos- D. makes RNA and protein
phate to the target molecule
749. What role does transfer RNA have in
B. activates a molecule by removing a
translation?
phosphate from the target molecule
A. it repairs damaged DNA
C. deactivate a molecule by removing a
B. it binds with an unzipped strand of DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
phosphate from the target molecule
to copy DNA nucleotide sequences
D. deactivate a molecule by adding a
phosphate to the target molecule C. it transports energy from the mito-
chondrion to the ribosome so that trans-
744. In RNA, uracil takes the place of the DNA lation can take place
nitrogen base called D. it carries amino acids to the ribosome
A. guanine
750. Klenow fragment is derived from
B. cytosine
A. DNA polymerase I
C. thymine
B. RNA polymerase II
D. adenine
C. Reverse transcriptase
745. Transcription is the process where D. DNA ligase
A. DNA is replicated 751. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis
B. DNA is copied into mRNA of new DNA molecules is called
C. DNA is copied in tRNA A. DNA ligase
D. DNA is copied B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA gyrase
746. What is amplified using the polymerase
chain reaction (PCR)? D. DNA helicase
A. Large amounts of RNA 752. Who was credited with the discovery of
B. Small amounts of DNA the structure of DNA and was awarded a
Nobel Prize?
C. Small amounts of protein
D. Large amounts of polymers
B. Erwin Chargaff, Watson, and Crick
747. Molecules of DNA are composed of long C. Watson and Crick
chains of:
D. Rosalind Franklin, Erwin Chargaff,
A. Nucleotides Watson, and Crick
B. Amino acids
753. Which of the following is a reason why it
C. Monosaccharides is significant that the two strands of DNA
D. Fatty acids are antiparallel?
A. The two strands of DNA run in opposite
748. What are the 2 functions of DNA poly- directions so that the bases can line up in
merase? the two strands and form hydrogen bonds
A. makes DNA and RNA between the A-T and C-G pairs.

B. The two strands of DNA run in the B. cAMP levels are low because glucose
same direction so that the bases can line is absent
up in the two strands and form hydrogen

C. cAMP levels are low because glucose
bonds between the A-T and C-G pairs. is present
C. The two strands of DNA are antipar- D. cAMP levels are high because glucose
allel so that the sugar and phosphate is present
groups can line up in the two strands and
form covalent bonds between them. 758. A solution with a pH of 7 is
D. The two strands of DNA are antiparal- A. increasing
lel so that the bases can line up and form
B. neutral
RNA from DNA.
C. decreasing
754. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA ac-
D. apple juice
cording to size. Which is true regarding
movement of the DNA? 759. Which of the following is an enzymatic
A. The longest pieces of DNA will move protein that acts as DNA glue?
the least distance. A. plasmid
B. The longest pieces of DNA will move B. restriction enzyme
the greatest distance.
C. ligase
C. The shortest pieces of DNA line up
along the middle. D. protein expression
D. The shortest pieces of DNA line up an 760. Protein present in microfilament is
equal distance from the middle
A. Actin
755. Which of the following researchers used B. Tubulin
radioactive markers in experiments to
show that DNA was the genetic material C. Tubulin & myosin
in cells? D. Actin & myosin
A. Frederick Griffith 761. The function of tRNA is to
B. Oswald Avery A. provide a place for protein synthesis
C. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
B. transport amino acids to the ribosome
D. James Watson and Francis Crick
756. Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki frag- C. travel to the ribosome to direct protein
ments in the lagging strand? synthesis
A. Helicase D. none of these is correct
B. Polymerase 762. Which process is used to copy DNA in the
C. Ligase nucleus?
D. Primerase A. replication
757. What is the condition that activate CAP? B. transcription
A. cAMP levels are high because glucose C. translation

is absent D. none of above

763. Which statement best distinguishes aero- 768. Which is the final product of meiosis?
bic from anaerobic respiration?
A. four cells, each with the same number
A. Only aerobic respiration requires oxy- of chomosomes as the parent cell.
gen.
B. two cells, each with the same number
B. Only anaerobic respiration occurs in
of chomosomes as the parent cell.
the mitochondria.
C. Only aerobic respiration involves fer- C. four cells, each with half as many
mentation. chomosomes as the parent cell.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Only anaerobic respiration produces D. Two cute babies named Juan and Chris
carbon dioxide.
769. The method of DNA replication, where
764. Which of the following are involved in each original strand is used as a template
both replication and transcription? to build a new strand is called the
A. DNA only
A. conservative method
B. DNA and RNA
B. semiconservative method
C. DNA and ribosomes
D. DNA, RNA and ribosomes C. disruptive method
D. continuous method
765. What type of mutation is responsible for
Down Syndrome?
770. What is the complementary base pair to
A. substitution during mitosis Cytosine in DNA?
B. frameshift mutation during mitosis
A. Cytosine
C. translocation during meiosis
B. Guanine
D. nondisjunction during meiosis
C. Thymine
766. Which one is NOT a vegetable?
D. Uracil
A. carrots
B. lettuce 771. Transcribe ATC CAT GGC CTA
C. ice cream
A. TAG GTA CCG GAT
D. tomato
B. UAG GUA CCG GAU
767. Hydrogen bonding between water
C. ATC CAT GGC CTA
molecules is important in living systems
becauseI It makes water cohesiveII It D. UAG GUA CCG GAT
gives water a high specific heat capac-
ityIII It makes water transparentIV It 772. Which type of molecule do whales use for
helps water to be a good solvent for polar energy storage and insulation?
molecules
A. DNA
A. I and III only
B. glucose
B. II and IV only
C. I and II only C. fat
D. I, II and IV only D. starch

773. What is the name for when DNA makes 778. According to the induced fit model, as
another copy of itself? a substrate approaches an enzyme, it in-
duces a in the active site.

A. transcription
A. conformational change
B. translation
B. chemical change
C. replication
C. color change
D. duplication
D. none of above
774. Which of the following units are repeat-
edly joined together to form a strand of 779. Which part of an amino acid varies?
DNA?
A. hydroxyl
A. amino acids
B. R-group
B. nucleotides
C. carbonyl
C. fatty acids
D. C-C-N backbone
D. polysaccharides
780. Which is transported in the blood in
775. Fats that provide long term energy stor- lipoprotein droplets?
age
A. amino acids
A. Lipids
B. sodium ions
B. Glycogen
C. glucose
C. Saturated fatty acid
D. cholesterol
D. Glucose
781. STRUCTURE: What Nitrogenous Base
776. Which of the following is/are true of pho- does RNA contain that DNA does not?
tosynthesis?I. Photolysis of CO2 provides
A. Thymine
electronsII. Electrons are needed to con-
vert CO2 into glucoseIII. It is only carried B. Uracil
out by plants C. Adenine
A. I only D. Love
B. II only
782. Which best explains why some fats are
C. I and II only recommended as part of a healthy diet?
D. I, II and III A. Fats provide the body with the chem-
icals necessary for controlling the pH of
777. The separation of the two single strands
the blood.
of DNA creates a ‘Y’ shape?
B. Fats act as a catalyst, reacting with the
A. enzyme
sugars in fruits and vegetables.
B. unzip
C. Fats provide the body and its organs
C. A replication fork with insulation and protection.

783. Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT B. frameshift

in DNA? C. elongation
A. Uracil
D. mutagen
B. Thymine
789. The process of creating a protein from
C. Cytosine
RNA is called
D. Guanine
A. transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
784. Carbon is the basis of biological polymers B. translation
becauseI It can form chains by bonding to
other carbon atomsII It is found in carbohy- C. replication
dratesIII It can form four covalent bonds D. reverse transcription
A. I only
790. Which of the following features is/are
B. I and II only present in mitochondria but not in chloro-
C. I and III only plasts?I. DNA and ribosomesII. Outer and
inner membranesIII. Cristae
D. I, II and III
A. I only
785. rRNA is
B. II only
A. made in the nucleolus
C. III only
B. part of a ribosome
D. I and III only
C. not made into protein
D. all of the above 791. What enzyme keeps DNA from overwind-
ing ahead of replication forks?
786. If a piece of double stranded DNA has
A. Primase
30% G’s, what percentage of the DNA is
T’s? B. Topoisomerase
A. 10% C. Single-Stand Binding Protein
B. 20% D. Helicase
C. 30% 792. Fish, nuts, oils and avocado are health
D. 40% sources of
787. What is the name of the binding site of A. Fiber

RNA polymerase in eukaryotes? B. Protein
A. operator C. Minerals
B. operon D. Fat
C. inducer
793. Which best describes the process of pho-
D. promoter tosynthesis?
788. What mutation is a deletion or insertion A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen are con-
of one or more nucleotides that changes verted into glucose and water
the reading frame of the base sequence? B. Carbon dioxide and water are con-
A. splicing verted into glucose and oxygen

C. Oxygen and glucose are converted into 797. Which scientists built a 3-D model of the
carbon dioxide and water DNA double helix?

D. Oxygen and water are converted into A. Hershey and Chase
carbon dioxide and glucose B. Watson and Crick
794. Which type of diet best contributes to a C. Chargaff and Franklin

healthy lifestyle? D. Griffith and Avery
A. a diet high in fat and protein 798. repetitive sequences of DNA on the
B. a diet high in fruits, vegetables and fat ends of chromosomes (TTAGGG) that get
smaller with each replication
C. a diet high in carbohydrates and veg- A. telomeres

etables B. telomerase
D. a diet high in fruits, vegetables and C. Okazaki fragments
lean protein D. primer
795. How do the leading, and the lagging 799. Which molecule created by plants is bro-
strands differ? ken down by the human body to provide
energy for its life processes?
A. The leading strand is synthesized in
the same direction as the movement A. water
of the replication fork, and the lagging B. oxygen
strand is synthesized in the opposite direc-
tion. C. glucose
D. carbon dioxide
B. The leading strand is synthesized at
twice the rate of the lagging strand. 800. The genetic code is essentially the same
C. The leading strand is synthesized for all organisms. From this, one can logi-
in short fragments that are ultimately cally assume which of the following?
stitched together, whereas the lagging A. The same codons in different organ-
strand is synthesized continuously. isms translate into the different amino
D. The leading strand is synthesized by acids.
adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of the B. A gene from an organism can theoreti-
growing strand, and the lagging strand is cally be expressed by any other organism.
synthesized by adding nucleotides to the
5? end. C. All organisms have experienced con-
vergent evolution.
796. In an analysis of the nucleotide composi-
tion of DNA, which of the following will be D. DNA was the first genetic material.
found?
801. The shape of a DNA molecule is a:
A. A = C A. Single strand
B. A = G and C = T B. Twisted cone
C. A + C = G + T C. Double helix
D. G + C = T + A D. Linear helix

802. Acridine orange is a 808. Cells secrete proteins, often as enzymes,

A. DNA Intercalating agent that have been engineered or directed by
the DNA in the nucleus. Which processes
B. Ligation agents are involved in protein synthesis?
C. DNA polymerase
A. transfer to RNA, then to amino acids
B. transcription into RNA, then to amino
803. If below is the wild-type DNA sequence, acids
which one shows a point mutation?5’-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. replication of DNA, then transcription
ATTCGC-3’ into enzymes
A. 5’ - AATTCGC - 3’ D. translation into RNA, then replication
B. 5’- ATCCGC - 3’ into DNA
C. 5’ - ATCGC - 3’
809. The entire collection of genes within hu-
D. 5’ - ATTCGC - 3’ man cells is referred to as the
804. Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the . A. human genome
A. oesophagus B. karyotype
B. stomach C. pedigree
C. large intestine D. gene map
D. small intestine
810. Which is the most associated with the
805. are produced when DNA from another building and repair of cells, organelles, and
species is inserted into the genome of an tissues?
organism, which then begins to produce A. fiber
the protein encoded on the recombinant
DNA. B. lipid
A. vectors C. sugar
B. plasmids D. protein
C. transgenic organisms 811. Which of the following is NOT a compo-
D. gene guns nent of nucleic acids?
806. Translation is the process where A. nitrogen bases

A. mRNA is created in the Nucleus B. sugar
B. mRNA is decoded to form a protein C. phosphate
C. glucose molecules are made D. protein
D. is where lipids are synthesised 812. Which part of the plant captures light en-
807. Anticodons on tRNA pair with ergy used in photosynthesis?
A. mRNA codons A. guard cells
B. tRNA condons B. chloroplast
C. DNA codons C. roots
D. amino acids D. mitochondria

813. What makes up the DNA? 818. What is the difference between galactose
A. tRNA and lactose?

B. nucleotide A. Galactose is a sugar found in milk but
lactose is not found in milk.
C. amino acids
B. Lactose is an enzyme and galactose is
D. mRNA a hormone.
814. What is the primary purpose of using re- C. Lactose is the product of anaerobic
striction enzymes in gel electrophoresis? respiration in humans and galactose is the
A. It restricts the number of base pairs product of anaerobic respiration in yeast.
that can be tested in a sample.
B. It makes the testing simpler by moving D. Lactose is a disaccharide and galac-
the strands into the gel faster. tose is a monosaccharide.
C. It allows the DNA strands to be 819. The technique known as karyotyping is
charged so the electrical current can send used to detect abnormalities in what?
the strands into the gel.
A. chromosomes
D. It allows the strands of DNA to be cut
into various lengths for testing. B. ribosomes
C. blood and urine
815. What is the difference in pieces between
the following scenarios a circular plas- D. amniotic fluid
mid cut three times VS a linear (straight
820. If the mRNA strand is: CAUGCU what is
line) DNA cut three times
the DNA that codes for it?
A. 0
A. GUACGA
B. 1
B. GTACGA
C. 2
C. CATGCT
D. 3
D. CTACGT
816. What is the complimentary mRNA se-
quence to the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A. 821. When cloning an organism, DNA is re-
moved and placed into an empty
A. T-A-A-C-G-T
A. virus
B. U-A-A-C-G-T
B. sperm cell
C. U-A-A-C-G-U
C. bacteria cell
D. T-A-A-G-C-U
D. egg cell
817. Human cells need energy to survive.
From which source does this energy orig- 822. Which biomolecule contains fats, oils, and
inally come? waxes?
A. plants A. Proteins
B. animals B. Nucleic Acid
C. sunlight C. Lipids
D. water D. Carbohydrate

823. process of making multiple copies of C. nucleus

short DNA sequences in a test tube
D. golgi bodies
A. PCR
828. What is the correct description of eukary-
B. mismatch repair
otic chromosomes?
C. proofreading
A. many linear pieces of DNA in the cyto-
D. telomerase plasm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
824. Why is a healthy diet important? B. many linear pieces of DNA in the nu-
cleus
A. It maintains a constant body tempera-
ture. C. one circular piece of DNA in the cyto-
plasm
B. It prevents damage to internal organs.
D. many circular pieces of DNA in the nu-
C. It makes oxygen for all the cells in the cleus
body.
829. Which component of DNA determines the
D. It supplies the body’s needs for traits of an organism?
growth and energy.
A. Nitrogen Bases
825. How can a person’s muscle cells have the B. Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
same exact DNA sequences as their nerve
cells even though the look and perform C. Hydrogen bonds
completely different? D. none of above
A. The two different cells become mu-
830. Which nutrient helps build and repair mus-
tated
cles, cells and tissues in the body?
B. The proteins expressed in each cell are
different A. Carbohydrates
C. They actually have different DNA in the B. Protein

two types of cells. C. Fats
D. The genome of the different cells D. Minerals
changes
831. What determines the nucleotide sequence
826. Which lifestyle choices are unhealthy? of the newly synthesized strand during
A. daily exercise DNA replication?
B. maintaining a high body mass index A. the particular DNA polymerase catalyz-
ing the reaction
C. a diet high in vegetables and low in pro-
teins B. the relative amounts of the four nucle-
D. none of above oside triphosphates in the cell
C. the nucleotide sequence of the tem-
827. What structure mediates and controls the plate strand
formation of polypeptides?
D. the primase used in the reaction e.
A. ribosome the arrangement of histones in the sugar
B. mitochondria phosphate backbone

832. The first transposable elements was dis- C. Didn’t give a conclusion
covered by D. Phosphate group

A. James Watson
838. If a messenger RNA codon is UAC, which
B. Barbara McClintock
of the following would be the comple-
C. Francis Crick mentary anticodon triplet in the transfer
D. none of above RNA?
833. What is the ratio of hydrogen atoms to A. ATG

oxygen atoms in carbohydrates? B. AUC
A. 1:1 C. AUG
B. 2:1 D. ATT
C. 3:1
839. In replication, DNA “unzips” the DNA
D. 4:1 molecule
834. What is the difference between DNA and A. polymerase
RNA
B. phages
A. DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine
C. helicase
B. DNA is involved in transcription and
RNA is involved in translation D. bonds
C. DNA contains thymine and RNA con- 840. What are the necessary inducer to start
tains uracil the transcription in prokaryotes?
D. DNA is made of nucleotides and RNA is A. Sigma factor and holoenzyme
not
B. Haloenzyme
835. this organelle can produce up to 36 ATP C. Sigma factor and core enzyme
per molecule of sugar
D. RNA polymerase
A. chloroplasts
B. bacteria 841. The gene product is
C. lysosomes A. Promoter, Operator, Gene, Terminator
D. mitochondria
B. Polypeptide Chain
836. What is the source of most food energy?
C. DNA
A. soil
D. Oncogenes
B. wind
C. water 842. Which enzyme seals okazaki fragments
D. sunlight together on the lagging strand?
A. Topoisomerase
837. Avery et. al experiment proved was
the genetic material. B. Helicase
A. DNA C. Polymerase
B. Protein D. Ligase

843. What is the name of this: DNA –> DNA? 848. Which of the following organic molecules
A. translation is correctly matched with its functions?
B. replication A. Nucleic acids provide structure for cell
organelles.
C. transcription
B. Lipids are a primary component of cell
D. none of these
membranes.
844. Plasmids are used as cloning vectors for C. Proteins are the primary energy
which of the following reasons?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
source during metabolism.
A. Can be multiplied in culture D. Carbohydrates help store and transmit
B. Self-replication in bacterial cells genetic information.
C. Can be multiplied in laboratories with
849. You have given bacteria a plasmid with
the help of enzymes
an ampicillin resistance gene. Which of
D. Replicate freely outside bacterial cells the following results would indicate that
845. The European corn borer is a major pest transformation of the bacteria occurred?
that causes corn to produce smaller ears, A. Growth in agar without the ampicillin
broken stalks, and drooped ears and some- by bacteria with the plasmid
times even results in early death of the
B. Growth in ampicillin agar by bacteria
plant. What can be a use of biotechnology
with the plasmid
in providing an effective control against
this pest? C. Growth in ampicillin agar by bacteria
without plasmid
A. application of more insecticides on the
crops D. Growth in agar without the ampicillin
B. introduction of an insecticidal gene by bacteria without the plasmid
from another organism into corn 850. When a reaches its , there is a spe-
C. introduction of wasps that can feed on cific means of receiving it and acting on the
this pest in the cornfields message. This task is the responsibility of
D. cultivation of more corn seeds to com- specialized proteins called .
bat the lower production A. signaling molecule; receptor; G pro-
teins
846. When Wohler synthesised urea, it falsi-
fied which theory? B. signaling molecule; target cell; G pro-
A. Creationism teins
B. Vitalism C. signaling molecule; target cell; recep-

tors
C. Spontaneous generation
D. none of above
847. All single bonds between carbons 851. What happens during translation?
A. cis or trans isomers A. Copying of DNA to produce DNA
B. Monounsaturated fatty acid B. Copying of DNA to produce mRNA
C. Polyunsaturated fatty acid C. Copying of DNA to produce tRNA
D. Saturated fatty acid D. Polypeptide synthesis

852. The way or process the body uses food 858. Which activity would supply the MOST
for energy, maintenance, and growth. oxygen to the body for digestion and res-
piration?

A. Fun
B. Nutrition A. Sit-ups
C. Exercise B. Running
D. Vitamins C. Stretching
853. A molecule of DNA is made up of D. Lifting weights
A. amino acids and proteins
B. ATP and enzymes 859. A frameshift mutation is caused by an in-
sertion or
C. paired nucleotides
A. deletion.
D. receptor enzymes
B. translocation.
854. The property of water that results in wa-
ter molecules “sticking” to other charged C. inversion.
or polar molecules is
D. diversion.
A. cohesion
B. adhesion 860. HISTORY: Took the X-Ray crystallogra-
phy photographs that revealed that DNA
C. high specific heat
is a Double Helix
D. high heat of fusion
855. mRNA is shorter than hnRNA due to
B. Linnus Pauling
A. Capping
C. Fredrick Griffeth
B. Polyadenylation
C. Splicing D. Martha Chase
D. Transcription
861. What is the verb form of the word “tran-
856. Provides energy to the cell by transform- scription”
ing food into ATP A. to excise
A. nucleus
B. to transcribe
B. mitochondria
C. to transcript
C. chloroplast
D. cell membrane D. to translate
857. How many moles of KI are present in 862. Enzyme that unwinds the DNA
0.85 L of a 0.55 M KI solution?
A. ligase
A. 3.10 mols
B. DNA Polymerase
B. 0.935 mols
C. 0.4675 mols C. primase
D. 1.55 mols D. helicase

863. What is the function of the mitochon- 868. What does the DNA of a typical prokary-
dria? otic cell look like?
A. Structure that manufactures ribo- A. DNA is found in the cytoplasm as a sin-
somes gle circular chromosome.
B. Structures that converts molecules to B. DNA is found in the nucleus in a single
ATP energy circular chromosome.
C. Stack of membranes that packages C. DNA is found in the cytoplasm as a sin-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
chemicals gle X-shaped chromosome.
D. Structure that contains DNA and di- D. DNA is found in the nucleus as a single
rects the cell X-shaped chromosome.
864. Enzyme that breaks hydrogen bonds (un- 869. Which enzyme adds base pairs to the
zips) DNA strand during DNA replication?
A. Ligase A. ligase
B. Polymerase B. primase
C. Primase C. helicase
D. Helicase D. DNA polymerase
865. In prokaryotes, DNA is located in the 870. Which provides the most energy that can
A. cytoplasm be used by the body when consumed?
B. nucleus A. mushrooms
C. cell membrane B. bananas
D. ribosome C. lettuce
D. water
866. Alternative RNA splicing
A. is a mechanism for increasing the rate 871. The process of producing millions of
of translation copies of a specific DNA.
B. can allow the production of proteins of A. PCR

different sizes and functions from a single B. PPA
mRNA C. RNA
C. can allow the production of similar pro- D. PTB
teins from different RNAs
D. increases the rate of transcription 872. A strand of DNA has the following bases:
ATG TCG GGA. Which of the following RNA
867. A substance that can cause a change in segments correctly transcribes the original
the DNA code of an organism is called a DNA
A. toxin A. ATG TCG GCA
B. mutagen B. TAC AGC CCT
C. nitrogenous base C. UAC AGC CCU
D. nucleotide D. CGA TCA CCU

873. What might be long term adverse health C. sugar and phosphate
effects of smoking?
D. ribose sugar

A. high blood pressure
B. heart disease 879. What is mRNA’s purpose?
C. lung disease A. to bring amino acids to the ribosome
D. all of the above B. to make up ribosomes

C. to make DNA
874. Which of the following is a food source
for a carbohydrate? D. to carry DNA’s message out of the nu-
cleus
A. Apple
B. Bread 880. All macro-molecules are made of build-
C. Rice ing blocks called monomers. What are the
building blocks of nucleic acids, like DNA
D. all of the above and RNA, called?
875. What important mineral is found in the A. nucleotides
dairy group?
B. nitrogen bases
A. vitamin c
C. sugar-phosphate
B. fiber
D. A-T-C-G
C. dairy
D. calcium 881. Which best describes the nutrients that
are SOURCES OF ENERGY for the body?
876. Even though your body changes and you
A. Fats and proteins
develop new physical and behavioral char-
acteristics, your never changes. B. Fats and Carbohydrates
A. archetype C. Water and Carbohydrates
B. phenotype D. Proteins and Minerals
C. appearance
882. Translation occurs in the
D. genotype
A. nucleus
877. Where do plants get the energy for pho- B. mitochondria
tosynthesis to take place?
C. cytoplasm
A. nutrients in the soil
D. golgi apparatus
B. the sun
C. chlorophyll 883. The mRNA has bases similar to strand
D. bee pollination of DNA
A. anti sense
878. The backbone of DNA molecule is made
of: B. sense
A. A-T-C-G C. non coding
B. mRNA D. template

884. The process in which DNA is synthesized 889. Which is NOT a correct pair of element
from a template strand is with its number of covalent bonds?
A. Translation A. C, 4
B. replication B. P, 5
C. transcription C. N, 3
D. transformation D. H, 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
890. Which of these is not a part of mRNA pro-
885. Which is NOT part of the reason for wa-
cessing
ter’s thermal properties?
A. 5’ cap
A. large amount of hydrogen bonding
B. chromatin packaging
B. water is dipolar
C. 3’ Poly A tail
C. high strength of hydrogen bonds
D. splicing
D. attraction between opposite partial
charges 891. Three nucleotides are deleted from a
gene. What will happen to the protein that
886. Which properties explain the ability of is made from this gene?
water to dissolve solutes?I. Polarity of
A. one amino acid will be missing
water molecules II. High specific heat ca-
pacity of water III. Hydrogen bonding B. all the amino acids after the mutation
will be wrong
A. I and II only
C. one amino acid will be added
B. I and III only
D. there will be no effect
C. II and III only
892. make protein for the cell.
D. I, II and III
A. Nuclei
887. During replication, which sequence of nu-
B. Ribosomes
cleotides would bond with the DNA se-
quence TATGA? C. Endoplasmic reticulum
A. TATGA D. Vacuoles
B. ATACT 893. Describe how the processes of transcrip-

tion and translation lead to the synthesis
C. CACTA
of the body’s proteins.
D. AGTAT
A. during transcription, the DNA template
888. If an mRNA codon is AGU, which of the strand is used a pattern for building a
following would be the appropriate tRNA molecule of mRNA. The mRNA molecule
anticodon? leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribo-
some. During translation, the ribosomes
A. TCA use the sequence of nitrogenous bases
B. UGA contained in the mRNA as code for assem-
bling a chain of amino acids. Several of
C. AGU
the polypeptide chains are combined to
D. UCA form a protein.

B. during translation the DNA template B. Kingdom–phylum–class–order–

strand is used a pattern for building a family–genus–species
molecule of mRNA. The mRNA molecule

C. Kingdom–phylum–class–family–
leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ri- order—genus–species
bosome. During transcription, the ribo-
somes use the sequence of nitrogenous D. Kingdom–family–phylum–class–
bases contained in the mRNA as code for order–genus–species
assembling a chain of amino acids. Sev- 897. Which of the following is NOT part of a
eral of the polypeptide chains are com- nucleotide?
bined to form a protein.
A. 5-carbon sugar
C. Different amino acids have different
B. nitrogen base
polarities. The change in the amino
acid sequence thus causes a change in C. amino acid
the overall shape of the protein. Since D. phosphate group
structure largely determines function, the
changed protein doesn’t function cor- 898. Number of hydrogen bonds between gua-
rectly. nine and cytosine?
D. I have no clue A. 1
B. 2
894. Histone Aceytlation is
C. 3
A. the addition of lysine to histone tails,
D. 4
allowing transcription to occur.
B. the increased translation rate of a 899. How do lipids function for cells?
gene. A. store information
C. the addition of an acetyl group to the B. store energy
tail of a histone protein which packs the C. breakdown wastes
DNA tighter, not allowing the expression
of the genes. D. join with substrates
D. the addition of an acetyl group to the 900. Recombinant DNA are currently used to
tail of a histone protein which unpacks the produce
DNA, allowing the genes to be expressed. A. clothing dye, cheese, and laundry prod-
895. How is the information in the genetic ucts
code used? B. human antibiotics and vaccines
A. To predict the genotype of gametes C. crops that taste better and stay fresh
longer
B. To distinguish prokaryotic genomes
from eukaryotic genomes D. all of these
C. To deduce phenotypes in pedigree 901. Bread, fruit, vegetables, and starches are
charts examples of
D. To translate mRNA into polypeptides A. carbohydrates
896. The hierarchy order is B. lipids
A. Kingdom–species–family–order– C. proteins
class–genus–phylum D. none of above

902. What is the function of an anticodon? 907. Outline the central dogma of molecular bi-
A. Anticodons in tRNA form bonds with ology.
the complimentary codons in mRNA. This A. Protein —> DNA —> RNA
allows tRNA to add its amino acid to the B. RNA —> DNA —> Protein
polypeptide chain.
C. Protein —> RNA —> DNA
B. It is a three-base code that specifies a
D. DNA —> RNA —> Protein
particular amino acid on the mRNA.
908. Water is made up of two hydrogen atoms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It is the part of the mRNA that is cut
out when making a functioning protein. joined by bonds to an oxygen atom.
D. It is an enzyme that corrects a muta- A. covalent
tion of the codons on the DNA. B. ionic
903. Which property of water accounts for its C. hydrogen
moderating effects on the Earth’s atmo- D. none of above
sphere?
909. Where is mRNA made?
A. Cohesive
A. nucleus
B. Thermal
B. cytoplasm
C. Transparency
C. ribosome
D. Adhesive
D. mitochondria
904. What are the building blocks of proteins
910. In eukaryotes protein synthesis happens
call?
in
A. DNA A. cytoplasm
B. RNA B. nucleus
C. Ribosomes C. cytoplasm and nucleus
D. Amino Acids D. none
905. What is the name for a sequence of DNA 911. HISTORY: Performed an experiment with
bases? Bacteriophage viruses that proved DNA
A. gene was the genetic material
B. one-gene, one-protein A. Maurice Wilkens and Rosalind Franklin
C. mRNA
B. James Watson and Francis Crick
D. tRNA
C. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
906. What are the REACTANTS for cellular res- D. Peanut butter and Jelly
piration?
912. What is the DNA sequence or part of
A. oxygen and carbon dioxide
the gene called where transcription factors
B. water and glucose bind and signal the start of transcription.
C. carbon dioxide and water A. Start codon
D. glucose and oxygen B. Promoter

C. Terminator A. They prevent people from ever getting

D. Initiation sick.

B. They make a person much smarter.
913. Which choice describes a chromosome in
a prokaryotic cell? C. They help people maintain their health.
A. linear in the nucleus
D. They stop a person from ever getting
B. circular in the nucleus
tired.
C. linear in the cytoplasm
D. circular in the cytoplasm 919. Which of the following are proteins?I Col-
lagenII GlycogenIII InsulinIV Immunoglob-
914. What type of macro-molecules are DNA ulins
and RNA? A. I and III only
A. Protein
B. I, III and IV only
B. Carbohydrate
C. I and II only
C. Nucleic Acid
D. All of the above
D. Lipid
920. A mutation in which only one nucleotide
915. Where does transcription take place? is altered is called a:
A. nucleus
A. Frameshift Mutation
B. ribosome
B. Deletion Mutation
C. cytoplasm
C. Point Mutation
D. smooth ER
D. Insertion Mutation
916. Process that converts radiant energy to
chemical energy 921. Scientists who first determined that DNA
is the genetic material were led by
A. photosynthesis
B. heterotroph A. Oswald Avery.
C. autotroph B. Erwin Chargaff.
D. hypothesis C. James Watson.

D. Francis Crick.
917. In eukaryotes, nearly all the DNA is
found in the
922. In gel electrophoresis the charge is
A. nucleus close to the wells and the charge is on
B. ribosomes the opposite end because phosphates are
C. cytoplasm
A. positive, negative, positive
D. histones
B. positive, positive, negative
918. How do food and nutrients like vita-
C. negative, positive, negative
mins, along with exercise, affect thehu-
man body? D. positive, negative, negative

923. Which of the following correctly repre- 928. Between which atoms do hydrogen bonds
sents the pathway taken by the genetic form in water?
code during protein synthesis? A. Oxygen and hydrogen atoms in the
A. DNA-mRNA-ribosome-tRNA-protein same water molecule
B. DNA-tRNA-ribosome-mRNA-protein B. Oxygen and hydrogen atoms in differ-
ent water molecules
C. DNA-mRNA-chromosome-tRNA-
protein C. Hydrogen atoms in the same water
molecule
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. DNA-tRNA-chromosome-mRNA-
protein D. Oxygen atoms of different water
molecules
924. Using a virus to enter a cell and re-
929. The enzyme that creates m-RNA
place defective genes with healthy genes
is called A. RNA primase
A. tissue culturing B. DNA polymerase
B. bioremediation C. RNA polymerase
C. cloning D. Helicase
D. gene therapy 930. The process by which one strain of bac-

terium is apparently changed into another
925. What bio molecule do mutations first strain is called
manifest themselves in?
A. transcription
A. mRNA B. transformation
B. Proteins C. duplication
C. DNA D. replication
D. It could be any of these
931. Assembles RNA during transcription
926. Experiment that radioactively labeled the A. RNA Polymerase
proteins and DNA of bacteriophages to de- B. Mutations
termine if DNA or protein was the trans-
forming agent C. Gene Expression
D. Point Mutation
A. Avery
B. Watson & Crick 932. Which is likely to occur if an individual
consumes an abundance of carbohydrates
C. Messelson & Stahl
but remains very inactive?
D. Hershey & Chase A. Blood glucose and energy levels are
927. Before cells can divide, what must be both decreased.
copied? B. Less energy is produced, causing fa-
tigue.
A. mitochondria
C. Blood glucose levels increase, and ap-
B. cytoplasm
petite decreases.
C. DNA D. Extra glucose is stored as body fat,
D. Cell Wall causing weight gain.

933. Why are plasmids sometimes given an an- 938. Why might a mutation in DNA prevent a
tibiotic resistance gene? protein from functioning?

A. So that scientists can make antibiotic A. the protein can’t fold up properly
resistant bacteria and make more money
B. the protein can’t bind to other
for pharmaceutical companies.
molecules anymore
B. So that scientists can create super
bugs. C. functional parts of the protein are
missing
C. So that scientists can identify which
cells have the rDNA plasmid. D. all of the above
D. So that scientists can kill the bacteria. 939. Which best describes how a new phe-
notypic characteristic may result from a
934. Part of the base sequence of a mRNA change in the DNA sequence of a gene.
molecule is:UACGGAWhat is the base se-
quence of the DNA sense strand that cor- A. The DNA sequence codes for the or-
responds to this? der of the amino acids found in a pro-
tein. Each of the 20 amino acids have dif-
A. ATGCCT
ferent chemical properties and polarities.
B. UACGGA If the DNA sequence is changed due to
C. AUGCCU a mutation, this causes the order of the
amino acids in the protein to change. This
D. TACGGA causes the overall shape and therefore
function of the protein to change. This
935. How much ATP does cellular respiration change in protein structure can cause phe-
ideally make? notypic changes.
A. 2 ATP
B. the phenotype is controlled by random
B. 0 ATP chance. So it can randomly be changed at
any time.
C. 10 ATP
D. 36 ATP C. The photosynthesis of plants, change
how our genes line up when we eat them.,
936. What is required to replicate DNA? This change causes a vast array of phy-
otypical combinations. This shows that we
A. Temperature of 37 ◦ C could have many different and new genes
B. Free nucleotides carrying A, C, G and T expressed every day.
bases
D. It is due to the processes of transcrip-
C. Plasmids tion and transduction.
D. Endonuclease
940. Which process adds a Guanine to the 5’
937. The first step of transcription is end?
A. promotion. A. Polyadenylation
B. elongation. B. Splicing
C. initiation. C. Capping
D. splicing. D. Post transcriptional processing

941. What is the name of the genetic material acid sequence thus causes a change in
that is inside the nucleus? the overall shape of the protein. Since
A. ER structure largely determines function, the
changed protein doesn’t function cor-
B. ATP rectly.
C. YOLO B. The indicated changes should have lit-
D. DNA tle effect on the overall protein struc-
ture/function. The problem must have
NARAYAN CHANGDER
942. RNA is essential for the building of pro- something to do with the mRNA instead of
teins. Which of these is NOT a type of the DNA.
RNA?
C. Since “Val” and “Glu” are very similar
A. messenger RNA
amino acids, the amino acid substitution
B. mitochondrial RNA is not the cause of the symptoms associ-
C. transfer RNA ated with sickle cell. The problem must be
related to the environment.
D. ribosomal RNA
943. Which molecule provided by plants ac-
counts for the energy in a herbivore’s 945. The circular DNA found in bacteria
diet?
A. Plaster
A. glucose
B. Plasmids
B. protein
C. Chromatin
C. salt
D. Chromatids
D. none of above
944. Sickle Cell AnemiaSequence for Nor- 946. Which mutation is most likely to change
mal HemoglobinDNA Sequence ATG- a protein?
GTG CAC CTG ACT CCT GAG GAG A. changing one base to another
AAG TCT GCC GTT ACTAmino Acid
Seq.STARTValHisLeuThrProGluGluLysSerAlaValThe B. changing one codon to another
Sequence for Sickle Cell HemoglobinDNA C. adding one nucleotide to a gene
SequenceATGGTG CAC CTG ACT CCT GTG
GAG AAG TCT GCC GTT ACTAmino Acid D. adding 3 nucleotides to a gene
Seq.STARTValHisLeuThrProValGluLysSerAlaValSickle
947. Why is respiration important for diges-
Cell Anemia is a blood disorder caused
tion?
by an error in the amino acid sequence
of the protein hemoglobin. Figure 2 A. Respiration provides carbon dioxide
depicts the normal hemoglobin DNA se- for the digestion of food.
quence and amino acid sequence and the
B. Respiration provides hydrogen for the
sequences found in patients affected by
digestion of food.
sickle cell anemia. Why would the high-
lighted changes likely cause problems for C. Respiration provides oxygen for food
affected individuals? the combustion of food molecules to pro-
duce ATP.
A. Different amino acids have different
polarities. The change in the amino D. none of above

948. What does DNA stand for? 953. The function of the operator is to
A. Deoxyribonucleic acid A. regulate access of RNA polymerase to

B. Denitrogenous acid specific genes
C. Deribonucleic acid B. turn on and off the molecules of tRNA
D. Diribonucleic acid C. control the process of transcription
within the nucleus
949. A portion of mRNA is coded CUG. The cor-
responding DNA is coded D. generate amino acids for protein syn-
thesis
A. GAC
B. GTC 954. Which of the following features are cor-
rect for hydrogen bonding?I. It is involved
C. CTG
in the cohesion of water.II. It results in
D. CAG the thermal properties of water.III. It is
a bond within the water molecule.
950. Why might a point mutation in DNA make
a difference in the level of a protein’s ac- A. I and II only
tivity? B. II and III only
A. It might substitute a different amino C. I and III only
acid in the active site.
D. I, II and III
B. It might exchange one serine codon for
a different serine codon. 955. Which of the following is NOT true of a
C. It might result in a chromosomal codon?
translocation. A. It may code for the same amino acid
D. none of above as another codon.
951. Which bacterium is used in the production B. It never codes for more than one
of insulin by genetic engineering? amino acid.
A. Saccharomyces C. It extends from one end of a tRNA
molecule.
B. Rhizobium
C. Mycobacterium D. It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
D. Escherichia 956. The function of insulin is

952. What is the effect of a nucleotide-pair A. catalysis
substitution that results in a nonsense mu- B. packing of DNA
tation in a gene?
C. a hormone
A. it changes an amino acid in the en-
coded protein D. blood clotting
B. It has no effect on the amino acid se- 957. bring amino acids to the ribosomes.
quence of the encoded protein
A. tRNA
C. it introduces premature stop codon
B. rRNA
into the mRNA
D. it alters the reading frame of the C. mRNA
mRNA D. DNA

958. What type of organic molecules are en- B. Both in a DNA and an RNA molecule
zymes? C. RNA molecule only
A. carbohydrates D. In double-stranded DNA only
B. lipids
964. Guanine always hydrogen bonds with Cy-
C. nucleic acids tosine. This is an example of:
D. proteins A. Contemplation Proclamation Perspira-
tion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
959. Mutations can be
A. Harmful B. Confusatory Base Maturation
C. Compligatory Nitrogenase
B. Beneficial
D. Complementary Base Pairing
C. Neutral
D. All of the Above 965. The codon is found on what structure?
A. mRNA
960. Which of the following leads to disrup-
tion of nucleosomal structure? B. tRNA
A. Acetylation C. rRNA
B. Carboxylation D. DNA
C. Phosphorylation 966. What is Taxonomy?
D. Methylation A. A system of existences
961. Which is NOT an organic carbon com- B. The science of biological classification
pound?
A. carbon dioxide C. Systems help to clarify relationships
among organisms
B. carbohydrates
D. The study of biological diversity and its
C. DNA
evolution.
D. cholesterol
967. Where does cellular respiration take
962. Which of the following plasma membrane place in the cell?
receptors activate signaling pathways usu- A. Cell Membrane
ally by forming molecular dimers that re-
sult in protein phosphorylation reactions B. Nucleus
upon binding of their specific ligand? C. Mitochondria
A. G protein-coupled receptors D. Vacuole
B. Receptor tyrosine kinases 968. GENERAL: A nucleic acid that is composed
C. Ligand receptors of a phosphate, ribose sugar, and one of
D. none of above four nitrogen bases.
A. STP
963. A short sequence of nucleotides reads
GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of B. ATP
molecule could this sequence be found? C. DNA
A. DNA molecule only D. RNA

969. a start codon is C. UCCGUUCUUGCU

A. a sequence of RNA D. ACCGUUCAUGCA

B. a protein
975. Ringworm is a skin infection caused by
C. an enzyme a fungus that lives in warm, moist con-
D. the last thing to be transcribed ditions. Which statement is true about a
ringworm infection
970. A nucleotide does NOT contain
A. It spreads by biting insects
A. a sugar
B. polymerase B. It spreads by coughing and sneezing
C. a nitrogen base C. It spreads by using towels that belong

to an infected person
D. a phosphate group
D. It spreads by sharing food with an in-
971. Which is correct about the wavelengths fected person
and colors of visible light?
A. red 400-700nm violet 976. A biochemist isolates, purifies, and com-
bines in a test tube a variety of molecules
B. red 200-1000nm violet
needed for DNA replication. When she
C. violet 400-700nm red adds some DNA to the mixture, replication
D. violet 200-1000nm red occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of
a normal strand paired with numerous seg-
972. All plants are made of cells. This was dis- ments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides
covered by long. What has she probably left out of
A. Matthias Schleiden the mixture?
B. Rudolf Virchow A. DNA ligase
C. Robert Hooke B. nucleotides
D. Aristotle C. DNA polymerase III
973. What occurs during DNA replication? D. Okazaki fragments
A. DNA polymerase separates the two
977. Which is the correct chemical equation for
DNA strands.
CELLULAR RESPIRATION?
B. DNA molecules containing nucleotides
from the original molecule are produced. A. Glucose (Sugar) + Oxygen –> Carbon
Dioxide + Water + ATP (Energy)
C. Adenine forms a base pair with either
thymine or uracil. B. ATP (Energy) + Oxygen –> Carbon
Dioxide + Water + Glucose (Sugar)
D. New bases attach to the original sugar-
phosphate backbone. C. Glucose (Sugar) + Carbon Dioxide –>
Oxygen + Water + ATP (Energy)Glucose
974. Which is the mRNA molecule that (Sugar) + Carbon Dioxide –> Oxygen +
would be transcribed from this DNA tem- Water + ATP (Energy)
plate:TGGCAAGTACGT
D. Glucose (Sugar) + Water + Oxygen –
A. ACCGTTCATGCA > Carbon Dioxide + Oxygen + ATP (En-
B. UGGCAAGUACGU ergy)

978. A permanent change to the shape of a C. It unwinds the parental double helix.
protein caused by the breaking of stabi- D. It joins Okazaki fragments together.
lizing bonds (h bonds) and interactions be-
tween R groups of their amino acids. 983. Which element is most common in pro-
A. Denaturation teins?
B. Dipeptide A. Nitrogen
C. Condensation B. Gercium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Iron
D. Collagen
D. Phosphorus
979. Which part of a plant captures the light
energy used in photosynthesis? 984. What type of mutation has occurred
here? T-G-A-C-C-A T-G-A-G-C-A
A. guard cells
A. Substitution
B. chlorophyll
B. Deletion
C. roots
C. Insertion
D. none of above
D. Frameshift
980. directs construction of proteins.
985. The end product of translation is what?
A. Hormones
A. amino acid
B. RNA
B. polypeptide
C. Vitamins
C. sugar
D. DNA
D. protein
981. catabolic reaction
986. How does RNA differ from DNA?
A. the breakdown of bigger molecules to
A. RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose in-
smaller ones and uses energy
stead of ribose.
B. the build up of simpler molecules into
B. RNA contains the nitrogen base
more complex molecules and uses energy
thymine instead of uracil.
C. RNA consists of one nucleotide chain
C. the breakdown of complex molecules
instead of two.
into more simpler molecules and doesn’t
require energy D. none of above
D. the build up of small molecules into big- 987. The anticodon of a particular tRNA
ger ones and doesn’t require energy molecule is
982. What is the role of DNA ligase in the elon- A. complementary to the corresponding
gation of the lagging strand during DNA mRNA codon.
replication? B. complementary to the corresponding
A. It catalyzes the lengthening of telom- triplet in rRNA.
eres. C. the part of tRNA that bonds with a spe-
B. It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to cific amino acid.
make a primer. D. catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.

988. A healthy lifestyle can be described as C. Pepsin

A. Exercise to the point of exhaustion D. Lipase

B. Eating anything you like and exercising 993. Different amino acids have different
3 times a week groups.
C. Eating a balanced diet and exercise A. amine
regularly
B. carboxyl
D. none of above
C. hydroxide
989. One of the following nucleic acids has a D. R
left handed helix
994. What enzyme is responsible for transcrip-
A. M-RNA tion?
B. T-RNA A. DNA polymerase
C. A-DNA B. RNA polymerase
D. Z-DNA C. ribosomes
990. Do all point mutations make a change in D. nucleolus in the nucleus
the amino acid sequence of a protein?
995. The majority of oxygen in the blood is car-
A. yes, there will always be one amino ried by in red blood cells.
acid changed by the mutation
A. hemoglobin
B. no, some mutations may change a
B. fats
codon, but the protein will not change.
This is because there is more than one C. glucose
codon for all amino acids except methio- D. sodium chloride
nine and tryptophan.
996. a metabolic pathway consists of
C. yes, a point mutation changes the
whole protein A. a series of reactions
D. no, point mutations are too small to B. a series of enzymes
change a protein C. a series of chemical reactions
991. An unmutated segment of DNA contain- D. a series of biological reactions

ing 40 molecules of adenine will contain 997. Half of your grains should be
an equal number of what?
A. White bread
A. uracil
B. whole grains
B. cytosine
C. donuts
C. guanine
D. bagels
D. thymine
998. Which of the following involves using an
992. in the pancreatic and intestinal juice RNA/protein complex to remove introns
completes the digestion of lipids. and connect exons in the RNA transcript?
A. Amylase A. Proteosome digestion
B. Renin B. Histone acetylation

C. DNA methylation 1004. The loss of enzyme shape is called

D. alternative spicing A. denaturation.
999. James exercises for 30 minutes each day, B. stress.
five days a week. What would be a bene- C. random movement.
fit of this lifestyle choice?
D. alignment.
A. loss of bone and muscle strength
1005. What is the definition of cell respiration
B. increased blood pressure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. improvement in overall health A. we finna be breathing for real
D. decreased energy levels B. The controlled release of energy of en-

ergy, in the form of ATP, from organic com-
1000. Organelle in eukaryotic cells that is the pounds
site of cellular respiration that burns sugar C. The process used in some organisms
with oxygen to produce energy, carbon to produce their own organic substances
dioxide, and water.
D. The process that uses energy, in the
A. Chloroplasts form of ATP, to produce organic com-
B. Vacuoles pounds
C. Mitochondria
1006. DNA helicase, polymerase, ligase, and
D. Golgi Apparatus primase are alike in that they are all
what?
1001. Expressed sequences=genes. Code for
polypeptide A. Enzymes
A. introns B. Nitrogenous bases
B. exons C. Nucleotides
C. ssDNA D. Codons
D. snrnps 1007. A strand of DNA has these bases: AGC
1002. Which of the following are basic needs CAT GTA TAC. What is the complementary
for plants to make food, but not for ani- DNA strand? (3.1.1)
mals. A. ACG GAT CTA TAG
A. Water and oxygen B. TCG GTA CAT ATG
B. Acid rain C. TGC CTA GAT ATC
C. Sunlight, CO2, and soil D. UCG CUA CAU AUG
D. Glucose
1008. What does tRNA do?
1003. How many transmembrane domain does A. provides information from DNA to ribo-
G protein couple reveptor have somes
A. 5 B. transfers amino acids to the ribo-
B. 8 somes
C. 7 C. makes up ribosomes
D. 6 D. builds proteins

1009. Brandon just ate celery with peanut but- 1014. An mRNA molecule is produced in the
ter on top. Did he eat any protein? step of protein synthesis:

A. Maybe A. replication
B. Yes B. transcription
C. No C. duplication
D. none of above D. translation
1010. Protein Synthesis takes place at what 1015. How does a deletion mutation differ
organelle? from a substitution mutation?
A. Nucleus A. A deletion mutation occurs when a
base is lost from a codon and a substitu-
B. Mitochondria
tion mutation occurs when a single base
C. Ribosome is replaced by a different base.
D. Chloroplast B. A deletion mutation causes a frame-
shift mutation and a substitution causes
1011. If you have a codon AUC what is the an- a point mutation
ticodon that complements it?
C. Both of the above are correct
A. TAG
D. None of the above are correct
B. UAG
C. AUG 1016. Which one of the following molecules
has an unbranched, linear structure?
D. UAC
A. amylase
1012. Which event in a cell would use ATP to B. amylopectin
maintain homeostasis?
C. amylose
A. a cell releasing a molecule through the
cell membrane without energy D. glycogen
B. a cell acquiring oxygen from the envi- 1017. Which scientist(s) stated that DNA con-
ronment tains phosphorus while proteins contain
C. a cell using energy to transport a large sulfur?
food molecule through a protein A. Meselson & Stahl
D. a cell releasing water to the environ- B. Hershey & Chase
ment
C. Watson & Crick
1013. Which organelle converts the energy in D. Franklin & Watkins
food into energy for the cell (cellular respi-
ration)? 1018. The expressing sequences in mRNA are
A. Ribosomes A. exons
B. Nucleolus B. euchromatin
C. Mitochondria C. Introns
D. Golgi Body D. Heteochromatin

1019. Transcription is the process that makes 1025. Which most directly controls the rate as
from which food is broken down to release en-
A. RNA, RNA ergy?
B. RNA, DNA A. enzymes

C. DNA, DNA B. hormones
D. DNA, RNA C. nucleic acids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1020. Process by which DNA makes RNA. D. vitamins
A. transcription
1026. What is correct function for a carb?
B. replication
A. build and repair body tissues
C. translation
D. none of above B. body’s main source of energy
1021. Which of these is part of the description C. helps keep immune system functioning
of protein?
A. a folded chain of amino acids D. cushions organs
B. a folded chain of carbohydrates
1027. Short strands of — primer are used in
C. a branched chain of fatty acids DNA replication.
D. a branched chain of nucleic acids A. DNA
1022. What are the products of photosynthe- B. RNA
sis?
C. Histone
A. water and carbon dioxide
D. Protein
B. oxygen and glucose
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide 1028. What are the building blocks of all Car-
D. oxygen and water bohydrate?
1023. Anaerobic respiration A. glycerol

A. doesn’t require CO2 B. amino acid
B. requires CO2 C. fatty acid
C. doesn’t require oxygen D. glucose
D. requires oxygen
1029. A strand of DNA has the following base
1024. Which scientist(s) determined that DNA sequence. ACG-GTA-AGC. What would be
replication was a semi-conservative pro- the complementary mRNA strand?
cess?
A. TGC-CAT-TCG
A. Meselson & Stahl
B. Griffith B. ACG-GUA-AGC
C. Hershey & Chase C. UGC-CAU-UCG

D. Chargaff D. ACG-GTA-AGC

1030. What is replicated by a semi- B. DNA resistance

conservative process? C. Antigen resistance

A. Messenger RNA (mRNA) only D. Antibiotic resistance
B. Messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer
RNA (tRNA) only 1036. An addition of two bases to a gene is
called a
C. Messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA
(tRNA) and DNA only A. point mutation
D. DNA only B. frameshift mutation
C. deletion mutation
1031. Which of the following is NOT a charac-
teristic that prokaryotes and eukaryotes D. silent mutation
share?
1037. When can a mutation be passed on to
A. cell membrane offspring?
B. DNA or RNA A. only when the mutation is present dur-
C. ribosomes ing or occurs during mitosis
D. nucleus B. only when the mutation is present dur-
ing or occurs during meiosis
1032. Which do DNA and RNA have in com-
C. when the mutation occurs during mito-
mon?
sis or meiosis
A. Both are double stranded.
D. when the mutation occurs in somatic
B. Both contain ribose molecules. cells
C. Both contain phosphate groups.
1038. cell-surface receptors with intracellu-
D. Both contain uracil. lar domains that have intrinsic enzymatic
activity.
1033. The enzyme that catalyses the first step
of carbon fixation in photosynthesis A. Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs)
A. spider silk B. Cell surface receptors
B. Rhodopsin C. Intracellular receptors
C. Rubisco D. G-coupled proteins receptors
D. Proteome 1039. What are the products of cellular respi-
ration?
1034. The coming together of a substrate and
the enzyme’s active site is known as A. Oxygen and Sugar
A. collision. B. Oxygen and Water
B. activation energy. C. Carbon Dioxide and Sugar
C. denaturation. D. Carbon Dioxide and Water
D. increasing pH. 1040. Which of the following is a “sometimes”
1035. Transposons in bacteria usually carry ad- food?
ditional gene for A. salad
A. Plasmid resistance B. soup

C. chicken C. hydrogen bonds

D. doughnut D. covalent bonds
1041. Which of these is NOT part of a nu-
1046. Name the interaction between amino
cleotide?
acid in protein synthesis
A. 5-carbon sugar
A. Peptide bond
B. Phosphate group
B. Hydrogen bond
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Glucose
C. Covalent bond
D. Nitrogenous base
D. van Der Waals
1042. Which of the following terms is most
closely associated with a tRNA molecule? 1047. Which statement regarding viruses is
A. codon true?
B. anticodon A. a virus can only reproduce inside of a
C. transcription living cell
D. ribosome B. viruses do not contain DNA
1043. Which of the following best describes C. viruses are unicellular

the function of DNA? D. viruses are generally larger than cells
A. DNA codes for mRNA which deter-
mines the properties and traits of an or- 1048. An example of a hydrophobic molecule
ganism. is
B. DNA codes for the amino acid se- A. oil.
quences of the body’s proteins. Proteins B. salt.
determine the traits of an organism.
C. glucose.
C. DNA codes for tRNA which then deter-
mines the traits of all organisms. D. cellulose.
D. mRNA codes for DNA which then de-
termines the amino acid sequence of the 1049. On the leading strand, DNA is:
body’s proteins. A. not copied
1044. What is the product of translation? B. copied continuously
A. DNA C. copied backwards in pieces
B. mRNA D. discarded
C. tRNA
1050. This process produces cells with only
D. proteins
1/2 of the chromosomes as body cells.
1045. DNA consists of two antiparallel A. mitosis
strands of nucleotide chains held together
by B. meiosis
A. peptide bonds C. monkeys
B. ionic bonds D. apes

1051. Which would be the best evidence that 1056. The central dogma of molecular biology
a cell is using active transport to move a can be summed up by
substance across its cell membrane?

A. DNA + RNA = Protein.
A. Substances are moving rapidly across
B. DNA to RNA to Protein.
the cell membrane
B. ATP is being rapidly consumed near C. RNA to DNA to Protein.
the cellular membrane D. RNA + DNA = Protein.
C. substance are moving from high to low
concentrations 1057. Which molecules are an essential com-
ponent for energy production in animal
D. substances are moving through chan- cells?
nels in the cell membrane
A. carbohydrates
1052. Crystal is trying to increase the PRO-
B. proteins
TEIN in her diet. Which foods will best
satisfy this nutritional need? C. fats
A. Peas, fish, milk, and beans D. fiber
B. Apples, carrots, juice, and rice
1058. Which are most closely related to
C. Kiwi, lettuce, tea, and strawberries biotechnology?
D. Watermelon, spinach, coffee, and
A. medicine and agriculture
pasta
B. construction and engineering
1053. What is the process of making an RNA
copy of a gene? C. water treatment and electricity gener-
ation
A. replication
D. communication and information tech-
B. transcription nology
C. translation
D. nucleosomes 1059. What is the flow of genetic information
in cells from DNA to protein? (Central
1054. Which of the following carries amino Dogma)
acids to the site of protein synthesis? A. RNA to DNA to protein
A. mRNA
B. DNA to RNA to protein
B. rRNA
C. protein to DNA to RNA
C. tRNA
D. RNA to protein to DNA
D. nRNA
1060. Which of these carries the code for mak-
1055. What are the PRODUCTS of cellular res-
ing a protein?
piration?
A. Oxygen and sugar A. mRNA
B. oxygen and water B. rRNA

C. Carbon dioxide and sugar C. tRNA
D. Carbon dioxide and water D. none of above

1061. Which of the following is NOT a stop C. DNA polymerase

codon for translation? D. Ligase
A. UGA
1067. The addition or deletion of nitrogen
B. UAA bases that change the reading from of
C. UAG mRNA is a
D. TATA A. point mutation
B. silent mutation
1062. Cellular respiration occurs in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. transversion
A. chloroplasts
D. frameshift mutations
B. mitochondria
C. golgi aparatus 1068. A segment of DNA has the sequence AT-
GCCT. What will be the sequence for the
D. thylakoid
transcripted segment?.
1063. cDNA is synthesised from RNA by the A. UACGGA
enzyme
B. ATGCCT
A. DNA polymerase C. TACGGA
B. DNA synthetase D. AUGCCU
C. DNA convertase
1069. Which of the following are direct meth-
D. Reverse transcriptase ods used to measure the rate of photosyn-
1064. Which of the following are joined by thesis?I. production of oxygenII. uptake of
peptide bonds during the process of pro- carbon dioxideIII. increase in biomass
tein synthesis? A. I only
A. monosachharides B. III only
B. triglycerides C. I and II only
C. nucleotides D. I, II and III
D. amino acids 1070. Which are true of DNA replication?
1065. DNA replication results in A. semi-conservative, purine-purine pair-
ing
A. two DNA molecules that are identical
to the original DNA molecule. B. dispersive, purine-purine pairing
B. one mRNA molecule that is comple- C. conservative, complementary pairing
mentary to the DNA molecule. D. semi-conservative, complementary
C. one chain of amino acids that is com- pairing
plementary to the DNA molecule.
1071. Which of these is not found in an animal
D. none of above cell?
1066. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation A. mitochondria
of the leading strand? B. nucleus
A. RNA polymerase C. cell wall
B. Helicase D. cell membrane

1072. The Genetic Code 1077. What is the missing part? Grain, Pro-
A. is used to translate mRNA codons into tein, Vegetable, Fruit, ?

amino acids A. Milk
B. determines the anticodons and amino B. Water
acids on each tRNA C. Soda
C. is the same for all organisms on Earth D. Juice
D. all of the above 1078. A certain gene codes for a polypep-

tide that is 120 amino acids long. Ap-
1073. Which food choice should Johnny choose proximately how many nucleotides long is
if he is getting ready for a track meet and the mRNA that codes for this polypeptide
he is a sprinter? likely to be?
A. Steak A. 360
B. Apple B. 480
C. Pasta C. 40
D. Water D. 30
1074. Short unique fragments that are individ- 1079. Which of the following was the impor-
ual to a person and cut with restriction en- tant clue from Rosalind Franklin’s work
donucleases. Can be separated after cut- that helped Watson and Crick develop their
ting through gel electrophoresis model of DNA?
A. RFLP A. Her work with radioactively labeling
B. VNTR bacteriophages allowed Watson and Crick
to know that DNA was the genetic mate-
C. Probe rial and not proteins.
D. Gel electrophoresis B. Her picture of DNA confirmed observa-
1075. What is anticodon? tions with Chargaff of the relative percent-
ages of A, T, G and C in DNA.
A. base duplet on tRNA that carry one
amino acid C. She created a photograph of DNA
that showed exactly what DNA looked
B. not complementary pair with codon on like Watson and Crick merely copied
mRNA this picture to make their model.
C. base triplet on mRNA that carry one D. A photograph created by the scatter-
amino acid ing pattern of X-rays sent through a sam-
D. base triplet on tRNA that carry one ple of DNA showed that the molecule was
amino acid helical and consisted of two strands.
1076. Which of the following are proteins? 1080. Which is NOT a polysaccharide?
A. arugula A. starch
B. Strawberries B. amylopectin
C. tortilla C. cellulose
D. Beans, eggs, chicken D. lactose

1081. Which best describes stem cells? 1086. Which carries amino acids to the site of
A. stem cells can only come from em- protein synthesis?
bryos A. mRNA
B. stem cells can only come from adult B. rRNA
bone marrow C. tRNA
C. stem cells do not ever change D. nRNA
D. stem cells can develop into different
1087. Protein synthesis takes place in two
NARAYAN CHANGDER
specialized cells
parts:
1082. What pairs with adenine in the DNA? A. Transcription then translation
A. thymine B. Replication then transcription
B. uracil C. Translation then transcription
C. guanine D. Replication then translation
D. cytosine 1088. Taq DNA polymerase could be used to
1083. Which of the following is false about de- A. Identify the DNA of a person at a crime
naturation? scene
A. Disruption of hydrogen bonds B. Remove a portion of a DNA sample for
testing
B. Disruption of phosphodiester linkage
C. Initiate transcription in a cell
C. Loss of helical structure of DNA
D. Produce multiple copies of a segment
D. It is resulted as a result of change in of DNA in laboratory conditions
pH or increase in temperature
1089. A tool bacteria use to cut invading viral
1084. How does the amount of energy result- DNA
ing from fermentation compare with that
A. restriction endonucleases
of aerobic respiration?
B. actual scissors
A. aerobic respiration results in less en-
ergy C. bacteriophages
B. aerobic respiration results in more en- D. none of above
ergy 1090. How much energy is stored in 1kg of
C. each process results in equal amounts body fat compared to 1kg of glycogen
energy A. Same amount
D. each process results in variable B. Twice as much
amounts of energy
C. one sixty fourth as much
1085. Griffith worked with D. one tenth as much
A. bacteriophages
1091. What is the process of making an mRNA
B. Drosophilia from DNA template?
C. frog eggs A. replication
D. Streptococcus B. transcription

C. translation 1097. Which is true about plasmids?

D. none of above A. Plasmids can be cut at specific se-

quences called restriction sites.
1092. The carrier protein that help to trans- B. Plasmids contain a promoter se-
port activated fatty acid to the inner mi- quence that defines where transcription
tochondria is begins.
A. Coated vesicle C. Plasmids can contain an antibiotic re-
B. Carnitine sistance gene.
D. All of the statements are true about
C. Cadherin
plasmids.
D. none of above
1098. Which biomolecule is also known as en-
1093. Where does transcription occur? zymes?
A. on a ribosome A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid
B. in the nucleus
C. Nucleic Acid
C. in the cytoplasm
D. Protein
D. on the mitochondria
1099. What is the definition of transcription?
1094. What are the three components of a nu- A. Synthesis of cDNA molecule with a
cleotide? base complementary to DNA
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base B. Synthesis of DNA molecule with a base
B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base complementary to DNA
C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base C. Synthesis of RNA molecule with a base

complementary to DNA
D. sugar, phosphate, protein
D. Synthesis of protein molecular with a
1095. Hydrogen atoms at a double bond are base complementary to RNA
on the same side 1100. In which way does RNA differ from
A. hydrolysis DNA?
B. Cis A. RNA is double stranded

B. RNA is single stranded
C. Trans
C. RNA is found only in the nucleus
D. Glycogen
D. RNA contains nitrogenous bases
1096. What is the name for when the info in a
1101. The number of codons in the genetic code
gene is turned into RNA?
is
A. translation A. 3
B. replication B. 4
C. transcription C. 20
D. duplication D. 64

1102. The target enzyme for Gq proteins is 1107. What type of gene mutation has oc-
curred here? Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
A. PI3-kinase Mutant-AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
B. adenylyl cyclase A. deletion frameshift

C. phospholipase C-beta B. insertion frameshift
D. none of above C. substitution
D. nonsense
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1103. What is the name for this: RNA –>
RNA?
1108. DNA replication results in two DNA
A. replication
molecules
B. transcription
A. each with two new strands
C. translation
B. each with two original strands
D. none of these
C. each with one new strand and one orig-
1104. Which of the following is an example of inal strand
a missense mutation?
D. one with 2 new strands and the other
A. a nucleotide and its partner are re- with 2 original strands
placed with an “incorrect” pair of nu-
cleotides which destroys the function of 1109. How many codons are in this mRNA
the final product. molecule?AUG UAA ACC GAG CCA UAG
B. a nucleotide pair is added into a gene
A. 18
destroying the reading frame of the gene
C. a frameshift mutation occurs, causing B. 6
a nonfunctional protein C. 1
D. a nucleotide pair substitution occurs, D. 5
which causes a codon to code for an
amino acid that may not be the “correct” 1110. Which process causes the body of multi-
one, although translation continues celled organisms to grow larger?
1105. A is a small ring of DNA found in a A. growth of individual cells
bacterial cell.
B. proper nutrients and a good nights
A. virus sleep
B. plasmid C. cell division by mitosis
C. gene bullet
D. cell division by meiosis
D. PCR
1111. What does DNA polymerase do?
1106. GENERAL: DNA is found in the:
A. DNA replication
A. cell membrane
B. vacuole B. proofreads its product
C. chloroplast C. edits its mistakes
D. nucleus D. all of the above

1112. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the C. mass (kg) / height (m)
RNA strand that would be complementary D. height (cm)2 / mass (kg)
to the following strand: GTAGTCA

1118. What is the importance of the codons in
A. UATUAGA
protein synthesis?
B. ACGACTG A. each codon is the code for a particular
C. CAUCAGU amino acid
D. CATCAGT B. each codon is the code for a nucleotide
sequence
1113. DNA consists of bases, what holds the
C. each codon is the code for one of the
base pairs together?
bases found in DNA
A. peptide bonds D. each codon is the code for a base
B. ionic bonds found in RNA
C. hydrogen bonds 1119. How big is the Fruit/Vegetable section
D. covalent bonds on the plate?
A. The whole plate
1114. Which lunch choice is best for a healthy
lifestyle? B. 1/2 the plate
A. hamburger C. It’s not on the plate

D. 1/4 of the plate
B. turkey sandwich
C. fried fish sandwich 1120. UV radiation can cause Mutation in
DNA by forming unusual bonds between
D. pizza Thymine nucleotides, that unusual bonds
1115. proved that DNA was the trans- are refereed as
forming principle. A. Thymine dimer
A. Hershey and Chase B. Thymine Monomer
B. Griffith C. Thymine trimer
C. Messelson and Stahl D. Thymine pentamer
D. Franklin 1121. REPLICATION:DNA replication is when:

A. DNA makes DNA
1116. Which of the following processes re-
lease the most ATP per molecule of glucose B. DNA makes RNA
for immediate cell use? C. RNA makes Protein
A. aerobic respiration D. DNA makes Protein
B. anaerobic respiration 1122. Which is NOT a correct pairing?
C. fermentation A. Rubisco-enzyme for carbon fixation
D. photosynthesis B. Rhodopsin-light-sensitive pigment
C. Collagen-structural support and con-
1117. Which is the calculation for BMI?
nections
A. mass (kg)2 / height (cm) D. Insulin-enzyme to reduce blood glu-
B. mass (kg) / height (m)2 cose

1123. The DNA base sequence AAA-CAG-CTG D. Produces chromosomes for sexual re-
will code for what mRNA base sequence? production
A. TTT-CAG-CTG
1127. When and how did oxygen gas first af-
B. AAA-CAG-CTG fect rock formation on Earth?
C. AAA-GUC-GAC A. 4.2 BYA, dissolved calcium carbonate
D. UUU-GUC-GAC
B. 2.4 BYA, dissolved calcium carbonate
1124. Which of the following statements
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 4.2 BYA, precipitated iron as iron oxide
is/are correct for DNA replication?I. It
occurs during interphase.II. It is semi-
conservative.III. It is a stage in protein D. 2.4 BYA, precipitated iron as iron oxide
synthesis.
1128. Which would most likely reduce the risk
A. I only of heart disease?
B. I and II only
A. decreased exercise and a diet low in
C. II only fat
D. I, II, and III B. increased exercise and a diet high in
1125. The table shows the daily calorie in- fat
takes and frequencies of physical activ- C. increased exercise and a diet low in
ity for four students of equal height and carbohydrates
weight in one week.Student DailyCalo-
D. decreased exercise and a diet high in
rieIntake Physical Act1 1, 500 3 times a
carbohydrates
week2 2, 000 3 times a week3 2, 500
3 times a week4 3, 000 3 times a weekIf 1129. What is the correct sequence of steps
each student requires 2, 100 calories a day for transcription in a Eukaryote?
and exercise 4 times a week, which state-
ment describes the general health of one A. Initiation, Elimination, and Termina-
of the students? tion
A. Student 1 will have the highest BMR B. Elongation, Initiation, and Termination
B. Student 2 will maintain a nearly con-
stant weight C. DNA, RNA, and Polypeptide
C. Student 3 will have he best bone D. Initiation, Elongation, and Termination
strength.
D. Student 4 will develop the best muscle 1130. Suppose a double-stranded DNA
tone. molecule was shown to have 15% ade-
nine bases. What would be the ex-
1126. What is the primary function of DNA in pected percentage of guanine bases in that
organisms? molecule?
A. Binds to specific active sites on en- A. 15%
zymes
B. 35%
B. Stores genetic information
C. 85%
C. Transports amino acids to the ribo-
somes D. Not enough information

1131. What structure is responsible for the 1137. Which of the following is a primary way
splicing of the pre-mRNA? in which proteins are used in the body?

A. Nucleus A. Proteins form a layer of insulation.
B. RNAse B. Proteins help the body lose weight.
C. Spliceosome C. Proteins provide materials for growth
D. ribozymes and repair.
D. Proteins provide a quick energy
1132. Which chemical group do amino acids source.
contain that carbs and lipids do not?
A. hydroxyl 1138. Changing the pH alters the of the
enzyme, which then affects protein solu-
B. amino bility and may change the shape of the
C. carboxyl molecule.
D. methyl A. charge
1133. What is the three base sequence of B. stress
mRNA that codes for a single amino acid? C. speed
A. Anticodon D. alignment
B. Codon
1139. Collisions are the result of of the
C. Protein substrate and enzyme. Successful colli-
D. none of above sions are ones in which the substrate and
active site correctly
1134. What is the complementary tRNA anti-
A. random movements, align
codon to the following mRNA codon: AUG
B. repulsion, repel
A. UAC
C. cooling, attract
B. TAC
D. denaturation, match up
C. ATG
D. AAC 1140. Units of heat that measure the energy
used by the body and the energy that
1135. Which does NOT affect the level of en- foods supply to the body.
zyme activity (but does affect rate of re-
A. Nutrients
action)?
B. Calories
A. temperature
C. Appetite
B. pH
D. Nutrition
C. enzyme concentration
D. substrate concentration 1141. Sickle Cell AnemiaSequence for Nor-
mal HemoglobinDNA Sequence ATG-
1136. Plants need for photosynthesis GTG CAC CTG ACT CCT GAG GAG
A. oxygen AAG TCT GCC GTT ACTAmino Acid
B. soil Seq.STARTValHisLeuThrProGluGluLysSerAlaValThe
Sequence for Sickle Cell HemoglobinDNA
C. carbon dioxide Sequence ATGGTG CAC CTG ACT CCT GTG
D. sugar GAG AAG TCT GCC GTT ACTAmino Acid

Seq.STARTValHisLeuThrProValGluLysSerAlaValWhat C. purine
mRNA would be transcribed from the nor- D. pyrimidine
mal hemoglobin DNA?
A. TAC CAC GTG GAC TGA GGA CAC CTC 1146. Cellular respiration is carried out by
TTC AGA CGG CAA TGA which of the following?
B. UAC CAC GUC GAC UGA GGA CUC CUC A. all living organisms all of the time
UUC AGA CGG CAA UGA B. animals but not plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. UAC CAC GUG GAC UGA GGA CAC CUC C. animals all of the time but plants only
UUC AGA CGG CAA UGA at night
D. TAC CAC GTC GAC TGA GGA CTC CUC D. heterotrophs but not autotrophs
TTC AGA CGG CAA TGA
1147. Which enzyme is not working correctly
1142. Which of the following terms refers to
if new DNA bases are not added to the
a segment of DNA the controls the expres-
template strand?
sion of a trait?
A. DNA Polymerase
A. Chromosome
B. Topoisomerase
B. Chromatid
C. Ligase
C. Gene
D. Histone D. Primase
1143. What is the function of the poly-A tail 1148. Which enzyme is responsible for proof-
in mRNA? reading the newly composed DNA strand?
A. to add modified guanin to the 3’ end of A. DNA Polymerase

the mRNA B. Topoisomerase
B. to indicate the site of translational ter- C. Ligase
mination
D. Primase
C. to code for the binding of RNA poly-
merase to the DNA 1149. A disease caused by a mutation in one
D. to help protect the mRNA from degra- or a few genes is referred to as a(n)
dation by hydrolytic enzymes A. genetic disorder
1144. A mutation causing agent is called as B. malfunction
A. Mutagen C. inheritance
B. Carcinogen D. none of above
C. Mutation 1150. Which part of the cell is often called
D. All of the above “the brain of the cell”?
A. nuclear membrane
1145. In mRNA, each codon specifies a partic-
ular B. endoplasmic reticulum
A. nucleotide C. nucleus
B. amino acid D. mitochondria

1151. All eukaryotes and prokaryotes are sur- 1156. proved that DNA replicates by semi-
rounded by a conservative replication.

A. cell wall A. Hershey and Chase
B. cell membrane B. Griffith
C. cell envelope C. Messelson and Stahl
D. nucleus D. Franklin
1157. Intervening sequences. Do not code for

1152. What is a codon?
any protein. Are removed during RNA pro-
A. a sequence of 3 amino acids cessing. Found in eukaryotic DNA; not
B. a sequence of 3 nitrogen bases present in bacterial DNA.
C. a sequence of 3 enzymes A. introns
D. a sequence of 3 proteins B. exons

C. spliceosomes
1153. Which is NOT a disaccharide?
D. none of above
A. sucrose
1158. What is the source of the oxygen re-
B. maltose leased into the air as a product of photo-
C. lactose synthesis?
D. galactose A. Chlorophyll
B. Carbon dioxide only
1154. In 1828, Friedrich Wohler artificially
produced urea (organic compound) by an C. Water only
internal rearrangement of the atoms of D. Both water and carbon dioxide
ammonium cyanate (inorganic compound).
What important principle did this experi- 1159. What property of water makes it suit-
ment show? able as a coolant?
A. Organic compounds can be synthe- A. It takes a lot of energy to increase the

sised without the need of a vital force temperature of water.
B. It takes a lot of energy for water to
B. Inorganic compounds are essential for
evaporate.
living organisms.
C. Water molecules are cohesive and
C. Organic compounds are simpler sub-
stick to the skin.
stances than inorganic compounds.
D. Water is a good solvent so it can trans-
D. Vitalism
port heat from the body.
1155. Anything in the environment that causes 1160. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined
a mutation is a(n) by
A. splicing A. Phosphodiester bond
B. frameshift B. Peptide bond
C. elongation C. Ionic bond
D. mutagen D. Covalent bond

1161. If a DNA strand ACCGTCAC is used to D. is processed to add a 3 prime cap and
transcribe a piece of mRNA, what would a 5 prime tail
that mRNA look like?
A. ACCGUCAC 1165. The enzyme that helps to remove the in-
trons
B. TGGCAGTC
C. UGGCAGUG A. spliceosomes
D. UCCGTCUC B. Splicing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1162. What is the function of the release fac- C. SnRNA
tor in translation? D. SNRIP
A. it separates tRNA in the A site from the
growing polypeptide 1166. What suffix is commonly applied to en-
B. it binds to the stop codon in the A site zymes?
in place of a tRNA A. -ase
C. it releases the amino acid from its B. -ose
tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a
polypeptide C. -ter
D. it releases the ribosome from the ER D. -ice
to allow polypeptides into the cytosol
1167. Original: ATC CATMutation: ATC
1163. Which statement best compares aerobic
GCATWhat mutation occurred?
and anaerobic respiration?
A. Less ATP is generated during anaero- A. deletion
bic respiration than during aerobic respi- B. insertion
ration
C. silent
B. more water is generated during anaer-
obic respiration than during aerobic respi- D. transverse
ration
C. more oxygen is generated during 1168. Which IS an example for Nucleic Acids?
anaerobic respiration than during aerobic A. DNA/RNA
respiration
B. Grapes
D. less lactic acid is generated during
anaerobic respiration than during aerobic C. Fish
respiration
D. Potato
1164. Following transcription in eukaryotes,
the RNA transcript 1169. A difference between DNA and RNA is
RNA has which of the following bases?
A. is processed to remove exons from the
raw transcript A. adenine
B. is processed to insert exons into the B. uracil
raw transcript
C. thymine
C. is processed to add a 5 prime cap and
a 3 prime tail D. cytosine

1170. Where in the cell does DNA replication 1175. Which activities can most effectively in-
occur? crease energy levels, increase respiration,
and burn calories?

A. always the cytoplasm
A. jogging
B. always the nucleus
B. napping
C. in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes and the
nucleus in prokaryotes C. weightlifting
D. in the cytoplasm in prokaryotes and D. none of above
the nucleus in eukaryotes
1176. When a dipeptide is formed from two
1171. Which is the main source of energy used amino acids which type of reaction takes
in all body processes? place?
A. Denaturing of amino acids
A. fats
B. Condensation reaction
B. protein
C. Hydrolysis reaction
C. glucose
D. A reaction which is catabolism
D. none of above
1177. Cells with a nucleus and membrane-
1172. Which enzyme uncoils the DNA? bound organelles are called
A. Topoisomerase A. prokaryotes
B. Helicase B. eukaryotes
C. Polymerase C. bacteria
D. Ligase D. protists
1173. Which substance must be transported in 1178. What is the relationship between a pro-
the blood by lipoprotein complexes? tein, a cell, and DNA?
A. Cholesterol A. DNA -> Protein -> RNA
B. Oxygen B. Protein -> RNA -> DNA
C. Sodium chloride C. RNA -> DNA -> Protein
D. Amino acids D. DNA -> RNA -> Protein
1179. HISTORY: Discovered that A and T bond

1174. What happens in the Denature step of
together and C and G bond together
PCR?
A. Watson and Crick
A. The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.
B. Rosalind Franklin
B. The base-pairing rules for DNA are re- C. Fredrick Griffeth
versed. D. Erwin Chargaff
C. The double-stranded DNA is separated
1180. What is meant by the description “an-
into two single strands of DNA.
tiparallel” regarding the strands that
D. none of above make up DNA?

1.17 Seed technology 518
A. The twisting nature of DNA creates A. Nitrogen bases

nonparallel strands.
B. Amino acids
B. One strand is positively charged and
C. Double H
the other is negatively charged.
C. The 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs D. Sugar & Phosphate
counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the
1183. DNA transcription > RNA translation >?
other strand.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Base pairings create unequal spacing
between the two DNA strands A. Sugar
B. Gene
1181. What is the definition of metabolism?
C. Protein (amino acid)
A. the rate of digestion in an organism
B. is the web all of the enzymatic reac- D. Lipids
tions that take place inside a living organ-
1184. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
ism.
nucleotides?
C. the breakdown of larger molecules
into smaller molecules A. Ligase
D. The synthesis of complex molecules B. Helicase

from monomers C. DNA polymerase I
1182. What is the backbone of DNA made of? D. DNA polymerase III
1.17 Seed technology

1. Epigeal germination occurs in C. 500 g
A. Castor D. 100 g
B. pea
4. A seed which is unable to germinate in the
C. Gram presence of light is
D. Maize A. Viscum
2. Sample received from other than seed cer- B. Bean
tification agencies and seed inspectors is C. Onion
A. Service sample D. Maize
B. Certified sample
5. Outer seed coat is
C. Official sample
A. Funiculus
D. Working sample
B. Tegmen
3. For bajra, recommended size of submitted
C. Hilum
sample for Grow-out Test is
D. Testa
A. 1000 g
B. 200 g 6. In exalbumious seeds, there is

1.17 Seed technology 519
A. Consumption of endosperm during de- 12. During germiantion, micropyle of seed

velopment of seed takes part in

B. Abundant protein A. Absorption of water
C. Nonformation of endosperm B. Forming weak for emergence of radi-
cle
D. Abundant formation of endosperm
C. passage of gases
7. Difference between seed and grain is D. leaching inhibitors
A. seed processing 13. The seed in which dormancy can be broken
B. genetic purity by red light is
C. seed quality A. Pea

B. Lettuce
D. Cost
C. Gram
8. No. of plants / heads per count required D. castor
for castor
14. Foundation seed production is taken up by
A. 1000 plants
A. Qualified breeder
B. 200 plants
B. Originating breeder
C. 500 plants
C. Seed corporations
D. 100 plants D. Scientists of ICAR
9. Integumentary outgrowth present over 15. Hilum of seed is
the micropyle of castor is A. Scar of funiculus
A. Aril B. Scar of micropyle
B. Chalaza C. Area through which pollen tube enters
C. Caruncle the ovule
D. Glandular and attractant region of
D. Wing
ovule
10. Cotyledon is absent in 16. A dicot exalbuminous seed is
A. Polygonum A. castor
B. cuscutta B. rice
C. santalum C. wheat
D. shorea D. Pea
17. The remnants of nucellus present in the
11. What is the colour of nucleus seed?
seed constitute
A. No tag A. perisperm
B. Golden yellow B. Endocarp
C. Azure blue C. endosperm
D. White D. Aril

1.18 Silviculture 520
18. What is the source of foundation seed? 21. the first process which occurs when the
A. Nucleus seed seed is placed in the soil is
B. Breeder seed A. Imbibitions
C. Foundation seed B. photosynthesis
D. Certified seed C. respiration
19. In exalbumious seed the food is generally D. solubilisation of food

stored in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
22. An endospermic seed is
A. endosperm initially but hypocotyls
A. Pea
later on
B. Gram
B. endosperm from the beginning
C. Castor
C. cotyledons
D. Testa D. Bean
20. the hormone which can break seed dor- 23. Minimum standards for genetic purity for
mancy is certified seed is
A. coumarin A. 100
B. ferulic acid B. 98
C. ABA C. 99
D. GA D. 95
1.18 Silviculture
1. What is silviculture? A. the average height of intermediate and
A. The study of life where the predomi- suppressed trees
nate vegetation is trees B. the height of all intermediate trees
B. The art and science of managing qual- C. the average height of dominant and
ity forests codominant trees
C. The selection of the highest quality D. the average height of all trees in a
trees to maximize profits stand
D. The removal of all trees to maximize 4. How would you thin a stand to make it
regeneration of shade intolerant trees uneven-aged?
2. This tree reaches the canopy but receives A. Clear-cut.
little sun from the top. B. Shelter-wood cut.
A. Dominant C. Selective Cut.
B. Codominant D. Seed Tree Cut.
C. Intermediate
5. Which is not a type of forest regenera-
D. Oppressed tion?
3. Predominant height of a stand consists of A. Natural Regeneration

B. Selective Thinning 11. This is an isolated tree with many limbs.

C. Artificial Regeneration A. Octopus Tree

D. none of above B. Joshua Tree
C. Wolf Tree
6. What is a thinning from the lower crown
D. Tulip Tree
classes?
A. Crown Thinning 12. When is the best time to plant trees?
B. Intermediate thinning A. Summer

B. Winter
C. Mechanical Thinning
C. Fall
D. Thinning from below/ Low thinning
D. Spring
7. A tree in the understory that is slow-
13. What is high grading?
growing but will improve with more sun-
light is A. Harvesting the most valuable trees
and leaving UGS
A. oppressed
B. Selecting trees based on a diameter
B. suppressed limit
C. a wolf tree C. Cutting trees to leave the most valu-
D. none of above able timber
D. A timber harvest that provides the
8. This is the age at which trees are mature most benefit to wildlife
and ready to harvest.
14. What is the cross-sectional area of a
A. Timber Age tree?
B. Rotation Age A. Site Index
C. Silviculture Age B. Basal Area
D. Cutting Age C. Site Quality
D. none of above
9. How can I express timber volume?
A. Board Feet 15. Which is the measurement of a small
pole?
B. Tree Feet
A. 3-5 inches
C. Cubic Inches
B. 5-8 inches
D. Logs C. 8-12 inches
10. How do you know your forest needs thin- D. > 12 inches
ning?
16. A tree that is dying is
A. Crown is less than 1/3 total height. A. Dominant
B. Growth rings are narrow. B. Suppressed
C. Basal area is too high. C. Oppressed
D. All these are true. D. Intermediate

17. The time between stand establishment and 22. Which is a tree that is tallest in the stand?
harvest is called A. Dominant
A. high grading B. Codominant
B. a regeneration cut C. Intermediate
C. rotation age D. Suppressed
D. none of above
23. Which type of thinning is one that takes
trees in the canopy?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. Why is mechanical thinning not a beneficial
as selective thinning? A. Thinning from above/Crown thinning
A. The rows are too wide. B. Thinning from below/low thinning
B. The trees can be damaged. C. Salvage Cut
C. It doesn’t remove diseased or poor D. none of above
quality trees.
24. A seedling can be
D. Two answers are correct.
A. 5-15 yrs. old
19. What is a silvicultural prescription? B. 15-20 yrs. old
A. The recommended treatment for the C. 20-25 yrs. old
forest D. 25-30 yrs. old
B. A combination of practices meant to re-
duce the risk of non-source point pollution 25. What is the productive capacity of the for-
to stream and rivers est?
C. A course of action to effect change in A. Climax stage

a forest stand B. Primary succession
D. Both A and C C. Site index
D. Secondary succession
20. A stand of trees that has reached rotation
age but is beginning to decline in volume 26. Which is the correct order for tree growth
and quality. stages?
A. Climax A. Pole, seedling, mature, sapling, over
B. Large Poles mature
C. Mature B. Seedling, sapling, pole, mature, over

mature
D. Overmature
C. Mature, over mature, sapling,
21. Which of these is a tree that reaches the seedling, pole
canopy but receives little sunlight from the D. Sapling, seedling, pole, over mature,
sides? mature
A. Codominant
27. This is forest management where all the
B. Dominant trees are the same age.
C. Suppressed A. Uneven Aged
D. Oppressed B. Overmature

1.19 Agroforestry 523
C. Even Aged D. Intermediate
1.19 Agroforestry

1. Agroforestry farming systems include sil- A. Crop rotation
vopasture, alley cropping, windbreaking, B. Silvopasture
and:
C. Peasant Farming
A. Forest fires
D. none of above
B. Forest farming
C. Windmills 6. A key component of Sarah’s agroforestry
management plan focuses on:
D. Farm run off
A. Finding jobs for local workers
2. When creating an agroforestry plan, it is B. Wildlife identification
essential for Lucy to:
C. Finances
A. Create a map of the unique areas
within the property D. Tree identification
B. Create a map of the neighboring town 7. Menurut (Huxley, 1999) unsur paling
C. Create a chart of the known wildlife utama di dalam sistem agrofofestry
adalah:
D. Tally the number of deer on the prop-
erty A. Tanaman kehutanan
B. Manusia
3. The four “I’s” of agroforestry are Inten-
tional, interactive, integrated, and: C. Lahan
A. International D. Tanaman pertanian
B. Introduction 8. Antoine’s agroforestry farming systems

C. Intensive includes planting an area near his pond
that will absorb andfilter runoff from his
D. Impatient horticultural cultivation areas. This is
4. Hutan adalah lahan yang luasnya minimal known as:
0.5 ha dan ditumbuhi oleh pepohonan den- A. Silvifarming
gan persentase penutupan tajuk minimal B. Silvopasture
10% yang pada usia dewasa mencapai
ketinggian minimal 5 meter.Hal tersebut C. Alley cropping
merupakan definisi hutan menurut D. A riparian buffer
A. a. Permenhut P.14 Tahun 2004 9. Alicia needs to include a riparian buffer on
B. b. UU No. 41 Tahun 1999 her agroforestry plan. She can do this by:
C. c. FAO 2000 A. Neutralizing the pH of the soil
D. d. Simon 2000 B. Planting shrubs, trees and grasses
near the edges of water
5. Forest Farming, Windbreaks, Riparian
buffers, Alley Cropping and are the C. Adding wildlife to her forests
five main agroforestry practices. D. Planting grasses in the prairie

10. Marie lives in the mountains of North Car- C. Menambah suplai hara
olina and wants to plant a medicinal crop D. Menambah hasil produksi dan keuntun-
that will provide agreat deal of income gan
for her family within their forested estate.
She chooses to plant: 15. A key component of Hayden’s agro-
A. Truffles forestry management plan focuses on:
B. Ginseng A. Finances
B. Tree identification
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Ginkgo
C. Social impacts
D. Nettles
D. Wildlife identification
11. Shelby takes note of the various parts of
her family’s land in her agroforestry plan, 16. Agroforestry fosters productivity, prof-
including sites forrecreational use, timber itability, and:
management, silvopasture, and wildlife. A. Potential
These are known as a LUC. A LUC is:
B. Environmental stewardship
A. Living use contract
C. Power
B. Land use capacity unit
D. Pragmatism
C. A measurement of trees in forests
17. Jaclyn will use silvopasture for her horses.
D. A measurement of ecosystems
This partnership will most likely:
12. Planting crops between rows of trees to A. Provide a place for camping overnight
provide income while the trees mature is
known as: B. Provide a place to store tack for the
A. Silvopasture horses
B. Silviculture C. Provide food and shade for the horses
C. Alley cropping
D. A riparian buffer D. Provide a watering hole
18. Contoh penerapan sistem agroforetsri

13. The step that most likely is the foundation
kompleks (agroforest) di Kalimantan
of an agroforestry plan is:
Timur adalah
A. Determining the costs
A. Tembawang
B. Determining the objectives
B. Huma
C. Determining what wildlife is on site
C. Dusung
D. Determining the soil profile
D. Repong Damar
14. Salah satu peranan agroforestry terhadap 19. Penanaman yang dilakukan secara
aspek ekonomi adalahMengurangi dampak berselang-seling pada lahan kosong
gas rumah kaca seperti deretan jagung dengan diselingi
A. Memperbaiki kualitas tanah deretan tanaman kacang tanah merupakan
B. Meningkatkan kesetaraan masyarakat metode pelestarian.
sekitar A. a. Buffering

B. b. Wind break 24. Forest Farming is ?

C. c. Crop rotation A. The planting of crops in the alleys be-

tween regularly spaced rows of trees or
D. d. Strip cropping shrubs.
20. Menurut UU No. 41 Tahun 1999 Pasal 5 B. Strips of trees and shrubs designed
ayat 1 hutan hak yang berada pada tanah to enhance crop or livestock production
yang dibebani hak milik lazim disebut while providing conservation benefits.
C. When a farmer plans his crops ran-
A. a. Hutan negara
domly
B. b. Hutan hak D. The cultivation of specialty crops un-
C. c. Hutan rakyat der existing forest canopies.
D. d. Hutan Kemasyarakatan 25. Dominic’s agroforestry plan should benefit
wildlife, the environment, and:
21. Beverly’s agroforestry plan includes the
A. Local agricultural companies
owner’s objectives. This plan most likely:
B. The government
A. Establishes woodlots for recreational
purposes C. Children
D. The people
B. Establishes woodlots for income pur-
poses 26. Serena’s forest farm includes growing
C. Establishes property lines for future medicinal plants, mushrooms and ferns.
subdivision One highly valuedforest farm crop grown
on her North Carolina farm is:
D. Establishes property lines for tax pur-
A. Ginkgo
poses
B. Echinacea
22. The key concept of agroforestry and the fu- C. Ginseng
ture of the agroforestry industry is putting
D. Ginger
the right tree inthe right place:
A. At the right time 27. A land issue addressed in an agroforestry
plan is:
B. For the right purpose
A. Farm subsidies
C. To increase the amount of trees har- B. Impact of farm income
vested
C. Real estate plans
D. For right now
D. Land leases for hunting and fishing
23. Combining trees with livestock and their 28. Agroforestry memiliki stabilitas ekologi
forages on one piece of land is known as: yang tinggi, karena agroforestry memiliki
A. Silvopasture A. a. Tanaman yang ditanam lebih be-
B. Silvofarming ragam, teknologi yang fleksibel, kebu-
tuhan input rendah
C. Agronomy
B. b. Multi jenis, multi strata tajuk, peng-
D. Animal science gunaan bentang lahan secara efisien

C. c.Penangkapan hujan tinggi, cahaya, D. Think about selling the land for a gro-
hara mineral dan produksi biomasa cery store
D. d. Agroforestry dapat dan sangat co- 33. A school has been willed ten acres of
cok dilakukan oleh masyarakat luas dan forested land to manage for an agriculture
dapat meredakan ketegangan atau konflik class. The schoolshould first:
politik
A. Create an agroforestry plan
29. Pengelolaan hutan yang dilakukan oleh B. Use the land for a football stadium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
masyarakat umumnya bersifat holistic dan C. Use the property for a future bus park-
terhambat oleh berbagai kendala, sebagai ing lot
berikut kecuali ..
D. Consider building a barn
A. a, Pemenuhan kebutuhan dasar
34. Barb’s agroforestry plan outlines the char-
B. b. Daur tanaman yang cepat
acteristics of her forest, including:
C. c. Terbatasnya modal
A. Description of landforms
D. d. Hak kepemilikan B. Description of land loan or lease
30. Tim read that it is possible to reduce the C. Description of current weather
understory or brush from a forest by: D. Description of neighboring town
A. Using prescribed fires
35. Penerapan agroforestri dengan melakukan
B. Starting a wild fire penanaman pepohonan di sekitar pe-
C. Applying only herbicides mukiman atau sekitar rumah tinggal
disebut
D. Solarizing all weeds
A. Kebun Pekarangan
31. Vegetasi mid-story pada penanaman bert- B. Talun Kebun
ingkat (Multi story cropping) umumnya
C. Tumpang sari
berupa .
D. Perladangan berpindah
A. a. Tanaman konifer dan tanaman kayu
keras (hardwood) 36. Komoditi yang banyak digunakan sebagai
B. b. Tanaman kayu keras (hardwood) un- tanaman pagar antara lain sebagai berikut,
tuk buah, nuts, kerajinan (handicraft) kecuali .
A. a. Lamtoro (Leucaena leucocephala)
C. c. Tanaman herbal dan jamur
B. b. Gamal (Gliricidia sepium)
D. d. Tanaman obat keluarga, buah, dan
bunga C. c. Kaliandra (Calliandra haemato-
cephala)
32. Zach’s grandmother has a forested lot D. d. Kacang-kacangan (leguminose)
where she wants to create an agroforestry
plan. Zach mostlikely advises her to: 37. Practicing agroforestry results in:
A. Consider how much of the scrub or A. Sustainable farms, ranches and
brush to remove ecosystems
B. Talk to a real estate agent B. Decreased wealth in rural counties
C. Consider clear cutting the entire track C. Reduction in soil health
D. Less habitat for wildlife

38. Casey’s agroforestry plan should benefit 43. Menurut Vergara (1982) contoh yang ter-
wildlife, the environment, and: masuk ke dalam agrisilvikultur sebagai
berikut:

A. North Carolina’s revenue department
A. Penanaman pohon tepi
B. The people
B. Tumpang sari
C. Children
C. Pekarangan
D. Local farmers
D. Semua benar
39. Berdasarkan Permenhut P.14 Tahun
44. Jack will use silvopasture for his goats.
2004 aturan luas minimal hutan rakyat
This partnership will most likely:
sebesar
A. Provide food and shade for the goats
A. a. 0.75 Ha
B. Provide food, shade and shelter for the
B. b. 0.45 Ha goats and trees can be harvested
C. c. 0.35 Ha C. Provide only food for the goats and the
D. d. 0.25 Ha goats will then be eaten
D. Provide shade for the goats and the
40. Pengkombinasian komponen berkayu (ke- trees can be harvested
hutanan) dengan pertanian (semusim) dan
sekaligus peternakan/binatang pada unit 45. Agroforestri terdiri dari 3 komponen
manajemen lahan yang sama disebut pokok yaitu pertanian, kehutanan, dan
perternakan. Sistem agroforestri yang
A. Agrosilvopastura
meliputi komponen kehutanan (atau tana-
B. Agrofishery man berkayu) dengan komponen peter-
C. Apikultur nakan (atau binatang ternak) disebut?
D. Silvopastura A. a. Silvopastura
B. b. Agrosilvopastura
41. All Agroforestry practices are an in-
C. c. Agrisilvikultur
vestment.
D. d. Apikultur
A. Dumb
B. Cheap 46. The first step that Jasmine must consider
in her agroforestry plan is:
C. Expensive
A. What is the objective of the site?
D. none of above
B. How much money can we spend?
42. What will Mark need to complete for ev- C. How much money do I hope to gain?
ery LUC in his agroforestry plan? D. When can I sell the land?
A. Determine carrying capacities of the
land 47. Model atau sistem agrofofestry yang dit-
erapkan di lahan-lahan milik pada umum-
B. Visit the site everyday nya memiliki mempunyai karakteristik :
C. Provide a water source there A. Jenis beragam
D. Create an interactive map B. Hasil yang beragam

C. Bersifat permanen atau berpindah 52. Keberhasilan penerapan Alley cropping

dalam suatu lahan sangat bergantung
D. Bersifat permanen saja
pada
48. Elvin’s map that he created of his agro- A. a. Penentuan garis kontur, keterampi-
forestry plan includes the areas that are lan khusus menentukan kontur, dan per-
currently covered intrees in relation to: hatian secara intensif
A. Water supply, fences, and access B. b. Penentuan arah larikan
tracks
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. c. Pemilihan vegetasi yang digunakan
B. Water supply dan pembuatan larikan
D. d. Pembuatan larikan searah kontur
C. Fencing
D. Water supply and access tracks 53. Maureen’s agroforestry management plan
included removing all of the mature trees.
49. Sistem agroforestri yang meliputi kompo- The mostsustainable method of this re-
nen kehutanan (atau tanaman berkayu) moval would be:
dengan komponen peternakan (atau bi- A. Prescribed burn
natang ternak) disebut?
B. Goats eating the trees
A. Silvopastura C. Clear cutting
B. Agrisilvikultur D. Application of an herbicide
C. Apikultur 54. Forest farming includes growing medicinal
D. Agrofishery plants, mushrooms and ferns. One highly
valued forestfarm crop grown in North
50. When Kelly combines managing trees with Carolina is:
livestock and forages on one piece of land, A. Ginseng
she ispracticing:
B. Ginkgo
A. Silviculture
C. Echinacea
B. Agronomy D. Poison ivy
C. Animal husbandry
55. Before putting Tony’s agroforestry plan
D. Silvopasture into action, he should consider:
A. Talking to his friends
51. Alley cropping is ?
B. Getting advice from a sustainable
A. Strips of trees and shrubs designed farmer
to enhance crop or livestock production
while providing conservation benefits. C. Talking to a forester and an agri-
cultural expert or Cooperative Extension
B. The cultivation of specialty crops un- Agent
der existing forest canopies.
D. Researching chain saws
C. The cultivation of crops in the alleys be-
tween regularly spaced rows of trees or 56. Agroforestry is a ?
shrubs. A. Polyculture
D. Planting crops in a gully B. Monoculture

1.20 Forestry 529
C. A culture A. Articles of clothing needed to tend to

land
D. none of above

B. Equipment used to manage land
57. The intentional integration of trees and
C. The cost of the car for the landowner
shrubs into crop and animal farming sys-
tems to createenvironmental, economic, D. Cost of classes at the university to
and social benefits is known as: learn about agoforestry
A. Landscaping 60. Joseph’s agroforestry management plan
B. Agroforesty included removing all of the trees . The
most sustainablemethod of this removal
C. Forestry would be:
D. Permaculture A. Clear cut the trees and then replant
58. Jamie is considering an inexpensive and B. Clear cut the trees and then pave the
relatively quick growing tree that can pro- space
vide future incomein his agroforestry plan C. Only clear cut the trees
is most likely: D. Burning the trees
A. Oak trees
61. Rick needs to include a riparian buffer on
B. Pine trees his agroforestry plan. He can do this by:
C. Magnolia trees A. Establishing grasses along the
D. Ginseng streams
B. Ripping plants from his buffer
59. Laura must consider all of the costs asso-
ciated with her agroforestry plan. These C. Planting grasses in his prairie
costs would mostlikely include: D. Putting goats in his pasture
1.20 Forestry
1. The UN Strategic Plan for Forests sets out 3. the first Filipino Director of Bureau of
a framework for action to safeguard the Forestry?
world’s forest. In this frame, the Plan fea-
A. Florencio Tamesis
tures how many Global Forest Goals?
A. 17 B. George P. Ahern
B. 6 C. Emilio Aguinaldo
C. 5 D. Manuel Roxas
D. none of above
4. Trees that produce nuts are known as
2. Which tree has needle-like leaves?
A. Hard Mast-bearing trees
A. Red Spruce
B. Apple B. Den trees
C. Paper birch C. Soft Mast-bearing

D. none of above D. Mature forest

1.20 Forestry 530
5. Which biome benefits the most from C. Mangkono

fires? D. none of above
A. deciduous forests
11. What is deforestation
B. tundra
A. Deforestation
C. grasslands
B. Clearing a wide are of trees
D. taiga C. Cutting the trees
NARAYAN CHANGDER
6. Which of these describes a den tree? D. SAVETHETURTLES
A. A tree that bears fruit 12. Which plant structure carries water from
B. A tree that loses its leaves in the fall the roots up to the rest of the plant?
C. A tree with a hole that can be used for A. Phloem
shelter B. Xylem
D. None of these C. Leaves
7. All of the following are ecological benefits D. Biomass
of surface fires EXCEPT 13. What is the collective name for land-use
A. Aid in seed dispersal in certain species, systems and technologies where trees,
such as lodgepole pines shrubs, palms, bamboos, etc. are deliber-
ately used on the same land-management
B. Return key nutrients back in to the soil
units as agricultural crops and/or animals,
in some form of spatial arrangement or
C. Stimulate germination in some trees temporal sequence?
D. Destroys the wildlife and vegetation in A. Agriforestry
an area
B. Agroforestry
8. Trees that lose their leaves every year. C. Agriforestation
A. Timberland D. none of above
B. Forest Land 14. An observable trait that can be improved
C. Deciduous Trees or measured is called a ?
D. Evergreen Trees A. genotype
B. DNA
9. Another Name for A rain Forest is What?
C. phenotype
A. High Tree Forest
D. gene
B. Animal Forest
15. Includes soil formation, photosynthesis
C. Jungle
and nutrient cycling, which underpin
D. Koganut Forest growth and production.
10. What is the hardest wood in the Philip- A. Provisioning services
pines? B. Regulating services
A. Narra C. Cultural services
B. Kamagong D. Supporting services

1.20 Forestry 531
16. The height at which you should measure 21. The vast majority of forests in Manitoba
diameter of a tree (DBH) is belong to which forest region?

A. 4 feet A. Boreal
B. 4.5 feet B. Montane
C. Mixed
C. 5 feet
D. Taiga
D. 10 feet
22. Which part of a leaf is where the majority
17. What is a forest of photosynthesis takes place?
A. A large expanse of trees, grass where A. mesophyll
animals (monkeys) live. B. stomata
B. Wood factories C. xylem
C. An area of land set apart for the pro- D. phloem
duction of timber and other forest prod-
ucts 23. Trees in the main canopy of the forest that
receive direct sunlight only on the top of
D. an institution for educating children the crown are called:
18. The managing of resource harvesting so A. Suppressed trees

that resources are not depleted is called B. Co-dominant trees
A. resource management C. Intermediate trees
B. monoculture D. Dominant trees
C. salvage logging 24. Supply through goods themselves, such as

food, water, timber and fiber.
D. clear cutting
A. Provisioning services
19. Established in the mid 20th century, this B. Regulating services
man-made forest located in the border of
C. Cultural services
Loboc and Bilar towns in Bohol, features
what type of tree? D. Supporting services
A. Molave 25. Which part builds the cells?

B. Narra A. cambium
C. Mahogany B. heartwood
C. sapwood
D. none of above
D. crown
20. Which of the following is NOT an ecosys-
26. What type of forest management is used
tem service provided by forests?
for sun loving trees?
A. Provide habitat
A. shelterwood cut
B. Aid in nutrient cycling B. seed cut
C. Sequester Carbon C. selective cut
D. Recreational opportunities D. clear cut

1.20 Forestry 532
27. The logging method of harvesting in which A. Department of Environment and Natu-
up to 70% of trees are cut, leaving small ral Resources
patches of old growth standing to provide
B. Department of Agrarian and Natural
seeds for regeneration.
Resources
A. Clearcut
C. Department of Agriculture and Natural
B. Shelterwood Resources
C. Selective D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
33. Which harvesting method allows for natu-
28. any light, easily cut wood; cone bearing or ral regeneration and possible reduces the
coniferous need for artificial regeneration.
A. Hardwood A. Selective Cut
B. Forestry B. Shelterwood Cut
C. Softwood C. Clear Cut
D. Tree farms D. All of the above
29. An example of a western NC forest prod- 34. Eastern Redbud and locust trees are both
uct would be: part of the family
A. Redwood A. Evergreen
B. Christmas tree B. Legume
C. Sugar cane C. Oak
D. Pine straw D. none of above
30. Deforestation has the greatest impact on 35. Coniferous forests are made up primarily
biodiversity of trees that
A. on private lands A. change color in the fall
B. in tropical areas and arid regions
B. bear cones
C. in densly populated urban areas
C. shed their leaves
D. on public lands
D. have thin bark
31. How many trees does Georgia have native
to its land? 36. I take measurements on a tree with a bilt-
more stick. I got a DBH of 12 inches and
A. 3 it was 2 logs tall. How many total board
B. 300 feet could I harvest from this tree? (Use
your biltmore stick chart to determine)
C. 200
A. 100 board feet
D. none of above
B. 60 board feet
32. Based on Act 2666, In what Department
C. 30 board feet
does the Bureau of Forestry belong in
1916? D. 80 board feet

1.20 Forestry 533
37. Who owns many of the tree plantations 42. The carries food down from the leaves
on which most logging in the United States to the different parts of the tree.
takes place? A. Xylem

A. The government B. Phloem
B. Private individuals C. Cambium
C. The logging companies D. Sapwood
D. No one 43. Forestry, especially conservation, has ed-
ucational roots in which of the following
38. A forest dominated by Shorea astylosa,
topics?
Parashorea malaanonan, Hopea reynosoi
G. A. Science
A. Pine Forest B. Social Studies

C. Mathematics
B. Molave Forest
D. none of above
C. Beach Forest
D. Dipterocarp Forest 44. Removal of all trees from an area.
A. Selective Cutting
39. Which of the following is not a way to har- B. Controlled Burn
vest timber
C. Thinning
A. Deforestation
D. Clear Cutting
B. Clear Cutting
45. Prescribed burns
C. Shelterwood
A. are carefully controlled.
D. Selection System
B. cannot be controlled
40. What is prescribed burning? C. cause fuel buildup.
A. When a medicine I take makes my skin D. none of above
burn.
46. Who was the first forester appointed to
B. Burning down everything in a place be- be the DENR Secretary?
cause they are going to put brand new
A. Heherson Alvares
stuff there.
B. Fulgencio Factoran, Jr.
C. Something the firefighters do.
C. Ramon Jesus Paje
D. Doing a controlled burn in a certain
D. none of above
area to clean the forest floor and help the
trees to growth. 47. Which of the following is a negative ef-
fect of deforestation?I. Increased flood-
41. What is the problem with timber planta- ingII. Increased biodiversityIII. Increased
tions? soil erosion
A. low biodiversity A. I only
B. prone to forest fires B. I and II only
C. cause soil erosion C. I and III only
D. absorb excess CO2 from atmosphere D. I, II, and III

1.20 Forestry 534
48. How can you determine tree height? C. harvesting resources while minimizing
A. Guessing effects of the rest of the ecosystem
D. harvesting only as much as is needed
B. Tape measure
for one person
C. Clinometer
54. Which of the following is a primary reason
D. Eagle for deforestation?
49. What is it called when a forest is cleared A. to graze cattle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
for something else, besides being forest B. to grow crops
A. Clear cutting C. to provide fuelwood
B. Seed-Tree D. all of these
C. Deforestation 55. What is a positive of forest fires?
D. Selection System A. More erosion of soil
50. Which method of timber harvesting is B. keeps the animal population lower
likely to lead to a greater amount of de- C. puts more carbon dioxide in the air
forestation in an area? D. recycles nutrients back into the soil
A. Clear-cutting
56. Public lands in the US are categorized for
B. Seed-tree approach use based on the managing agency and
C. Shelterwood approach designated restriction level. In general,
NPS lands are used for
D. Selection system
A. grazing, mining, timber harvesting,
51. An area set aside with the intent of - and recreation.
preserving a large tract of intact ecosys- B. timber harvesting, grazing, and recre-
tem or a landscape. ation.
A. National wilderness areas C. recreation and conservation.
B. National wildlife refuges D. wildlife conservation, hunting, and
C. Rangelands mining.
D. Forests 57. Which factor does NOT determine the type

of forest that grows in an area
52. Most of Earth’s fresh water is used for A. temperature
A. watering crops. B. rainfall
B. drinking. C. topography
C. washing clothes and dishes. D. soil profile
D. none of above 58. the planting, growing, and harvesting of
53. Maximum Sustainable Yeild is trees
A. Wilderness areas
A. harvesting maximum resources imme-
diately B. Forestry
B. harvesting max resources without C. Succession
compromising future harvests D. Canopy

1.20 Forestry 535
59. Acid mine drainage causes B. Combustion of dried leaves or needles,

A. air pollution which reduces the threat of large fires

B. water pollution C. Burning the crown of trees
C. subsidence D. Making burned matter available as a

nutrient
D. erosion
65. Approximately % of the world’s
60. If a species is found in many different forests are currently managed for wood
places on planet earth, it is said to have production.
a large amount of
A. 5
A. Geographic Diversity
B. 10
B. Genetic Diversity
C. 20
C. Biodiversity
D. 25
D. Monoculture
66. Forestry is a great choice for those that
61. Why mine tailings can be dangerous
enjoy what kind of work?
A. can cause miners to trip
A. Indoor
B. can be full of sharp objects
B. Outdoor
C. can cause acid to leach into water bod-
C. Lab
ies
D. none of above
D. are full of conflict minerals
67. Underground structures that anchor the
62. Which tree species would be managed by
tree and take up water, nutrients and min-
shelterwood cutting (since they drop seeds
erals from the soil.
and can do well in shade or sun)?
A. Roots
A. sugar maple
B. Inner bark
B. red oak
C. Outer Bark
C. big tooth aspen
D. Trunk
D. hemlock
68. Cutting down full strips of forests, but
63. Also known as plantations, these are
leaving fully developed forest in between
planted and managed tracts of trees of the
is an example of
same age that are harvested for commer-
cial use. A. Selective cutting
A. Tree farms B. Shelterwood cutting
B. Wildlife habitats C. Clear cutting
C. Wilderness areas D. none of above
D. Canopy 69. Which method of harvesting trees reduces
64. Smaller forest fires are beneficial to biodiversity the most
forests for all of the following EXCEPT A. Clear cutting
A. Removal of competing plants B. Seed-Tree

1.20 Forestry 536
C. Shelterwood 75. What are BMP?

D. Selection System A. Best man people
70. which tree species would be managed by B. Best Management Practices
selective cutting (since they need shade to
C. Better manners practices
grow- not direct sun light)?
D. none of above
A. big tooth and quaking aspen
B. red pine and jack pine 76. A driver to deforestation that links log-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. white ash and sugar maple ging / mining and deforestation by open-
ing new access to forestlands.
D. oak and quaking aspen
A. Forest Products Extraction
71. Forestry involves understanding types of
trees, as well as which of the following? B. Infrastructure Expansion
A. the animals that might live in trees C. Agricultural Expansion
B. how animals grow over time D. Biophysical Factors
C. the management of forests
77. Types of forests we were taught
D. none of above
A. Big forest, Small forests, Ugly forests
72. Natural causes such as typhoons, land-
slides, floods, drought and earthquakes as B. Owonikoko Sandy, Oluwabobby, Chuk-
well as forest fires and climate change are wudi Chukwu Krabs
predisposing factors to deforestation and C. I honestly dont know
forest degradation.
D. Mangrove, Rainforest, Guniea Savan-
A. Forest Products Extraction nah
B. Agricultural Expansion
C. Infrastructure Expansion 78. Wildfires are influenced by which three
major factors, which determine the risk,
D. Biophysical Factors spread, and behavior of the fire?
73. There are approximately how many trees A. Weather, topography, vegetation
planted in the US each day?
B. Temperature, wind direction, vegeta-
A. 40 tion
B. 7 million C. Weather, topography, slope
C. 2 thousand
D. Weather, slope, wind speed
D. 4 million
79. A verticle section of soil from the surface
74. What is it called when a replanted forest
to the bedrock is a
has no diversity?
A. soil profile
A. Silviculture
B. Monoculture B. fossil fuel
C. Pop culture C. fossil
D. Bioculture D. reservoir

1.20 Forestry 537
80. This agency is responsible for the man- C. Selective Cutting

agement and conservation of most federal D. Early Succession
lands and natural resources

86. The process of change in an ecosystem
A. U.S. Department of Agriculture
is
B. Bureau of Land Management
C. National Park Service
B. Mast-bearing trees
D. US Department of the Interior C. Succession
81. What percent of the animals and plants D. Den Trees
live in the forest?
87. cover the beauty, inspiration and recre-
A. 40% ation that contributes to our spiritual wel-
B. 30% fare.
C. 80% A. Cultural services
D. 70% B. Regulating services
C. Provisioning services
82. It is the revised forestry code of the Philip-
pines: D. Supporting services
A. RA 9175 88. Which describes the native people and

their relationship with fire?
B. PD 705, as amended
A. They purposely set fires to provide bet-
C. RA 7161
ter grass.
D. none of above
B. They feared fire as it often destroyed
83. How many people does Georgia employ in everything.
the forestry industry? C. Fire was rare as native people could
A. 70 thousand not create it.
B. 1 million D. Fire was only used as a tool when

started by a storm.
C. 110, 000
89. Which of the following ecosystem services
D. 50, 000
is the hardest to attach a monetary value
84. What tree produces acorns that wildlife to?
prefer? A. Trees for lumber
A. White Pine B. Drinking water
B. White Oak C. Soil for agriculture
C. Pin Oak D. Air purification
D. Cottonwood 90. What tree produces “helicopter” seeds?
85. Choosing specific trees to remove in a for- A. Cottonwood
est is known as B. Shagbark hickory
A. Clear Cutting C. White oak
B. Succession D. Silver Maple

1.20 Forestry 538
91. What is a negative of selective cutting? 96. How big is a hectare?

A. It is very cheap and fast A. 1000m x 1000m
B. It takes more time B. 10m x 10m
C. It is worse for the habitat than clear C. 1m x 1m
cutting D. 100m x 100m
D. none of above
97. Which tree harvesting technique involves
harvesting the mature trees in an area
NARAYAN CHANGDER
92. Which of the following tools is NOT al-
lowed during the contest? over a period of time?
A. Clinometer A. clear cutting
B. Scaling stick B. seed cutting

C. whole tree harvesting
C. Range finder
D. shelterwood cutting
D. Calculator
98. The first step in Silviculture is to develop
93. Photosynthesis is the process carried out
a(n) ?
by plants, algae and blue-green bacteria
to make food from sunlight, , and wa- A. timber cruise
ter B. management plan
A. Carbon dioxide C. harvesting scheme
B. Algae D. firebreak
C. Carbon monoxide 99. A large area typically planted with a single
D. soil rapidly growing tree species.
A. Tree plantations
94. Which is NOT an environmental conse-
quence of clear-cutting B. multiple-use lands
A. increased soil erosion and sedimenta- C. Rangelands
tion in nearby streams D. Forests
B. decreased biodiversity due to habitat 100. What is NOT a threat to forests?
fragmentation
A. Wildfires
C. increased fish populations due to the
influx of nutrients into streams B. Biodiversity
D. stands of same-aged trees C. Insects

D. Disease
95. What is the National Strategy for Sustain-
able Forest Management? 101. Contains conifers harvested for lumber
and pulp and paper, hardwoods (ash) for
A. Community-based Forest Manage-
lumber, and maples. Very little of these
ment
forests are left because of expanding ur-
B. National Greening Program banization and farming.
C. Sustainable Forest Management Plan A. Boreal forests
D. none of above B. West coast forest

1.20 Forestry 539
C. Montane forests 107. 1 chain = how many feet?

D. Mixed forest A. 100

B. 16
102. Which product does NOT come from Red
Oak? C. 66
D. 60
A. Ties
B. Flooring 108. Which is not a ‘growing part’ of the
tree?
C. Veneer
A. Buds
D. Cooperage
B. Root tips
103. Which of these provinces is not one of the C. Cambium
top 3 producers of pulp and paper products D. Heartwood
in Canada?
109. How many cubic inches in a board foot?
A. Quebec
A. 12
B. Ontario
B. 96
C. British Columbia
C. 144
D. Alberta D. 216
104. A dry open grassland. 110. Sometimes called “upper montane for-
A. National wilderness areas est” or “cloud forest”
A. Mangrove Forest
B. National wildlife refuges
B. Beach Forest
C. Rangelands
C. PineForest
D. Forests
D. Mossy Forest
105. Which of the following organisms is a 111. Land with an area of more than 0.5
dominant species in a climax community? hectare and tree crown cover (or equiva-
A. rabbit lent stocking level) of more than 10%.
B. cedar trees A. Grazing Area
B. Forest
C. oak trees
C. Upland Community
D. moss
D. Communal
106. What harvesting method most closely
112. Which of the following is NOT a category
mimics forest fires
of the timber measurement area?
A. Selective Cut A. Tree Height
B. Shelterwood Cut B. Tree Diameter
C. Clear Cut C. Tree Bushiness
D. All of the Above D. Log Scaling

1.20 Forestry 540
113. The three approaches to resouce man- 118. An agreement entered into by and
agement are maximum sustainable yield, between the government and individu-
ecosystem-based management and als/families actually occupying or till-
A. adaptive management ing portions of the forestlands covered
by community based forest management
B. forestry managememt agreement.
C. natural resources based management
A. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
(CSC)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. sustainability management
B. Certificate of Community Forestry
114. What is Packaging? Stewardship (CCFS)
A. It is the use of containers to collect or C. Community Forestry Stewardship
hold things Agreement (CFSA)
B. it is the science in which dora the ex- D. COMMUNITY BASED FOREST MAN-
plorer uses her bag AGEMENT AGREEMENT (CBFMA)
C. it is the science, art and technology of
enclosing or protecting products for distri- 119. The Kaingin Management and Land Set-
bution tlement Regulation was introduced under
?
D. This is the process of keeping items us-
ing different materials A. Administrative Order No. 62, in 1971
115. Land at least 10% stocked by forest B. Administrative Order No. 62, in 1970
trees. C. Administrative Order No. 64, in 1970
A. Timberland D. Administrative Order No. 64, in 1971
B. Forest Land
C. Deciduous Trees 120. There are some practices that can be done
to protect the overall value and health of
D. Evergreen Trees private forestland, no matter what the ul-
116. A snag is a timate management goal is. These prac-
tices include:
A. Always a den tree
A. Thinning over crowded stands
B. Standing dead tree at least 6’ tall
C. A log on the ground B. Prescribed burns every 3-5 years
D. none of above C. Cut down and remove insect infested

trees
117. To use a Biltmore Stick to measure diam-
eter, hold the scale stick in a horizontal po- D. all of the above
sition inches away from you with the
121. Layer of soil and rock overlying a mineral
left end of the stick along one side of the
deposit
tree.
A. 25 A. underburden
B. 26 B. overburden
C. 30 C. lithosphere
D. 32 D. asthenosphere

1.20 Forestry 541
122. What tree is used to make wine and 127. Ecological values for forests include
whiskey barrels because it has pores A. prevent soil erosion
plugged with tyloses (outgrowths of

parenchyma cells) that make is water- B. regulate the water cycle by slowing
tight? runoff
A. Hickory C. store carbon and release oxygen
B. White Oak D. all of the above
C. Pine 128. The result from the regrowth of trees
D. none of above that were not all cut at the same time is
called
123. When looking at forestry and logging, A. even aged
the conservation work (typically carried
out by a Conservation Technician) usually B. uneven aged
requires what kind of degree in order to C. same aged
get started in the field?
D. different aged
A. Master’s Degree
129. Sustainable forest management must in-
B. Doctorate
clude which of the following?
C. Associate Degree
A. environmental benefits
D. none of above
B. social benefits
124. Smokey the Bear’s message resulted in C. economic benefits
A. an increased number of forest fires. D. all of the above
B. an increase in carbon dioxide in the air
130. 66% of the paper produced comes from
A. harvested logs
C. suppression of forest fires.
B. recycled paper
D. none of above
C. cotton or rice
125. The removal of some trees from a row or
D. resin
area to allow others more room to grow.
A. Selective Cutting 131. Which of these species would NOT live in
a piece of land that is in the early succes-
B. Controlled Burn
sional stage?
C. Thinning A. Cardinal
D. Clear Cutting B. Rabbit
126. What is the major vehicle for pollination C. Quail
for most tree species? D. Grouse
A. bees
132. Sustainable forestry includes all of the
B. animals following except
C. gravity A. using ecological services to determine
D. wind economic value

1.20 Forestry 542
B. leaving dead trees to enhance wildlife B. Pallets : Walnut veneer : White Oak
habitat and nutrient recycling barrel staves : Red Oak flooring
C. selective cutting of individual trees or C. Pallets : Red Oak flooring : White Oak
small groups of tree species barrel staves : Black Walnut veneer
D. clear-cutting only on steep slopes D. White Oak barrel : Pallets : Red Oak
flooring : Walnut veneer
133. Which tree has been found to be a habitat
for bats, as they hide under the bark? 138. A leaf that is made up of 2 or more
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Shagbark Hickory leaflets on the same petiole.
B. Sycamore A. Compound Leaf
C. White Pine B. Terminal Leaflet
D. Cottonwood C. Stem
D. Compound Branch
134. It is a land area drained by a stream
or fixed body of water and its tribu- 139. Which one of the following species has
taries having a common outlet for surface alternate leaf arrangement?
runoff.
A. Northern Red Oak
A. Watershed
B. Ohio Buckeye
B. Critical Watershed
C. White Ash
C. Watershed Reservation
D. Sugar Maple
D. none of above
140. Which one of the following is NOT an ex-
135. is the process of returning ecosys-
ample of Integrated Pest Management?
tems and communities to their original nat-
ural conditions A. Regulatory
A. Preservation B. Chemical
B. Remediation C. Abiotic
C. Mitigation D. Biological
D. Restoration 141. Large trees with open cavities are called
136. Forest land capable of producing over 20 where other creatures live are called
ft3 of industrious wood per year. A. Mast-Bearing trees
A. Timberland B. Den Trees
B. Forest Land C. Mature Forest
C. Deciduous Trees D. Succession
D. Evergreen Trees
142. Complete Name of your Instructor
137. Which of the following ranks these forest A. Nathanael Salisid Lamoste
products from HIGHEST to LOWEST eco-
nomic value? B. Dave Salisid Lamoste
A. Walnut veneer : White Oak barrel C. Nathanael Lamoste

staves : Red Oak flooring : Pallets D. Dave Nathanael Lamoste

1.20 Forestry 543
143. Ash is used in the construction of: C. holds roots in place & produces food
A. Baseball Bats for roots

B. Plywood D. produces food & stores carbon
C. Veneer
149. Which type of forest management cuts
D. Log Homes older, damaged and diseased trees in the
attempt to make the conditions better for
144. What is the largest priority critical wa-
the remaining trees- encourages shade tol-
tershed in the Philippines?
erant trees to grow?
A. Tamontaca River Watershed
A. shelterwood cut
B. Cagayan River Watershed
B. seed tree
C. Agno River Watershed
D. none of above C. selective cut
D. clear cut
145. Which approach to resource management
aims to harvest resources in ways that
150. Signaled the Filipinization of the coun-
minimize impact on the ecosystem and pro-
try’s forest service by appointing Forester
cesses that provide the resource?
Florencio R. Tamesis as Director of ?
A. maximum sustainable yield
A. Bureau of Forestry
B. ecosystem-based management
B. Forestry Bureau
C. adaptive management
D. watershed management C. Department of Agriculture and Natural
Resources
146. How many feet from the tree should you
D. Bureau of Forest Development
be to use the biltmore stick to determine
the number of 16’ logs?
151. Which method of harvesting trees is
A. Arms length safest
B. 25’
A. Clear cutting
C. 50’
B. Seed-Tree
D. none of above
C. Shelterwood
147. Which of these species is venomous?
D. Selection System
A. Poison Ivy
B. False Morel Mushroom 152. The cell layer that produces new bark
C. Brown Recluse (phloem) and new wood (xylem) every
year.
D. Cyanide
A. Inner Bark
148. The main functions of a tree trunk are
? B. Sapwood
A. support and move nutrients & food C. Cambium Layer

B. support and photosynthesis D. Outer Bark

1.20 Forestry 544
153. Which of the following is NOT an environ- 158. Which of the following is associated more
mental consequence of clear-cutting? with surface mining than subsurface min-
A. Increased soil erosion and sedimenta- ing?
tion in nearby streams A. It is more expensive
B. Decreased biodiversity due to habitat B. It produces less waste material
fragmentation C. It disturbs more land
C. Increased fish populations due to the D. It causes subsidence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
influx of nutrients into streams
D. Decreased tree species diversity due 159. The scientific management of forests.
to the loss of shade-tolerant species A. Forestry
154. Inauguration of the Inspeccion General de B. Silviculture

Montes? C. Reforestation
A. June 1863 D. Deforestation
B. July 1863 160. Which of these is a positive human activ-
C. June 1864 ity that affects the forest
D. July 1864 A. Deforestation
B. Afforestation
155. This agency manages fish, wildlife, and
habitats. C. Bush burning
A. US Forest Service D. Modern medicine
B. US Fish and Wildlife Service 161. The lowest visible surface layer of the
C. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Ad- forest ecosystem is the
ministration A. lower limbs
D. Bureau of Reclamation B. sunlight restrictive layer
156. Which method of harvesting trees is the C. forest floor
best for the environment D. stratification layer
A. Clear cutting
162. Which of the following could you use to
B. Seed-Tree determine the slope of a hill?
C. Shelterwood A. Clinometer
D. Selection System B. Increment borer
157. I have four species of tree on my land. C. Diameter calipers

Which tree would make me the most profit D. Compass
if I harvested it?
163. Which of these statements does not de-
A. Pin Oak
scribe the process of clear cutting trees?
B. Black Walnut A. It is economically efficient
C. Redbud B. It creates a large disturbance to the
D. Osage Orange environment

1.20 Forestry 545
C. It produces timber products at a very C. Healthy Forest Initiative

high rate D. Rangelands

D. It protects biodiversity
169. Which type of forest most likely contains
164. A woody and perennial plant, typically the greatest variety of habitats?
large and with a well-defined stem or
stems carrying a more or less definite A. old-growth forests
crown. B. even-aged stands
A. Tree C. plantations
B. Shrub D. monocultures
C. Grass
170. 55% of the timber cut each year is used
D. Herb for
165. A simple device that serves to estimate A. paper and paper products
the basal area of a tree.
B. fuelwood and charcoal
A. An abney level
C. building materials
B. A compass
D. furniture
C. A transit
D. A wedge prism 171. Which tree is invasive and commonly
used in decorative landscape?
166. Rapid expansion of a city into the sur-
A. Silver maple
rounding countryside is
A. Urbanization B. Bradford Pear
B. Urban Sprawl C. American Elm

C. Smart Growth D. White Pine
D. Infrastructure 172. Which of these provinces is not one of the
top 3 lumber producers in Canada?
167. A mature oak tree pumps water from the
soil & can transpire gallons of water A. Quebec
or more into the atmosphere during a hot B. British Columbia
summer day, allowing the soil to store ad-
ditional runoff. C. Manitoba
A. 100 D. Ontario
B. 75 173. is the responsibility to maintain and
C. 50 improve our forests as ecosystems and all
D. 25 the services they provide (e.g. soil, water,
wildlife habitat, trees, and aesthetics).
168. Land that is dominated by grasses that
A. Forest Ownership
grow mostly native plants and is used for
grazing. B. Forest Preservation
A. Corridors C. Forest Stewardship
B. Overgrazing D. Forest Partnership

1.20 Forestry 546
174. This Executive Order declares a mora- 178. What is it called when one forest is used
torium on the cutting and harvesting of for many different things?
timber in the natural and residual forests
A. Multiple Use Management
and creating the anti-illegal logging task
force. B. Selective Succession
A. Executive Order No. 263 C. Clearing
B. Executive Order No. 26 D. Multiple Silviculture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Executive Order No. 23 179. Selective cutting differs from clear cut-
D. none of above ting in that selective cutting:
A. Increases surface runoff and erosion
175. A management system that includes fire
suppression will likely lead toI. Large B. Only removes a few trees
quantities of biomass accumulating on the C. Takes out all the trees
forest floor.II. An increase in the likelihood
of uncontrolled natural fires.III. An acceler- D. Reduces the risk of forest fires
ation of nutrient cycling
180. which trees would be managed by clear
A. I only cut (since these trees require full sun and
B. I and II can regrow from remaining roots after be-
ing cut)?
C. I and III
A. sugar and red maple
D. II and III
B. hemlock and basswood
176. How many methods are there to harvest
C. white ash and oak
timber
D. big tooth and quaking aspen
A. 1
B. 2 181. What is TSI?
C. 3 A. Timber Stand Improvement
D. 4 B. Tree Site Improvement
177. The best example of a surface fire is C. Tree Soil Improvement
A. the type of fire that burns seedlings, D. none of above

small trees, and leaf litter, but not mature
182. What are the 4 major strategies avail-
trees and most animals
able to mitigate carbon emissions through
B. fire that is deliberately set, frequently forestry activities?
in the tropical rainforest, after the trees
A. Increase the amount of forested land
have been cut down
through reforestation
C. fires that occur along newly exposed
B. Expand the use of forest products that
edges of forest after fragmentation has
sustainably replace fossil-fuel emissions
occurred
C. Reduce carbon emissions caused by
D. fire that allows dead wood, leaves, and
deforestation and degradation
other flammable ground litter to accumu-
late D. All of the Above

1.20 Forestry 547
183. Basal area is used to determine: C. A way to use less land and reduce air
A. the degree of stocking of a stand of pollution in cities.

trees D. All of the above.
B. the amount of timber to remove in thin- 189. Deforestation driven by lands into
ning an over-stocked stand forestlands was primarily through exten-
C. timber volume sive slash-and-burn shifting cultivation.
D. All of the above A. Forest Products Extraction
184. A series of predictable and orderly B. Agricultural Expansion
changes within an ecosystem over time. C. Infrastructure Expansion
A. Canopy D. Biophysical Factors SHOW ANSWER
B. Wildlife habitat
190. What is probably the biggest problem fac-
C. Succession ing U.S. National Parks today?
D. Wilderness areas A. regulations
185. Which of these provinces is the top lum- B. soil erosion
ber producer in Canada? C. environmentalists
A. Quebec D. popularity
B. British Columbia
191. Which stage of succession is a mature for-
C. Manitoba est in?
D. Ontario A. The beginning
186. What is MAD HORSE B. The middle
A. Maple, Ash, Dogwood, and Horse C. The end
Chestnut D. None of these
B. Trees that have opposite leaves
192. Which type of regeneration will result in
C. Way to help ID trees an uneven-aged forest?
D. All of these are true A. Shelterwood
187. Which type of trees lose their leaves in B. Single-tree
the fall? C. Seed tree
A. Deciduous D. Clearcut
B. Evergreen
193. Waht can we do to help sustain the for-
C. Tropical est?
D. All trees A. Recycle paper or use both both sides
188. Smart growth is of one paper .
A. A method that encourages mixed-use B. Make an effort to look for products

development within cities. made from a sustainable wood supply.
B. A more sustainable alternative to ur- C. Eat less meat

ban sprawl. D. All of the above

1.20 Forestry 548
194. The cutting down of selected trees in a C. The remaining supply of metals on
forest so the growth of other trees is not Earth
affected. D. The waste material from mining
200. Example of a Nonrenewable Resource..
B. Controlled Burn
A. Petroleum and Oil
C. Thinning
B. Water and Crops
D. Clear Cutting
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Soil
195. The acreage plot must be between D. Trees
A. 0.10 acres and 0.80 acres
201. The number of rings on a tree determines
B. 2 acres and 25 acres its
C. As big as you can make it. A. height
D. 0.30 acres and 1.25 acres. B. weight
196. Where is the best place to do reforesta- C. age
tion? D. number of boards
A. Drylands
202. This is the most productive commercial
B. Rainy Wetlands forest area with abundant rain and moder-
C. Eroded Soil ate temperatures. In this area the Douglas
fir, Sitka spruce, cedar and hemlock grow
D. Grasslands large, and the volume of wood per hectare
197. Which of these describes a mast bearing is the highest in Canada.
tree? A. Boreal forests
A. A tree that bears fruit B. West coast forest
B. A tree that has a hole that can be used C. Montane forests
for shelter D. Mixed forest
C. A tree that loses its leaves in the fall
203. This agency is managed by the US Depart-
D. A tree that keeps its leaves year round ment of Agriculture and manages the 155
National forests and 20 National grass-
198. Requiring local governments to establish
lands.
and maintain seedling nurseries.
A. US Forest Service
A. Memo. Circular 985
B. US Fish and Wildlife Service
B. Executive Order 263
C. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Ad-
C. Letter of Instruction 423
ministration
D. Presidential Decree 1153
D. Bureau of Reclamation
199. Tailings are 204. When working in forestry, knowledge of
A. Minerals found in metamorphic rock which of the following is considered essen-
B. Magma ore resulting from seafloor tial?
spreading A. Astronomy

1.20 Forestry 549
B. Engineering B. 17
C. Soil science C. 81

D. none of above D. None of the above
205. Last June 4-5, a virtual gala event orga- 210. Education in logging most often takes
nized by the UN Environment Programme place in which of the following ways?
was held in Pakistan to launch which UN A. College degrees
Decade celebration?
B. On-site training
A. United Nations Decade on Ecosystem
C. Vocational schools
Resilience
D. none of above
B. United Nations Decade on Biodiversity
and Ecosystem 211. The removal of snags (which include
C. United Nations Decade on Ecosystem small trees, debris, leaves) following a
Restoration natural disturbance is called
D. none of above A. clear cutting
B. open cutting
206. A forest that has never been logged is
called an C. salvage logging
D. chain saw cutting
A. old growth forest
B. new growth forest 212. The harvesting of timber where small
numbers of mature and healthy seed-
C. never been touched forest
producing trees are left standing so that
D. really old forest they can reseed the logged area
207. which method of harvesting trees, leaves A. seed tree approach
a few trees to provide shade for the new B. uneven planting
seedlings C. even planting
A. Clear cutting D. classic tree approach
B. Seed-Tree
213. The habitat in which you are most likely
C. Shelterwood to find mammals, reptiles, fungi and old
D. Selection System growth trees is
208. Which tree is generally the most impor- A. Early Succession

tant tree in southern forests because of its B. Shrub Habitat
use for pulpwood and lumber? C. Young Forest
A. cedar D. Mature Forest
B. maple
214. What percent of earths land animals and
C. pine plants live in forests?
D. walnut A. 50%
209. Currently, how many Implementing PEN- B. 90%
ROs does the DENR have? C. 70%
A. 71 D. 65%

1.20 Forestry 550
215. Father of Philippine Forestry 221. What is the problem with tree planta-
A. George P. Ahern tions?
B. Florencio Tamesis A. low biodiversity
C. Emilio Aguinaldo B. prone to forest fires
D. Manuel Roxas C. cause soil erosion
216. Harvesting of trees where all trees are D. absorb excess CO2 from atmosphere
cut regardless of age, size, or health
NARAYAN CHANGDER
222. What species is considered as agarwood
A. Strip Cutting in the Philippines?
B. Plantation A. Toog
C. Clear Cutting
B. Philippine Teak
D. Selective Cutting
C. Lapnisan
217. Resource management is the D. none of above
A. preservation of ecosystems
B. management of animals in the area 223. The clearing of a forest and the replace-
ment of that forest by some other land use
C. managing of resources so that are not such as agriculture or residential is called
depleted
A. reforestation
D. managing of resources so that they
are depleted B. prescribed burn
218. An example of a “hard mast” would be: C. salvage reforestation
A. Persimmons D. deforestation
B. Nuts and acorns 224. By far the largest part of Canada’s
C. Persimmons, nuts, acorns forests (about 63%) is made up of
D. None of the above A. Deciduous trees
219. Vegetative buffer areas between land B. Coniferous trees
and water ways. C. Mixed woods
A. Riparian D. Maple trees
B. Overgrazing
225. A management system that includes pre-
C. Healthy Forest Initiative
scribed burns will likely lead to:I. Large
D. Rangelands quantities of biomass accumulating on the
220. What is the art, science, and practice forest floor.II. A decrease in the likelihood
of studying ang managing forests, planta- of uncontrolled natural fires.III. An acceler-
tions and related natural resources? ation of nutrient cycling
A. Agriculture A. I only
B. Forestry B. I and II
C. Agroforestry C. I and III
D. none of above D. II and III

1.20 Forestry 551
226. Which type of management is being con- C. Shelterwood

tinually monitored and adjusted D. Group Selection

A. adaptive forest management
232. A U.S. classification used to -designate
B. ecosystem-based forest management lands that may be used for recreation,
C. Maximum sustainable yield grazing, timber harvesting, and mineral
extraction.
D. none of above
A. Tree plantations
227. The Boreal Forest is B. multiple-use lands
A. Mostly deciduous C. Rangelands
B. Mostly coniferous D. Forests
C. Half and half
233. When only some of the tree in a forest
D. Only coniferous are cut at once is called
228. Directing active cooperation and partici- A. selection system
pation of government agencies in govern- B. selection Sunday
ment reforestation programs C. shelterwood selection
A. LOI 423 D. even aged selection
B. LOI 103
234. most of the worlds remaining forests are
C. LOI 1260 either boreal forests or
D. LOI 716 A. tropical rain forest
229. About 50% of Canadian softwood is B. temperate forest
A. Used for pulp C. tree plantations
B. Used in construction D. deciduous forests
C. Exported 235. What percent of the United States is

rangeland?
D. Used for firewood or pellets
A. 75
230. This agency manages all national parks,
B. 57
many monuments, and other conservation
and historic properties. C. 80
A. U.S. Department of Agriculture D. 36
B. Bureau of Land Management 236. Which of these are reasons to plant

trees?
C. National Park Service
A. Lower temperature and increase oxy-
D. US Department of the Interior
gen
231. A system that removes the majority of B. Improve appearance and prevent ero-
mature trees but leaves a few good seed- sion
producing trees.
C. Provide habitats and improve soil
A. Clear Cut health
B. Seed Tree D. All of these

1.20 Forestry 552
237. How can you tell if a track is from a mam- B. only some mature trees in an area are
mal that lives in an aquatic environment? cut
A. There are claw marks C. only immature trees in an area are cut
B. There are no claw marks
C. There is webbing D. all of the trees in an area are cut
D. There is an extra toe mark
243. Which method of timber harvesting leads
to the greatest uneven-aged stands of re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
238. Which of the following is an insect
borer? growth?
A. IPS beetle A. Clear-cutting
B. Gypsy Moth B. Seed-tree approach
C. Pine sawfly C. Shelterwood approach
D. wooly adelgid
D. Selection system
239. Which of the following is NOT a long-
term harm to the environment caused by 244. Which of the following items should be
mining? placed in a recycling bin for recycling?
A. Scarring and disruption of the land sur- A. pizza boxes
face B. yogurt cups
B. Large amounts of radioactivity
C. Starbuck cups
C. Caving in or sinking of land
D. Large amounts of solid waste
240. Coniferous trees are gymnosperms or 245. What is the goal of ecosystem-based for-
plants that have seeds. est management?
A. naked A. To gather data for areas managed in

different ways, and develop a customized
B. nut type plan based on the results
C. wingless
B. To harvest resources while minimizing
D. sprout less effects on the rest of the ecosystem
241. How can you tell if a track is from a mam- C. To harvest maximum resources with-
mal that is related to a cat? out compromising future harvests
A. It has claw marks D. none of above
B. It has no claw marks
246. Which of the following is not an econom-
C. It has webbing
ical benefit of Forests
D. none of above
A. Trees for lumber
242. clear cutting is a harvesting method in B. Water for Drinking
which
C. Soil for agriculture
A. trees that provide shelter to seedlings
are left uncut D. Air purification

1.20 Forestry 553
247. The care and management of single trees 252. Which of these is not an importance of
and tree populations in urban settings for packaging
the purpose of improving the urban envi-

A. providing protection
ronment
B. Safety
A. Urban Forestry
C. Optimal Design
B. Forestry
D. For Sales
C. Agroforestry
D. none of above 253. On a global scale, more than % of the
timber cut each year is used for heating
248. Properly applied windbreaks can benefit and cooking.
which of the following agricultural prac-
tice? A. 25
A. Crop rotation B. 75
B. Confined animal feeding operations C. 55
C. Livestock and dairy cattle husbandry D. 15

D. All of these are correct 254. What has become the most successful ge-
netic manipulation of a forest tree?
249. Why does eating meat apply to defor-
estation? A. breeding
A. Some of the blazes were deliberately B. grafting
set by farmers to clear the rainforest for C. cloning
pastureland.
D. seeds
B. It gives away a bad smell
C. Some meat don’t contain oxygen 255. A renewable resource is harvested sus-
enough for plants tainably if
D. none of above A. the amount of replacement is less than
the amount harvested.
250. This results from the regrowth of trees
B. the amount of replacement is equal to
that were mostly all cut at the same time
the amount harvested.
A. even aged
C. soil erosion is prevented.
B. uneven aged
D. replacing trees costs less than har-
C. monculture vesting trees.
D. no aged
256. If you wish to enter the field of soil and
251. If my pace is 2.00 and I walk 500 paces forest conservation, what kind of educa-
how many feet did I walk? tional goal should you attain?
A. 1000 feet A. High school diploma
B. 500 feet B. 2 year associate degree
C. 250 feet C. 4 year college degree
D. 1055 D. Doctorate degree

1.20 Forestry 554
257. federal land that is designated off-limits B. Wilderness areas

to development of any kind but is open C. Tree farm
to public recreation, such as hiking, nature
study, and other activities that have mini- D. Canopy
mal impact on the land 263. Major current program
A. Wildilfe habitat A. Community-Based Forest Manage-
B. Canopy ment Program
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Succession B. Community Forestry Program
D. Wilderness areas C. Coastal Environment Program
258. Which harvesting method allows for nat- D. Low Income Upland Communities
ural regeneration and possibly reduces the Project
need for replanting trees? 264. Removal of all marketable trees from an
A. Selective Cut area.
B. Shelterwood Cut A. Selective Cutting
C. Clear Cut B. Controlled Burn
D. All of the above C. Thinning
D. Clear Cutting
259. The oldest baldcypress tree can be found
in which NC ecosystem? 265. A very destructive form of coal-mining
A. Spruce-fir forest which uses explosives and deposits mine
tailings and overburden in valleys, damag-
B. Piedmont stream forest
ing stream flows and groundwater.
C. Bottomland hardwood forest
A. subsurface minings
D. Sandhill’s long leaf forest
B. strip mining
260. Timber Management is called C. placer mining
A. Forest propagation D. mountaintop removal
B. Silviculture
266. A windbreak should extend at least
C. Forester feet past structures needing protection to
D. Timber Farming allow for wind turbulence at the ends of
the windbreak?
261. soil, fresh water, wild animals, and tim- A. 50
ber are examples of
B. 100
A. renerable resources
C. 200
B. inexhaustible resources
D. 300
C. nonrenewable resources
D. forest resources 267. The method of timber harvesting pro-
duces a future forest that most closely re-
262. Dense covering formed by the leafy tops sembles the original forest in terms of bio-
of tall rain forest trees diversity.
A. Wildlife habitats A. Clear-cutting

1.20 Forestry 555
B. Seed-tree approach 273. Any tough, heavy timber with a compact

C. Shelterwood approach texture; any deciduous tree (any tree that
loses its leaves annually)

D. Selection system
A. Softwood
268. What is a trees least favorite month?
B. Hardwood
A. July
C. Timber
B. January
D. Canopy
C. September
D. May 274. What is the role of private timber compa-
nies in national forests?
269. One disadvantage of the selection sys-
tem of timber harvesting is that it A. They plan the sale of trees that are har-
vested.
A. produces even-aged stands.
B. They build roads for logging.
B. produces a monoculture.
C. causes soil erosion. C. They manage timber sales.
D. is more dangerous for loggers. D. They receive the profits from logging.
270. Name the regeneration system where 275. A biltmore stick can tell you which of the
healthy, large-crowned trees are scat- following?
tered throughout the harvested area to
A. Tree diameter at breast height and
provide seed for the next forest stand:
number of board feet
A. Clearcut
B. Number of 16’ logs and height of tree
B. Shelterwood
C. Diameter of logs on ground
C. Seed tree
D. All of the above are true
D. Single-tree
271. Which plant structure carries 276. Waste soil and rock removed during sur-
food/glucose from the leaves down to face mining is called
the rest of the plant? A. Hazardous waste
A. Phloem B. Overburden
B. Xylem
C. Tailings
C. Leaves
D. Smelt
D. Biota
277. Forest probably covered of prehis-
272. What percentage of paper making mate-
toric Tennessee.
rials comes from whole trees?
A. 33% A. 25%
B. 73% B. 50%
C. 13% C. 75%
D. 100% D. 95%

1.20 Forestry 556
278. Which of the following terms describes a 283. What tree species is used to make han-
forest that has never had any disturbances dles, baseball bats, oars, and furniture?
from natural disasters or human interfer- A. Aspen
ence?
B. Ash
A. Climax Community
C. Loblolly pine
B. New Growth D. Black walnut
C. Old Growth
284. Which of these is NOT a way that trees
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Primary Succession help ecosystems?
279. The variability among living organism A. Keeping soils cool
from all sources including terrestrial, ma- B. Preventing erosion
rine and aquatic ecosystems and ecological C. Preventing flooding
complexes of which they are part.
D. Decreasing available habitat
A. Species Diversity
285. The following are functions of packaging
B. Genetic Diversity except
C. Biological Diversity A. Containment
D. Ecosystem Diversity B. Protection
280. Forestry and logging fall under what ca- C. Attractiveness
reer category? D. Promotion
A. Agricultural 286. What greenhouse gas in the atmosphere
B. Business can be captured by trees?
C. Industrial A. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
D. Educational B. Carbon dioxide

C. Ozone
281. What are the dimensions for a standard D. none of above
cord of wood?
287. If a wood product is certified by the For-
A. 2 feet high x 4 feet wide x 8 feet long
est Stewardship Council, it was produced
B. 4 feet high x 4 feet wide x 8 feet long
A. using sustainable methods.
C. 4 feet high x 2 feet wide x 8 feet long B. from trees grown on a plantation.
D. 4 feet high x 4 feet wide x 4 feet long C. from recycled materials.
282. The new Name of the Inspeccion General D. none of above
de Montes during April 14, 1900 288. Which of the following is NOT environ-
A. Department of Environment and Natu- mental impacts of mining?
ral Resources A. Destroys natural communities over
B. Bureau of Forestry large areas.
C. Forestry Bureau B. Acid drainage pollutes groundwater.
D. Department Of Environment, Energy C. Creates minimal dust.
And Natural Resources D. Causes erosion

1.20 Forestry 557
289. can be used to stimulate regenera- C. Franklinia

tion in the forest, maintain a fire depen- D. Witch-hazel
dent ecosystem, and create openings for

wildlife habitat. 294. All of the following would result in an
area that was recently clear cut EXCEPT
A. Thinning
A. an increase in water runoff
B. Firebreaks
B. a loss of soil nutrients
C. Pruning
C. an increase in erosion
D. Prescribed burns
D. an increase in biodiversity
290. A narrow strip of woodland along the
295. What is the largest Forest region in
sandy and gravelly beaches of the sea-
Canada?
coast dominated by Terminalia catappa,
Casuarina equisetifolia and etc. A. Hardwood
A. Beach Forest B. Boreal
B. Mangrove Forest C. Mixed
C. Mossy Forest D. West Coast
D. Pine Forest 296. The term “conservation” means:

A. Over-using a resource in order to
291. Which of the following in not a reason for
make a profit.
deforestation?
B. The practice of planning and maintain-
A. Fuel
ing a resource for the benefit and sustain-
B. Farm land ability of future generations
C. Settlements/ housing C. The change in global climate that Earth
D. room for solar pannels has experienced within the past 20 years,
attributed to burning fossil fuels.
292. Clearcutting is D. none of above
A. A timber harvesting practice where all
297. Fuels that allow the upward spread of
trees larger than 20 feet tall are cut har-
wildfire to the tops or crowns of trees are
vested.
called?
B. When logging companies plant new
A. ground
saplings in an area bigger than 1 hectare.
B. crown
C. A timber harvesting practice where all C. surface
of the trees in a given area are harvested D. organic
at the same time.
298. Which Forest region has stunted trees
D. When forestry services clear out the due to thin soils and permafrost?
underbrush in a given area.
A. Taiga
293. What tree has pink flowers? B. Boreal
A. Clammy locus C. Montane
B. Chinnaberry D. West Coast

1.20 Forestry 558
299. Only cutting down mature trees of a spe- 304. Which Of This is a Human Activity That
cific size, type, and quality is an example Reduces Forest Resources
of A. Afforestation
A. Selective Cutting B. Over Grazing
B. Shelterwood Cutting C. Monkey Buisness
C. Clear Cutting D. Timilehin
D. none of above 305. Canada’s biggest supplier of lumber and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
other timber supplies
300. Which stage of succession contains
A. Ontario
mostly grasses?
B. Alberta
A. Early
C. British Columbia
B. Shrub Stage
D. Quebec
C. Young Forest
306. Fire suppression can result in a(n)
D. Mature Forest
A. increase in animal habitats.
301. Which of these provinces is the top pulp B. buildup of material that fuels future
and paper producer in Canada? fires.
A. Quebec C. decrease in property damage.
B. Ontario D. an increase in the jack pine population.
C. British Columbia 307. The most “outer” section of a tree cookie

is called the?
D. Alberta
A. Pith
302. The , whose primary function is B. Heartwood
food production, is composed of the leaves,
C. Outer Bark
branches, twigs, and flowers.
D. Inner Bark
A. Roots
308. This functions like a backbone and sup-
B. Trunk
ports the tree. It composes most of the
C. Crown trunk and is made up of dead xylem cells.
D. Heartwood A. Inner bark
B. cambium layer
303. The process by which green plants and
certain other organisms use the energy of C. Sapwood
light to convert carbon dioxide and water D. Heartwood
into carbohydrates is called?
309. First Forestry School in the Philippines
A. Glycolysis
A. University of the Philippines
B. Photosynthesis B. Central Mindanao University
C. Transpiration C. Visayas State University
D. none of above D. De La Salle University

1.20 Forestry 559
310. How many contestants make up a 315. The proper distance one should hold a
forestry team? hypsometer from his or her eye is
inches?

A. 6
B. 3 A. 15
C. 5 B. 20
D. 4 C. 25
311. A long-term license executed by and be- D. 30
tween the Secretary of the DENR, on be-
half of the government, and the grantee 316. An old growth forest is
for the harvesting and removal from the A. A forest that was cut a long time ago
public forest of timber and, in appropriate
cases, also of other forest products. B. A forest that has never been cut
A. Timber License Agreement C. A forest that was cut recently
B. Industrial Forest Management Agree- D. none of above
ments
C. Certificate of Stewardship Contract 317. Which method of timber harvesting is
likely to be the most costly for a timber
D. Community Based Forest Management company?
Agreement
A. Clear-cutting
312. The logging method that in which only
trees of a certain type, size and quality B. Seed-tree approach
are harvested is called: C. Shelterwood approach
A. Clearcutting D. Selection system
B. Selective
318. Some organisms break down dead or-
C. Shelterwood
ganic matter and return the nutrients to
D. none of above the ecosystem to be reused. These organ-
isms are called ?
313. Which one of the following species has
the opposite arrangement? A. symbiotic organisms
A. Sugar Maple B. organic producers
B. Shagbark Hickory C. organic plant producers
C. Sassafras
D. decomposers
D. White Oak
319. The most popular Christmas tree grown
314. Which of the following is a negative to
commercially in the mountain region of
clear cutting?
North Carolina is the:
A. very efficient
A. Scotch Pine
B. allows for sun loving trees to regrow
B. Cedar
C. causes less water to be taken up by
trees C. Frasier Fir
D. easy to do D. Virginia Pine

1.20 Forestry 560
320. What 2 trees are often used as wind- DENR wherein the later grants to the for-
breaks in NC? mer the right to develop, utilize and man-
A. Long leaf pines and eastern red cedar age a small tract of forestland, consistent
with the principle of sustainable develop-
B. Loblolly pines and eastern red cedar ment.
C. Loblolly pines and Frasier fir A. SOCIALIZED INDUSTRIAL FOREST
D. Frasier firs and red maples MANAGEMENT AGREEMENT (SIFMA)
B. FOREST LAND GRAZING LEASE AGREE-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
321. Maximum sustainable yield, ecosystem- MENT
based management, and adaptive manage-
ment are three approaches to C. FOREST LAND GRAZING MANAGE-
MENT AGREEMENT
A. poaching
D. INTEGRATED FOREST MANAGEMENT
B. overharvesting (IFMA)
C. resource management 326. A dry open grassland is called a
D. none of these are correct A. Rangeland
322. Which is a major tree of the Pacific Coast B. Clear cutting
forest region of North America and one of C. Grazing land
the most commercially grown trees?
D. MSY
A. White oak
327. Some tree plantations resemble a natural
B. Loblolly pine forest thata.b.c.d.
C. Red maple A. has been adaptively managed.
D. Douglas fir B. contains uneven-aged stands.
323. How is clear cutting bad for the ecosys- C. has never been harvested.
tem? D. none of above
A. increase in soil erosion, loss of habitat 328. Where can you find the tallest tree in the
country?
B. increase in biodiversity A. Agusan del Sur
C. increase in habitat B. Surigao del Sur
D. none of above C. Davao del Norte
D. none of above
324. which of these is NOT an effect of forests
on the environment 329. One practical solution to prevent over-
A. Soil and water conservation grazing on rangelands is
B. reduces evaporation A. control the number of grazing animals
C. increases sublimation
B. rotational grazing
D. watershed protection
C. limit the duration of grazing in a given
325. An agreement entered into by and be- area
tween a natural or juridical person and the D. all of these are viable options

1.20 Forestry 561
330. Knowledge of which of the following 335. The standard unit of measurement for
would be considered as necessary for most lumber. It is a measurement equal
forestry? to a piece of wood one inch thick, one foot

A. Trees wide, and one foot long.
B. Weather patterns A. Silviculture
C. Chemistry B. Site Index
D. none of above C. Board Foot

D. DBH
331. The profession embracing the science, art
and practice of creating, managing, using 336. What is a negative to suppressing forest
and conserving forests and associated re- fires?
sources for human benefit in a sustainable A. Trees will have more room to grow
manner to meet desired goals, needs and
values. B. Lots of “tinder” builds up on the forest
floor
A. Forestry
C. nutrients are recycled
B. Agroforestry
D. more trees allow for healthier forests
C. Botany
337. Pulpwood is mainly produced from:
D. Taxonomy
A. Ash
332. Which method of harvesting trees is the
B. Fraser Fir
cheapest way?
C. Loblolly Pine
A. Clear cutting
D. Oak
B. Seed-Tree
C. Shelterwood 338. Which of the following is the living wood
of the tree?
D. Selection System
A. pith
333. Which is not a good example of a BMP?
B. cambium
A. Locate roads above flood plains and
C. heartwood
wet areas
D. sapwood
B. Leaving trees or tree tops in streams
C. Cable out logs cut in streamside zones 339. Lands managed by agencies of the gov-
ernment
D. Locate stream crossings where the A. National Parks
bottom is hard and relatively level B. National Rivers
334. How many rings does a tree put on each C. Public Lands
year? D. Restricted-use Lands
A. 1 340. How many seedlings will be planted one
B. 2 one acre at a spacing of 10’ x 10’
C. 4 A. 302
D. numerous B. 436

1.20 Forestry 562
C. 889 346. Which tree species is the most tolerant to

D. 1, 742 flooding?
A. Northern Red Oak
341. What is the first forestry service in the
B. Cottonwood
Philippines?
C. Shortleaf Pine
A. Inspeccion General de Montes
D. Shagbark Hickory
B. De Inspeccion General Montes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Inspeccion de General Montes 347. Hardwood trees are also referred to as
leaf trees.
D. none of above
A. Broad
342. the environment in which wildlife lives B. needle
A. Wildlife habitat C. compound
B. Wilderness area D. simple
C. Canopy
348. Known as the Reorganization Act of the
D. Succession DENR
343. Which tree is commonly found in Riparian A. Executive Order 192
Buffers? B. Presidential Decree 1153
A. Sycamore C. Executive Order 263
B. Bradford Pear D. Letter Of Instruction 423
C. White Oak
349. What is the tragedy of the commons?
D. Post Oak A. the general idiocy of the average hu-
344. Passive remote sensing technologies in- man
clude B. The failure to create a sense of shared
A. radar and airborne light detection responsibility
C. the prevalence of extreme poverty in
B. aerial photography and satellite im-
the developing world
agery
D. destruction of shared resources
C. ranging (lidar)
through self-serving behavior
D. aerial photography and airborne light
detection 350. What was the fungus from Asia that at-
tacked trees between 1930 and 1940?
345. A technique sometimes used in forest
A. Hemlock woolly adelgid
management, farming, or prairie restora-
tion to improve habitat and reduce wildfire B. Chestnut Blight
risk. C. Southern Pine Beatle
A. Selective Cutting D. Dutch Elms Disease
B. Controlled Burn 351. How many samples must be identified for
C. Thinning plant identification.
D. Clear Cutting A. 6

1.20 Forestry 563
B. 50 B. Limiting layers, drainage

C. 35 C. Know all those and mark this one as

D. 600 correct
D. none of above
352. Benefit(s) to clear cutting include:
A. an increase in overall timber yield 357. Which of the following are benefits of the
forest?
B. trees that are genetically stronger
A. Climate regulation
C. provides timber companies with the
most money in the shortest amount of B. Soil stabilization
time C. Healthy functions of ecosystems
D. all of the above D. All of above
353. Which one of the following is NOT an ad- 358. Which of the following is not a native
vantage of a riparian forest buffer? tree in the Philippines?
A. Management intensive A. Narra
B. Filter sediment B. Acacia/Rain Tree
C. Provide bank stabilization C. Molave
D. Uptake nutrients and chemicals run- D. none of above
ning off from the field
359. The main goal of the Healthy Forests
354. For many years, forest fires were sup- Restoration Act is to
pressed to protect lives and property. This A. prevent prescribed burning.
policy has lead to
B. prevent erosion and soil damage.
A. a build up of dead biomass that can
fuel larger fires C. prevent salvage logging.
B. many forest species being able to live D. make forests less fire-prone.
without having their habitats destroyed 360. Which of the following is NOT true of tree
C. soil erosion on steep slopes plantations?
D. economic instability A. They are biologically highly diverse
355. Remove trees adjacent to the crop tree B. They can return a high profit
so the crop tree’s crown is free to grow C. They are usually clear cut when suffi-
on sides? ciently mature
A. 4 D. The trees are often used for paper or
B. 3 reconstituted wood substitute
C. 2 361. What is this called? (green bug)

D. 1 A. Emerald Ash Borer
356. What are four factors that affect plant B. Asian Longhorned Beetle
growth in forest soils? C. Birch Leafminer
A. Topsoil Depth, Soil texture D. none of above

1.20 Forestry 564
362. Govern climate and rainfall, water (e.g.) 367. If there are many different variations
flooding) waste and the spread of dis- within a type of species, then that species
ease. has a great amount of
A. Regulating services A. Geographic Diversity
B. Provisioning services B. Genetic Diversity
C. Cultural services C. Biodiversity
D. Supporting services D. Monoculture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
363. This commercial forestry area has low 368. Which of the following is a characteristic
rainfall, a short growing season, smaller of Mangrove forest
conifers such as the spruce, lodgepole and A. Increased sunlight to Plant
ponderosa pine. It has the second highest
volume of wood in Canada. B. Reduces Costal Erosion
A. Boreal forests C. More Movement Between Plants
B. West coast forest D. Availability of Natural Pollutants
C. Montane forests 369. Which of the following does NOT de-

D. Mixed forest scribe a facet of Soil Science as used by
foresters?
364. Cutting down every tree in a large area A. How different types of soil can affect
is an example of Forestry.
A. Selective Cutting B. How different types of soil can affect
B. Shelterwood Cutting wildlife.
C. Clear Cutting C. How trees can survive (or die), de-
pending on the soil and environment.
D. none of above
D. none of above
365. Which type of harvest method is not con-
sidered to be ecologically sound? 370. What is forestry
A. clearcut A. The study of forest
B. shelter-wood B. Oga Jesus will help me with this ques-
tion amen
C. high-grading
C. The application of scientific knowl-
D. group selection
edge, skills and techniques to the manage-
366. Which historically significant tree was ru- ment of of forest land to ensure the con-
mored to be planted by Emilio Aguinaldo tinuation of their services and benefits to
during his stay at the Malolos Cathedral mankind
convent? D. Forestry is forestry biko
A. Kalayaan Tree 371. The growing and cultivation of trees can
B. Kalilayan Tree also be referred to as
C. Kapayapaan Tree A. Agriculture
D. none of above B. Silviculture

1.20 Forestry 565
C. Monoculture 377. A career in logging is considered to be the

D. Biodiversity most demanding in which of the following
ways?

372. A division or projecting part of the blade A. Emotionally
of a leaf
B. Mentally
A. petiole
C. Physically
B. leaf scar
D. none of above
C. lobe
D. leaflet 378. The Department of Interior was abol-
ished and transferred all its functions and
373. The greatest dangers for these working authority to the Department of Agriculture
in the logging industry lie with which of and Natural Resources (DANR)
the following?
A. November 18, 1916
A. Equipment
B. November 17, 1916
B. Wildlife
C. November 18, 1915
C. Finances
D. November 17, 1915
D. none of above
379. The measurement of the overall quality
374. The science and art of managing forests of a particular stand (or site) of trees is
so they continuously yield a maximum based on the height of the dominant trees
quality and quantity of forest products and at 50 years of age and is called ?
services.
A. specific tree gravity
A. Forestry
B. tree height
B. Agroforestry
C. site index
C. Urban Forestry
D. abiotic factor
D. none of above
375. Fire suppression, which allows dead 380. Deforestation is particularly harmful in
wood, leaves, and other flammable ground arid regions because it can lead to
litter to accumulate, can result in A. desertification.
A. a surface fire B. a massive loss of biodiversity.
B. a crown fire C. loss of jobs.
C. decrease runoff D. a decrease in greenhouse gases.
D. a brush fire
381. Which method of harvesting trees is the
376. IPM stands for: most dangerous for loggers
A. Integrated Pest Management A. Clear cutting
B. Intensive Pest Management B. Seed-Tree
C. Individual Pole Management C. Shelterwood
D. Intensive Pole Movement D. Selection System

1.20 Forestry 566
382. Harvesting of trees where entire sections 387. Temperate deciduous forest are located
are cut between which two areas:
A. Strip Cutting A. the tropics and the cold land around
the poles
B. Plantation
B. the equator and North America
C. Clear Cutting
C. Antartica and Africa
D. Selective Cutting
D. near the equator
NARAYAN CHANGDER
383. The largest forestry area with mainly
coniferous trees (softwood), especially 388. Which of the following is a natural pro-
black spruce. Mainly used for pulp and pa- gram of forest research and a survey of
per production. forest resources?
A. Boreal forests A. The Clarke-McNary Law
B. West coast forest B. The McSweeney-McNary Law
C. Montane forests C. CCC
D. Mixed forest D. Norris-Doxey Cooperative Forestry Act
384. Where else are lots of trees being 389. A protected area that allows the mi-
planted? gration of individuals and populations to
move from one area to another by an area
A. Costa Rica
of land that connects nature reserves to
B. Mexico each other
C. None of the Above A. Corridors
D. All of the Above B. Overgrazing
385. This forestry area is characterized by thin C. Healthy Forest Initiative

soils, and cold temperatures, which lead D. Rangelands
to stunted trees. Much of the forest is
inaccessible, so only very small parts are 390. Which phrase is true for private logging
logged. operations?
A. Taiga forests A. produces a monoculture
B. West coast forest B. produces trees of different ages
C. Montane forests C. produces trees of different species
D. Mixed forest D. leads to high biodiversity
386. Which factors are considered in a Sustain- 391. Large scale planting of a single crop is
able Forest Management Plan? called
A. Types of tree and other plant species A. polycuture
B. Wildlife and niche habitat elements B. biculture
C. Natural disturbance patterns C. monoculture
D. All of the above D. even aged culture

1.20 Forestry 567
392. A decline in the productivity of an area C. Regenerating Resource

of land or in its ability to support natural D. Conservative Resource
ecosystems or types of agriculture.

397. The leaves and other organic materials
A. Deforestation
when broken down are called
B. Degradation
A. juice
C. Forest Degradation B. foliage
D. Reforestation C. oxygen
393. All the below would occur in an area that D. detritus
has been recently clear-cut EXCEPT
398. The National Forest Management Act
A. an increase in water pollution as sedi-
A. requires plans for national forests that
ment flows into streams
follow multiple use and maximum sustain-
B. an increase in biodiversity, because able yield guidelines.
land with fewer trees and less sunlight is B. requires plans for national forests that
more inviting to a variety of species follow multiple use and ecosystem-based
C. a loss of soil fertility, because of the management guidelines.
increase in wind and water erosion C. encourages prescribed burning as a
D. more water flows on sloped, denuded means of protecting national forests.
land, resulting in erosion and increases D. promotes the removal of small trees
the likelihood of landslides and underbrush by timber companies.
394. This harvesting method removes certain 399. This agency manages about 253 million
trees to establish new seedling growth un- acres of America’s public lands as well as
der the protection of the trees that are 700 million acres of subsurface mineral es-
left. tate.
A. Clear Cut A. U.S. Department of Agriculture
B. Seed Tree B. Bureau of Land Management
C. Shelterwood C. National Park Service
D. Group Selection D. US Department of the Interior
395. The Forest Management Bureau was cre- 400. A mineral or group of minerals from
ated by virtue of which policy? which we extract metal.
A. Executive Order No. 192 A. metal
B. Executive Order No. 26 B. ore
C. Executive Order No. 23 C. magma
D. none of above D. overburden
401. How many types of packaging are there
396. What is a resource that can be replen-
ished when used through natural or human A. 2
processes. B. 4
A. Renewable Resource C. 3
B. Non Renewable Resource D. 7

1.20 Forestry 568
402. Which of the following is a threat to for- C. lumber

est ecosystems? D. job opportunities
A. climate change
408. which management plan causes the
B. unsustainable logging largest disruption/change in the forest
C. invasive species ecosystem?
D. All of these A. shelterwood cut
B. seed cut
403. The key about a career in logging is know-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing that most of the job is what kind of C. selective cut
work? D. clear cut
A. Scientific 409. 1 person needs trees in order to gain
B. Academic enough oxygen to survive throughout an
entire year.
C. Physical
A. 1
D. none of above
B. 2
404. Estimating the volume of standing timber C. 7
is called
D. 10
A. viewing
410. What is board feet?
B. strolling
A. How tall a tree is
C. estimating
B. How wide a tree is
D. cruising
C. The merchantable height of a tree
405. Forestry and logging require an educa- D. How many boards can be cut from a
tional background in what type of sci- tree
ence?
411. Which is topsoil?
A. Biology
A. rich in humus and minerals and it is
B. Physics
home to many living things
C. Astronomy
B. it is light and hard and it contains bits
D. Nuclear on mineral clay pieces
406. How can we still gain resources while C. it is made up of coarse, broken down
sustaining the forest? bedrock and no plant roots
A. Replace felled trees with seedlings D. it is not permeable so water cannot
pass through it
B. Controlled burning of forests
412. A forest dominated by Avicennia alba,
C. Using animals to haul logs
Avicennia officinalis, Brownlowia tersa,
D. All of the above Bruguiera cylindrica and etc.
407. Which of the following is NOT an eco- A. Mangrove Forest
nomic service provided by forests? B. Beach Forest
A. provide habitat C. Pine Forest
B. recreation D. Dipterocarp Forest

1.20 Forestry 569
413. Where does Georgia rank in naval store 418. The least disruptive way of harvesting
production? trees is

A. 1st A. Clearcutting
B. 5th B. Shelterwood
C. 70 C. Selective
414. Changes within the forest whether natu- 419. First director of Forestry Bureau
ral or human-induced which negatively af- A. Florencio Tamesis
fect the structure of function of the stand
B. George P. Ahern
or site, and thereby lower the capacity to
supply products and/or services resulting C. James Wilson
to a degraded forest. D. William Harrison
A. Deforestation
420. Which is used to reduce the impact of tim-
B. Degradation ber harvesting?
C. Forest Degradation A. slash-and-burn
D. Reforestation B. selective cutting
415. The Thousand Cankers Disease attacks C. prescribed burns

what tree species? D. mechanized logging
A. Black Walnut 421. Timber harvesting, fuelwood gathering,
B. Northern Red Oak charcoal making, and non-timber forest
products (NTFP) collection continue to con-
C. Shortleaf Pine
tribute to deforestation and forest degra-
D. Green Ash dation.
416. The study of insects and their relationship A. Forest Products Extraction
with the forest is called: B. Agricultural Expansion
A. Dendrology C. Infrastructure Expansion
B. Pathology D. Biophysical Factors
C. Entomology 422. Agriculture incorporating the cultivation
D. Hydrology and conservation of trees.
A. Forestry
417. What is so special about wood with the
FSC mark on it B. Agroforestry
A. It is more expensive C. Urban Forestry
B. It comes from rare trees D. None of the Above
C. It was produced by a well know com- 423. Which career has work conditions which
pany are often solitary and in remote loca-
D. the wood came from a sustainable tions?
source A. Education

1.20 Forestry 570
B. Logging 429. The goal of selective cutting is to

C. Nursing A. remove the best trees
D. none of above B. remove trees so the remaining trees
shade tolerant trees can flourish
424. What tree species is commonly used in
the construction of furniture, cabinets, and C. leave seed trees
veneer? D. create more room for more species of
A. Ash animals to live in the area
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Maple
430. After fruitful negotiations last December
C. Frasier Fir 2015 during the COP21, the Philippines is
D. Loblolly Pine determined to adhere and benefit from the
3 main aims of the Paris Agreement, and
425. How many feet are in 1 mile? one of these is to limit the global temper-
A. 2222 ature increase to
B. 5280 A. 1.5◦ C
C. 1235 B. 2.0◦ C
D. 5521 C. 2.5◦ C
426. Trees that do not lose their leaves every D. none of above
year.
431. A community of living organisms interact-
A. Timberland
ing with each other and with their physical
B. Forest Land environment.
C. Deciduous Trees A. Ecosystem
D. Evergreen Trees B. Community
427. Which of these are drawbacks to clear- C. Ancestral Domain
cutting forested land?
D. Ecology
A. Opening habitat to ground birds
B. Financial gain from timber harvest 432. How many acres of forest land are in
North Carolina?
C. Removing habitat for tree birds and
loss of recreational space A. 17.3 million
D. Clearing space for early successional B. 18.6 million
plants C. 15.5 million
428. The vast majority of wilderness areas in D. 20.4 million
the US exist in
433. Which of these is not a negative effect on
A. the Midwestern states of Wisconsin, forests
Minnesota, and North Dakota.
A. Timber provision
B. Texas and Hawaii.
B. Bush Burning
C. the Western States (California, Ore-
gon, and Washington). C. Deforestation
D. Alaska. D. Poaching

1.20 Forestry 571
434. The DBH range of trees in pole-size C. 300

stands is: D. 118

A. 0” - 5”
440. Defoliators are insects that attack what
B. 5” - 10”
part of the tree?
C. 10” - 15”
A. Bark
B. Buds
435. The first establishment of the Forester’s C. Roots
Training School in the Philippines
D. Leaves
A. Los Banos
B. Diliman 441. In 1900 there where 9.4 million acres of
forest, compared with today.
C. Cebu
A. the same
D. Baguio
B. 2.4 million
436. What is a positive of clear cutting?
C. 10.4 million
A. It increases habitat
D. 14.4 million
B. It decreases erosion
C. It is fast and cheap 442. All trees are made up of 3 major parts-
each of these parts plays a vital role in
D. none of above the life & survival of the trees. What are
437. Which type of forest management leaves these parts?
adult trees that will release seeds for the A. roots, trunk, crown
next generation to sprout? B. roots, bark and leaves
A. shelterwood cut
C. trunk, flowers roots
B. clear cut
D. flowers, fruit and leaves
C. selective cut
443. Type of forest management in which all
D. none of above
trees are cut at the same time.
438. The conversion of forest to another land A. selective cutting
use or the long-term reduction of the tree
canopy cover below the minimum 10% B. shelter wood cutting
threshold. C. Seed cutting
A. Deforestation D. clear cutting
B. Degradation
444. What is a resource that cannot be re-
C. Forest Degradation placed after being used through natural or
D. Reforestation human processes.
439. How many question s does the knowl-
edge test consist of? B. Nonrenewable Resource
A. 25 C. Regenerative Resource
B. 60 D. Conservative Resource

1.20 Forestry 572
445. This Bureau currently recommends poli- B. building of more infrastructure

cies and programs toward the achieve- C. soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, loss
ment of Sustainable Forest Management of ability to remove CO2
based on science and principles of good for-
est governance? D. more mercury and cyanide released
into rivers
A. Bureau of Forest Development
B. Bureau of Forestry 451. Which of the following is NOT a naval
store?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Forest Management Bureau
D. none of above A. pitch
B. rosin
446. Windbreaks are most effective when ori-
ented degrees to prevailing or trouble- C. turpentine
some winds? D. none of the above; They all are naval
A. 30 stores
B. 45 452. What is one economic value of forests
C. 60 A. provide habitat for orgamisms
D. 90 B. purify water
447. which method of harvesting trees leads C. timber for lumber and fuel
to erosion D. prevent erosion
A. Clear cutting
453. Current Secretary of DENR
B. Seed-Tree
A. Roy A. Cimatu
C. Shelterwood
D. Selection System B. Gina P. Lopez
C. Ramon P. Paje
448. Which is the genus name for aspens?
D. Angelo T. Reyes
A. Populus
B. Acer 454. What species is a hardwood used for
structural timbers, flooring and furniture?
C. Cercis
A. Frasier fir
D. Quercus
B. Loblolly pine
449. The percentage of Earth’s land surface
covered by forests C. Longleaf pine
A. 15. D. White Oak

B. 30. 455. Deciduous trees are trees that
C. 50. A. Lose their leaves in winter
D. none of above B. Are evergreen
450. What are some consequences of defor- C. Are characterized by pine cones and
estation? needle-like leaves
A. increased population in cities D. Are unsuitable for logging

1.21 Home science 573
456. A clinometer measures: C. young forest

A. Soil moisture D. mature forest

B. Tree volume
459. Which tree species is the most intolerant
C. Tree diameter of shade?
D. Tree height A. Cottonwood
457. Which type of mining is usually most di- B. Red Oak
rectly harmful to miners?
C. Sugar Maple
A. Mountaintop Removal
D. White Oak
B. Open-pit Mining
C. Strip Mining 460. One effect of overgrazing the natural
D. Subsurface Mining rangelands is
A. increased biodiversity
458. The habitat composed of short trees lead-
ing to a mature forest is B. soil erosion
A. early succession C. increased soil porosity
B. shrub habitat D. native species thrive
1.21 Home science

1. What is used for shallow frying? D. A food chain is a chain that has food on
A. kadhai it.
B. frying pan 4. You can find Vitamin A in carrots.What is
C. oven Vitamin A good for?
D. pressure cooker A. Muscles
B. Hair
2. An underwater mountain range formed
when two plates move apart. C. Eyes
A. Plate Boundary D. none of above
B. Mid-Ocean Ridge 5. What is the main function of genes?
C. Trench A. DNA replication
D. Cross-Section B. synthesis of proteins
3. What is a food chain? C. asexual reproduction
A. A food chain is a model we use to de- D. production of genetic variation
scribe the flow of energy between living
things. 6. is a vegetable that stay for a long
time.
B. A food chain is a diagram for the food
we eat every day to stay healthy. A. Tomato
C. A food chain is a supermarket for ani- B. Spinach

mals. C. Onion

D. Fenugreek leaves 13. Long handed soft brooms and brushes are
used for removing from walls and ceil-
7. Knowledge related to optimum use of ing.
available resources and decision making
for problem. A. Dirt.
A. Food and Nutrition B. Cobwebs
B. Human development C. Objects
C. Resource Management D. Dust
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Clothing and Textiles 14. NAME A VEGETABLE WHICH IS ROUGH TO
TOUCH?
8. Lady Irwin college was set in year ,
A. BRINJAL
A. 1923
B. BITTER GOURD
B. 1930
C. GOURD
C. 1932
D. TOMATO
D. 1935
9. It is an extremely accurate clock that is 15. We can cook our meals and wash dishes in
used especially by sailors at sea. the
A. barometer A. Living room
B. chronometer B. Dining room

C. themometer C. Kitchen
D. none of above D. Garage
10. In 1934, the cost of leasing Guantanamo 16. Kate walked across a carpet and felt
Bay from Cuba increased. What was the a shock when she touched a doorknob.
original lease amount? What caused this?
A. $2, 000/year A. The knob was electromagnet.
B. $20, 000/year B. The knob was an insulator.
C. $200, 000/year C. Kate developed a static charge.
D. $2, 000, 000/year D. The carpet was a conductor
11. Airplanes fly in the 17. vegetable does not have seeds.
A. troposhphere A. Potato
B. mesosphere B. Tomato
C. stratosphere C. Brinjal
D. exosphere D. Pumpkin
12. Vegetables have , minerals, and fiber. 18. Do not touch hot objects like
A. fruit A. heater, iron and oven
B. color B. chair, table and desk
C. leaves C. box, shelf and bottle
D. vitamins D. plants, leaf and fruit

19. Why does the Moon have more effect on C. Plate Boundary
the tides than the Sun? D. Landform

A. The Moon is not as bright as the Sun.
25. Which of the following shows how family
B. The Moon is closer to Earth than the members relate to each other?
Sun.
A. Family picture.
C. The Moon is smaller than the Sun.
B. Family tree.
D. The Moon is lighter than the Sun.
C. Family form
20. Which of these materials makes a good in- D. Family design
sulator of electricity?
26. Which type of air mass is HOT and DRY?
A. plastics
A. Maritime Polar
B. salt water
B. Maritime Tropical
C. aluminum foil
C. Continental Polar
D. silver
D. Continental Tropical
21. Why should vegetables not be cut into tiny 27. What is vitamin A good for?
pieces?
A. eyes
A. There will be a greater loss of carbo-
hydrates. B. hair
C. teeth
B. There will be a greater loss of nutri-
ents. D. brain
C. They will not taste good. 28. How could you know that the vegetables
D. They will get burnt while cooking. were spoilt?
A. Some liquid come out of them.
22. Which word describes when a farmer
packs some of his produce into glass jars? B. They also smell foul.
A. cooking C. both of these
B. jarring D. none of above
C. canning 29. is an example of a root vegetable.

D. none of above A. A carrot
B. Lettuce
23. Vaishali’s father is a
C. Corn
A. Milk-man
D. Green beans
B. Vegetable-seller
30. What tar-like substance fills the lakes and
C. Fruit-seller
seas of Titan?
D. Shopkeeper
A. methane and ethane
24. The place where two plates meet. B. oxygen and carbon
A. Plate C. magma and earthquakes
B. Continent D. none of above

31. At what time Vaishali’s family start work- C. rubber band

ing?
D. a strip of plastic
A. 5 a.m
B. 5 p.m 37. Which of the following is edible stem that
we eat?
C. 3 a.m
A. Beans
D. 3 p.m
B. Spinach
NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. The main nutrient we get from vegetables
is C. Radish
A. calcium D. Ginger
B. Vitamin C 38. What was the reason cited by the daddy
C. A and B vitamins to let him watch the football match?
D. protein A. He is head of the family
33. What does plant give us and what they B. He can watch television only in the
absorb? evening
A. take water and give out smell C. None of the above
B. take carbon dioxide and give out air D. none of above
C. take carbon dioxide and give out oxy-
gen 39. Example of a fermented food
D. none of above A. sauerkraut

B. idly
34. Cooking of pulses results in
A. softening the cell wall of the pulses C. Appam
B. reduces the anti-nutritional factors D. All the above

like trypsin inhibitors
40. What are pucca houses usually constructed
C. increases B-complex vitamins with?
D. all the above A. mud, straw
35. develops from a flower of a plant B. iron, cement, bricks
A. Fruits C. blocks of hard snow
B. Vegetables D. none of above
C. salads
41. Which part/parts of mango tree is/are ed-
D. none of above
ible?
36. Which of the following materials would A. Fruit
you use to connect a battery and bulb so
that the bulb would light? B. Fruit and stem
A. wooden toothpick C. Fruit and leaves
B. a strip of silver D. Fruit, stem, leaves

42. Who looks after the important decisions in B. Before deposition, the particles slide
Dhondu’s family? by each other; after deposition, they vi-
brate in place.

A. Dhondu himself
B. Elder uncle C. Before deposition, the particles vi-
brate in place; after deposition, they move
C. His father quickly in all directions.
D. none of above D. Before deposition, the particles move
quickly in all directions; after deposition,
43. Danger means
they vibrate in place.
A. Harm
48. In Abu-Dhabi there is lot of under the
B. Safety sand soil.
C. Security A. water
D. none of above B. sand
44. A dirty house can breed germs. Germs can C. soil
make us D. oil
A. strong
49. Three things in your bedroom are
B. sick
A. Lamp, TV, Sofa
C. healthy
B. Bed, TV, Lamp
D. none of above
C. Cupboard, Utensils, Books
45. Types of houses depend upon D. Pillows, Cupboard, Bucket
A. food and water
50. What kind of front results in thunder-
B. schools and movies storms?
C. climate and surroundings A. warm front
D. none of above B. cold front
46. The basic objective of NCF is C. occluded front
A. holistic development D. stationary front
B. pedagogy skills 51. What medicinal also called

C. Creative skills A. Medicinal herbs
D. none of above B. Medicinal plants
47. Frost forms when water vapor changes di- C. Synthesis plants
rectly from a gas to ice in a process called D. Traditional medicine
deposition. If you were to model the wa-
ter particles before and after deposition, 52. The roof of your apartment heats up and
how would they compare? transfers (or moves) heat to the walls of
your apartment. This is an example of
A. Before deposition, the particles vi-
brate in place; after deposition, they slide A. Convection
by each other. B. Radiation

C. Conduction C. Water the plants in a drought

D. Insulation D. none of above
53. Is not a cutting tool or equipment. 59. A scientist is studying changes in the ge-
A. Tape measure netic material that affect the traits of an
individual. In which part of the cell must
B. Pinking shears
the scientist focus her studies?
C. Scissors
A. nucleus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Razor blade
B. cell wall
54. We can watch TV in the C. cytoplasm
A. Living room D. cell membrane
B. Garage
60. Some food contains germs. Since cooking
C. Bathroom kills germs, it makes food
D. Bedroom
A. safe
55. Home science is a combination of B. unhealthy
A. commerce and maths C. delicious
B. art and science D. harmful
C. geography and history
61. a temporary magnet made up of a wire
D. none of above wrapped around a core
56. What is the meaning of the word part A. conductor
“bio”? B. insulator
A. life
C. resistance
B. self
D. electromagnet
C. water
62. The food and agricultural estimated in
D. none of above
2002 that is over plants
57. Which of these is an example of a physical A. 50, 000
property?
B. 10, 000
A. the fact that iron rusts
C. 1, 00, 000
B. the texture of a piece of chocolate
D. 1, 009
C. the effect of acid rain on automobiles
D. the fact that gasoline in a car engine 63. Peter and Paul were flying kites close to a
combusts light pole and suddenly the kite got stock
to the pole. This is a
58. To increase the EFFICIENCY of energy use,
A. Good thing to do
we could
B. Dangerous thing to do
A. Turn off lights when not in use
B. Keep the car running as you go into the C. Perfect thing to do
store D. none of above

64. By what time Babuji comes back from a B. It will attract ants and insects.
market?
C. It smells very bad.

A. 8
D. none of above
B. 9
C. 10 70. Where do many of the items that you buy
from the grocery store come from?
D. 11
A. farms
65. We can sleep and take a rest in the
B. Sam’s Club
A. Living room
C. grocery store
B. Bedroom
D. my pantry
C. Dining room
D. Bathroom 71. What is First Aid?
A. First Aid is the treatment given to a vic-
66. Home Science means
tim by a doctor in the hospital.
A. to understand the difference between
men and women B. First Aid is the treatment given to a girl
or boy in a hospital.
B. how to run a house alone
C. First Aid is the treatment given to a vic-
C. the art of managing your resources tim before taking them to the hospital.
D. none of above
D. none of above
67. How can understanding how plates move
today help explain how plates moved in 72. is an example of a leafy vegetable.
the past? A. carrot
A. Plates are still moving now just like in B. lettuce
the past
C. parsnip
B. It does not help to know how plates
move today D. tomato
C. Plates move around quickly 73. NAME A FRUIT THAT CAN BE USED AS DRY
D. none of above FRUIT WHEN IT’S DRY?
A. GRAPES
68. Select the danger that is NOT presented by
a storm surge. B. MANGO
A. The approach the shore rapidly. C. GUAVA
B. The are no higher than high tides. D. PEAR
C. They can pull people out to sea.
74. Corn is an example of edible
D. The can be higher than your head.
A. Root
69. Why should strong acids and alkalies be
B. Seed
avoided?
C. Flower
A. Because it harms the surface that is
being cleaned. D. none of above

75. What are the ways in which we can grow 80. Scientists who study weather and try to
medicinal plants at home? predict it are called?
A. Preparing and potting your herb gar- A. astronomers
den B. climatologists
B. Caring for your herb garden C. meteorologists
C. Both of these D. weatherologists
D. None of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
81. Factors that affect the cooking time of
pulses -
76. From where were Arvind uncle and his
family coming from? A. colour of the pulse
B. inherent quality of the pulse
A. Saudi-Arabia
C. shape of the pulse
B. Mount-Abu
D. area of production
C. Abu-Dhabi
D. Junagadh 82. A vegetable seller starts his day in the
A. Morning
77. Something that is perishable B. Afternoon
A. lasts a long time C. Evening
B. has a long shelf life D. Night
C. spoils quickly 83. Why babuji try to sell the previous days
D. spoils after a week vegetable first?
A. They will increase in number.
78. You are going to build an electromagnet for
a lab investigation. Which of the following B. They are costly.
lab supplies do you need to build the elec- C. They will spoil first.
tromagnet? D. None of these
A. compass, iron bar, batteries and
holder 84. In which weather vegetables dry quickly?
A. Winter
B. insulated wire, batteries and holder,
iron bar B. Summer
C. batteries and holder, iron bar, insu- C. Spring
lated wire D. Autumn
D. none of above 85. Leaving lights on in vacant rooms, wash-
ing clothes in hot water, and driving alone
79. is a heavy vegetable.
are examples of what?
A. Spinach A. low energy efficiency
B. Tomato B. no energy efficiency
C. Beans C. high energy efficiency
D. Pumpkin D. none of above

86. When an iron nail wrapped in a copper 92. Identify the incorrect statement
wire is attached to a circuit, it forms
A. Home science education enables a per-

A. a battery son to take the right decision and make
B. an insulator constructive use of one’s knowledge and
skills.
C. an engine
D. an electromagnet B. Home Science education merely en-
ables a person to cook, stich, maintain
87. Entertainment is a way of building household expense records in a better
good among people. way
A. Class C. Home science education enables a per-
B. Health son to understand and respect, social, reli-
C. Relationship. gious and cultural values of family and so-
ciety.
D. Health.
D. Home science education enables a per-
88. Name two medicinal plants which we can son to become aware consumer and a re-
grow at home . sponsible citizen.
A. Neem, plarsley
93. a circuit that has only one path that elec-
B. Tamato, onion
tricity can follow
C. Rose, lotus
A. insulator
D. Brinjal
B. series circuit
89. Who do Polar Bears rely on?
C. resistance
A. Polar Bears rely on food.
D. parallel circuit
B. Polar Bears rely on other living and
nonliving things around them to survive.
94. Why is a storm surge dangerous?
C. Polar Bears rely on water around them
to survive. A. it approaches shore slowly
D. Polar Bears rely on their own. B. the surge moves quickly and is very
strong
90. The ozone layer
C. it pulls water back out to sea
A. is green and purple
B. absorbs dangerous solar radiation D. it is usually lower than high tide
C. smells like sulphur 95. Which event allowed for greater diversity
D. is made of carbon dioxide of life during the Paleozoic era?
91. A has no visible shape and fills its con- A. Reptiles became more diverse.
tainer. B. Many marine animals went extinct.
A. solid
C. Animals moved from the sea to the
B. liquid land.
C. gas D. Photosynthetic prokaryotes produced
D. none of above more oxygen.

96. Two charged objects attract each other. 102. Which statement is TRUE about an elec-
Which statement is true? tromagnet?
A. neither is positive A. It is a permanent magnet.
B. they have the same charge B. Increasing the number of coils de-
creases its strength
C. neither is negative
C. It cannot be turned off.
D. they have opposite charges
D. It is made by wrapping current-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
97. What might scientists want to find out carrying wire around an iron core.
about the foods they study?
103. A vegetable seller ends his day in
A. What color they are.
A. Afternoon
B. How to make safer products.
B. Night
C. How to make more people like them.
C. Evening
D. How to deliver them faster.
D. None of these
98. Which of the following is the correct use 104. Isobars are lines on a map joining places
of the thimble? that have the same
A. Cutting out patterns A. wind speed.
B. Holding materials together B. temperature.
C. Keeping needles and pins C. humidity.
D. Protecting the finger D. air pressure.
99. Fermentation is when we add 105. Mistakes in making copies of a cell’s chro-
mosomes can occur as the cell is dividing.
A. sugar to food
Such mistakes can affect a single gene, or
B. salt to food a portion of a chromosome. Which term
C. microorganisms to food describes this process?
D. none of above A. allele
B. heredity
100. Some ways to eat vegetables are:
C. mutation
A. in a salad
D. generation
B. as a snack
106. A single beach would have each day.
C. in a soup
A. one high tide and one low tide
D. all of the above
B. one high tide and two low tides
101. AT WHAT TIME THEY START WORKING? C. two high tides and one low tide
A. 3 O’ CLOCK D. two high tides and two low tides
B. 4 O’ CLOCK
107. What vegetable is considered to be a
C. 5 O’ CLOCK stem?
D. 6 O’CLOCK A. celery

B. squash 113. Knowledge related to fibers and their

C. grapes properties, various finishes, etc.

D. cucumber A. Food and Nutrition
B. Human development
108. FROM WHERE DO WE GET FRESH VEG-
ETABLE? C. Resource Management
A. MANDI D. Clothing and Textiles
B. RAILWAY STATION 114. When did the dinosaurs become extinct?

C. BUS STOP A. at the end of the Mesozoic era
D. MARKET B. at the end of the Paleozoic era
109. Carpooling, weather stripping, and turn- C. at the start of the Mesozoic era
ing off lights are examples of what? D. at the start of the Paleozoic era
A. natural disaster activities
115. Combination of food means
B. energy draining activities
A. eating different varieties of food
C. energy conserving activities
B. mixing food and water
D. none of above
C. combining foods which have different
110. What is Home science? nutrients .
A. Science applied to home D. eating one nutrient only
B. Economical management of family re- 116. Complete the sequence 0, 1, 2, , 4.

sources
A. 1
C. Ensuring maximum satisfaction of all
B. 5
family members
C. 3
D. All of the above
D. 2
111. What do we call a house made of cloth?
117. What is a property of matter that causes
A. Tent
objects to attract or repel each other?
B. Caravan
A. compass
C. Houseboat
B. electric charge
D. Igloo
C. electric circuit
112. What’s found on Titan (and Earth) that is D. electric field
not usually found in the rest of the solar
system? 118. One precaution while baking is
A. lava and rocks A. Oven gets hot and we could get hurt.
B. lakes and seas B. Hot oil can fall on us
C. lazy seals C. Hot water can fall on us.

119. Where can the farmer go to sell his extra 125. When buying sewing tools buy tools
produce? and equipments
A. grocery store A. Greasy
B. market B. Rust proof
C. Sam’s Club
C. Water proof
D. none of above
D. Shiny proof
120. An idea that has a lot of evidence that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
many scientists have gathered over a long 126. Broccoli and cauliflower are in this classi-
time. fication of vegetables.
A. destination imagination A. leaf
B. scientific theory B. flower
C. fossil research
C. stem
D. none of above
D. seed
121. What is a house made of ice called?
A. Villa 127. Human ecology and family science deals
with the human being as member of
B. Flat
their families and the society with the en-
C. Igloo vironment.
D. Hut A. Differentiation
122. It is the study of distribution, conserva- B. Interaction
tion, use, etc. of the water of the Earth
and its atmosphere. C. Seperation
A. hydrology D. Non of the above
B. hydrography
128. Earth’s outer layer is broken up into
C. gepgraphy
A. Bowls
D. none of above
B. Continents
123. A female who entertains is called
C. Rocks
A. Host
D. Plates
B. Hostess
C. Waitress 129. How are cooper wire and aluminum foil
D. Guest alike?
124. A clean environment is required for A. Negative charges can move through
life them easily.
A. dirty B. They are both silver-colored metals
B. bad C. They are both used to insulate wires.
C. healthy D. Negative charges can’t move through
D. none of above them

130. There are 2 types of vegetables: and B. center

C. penumbra

A. root and flower
D. annula
B. flower and tree
C. plant and leaves 136. When the switch in a series circuit is
opened, what happens to the light bulb
D. root and leafy that the electricity is flowing to?
131. is a house on wheels. A. the light cracks
A. House boat B. the light burns out
B. Tent C. the light goes off
C. Igloo D. the light comes on
D. Wheel caravan
137. If the ozone layer were to be completely
132. Hydrogen gas (H2) can be found in trace destroyed life on Earth would
amounts in Earth’s atmosphere. Which
A. grow larger
of these statements describes a physical
property of hydrogen? B. get smaller
A. Hydrogen is found in acids. C. die from too much solar radiation
B. Hydrogen gas is highly flammable. D. stay the same
C. Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form
water. 138. Which of these is not an area of special-
ization inHome Science?
D. Hydrogen gas is less dense than oxy-
gen gas. A. Food and Nutrition
B. Healthcare
133. IN WHICH WEATHER VEGETABLES DRY
QUICKLY? C. Human resource development
A. WINTER D. Fabric and Apparel Science
B. SUMMER
139. an object that allows electricity to flow
C. SPRING
A. conductor
D. AUTUMN
B. insulator
134. Vegetables that includes spinach, and let-
C. resistance
tuce.
D. electromagnet
A. stem
B. flower 140. Which of the following food is not com-
C. leaf monly grown in Nigeria?
D. pome A. Yam
B. Potatoes
135. Which part of an eclipse causes “black-
out”? C. Oats
A. umbra D. Soyabeans

141. The language used in Abu-Dhabi is 147. What is the main criterion that scientists
use to decide where to place the bound-
A. Aradic
aries between the major divisions of the
B. Abraric geologic time scale?
C. Arabic A. major changes in the structure of
D. Acric Earth’s layers
B. major changes that occur in the solar
142. Where do food scientists work? system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. They work at school. C. major changes that are recorded in the
B. They work in restaurants. fossil record
C. They work from home. D. major changes in the arrangement of

the continents
D. They work in labs and out in the field.
148. What food can make your brain strong?
143. What is an example of an underwater
plant shown in the video? A. carrots
A. Phytoplankton B. tomatoes
B. Photosynthesis C. cake
C. System D. walnuts
D. Kelp 149. Which was the first collage imparting

Home Science education at college level
144. which layers contains the ozone layer?
A. Lady Irvin college
A. Troposphere
B. Institute of Home economics
B. Stratosphere
C. Pantnagar Home science college
C. Mesosphere
D. Lady Shriram College
D. Thermosphere
150. Is fine dry loose particle blown about
145. Toddler is a child between the age: by air,
A. 6 A. Dirt
B. 1-2 B. Dust
C. 4-5 C. Matter
D. 2-3 D. Waste
146. Meteor showers occur in the 151. An example of combination of food is

A. troposhphere A. banana
B. mesosphere B. khichdi
C. stratosphere C. orange juice
D. exosphere D. cucumber

152. In which of the following meal services 157. WHICH VEETABLE IS USED AS A SPICE?
do the guests help themselves to the A. BRINJAL
food:

B. LADY FINGER
A. Tray service.
C. GINGER
B. Buffet service.
D. POTATO
C. Plate service.
158. Why do farmers sometimes need to go to
D. Formal service.
the grocery store?
153. Africa and South America are moving far- A. They get hungry.
ther apart because
B. The are bored and need to leave the
A. they are on plates that are converging farm.
C. To buy the things that don’t grow.
B. they are on plates that are moving D. none of above
sideways to each other
C. they are on plates that are diverging 159. What can you do once a week instead of
cooking to conserve energy?
D. they are not actually moving at all
A. Have a sandwich night with your family
154. They cannot open windows because of
B. Use gas and electricity to cook
A. rain C. Order a pizza
B. cold breeze D. Decide what you want to eat with the
C. heat fridge door open for 5 minutes
D. None of these 160. What will happen if you use a hard scrub-
ber on plastics?
155. What is a food web?
A. The plastic will break.
A. A food web is a big, tangled systems
that include every plant and animal in a B. The plastic will get scratches.
habitat. C. The plastic will melt.
B. A food web is an online website where D. The plastic will become dirty.
you get food for Polar Bears and other an-
imals. 161. Fried food is in calories as compared
to food cooked by other methods.
C. A food web is a type of computer that
is made of food. A. low
B. high
D. A food web is a solution to an animals
diet. C. same
D. none of above
156. Oil is obtained from which part of its
plant? 162. How often or fast something happens.
A. Leaves A. Rate
B. Seed B. Rifting
C. Stem C. System
D. Root D. Trench

163. In sewing, choose Of the same colour 169. Controls are what we
and texture of your fabric A. keep the same
A. Clothes B. change
B. Needles C. measure
C. Threads D. none of above
D. Machines 170. What is the greatest amount of dam-
age that can be expected from a nine-foot
NARAYAN CHANGDER
164. i) Separation anxiety starts at the age of
storm surge?
A. 6 months
A. water rising to the roof of a small
B. 2 years house
C. 1 year B. water covering the roof of a house
D. 18 months C. water approaching shore rapidly
165. Which medicinal plant is useful in inhibit- D. water on the lower levels of a house
ing the growth of germs, bacteria and mi- 171. Two siblings may be of different nature
crobes and may exhibit varied personalities. It is
A. Tomato due to:
B. Turmeric A. stranger anxiety
C. Beans B. object permanence
D. Mint C. individual difference
D. none of these
166. A house made of wood, stones, and
straw is a 172. houses can be moved from one place
A. hut to another.
A. Permanent
B. flat
B. Temporary
C. bangalow
C. Special
D. none of above
D. None of these
167. Moving toward the same place.
173. Food enrichment means
A. Convergent
A. how we can make delicious food
B. Divergent
B. how we can make food rich
C. Plate Boundary C. how we can increase the nutritive
D. Plate value of food
168. What can an electromagnet do that a per- D. none of above
manent magnet can’t do? 174. Who helps in sorting the vegetables?
A. pick up paper clips A. Amma
B. turn on and off B. Chhotu
C. produce a magnetic field C. Babuji
D. make electricity D. Everybody

175. Which of these is not the area of Home 181. A long, deep indentation in the ocean
Science. floor formed when two plates move to-
gether.

A. Human development and Childhood
studies A. Plate Boundary
B. Trignomatry B. Mid-Ocean Ridge
C. Fabric apparel and science C. Trench
D. Foods and Nutrition D. Cross-Section
176. How can you dry your clothes to save en- 182. The runners shoes are the
ergy? A. control
A. Use the dryer machine B. variable
B. Don’t dry your clothes C. testable question
C. Leave the fridge door open D. none of above
D. Hang the clothes to dry outside on a 183. Vaishali reaches school by
line
A. 7:30 a.m
177. What is considered to be a plant seed? B. 8:30 a.m
A. peanuts C. 9:30 a.m
B. rocks D. 10:30 a.m
C. legos 184. Which of the following is used as an anti-
D. green beans cancer?
178. Vaishali’s family gets only hours to A. Aloe Vera
sleep B. Tulsi
A. one C. Brinjal
B. eight D. Lady fingers
C. ten 185. A smoke alarm can tell if there is in
D. four the air.
A. dust
179. An example of food cooked by fermenta-
tion is B. smoke
A. dosa C. a bug
B. milk shake D. pollution
C. dal 186. The annual Global export value of the
D. rice thousand types of the plant with sus-
pected medicinal properties with esti-
180. What should you use to stir hot foods? mates to be USD in 2012 to 2017
A. wooden spoon A. 9.1$
B. shoe B. 3.4$
C. makeup brush C. 2.2$
D. none of above D. 4.9$

187. What substance on Titan will we focus on 192. Germination of pulses is a method to
during this Unit?
A. improve the nutritive content
A. water
B. reduce the cooking time
B. hydrogen dioxide
C. reduce anti-nutritional factors
C. methane
D. all the above
D. none of above
188. If the residue of a burnt fibre is a hard 193. During a spring tide, the sun and the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bead, which fibre would it be? moon are aligned. Which statement be-
low best describes the tidal range during
A. Cotton
a spring tide?
B. Silk
A. During spring tide, the lowest low tide
C. Polyester and the lowest high tide will occur.
D. Denim
B. During spring tide, the largest tidal
189. The name of the gaseous envelope range will occur.
around the Earth C. During spring tide, the highest low tide
A. atmosphere and the lowest high tide will occur.
B. hydrosphere D. During spring tide, the smallest tidal
C. biosphere range will occur.
D. none of above
194. FROM WHERE DOES THE FAMILY GET
190. Due to sun damage, a skin cell acquired a FRESH VEGETABLES?
mutation in DNA sequence in a gene essen- A. MANDI
tial for cell survival. This mutation, how-
ever, was not passed on to the offspring B. RAILWAY STATION
of the organism. Which explanation best C. BUS STOP
accounts for this observation?
D. MARKET
A. Only mutations in reproductive cells
can be passed from parents to offspring. 195. Moving apart in different directions
A. Convergent
B. The mutation was not harmful to the
organism. B. Divergent
C. The offspring received genes from C. Plate Boundary
both parents.
D. Plate
D. The skin cell died before passing the
mutation on. 196. Cooking makes food soft and tender so it
becomes easy to
191. It is the scientific study of animals.
A. eat
A. ecology
B. biology B. look at
C. zoology C. smell
D. none of above D. digest

197. We must sweep the floors of our house 203. When the vegetables are spoilt they give
A. Bad smell

A. house B. taste good
B. fish C. Both 1 and 2
C. daily D. None of these
D. i don’t know 204. During which war did the United States
198. Which of the following food not obtained take control of Guantanamo Bay?
from plants? A. The Spanish-American War
A. Carrot B. World War 1
B. Mango C. The Civil War
C. Moong Dal D. The War of Cuba and America
D. Butter 205. One precaution that you need to take
while boiling food is
199. is dust that had become firmly held by
A. Cover the raw food item with a lid
moisture, grease or rough surfaces.
B. Do not boil food for too long as some
A. Bacteria.
nutrients may get destroyed.
B. Cobwebs.
C. Both the above
C. Dirt. D. none of above
D. Microbe.
206. pre schools must have teaching ap-
200. WHY BABUJI TRY TO SELL THE PREVI- proach
OUS DAYS VEGETABLE FIRST? A. high difficulty level
A. THEY WILL INCREASE IN NUMBER. B. child centered approach
B. THEY ARE COSTLY. C. classroom discipleine
C. THEY WILL SPOIL FIRST. D. none of above
D. NONE OF THESE 207. When food is cooked using hot air, the
201. the buildup of charges on an object method of cooking is by using
A. moist heat
A. static electricity
B. frying
B. series circuit
C. dry heat
C. conductor
D. none of above
D. insulator
208. It is an instrument that measures air pres-
202. how many times do we test each sur- sures and shows when the weather is
face? changing.
A. 1 A. thermometer
B. 2 B. barometer
C. 3 C. chronometer

209. What do we use for shallow frying? 215. Which of the following is a leafy veg-
etable?
A. A Pan
A. Potato
B. A kadhai
B. Spinach
C. A pressure cooker
C. Pumpkin
D. An oven
D. Bitter guard
210. Is used for stitching /sewing fabric I
NARAYAN CHANGDER
216. Which phrase describes the changes that
A. Needles
take place when a gas condenses?
B. Embroidery scissors
A. loss of energy and increased freedom
C. Threads of particle motion
D. Ironing board B. gain of energy and increased freedom
of particle motion
211. What is the (near) synonym of the word
C. loss of energy and decreased freedom
“typical”?
of particle motion
A. contain
D. gain of energy and decreased freedom
B. average of particle motion
C. conduct
217. is an edible stem.
D. none of above
A. Carrot
212. The vegetable that grows inside the B. Potato
earth is
C. Turnip
A. Potato
D. none of above
B. Tomato
218. To save energy, what should you do
C. Cauliflower
when you leave a room?
D. Bottle gourd
A. USE ELECTRICAL ENERGY
213. The main gas for breathe is B. SHUT OFF THE LIGHTS AND TELEVI-
SION
A. nitrogen
C. TURN ON THE LIGHTS AND TELEVI-
B. oxygen
SION
C. argon
D. HANG YOUR CLOTHES OUTSIDE
D. hydrogen
219. Which of these is a chemical property of
214. An air mass has similar a sheet of paper?
A. temperature and moisture A. The paper can be burned.
B. cold and wind B. The paper can be crumpled.
C. rain and temperature C. The paper does not attract a magnet.
D. warm and dry D. The paper does not conduct electricity.

220. William is sliding down a plastic slide 225. houses are made in areas which get
on a playground. After he slides down flooded.
the ground, he feels a small electric shock

A. Stilt
when he touches a piece of metal. What
has been built up on his body that causes B. Flat
the shock? C. Wheel caravan
A. atoms D. None of these.
B. neutrons
226. Another way to save energy is to
C. electrons
A. Conserve it
D. protons
B. Waste it
221. When we play on the swing with friends C. Use it
we must always wait for our turns be-
D. none of above
cause it is the right thing to do.
A. Not at all 227. Both seeds and leaves of this plant is ed-
B. False ible. Which plant is this?
C. True A. potato
D. none of above B. cabbage
C. lemon
222. Which area of home science helps to un-
derstand the needs of each stage of life D. mustard
and cope with the problem?
228. Aravind uncle gave Zeel a
A. Human Development and Childhood
A. planet
Studies
B. globe
B. Resource management and design ap-
plications C. Sand
C. Fabric apparel and science D. None of these
D. Community development and exten- 229. What happens to a region’s sea level
sion when a storm approaches?
223. A person who sells vegetables is called A. Sea level decreases.
B. Sea level increases.
A. Mason C. Sea level remains the same.
B. Carpenter
D. Sea level is unpredictable.
C. Grocer
230. In what year did the United States first
D. Vegetable seller
seize Guantanamo Bay and establish a
224. As a child i must naval base there?
A. Stay away from my toys A. 1868
B. Stay away from my breakfast B. 1898
C. Stay away from sources of danger C. 1908
D. none of above D. 1968

231. Who is hurrying home from her friend’s 237. Which of these is a likely result of a ben-
house? eficial mutation?
A. Sandeep A. The changes to a gene are neutral.
B. Sanjay B. An organism is able to better with-
stand a toxin.
C. Pratibha
C. An organism is less likely to survive
D. none of above and reproduce.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
232. Which gas creates green house effect in D. The new shape of a protein is different
the atmosphere? and affects its function.
A. Carbon dioxide 238. Which gases makes the bulk of atmo-
B. Ozone sphere?
C. Oxygen A. Nitrogen
D. None of these B. Oxygen

C. Both A & B
233. Your brothers and sisters are your
D. None of these
A. Siblings.
239. An example of cooking with hot air is
B. Relations.
A. boiling
C. Aunties.
B. baking
D. Nieces.
C. deep frying
234. A holds its shape and does not take D. shallow frying
the shape of its container.
240. Home Science means
A. solid
A. Learning to built interpersonal commu-
B. liquid nication
C. gas B. The art of managing your resources
D. none of above C. Developing skills to start an enterprise
235. Who lives in igloos
D. All of the above
A. Chinese
241. is an edible root.
B. Americans
A. Carrot
C. Eskimos
B. Potato
D. none of above
C. Corn
236. is a seedless vegetable. D. none of above
A. Pumpkin
242. A diagram that shows what the inside of
B. Lady finger something looks like
C. Beans A. Cross Section
D. Cabbage B. Model

C. Fossil 248. Which is a characteristic of most electrical

D. System conductors?
A. Positive charges move easily through

243. The money used in Abu-Dhabi is called as them
B. They can be cut easily
A. Dhiram C. They are soft and flexible
B. Dirham D. Negative charges move easily though
C. Dirhum them
D. None of these 249. What is the meaning of the word part
“chrono”?
244. Nutritionist is a further specialization in
which area of Home Science? A. measure
B. time
A. Food and Nutrition
C. life
B. Apparel Science and Fabric
D. none of above
C. Resource Management
250. What is the (near) synonym of the world
D. Communication and Extension
“circuit”?
245. Which of the following is the best way to A. circuit
investigate static electricity? B. components
A. Fill a balloon with air and hold it near C. corrode
a magnet
D. none of above
B. Rub one small balloon and one large
balloon together 251. is a vegetable with rough skin.
C. Fill one balloon with helium and one A. Bitter gourd

with air B. Cucumber
D. Rub a balloon on a shirt and place it C. Brinjal
near a wall D. Capsicum
246. Which of the following vegetable is 252. Home Science deals with aspects of
smooth in touch? home and Family management.
A. Potato A. Communication and Extension
B. Brinjal B. Human Development
C. Tomato C. Clothing and Textiles
D. All of the above
D. Raddish
253. Receiving friends in the home and giving
247. Name two categories of herbal plants them foods, drinks, etc., Is called
A. External, internal A. Encouragement
B. Complexity, non uniformity B. Advancement
C. Cultivation, rarity C. Entertainment
D. Bio resources, de bio resources D. Enjoyment

254. When food is cooked using boiling water, C. Food and nutrition
the method of cooking is cooking by
D. Fabric apparel and science
A. moist heat
B. dry heat 260. What is the (near) synonym of the word
“substance”?
C. frying
D. none of above A. investigation
B. material
255. How is the climate at Guantanamo Bay
NARAYAN CHANGDER
classified? C. substitute
A. Oceanic climate D. none of above
B. Semi-arid climate
261. How many square miles of land are cov-
C. Temperate climate
ered by Guantanamo Bay?
D. Marine climate
A. 12 square miles
256. During which moon phase would you ex-
B. 45 square miles
pect the tides to be the highest?
A. full moon C. 63 square miles
B. waning crescent D. 96 square miles
C. waxing crescent
262. What did Dhodhu want to do?
D. first quarter moon
A. Go to city
257. WHICH FRUIT HAS A CROWN
B. Open a hotel
A. PINEAPPLE
C. Open up a Chakki
B. APPLE
C. MANGO D. none of above
D. POMEGRANATE 263. Best substitute care for a six month old

258. Are all plant parts edible? is a
A. no A. day school
B. yes B. creche
C. depends upon the plant C. pre-school
D. only if they are cooked D. primary school
259. Which area of Home science help you un-
derstand the important issues like, wa- 264. Which material best conducts heat and
ter safety, hygiene and sanitation of local electricity?
area. A. metal
A. Resource management and design ap- B. rubber
plication
C. plastic
B. Community Development and Exten-
sion D. wood

265. Why does the moon have such a great in- 270. What happens when two air masses
fluence on the tides? meet?

A. The moon is larger than the sun. A. a hurricane occurs
B. The tides change during the evening B. a dog barks
hours. C. a front is created
C. The sun has a greater influence on the D. warm air enters
tides than the moon.
271. NAME A FRUIT WHICH SPOIL EASILY?
D. The moon is closer to Earth than the
A. APPLE
sun.
B. CHIKOO
266. When vegetables are fresh it looks ? C. MANGO
A. green D. PEAR
B. stale
272. What is a habitat?
C. dry A. The area where something lives.
D. none of these B. The area where something eats.
267. Earth’s current atmosphere is C. The area where something talks.
A. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% ar- D. The area where something drinks.
gon and 0.037% carbon dioxide 273. It is an instrument for measuring temper-
B. 78% oxygen, 21%nitrogen, 0.9% argon, ature, usually consisting of a narrow glass
0.037% carbon dioxide tube containing a thin column of a liquid
which rises and falls as the temperature
C. 78% nitrogen, 21% argon, 1% oxygen rises and falls.
D. 78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen, 1% carbon A. barometer
dioxide
B. chronometer
268. One advantage of fried food is that it is C. thermometer
very D. none of above
A. brown
274. an object that does not conduct electric-
B. tasty ity
C. healthy A. conductor
D. none of above B. resistance
C. insulator
269. Knowledge related to nutrients, diseases
caused by their deficiency or excess, ther- D. electromagnet
apeutic nutrition etc. 275. The two types of frying are
A. Food and Nutrition A. Shallow frying and Deep frying
B. Human development B. Boiling and frying
C. Resource Management C. Baking and frying
D. Clothing and Textiles D. none of above

276. Knowledge related to physical, mental, C. Peach, mango, grapes

social and emotional development during D. Butter, rice, cake
different stages of life.
A. Food and Nutrition 282. Do not take on your own. Always
ask your
B. Human development
A. books, strangers
C. Resource Management
B. medicines, elders
D. Clothing and Textiles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. chairs, teachers
277. When food is cooked using hot oil or ghee, D. flowers, friends
the method of cooking is by
A. moist heat 283. How does Babuji, Bhaiya, Chachu (un-
cle) and some others from Vaishali’s street
B. dry heat
reach mandi?
C. frying
A. Bus
D. none of above
B. Car
278. How much oxygen is in the air? (%) C. Tempo
A. 25% D. Truck
B. 21%
284. Who went to the supermarket?
C. 68%
A. Ox Cart man
D. 50%
B. Farmer MacDonald
279. What makes a habitat a home? C. The ox
A. What makes a habitat a home is where D. Mr. Krogers
you have food, water, shelter and space.
285. What is the correct benifit of garlic
B. What makes a habitat a home is where
you have plants and water. A. Adis sleep
C. What makes a habitat a home is where B. Reduces inflammation
you have a grocery store. C. Helps prevent heart diesease
D. What makes a habitat a home is where D. Strengthens eyes
you have a place for toys.
286. Which energy transfer takes place when
280. Is not a sewing tool? water freezes to form ice crystals in the
A. Wheel barrow atmosphere?
B. Thimbles A. Energy is transferred from the air into
C. Needles the water.
D. Embroidery scissors B. Energy is transferred from the water

into the air.
281. Which of the following foods comes from C. Energy is transferred from the water
plants: into the ground.
A. Bread, chicken, apple D. Energy is transferred from warmer ice
B. Watermelon, pizza, yogurt crystals to colder ones.

287. What is the (near) antonym of the word A. fourth hour

“digital”?
B. third hour

A. future
C. first hour
B. analogue
D. sixth hour
C. remote
D. none of above 293. What is the (near) antonym of the word
“forgotten”?
288. The predicted tidal range along an East
Coast shoreline is 6 feet. How much A. found
should a fisherman expect the tide to rise B. future
during the first hour?
C. commemorated
A. 0.8 feet
D. none of above
B. 1 foot
C. 2 feet 294. What looks different in other habitats?
D. 0.5 feet A. Ecosystems and food webs
289. What can we do during the day when it B. Food webs and water
is bright to conserve energy at home or C. Food webs and fish
school?
D. Ecosystems and water
A. Turn on the lights
B. Use a lantern 295. Which of the plant have two or more ed-
C. Open the curtains or shades and let in ible parts?
sunlight A. Banana
D. Stay inside and watch TV B. Apple
290. Where we live. C. Lady Finger
A. stratosphere D. Brinjal
B. thermosphere
296. We can take a bath in the
C. troposphere
A. Basement
D. mesosphere
B. Laundry room
291. What is responsible for the movement of
tectonic plates? C. Living room
A. Oceans D. Bathroom
B. Gravity
297. Fill in the Blanks : O, , Q.
C. Mantle
A. L
D. Wind
B. S
292. The predicted tidal range along a Califor-
C. T
nia coastline is 12 feet. After which hour
will the tide be the highest? D. P

298. Name the disease caused by deficiency of C. nutrients

iron in diet. D. none of above
A. Scurvy
304. What is a Polar Bear’s habitat?
B. Beri Beri
A. A Polar Bear’s habitat is in the Arctic.
C. Anaemia
B. A Polar Bear’s habitat is in the forest.
D. Goiter C. A Polar Bear’s habitat is in the grass-
299. While going to the music room for music lands.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
class, we should D. A Polar Bear’s habitat is in the desert.
A. run to reach first. 305. What is the (near) antonym of the word
B. walk in a line. “accidental”?
C. push each other and walk. A. commemorated
D. slide on the railing to climb down the B. future
stairs. C. deliberate
300. What is the (near) antonym of the word D. none of above
“remote”? 306. WHICH VEGETABLE HAS A CROWN
A. far A. POTATO
B. analogue B. TOMATO
C. nearby C. ONION
D. none of above D. BRINJAL
301. Home Science was first introduced in 307. What is frying?
A. Delhi A. Cooking food using hot water
B. Baroda B. Cooking food in hot air
C. Chennai C. Cooking food in hot oil or ghee
D. Chandigarh D. none of above
302. Which of these happened in Precambrian 308. The art of making, repairing or decorat-
time? ing things made of fabrics using needle and
thread is ?
A. The first mammals appeared.
A. Joining
B. Life began to evolve on Earth.
B. Sewing
C. A mass extinction wiped out most di-
nosaurs. C. Decorating
D. Life on Earth began to move from wa- D. Fashion

ter to land. 309. Elephant foot is an example of
303. If the water in which food is boiled is A. Fruit
thrown away, we lose B. Vegetable
A. taste C. Body part
B. smell D. Game

310. How many areas are there in home sci- 316. Which statement describes an example of
ence? a chemical property of a metal statue?

A. 4 A. It is solid.
B. 8 B. It is shiny.
C. 5 C. It is silver.
D. 3 D. It can tarnish.
311. What is food science? 317. Which vegetables has seeds?
A. eating food A. Carrot
B. applying scientific thinking to the way B. Potato
food is prepared C. cabbage
C. playing with food D. Ladys finger
D. Serving food
318. Which word means to go bad or rot?
312. Earths outer layer is made up of: A. spoil
A. Continents and Oceans B. edible
B. Mantle C. yukky
C. Hard, Solid Rock D. none of above
D. Water
319. A bacterium undergoes a mutation that
313. In which months does the vegetables usu- makes the bacterium resistant to an antibi-
ally come? otic. Which is not an accurate statement
A. Winter about the effect of this mutation?
B. Summer A. This mutation could be considered an

adaptation.
C. Rainy
B. A bacterium with this mutation would
D. Spring be less likely to successfully reproduce.
314. If one burned out bulb causes all of the C. The bacterium with this mutation
lights to fail in a circuit, what might you would have a greater chance of surviving
conclude? exposure to antibiotics.
A. It is a parallel circuit. D. A bacterium with this mutation would
B. More batteries are needed. be more likely to pass it on to offspring
than a bacterium without this mutation.
C. It is a series circuit.
D. A heavier wire is needed 320. Which of the following is safe to do in the
swimming pool?
315. Home science is integration of Sub- A. Swim alone in the swimming pool
jects.
B. Use swimming tubes, floaters or arm-
A. One bands
B. Two C. Run around the swimming pool
C. Four D. Push your friend into the swimming
D. Five pool

321. What did the farmer take home for his C. Vegetables should not be washed after
wife? cutting as it will lead to the loss of miner-
A. sewing needles als and vitamins.
B. honey D. none of above

C. flowers 327. What is the meaning of the word part
D. cooking pot “logy”.
322. Who took only one day to go to the mar- A. the earth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ket? B. drawing of
A. The ox cart man C. study of
B. Farmer MacDonald D. none of above
C. The Ox
328. Which of the following is not a specializa-
D. Barry the flower lady tion area in Home Science
323. Can you eat the leaves of a plant? A. Food Science
A. never B. Garment designing
B. only if they are purple C. Nursing
C. yes, in a salad D. Interior decoration
D. if they are cooked
329. The instrument used to measure temper-
324. Name the medicinal plants ature is called
A. Tulsi A. Barometer
B. Rose B. Thermometer
C. Lotus C. Hygrometer
D. Tamato
D. Anemometer
325. Which of the following is a heavy weight
330. a circuit that has two or more paths that
fruit?
electricity can follow
A. Tomato
A. conductor
B. Watermelon
B. parallel circuit
C. Apple
C. resistance
D. Grapes
D. series circuit
326. Why should the vegetables not be
washed after cutting? 331. When we cook spinach or ladyfinger, we
A. Vegetables should not be washed after should first it.
cutting as it will lead to the loss of carbo- A. wash
hydrates.
B. cut
B. Vegetables should not be washed after
cutting as it will lead to the loss of pro- C. eat
teins. D. digest

332. Table manners can best be taught to chil- C. Conduction

dren in the ——-room D. none of above

A. children’s
338. Which is the richest sources of vitamin?
B. dining
A. Amla
C. baby’s B. Lemon
D. daddy’s C. Blue berry
333. The study of countries of the world and D. Apple
of such things as the land, seas, climate, 339. Which was the vehicle through which
towns and population. Arvind’s family landed to Gujarat?
A. geology A. Train
B. geography B. Bus
C. ecology C. Aeroplane
D. none of above D. Helicopter
334. What do food scientists do? 340. The type of sewing machine that is com-
mon in dress makers shop is ?
A. perform careful experiments with food
A. Threadle machine
B. play with food B. Electric machine
C. Serve food to other people C. Hand operated
D. Eat lunch with their friends D. Bed machine
341. fruit can stay for some days.
335. Which part of plant do we eat?
A. Grapes
A. Leaves
B. Banana
B. Fruit
C. Mango
C. Root
D. Apple
D. All of these
342. What does the earth’s atmosphere do?
336. Vegetables such as green beans and A. help to regulate the temperature on
corn. Earth
A. flower B. Help UV rays to reach the Earth’s sur-
B. stem face
C. seeds C. Creates meteors in the sky
D. stalk D. Keep ocean waters cold
343. How much proteins is found in pulses?
337. Heat entering or leaving a home through
cracks around doors, windows, and walls A. 10-15%
is an example of B. 20-25%
A. Radiation C. 30-35%
B. Convection D. 40-45%

344. What do we call the animals raised on a C. Oral communication

farm? D. Card
A. produce
350. The tracing wheel is used to?
B. dinner
A. Measure length of fabric
C. livestock B. Transfer patterns to fabrics
D. none of above C. Tracing marks and patterns on fabric.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
345. Which of the following gases protect us D. For decorating new edges of fabrics
from the UV rays? 351. the measure of how much a material op-
A. Carbon-dioxide poses the flow of electricity
B. Nitrogen A. resistance
C. Ozone B. conductor
D. none of above C. insulator
D. electromagnet
346. What quality did Pilloo aunty impart to
children by paying the correct amount to 352. Where are the houses with sloping roofs
the kulfi-seller? usually found?
A. Honesty A. areas where it rains a lot
B. Greed B. hot areas
C. Friendship C. forests
353. What is a house boat?
347. What is a noticeably different form or
state of the same substance? A. a house built on a boat
A. potato B. a house built on a mountain
B. phase C. a house built on a roof

D. none of above
C. photo
D. none of above 354. Edible stem, root or leaves of a plant is
called
348. By 6.30 a.m. Babuji comes back from the A. Fruits
mandi with baskets and sacks full of
B. Vegetables
A. spoiled vegetables
C. Salads
B. raw vegetables
D. none of above
C. fresh vegetables
355. A vegetable seller, sprinkle on vegeta-
D. None of the above bles
349. Invitation for formal parties is best given A. soft drink
by B. sauce
A. Telephone C. water
B. Verbal communication D. perfume

1.22 Water Technology 605
356. All these are sewing equipments ex- B. Convergent

cept? C. Transform

A. Scissors D. none of above
B. Tracing wheel
361. What did Alfred Wegener, use as evi-
C. Hand towel dence for his hypothesis that the conti-
D. Thimble nents moved apart?
A. shape of continents and fossils
357. A flows and can take the shape of its
container. B. the direction of ocean currents
A. solid C. theory of gravity
B. liquid D. none of above
C. gas 362. Which of the following eminent women
D. none of above stalwarts of All India Conference estab-
lished the Lady Irwin College.
358. Which type of air mass is COLD and HU-
A. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
MID?
B. Sarojini Naidu
A. Maritime Polar
C. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
B. Maritime Tropical
D. All of the above
C. Continental Polar
D. Continental Tropical 363. What is the (near) synonym of the word
” include”?
359. The Mid-Ocean ridge is an underwater A. contain
mountain range formed from what type of
plate boundary? B. components
A. Divergent C. surround
B. Convergent D. none of above
C. Transform 364. What comes before letter : ” j ”
D. none of above A. k
360. An oceanic trench is caused by what kind B. i

of plate boundary? C. e
A. Divergent D. f
1.22 Water Technology

1. Coagulants help in the settling of 2. A loose collection of suspended solids in
A. suspended impurities only the inner surface of the boiler is called
B. fine suspended matter only A. scale and sludge
C. colloidal particles only B. sludge
D. both (B) and (C) C. scale

D. none of these 9. The total are removed completely in

the ion exchange pproces
3. How can scales in boiler be removed
A. Dissolved other impurities
A. mechanical stress
B. Dissolved gases
B. Iron scraper
C. Dissolved solvents
C. Thermal shock
D. Dissolved solids
D. electric shock
10. priming is dangerous and can lead to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4. Which of the following ion get released hammer
from the cation exchange column? A. steam
A. Ca+2 B. water
B. K+ C. gas
C. Na+ D. air
D. H+
11. deposits of calcium and magnesium carbon-
5. Dissolved carbon dioxide produces acid ates on the boiler heating surface cause
A. Sulphuric acid
A. scale
B. Hydrochloride
B. oxygen pitting
C. Carbonic acid
C. caustic embrittlement
D. none of above
D. carryover
6. boiler water having high alkalinity could
develop 12. Hardness in water is caused by the pres-
ence of:
A. acidic corrosion
A. Sodium chloride
B. oxygen pitting
B. Sodium carbonate
C. caustic embrittlement
C. Calcium chloride
D. warping
D. Potassium nitrate
7. In lime soda method the principle is —- 13. In ion-exchange process, the capital cost is
A. Convert soluble salt into insoluble pre- and the operational expenses are
cipitate A. High, low
B. substitute cations and anions of hard- B. High, high
ness producing salts
C. Low, low
C. replace cations by Na+
D. Low, high
14. scale buildup on the water side of a steam
8. In COD which titre value is higher boiler is caused by
A. back titre value A. an impure water supply
B. blank titre value B. scale in raw water
C. FAS titre value C. improper boiler water treatment
D. none of above D. none of the above

15. The water coming out from cation ex- B. SLUDGES

change resin will be
C. BOTH OF THESE

A. Basic
D. HOT WATER ONLY
B. Neutral
C. Acidic 21. The exhausted cation exchange column is
regenerated by passing a solution of
D. none of above
A. Conc. NaCl
16. Which of these do not cause scaling of the
B. Conc. HCl
membranes?
C. Dil. HCl
A. Organic and inorganic colloids
B. Calcium sulphate D. Dil. NaCl
C. Silica 22. Water softened by Deionisation process

D. Calcium carbonate has residual hardness as –
A. >50 ppm
17. Hard water is unfit for use in boilers for
“steam raising” because B. > 10 ppm
A. its boiling point is higher C. < 2 ppm
B. steam generated at a high pressure D. 100 ppm
C. it leads to scale formation inside the
boiler 23. The amount of pressure to be applied in
RO system is depends on
D. water undergoes decomposition in to
oxygen and hydrogen. A. Organic content
B. Salt concentration
18. Removal of dissolved oxygen we need to
add C. Bacteria
A. oxidising agent D. Membrane strenghth
B. reducing agent
24. When the impure water is passed through
C. Both of these cation exchange resin, cation of impure
D. none of above water gets exchanged with
A. OH- of anion
19. In RO, pressure that is greater than the
naturally occurring osmotic pressure is ap- B. OH- of Cation
plied in order to
C. H+ of anion
A. Mineralize water
D. H+ of cation
B. Desalinate water
C. Decompose water 25. Ion exchange process is also called as
D. Push bacteria across membrane A. ) Lime soda process

B. Zeolite process
20. Blow-down operation causes the removal
of C. Demineralization
A. SCALES D. Permutit’s process

26. Which reagent is added in COD to combine 32. Water is hard when it contains:
with the chloride ions A. Acid solution
A. Magnesium sulphate B. Precipitate in suspension
B. Mercuric sulphate C. Dissolved sodium salts
C. Lead sulphate D. Dissolved Ca and Mg salts
D. none of above
33. Scale formation in boilers causes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
27. In regeneration of cation exchange resin A. no loss of heat
—-is used
B. wastage of heat
A. HCl, H2SO4 etc
C. increase in efficiency
B. NaOH, KOH etc
C. NaCl, Na2SO4 etc
D. Alcohols 34. Ion-free water coming out from the ex-
changer is known as
28. Permanent hardness in water is caused by A. Demineralised water
the presence of:
B. Potable water
A. Calcium bicarbonate
C. Disinfected water
B. Magnesium sulfate
D. Coagulated water
C. Both of them
D. None of them 35. The role of silver sulphate in COD is
A. reducing agent
29. Resins after exhaustion can be regener-
ated by the addition of B. oxidising agent
A. Water C. catalyst
B. Cations D. none of above
C. HCl and NaOH solutions 36. Water treatment process (seawater de-
D. Anions salination) is opposite to natural osmosis
is
30. boiler water is treated to prevent A. Reverse Osmosis
A. scale B. Ultrafiltration
B. oxygen pitting C. Nanofiltration
C. caustic embrittlement D. Microfiltration
D. all of the above
37. What is the membrane that selectively
31. hardness is a measure of scale forming allows certain species to pass through
dissolved in water called?
A. minerals A. Permeable membrane
B. pollutants B. Semi-permeable membrane
C. gases C. Impermeable membrane
D. none of the above D. Membrane

1.23 Animal Science 609
38. When the impure water is passed through C. less boiler efficiency
anion exchange resin the anion of the im-
D. All of these
pure water gets exchanged with

A. H+ of anion 41. In when the water is heated then the
B. OH- of Cation soluble salts turns into insoluble ones and
removed by filtration.
C. OH- of anion
A. Temporary hardness
D. H+ of cation
B. Permanent hardness
39. Which of the following does not cause the
permanent hardness in water? C. Non-carbonate
A. Nitrates D. Non-alkaline
B. Sulphates 42. Min pressure to be applied to prevent the
C. Chlorides water flow through semipermeable mem-
D. Bicarbonates brane
A. Hydraulic pressure
40. Problems associated with scale and sludge
formation B. Reverse pressure
A. Loss of fuel C. Osmotic pressure
B. boiler explosion D. Membrane pressure
1.23 Animal Science

1. If a net worth statement shows that a slaughter, ensure their health and living
business has $5, 000 cash on hand $20, conditions, and make sure animals are han-
000 in a checking account and land valued dled safely.
at $600, 000 what amount is entered on A. wholesomeness
the total assets line of the net worth state-
ment? B. animal welfare
A. $25, 000 C. producers
B. $575, 000 D. flavor
C. $600, 000 4. A disease caused by ticks that causes a dis-

D. $625, 000 tinctive skin lesion and flu-like symptoms
is:
2. is a cat related to big cats A. toxoplasmosis
A. yes B. Lyme Disease
B. no C. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
C. mabye D. Psittacosis
D. none of above
5. Genetic Engeneering can be done to
3. Harvest operation inspectors are in- change
spectors that review animals prior to A. animals

B. microorganisms 11. A is a plant, fungus, or alga that is

C. plants grown and harvested for food, clothing,
livestock feed, biofuel, medicine, or other
D. all the above uses.
6. Which of the following animals is an omni- A. Fiber
vore?
A. Lizard B. Textile
B. Horse C. Crop
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Eagles D. Farm
D. Bear
12. Which type of breeding system uses supe-
7. Simple carbohydrates come from corn, rior males compared to females?
wheat, oats, rye, barley, and sorghum
which are: A. Commercial
A. amino acids B. Purebred
B. cereal grains C. Cross Breeding
C. legumes
D. Line-Breeding
D. supplements
8. This category of horses was initially used 13. Which of the following is a beef breed?
for transportation and light work. To-
A. Holstein
day they are used for pleasure riding and
shows. B. Brekshire
A. Light Horses C. Mini Rex
B. Ponies
D. Red Angus
C. Draft Horses.
D. none of above 14. Animals may change their natural eating
habits if there are changes around
9. When an animal gives off or eliminates
them.
chemicals from its body it is called
A. bioluminescence A. environmental
B. reproducing B. features
C. chemical production C. growth
D. excretion
D. none of above
10. Producers should strive to an animal’s
ability to grow, reproduce, and maintain 15. Which is considered good meat?
adequate health.
A. bull
A. maximize
B. steer and heifer
B. minimize
C. delay C. cow
D. none of above D. stag

16. Polar bears are classified carnivores be- 21. Product and process professionals cre-
cause they eat others animals only. They ate value-added products utilizing refriger-
live in polar region, which always cold and ated or frozen meat or meat-related prod-

covered in ice. They cannot find plant be- ucts for retail sale.
cause A. development
A. Plant cannot grow in polar region B. animal welfare
B. Plant have been eaten by polar bear C. inspectors
C. Plant is wilted and die D. control
D. none of above
22. When applying fertilizer how much should
you use?
17. subset of hydroculture, the method of
growing plants without soil, using mineral A. The entire bag
nutrient solutions in a water solvent. B. Follow the directions on the manufac-
A. agriculture turer’s label
B. aquaculture C. The more you use the faster the plants
will grow
C. entomology
D. Enough to fill the container
D. hydroponics
23. Tigers only eat buffalo, zebras and
18. When administering medicine to animals crocodiles. They are called
you should
A. Omnivores
A. Use proper restraining equipment
B. Carnivores
B. Use proper handling procedures C. Herbivores
C. Read medication labels D. none of above
D. All the Above
24. What was the name of the Congressional
19. Disbudding should be done when kids are Act of 1917 that started Agricultural Edu-
days old. cation, Home Economics and Industrial Ed-
ucation in the United States?
A. 6-9
A. Smith-Hughes Act
B. 3-5
B. Smith-Hucks Act
C. 1-2
C. Stimson-Hughes Act
D. 4-8
D. Stimson-Hucks Act
20. Animal Science includes all of the following, 25. An economic advantage for using exotic
except breeds of beef cattle is their:
A. Animal Breeder A. Fast growing calves
B. Non-Farm Animal Caretaker B. Lightweight calves
C. Veterinarian C. Large size calves
D. Transport Technician D. Production of twin calves

26. Newborn Swine 32. This involves careful inspection of ones

A. Piglet skills, talents and interests.
B. Kid A. awakening
C. Calf B. self-analysis
D. none of above C. intent
D. therapy
27. What education level is required to be a
vet?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. About one third of all employment requir-
A. Associates Degree (2 year) ing a BS in food and agriculture is in
B. Bachelors Degree (4 year) A. food processing
C. Bachelors Degree plus advanced de- B. animal production
gree & additional training C. education
D. High School Diploma D. marketing, sales and merchandising
28. Some veterinarians work for a state 34. Immature Female Swine
agency and administer programs to pre-
vent and control transmissible diseases A. Barrow
among animals through government B. Sow
A. inspection C. Gilt
B. breeding D. none of above
C. health/disease
35. measures of health that fall within pre-
D. veterinarians dictable routine ranges
29. What is the overall care for an animal? A. Health
A. Health B. Normal
B. Well being C. Pathogen
C. chore D. none of above
D. none of above 36. Which is the LARGEST animal rights
30. If an animal were deficient in minerals, group?
what feed would they need? A. PETA
A. Feed from the store B. ASPCA
B. Corn C. Disneyland
C. Salt/Mineral block D. Pet Owners of America
D. They would just eat dirt
37. What does the acronym P.A.S.S. stand
31. A is a female goat of any age. for?
A. Buck A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B. Kid B. Push, Arm, Squeeze, Sweep
C. Sow C. Pull, Aim. Sweep, Squeeze
D. Doe D. none of above

38. Always the gate when entering or 43. USDA meat graders inspect meat and
leaving the land lab or animal pens. grade it based on tenderness, juiciness,
and of meat.

A. Swing on
A. nutrition
B. Close and Latch
B. managers
C. Leave Open
C. producers
D. none of above
D. flavor
39. Intact male chicken
44. Which among following is a mammal?
A. Capon
A. Rohu
B. Rooster B. Turtle
C. Tom C. Monkey
D. Ram D. Sparrow
40. When examining a cat’s head injury, what 45. A group of animals is called a
is the BEST PRACTICE to prevent the cat
A. taxon
from scratching you and injuring itself
more? B. group
A. Lay the cat on its side and hold it down C. class
with both hands while looking at the injury D. combination
46. The consumer demands hogs today that

B. Wrap each paw of the animal with a are:
sterile bandage prior to doing the exam
A. Able to grow without being fed grain.
C. Wrap the cat in a blanket leaving only
the head and neck exposed B. Fat type hogs that produce lard for
cooking.
D. Hold the cat’s hind legs with one hand
C. Good for soap production.
while using the other hand to examine the
injury D. Lean type hogs for meat production.
41. What is the smallest level of life? 47. Which of the following are toxic gases re-
leased when agitating manure pit?
A. Cell
A. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
B. Biomolecules
B. Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
C. Tissue
C. Hydrogen Sulfide and Ammonia
D. Organ System
D. Hydrogen Sulfide and Oxygen
42. The Bengal Tiger is the most tiger. 48. an animal that lives in water its whole life
A. Dangerous A. fossil
B. Stripy B. fish
C. Common C. bird
D. Scary D. reptile

49. The poultry is divided into how many cat- 55. Which type of bone in the animal’s body
egories? provides support and is also cylindrical?
A. 2 A. short
B. 3 B. pneumatic
C. 4 C. flat
D. 5 D. long
NARAYAN CHANGDER
50. The first domesticated animal was? 56. Immature Female Cattle
A. Sheep A. Heifer
B. Cow
B. Cow
C. Gilt
C. Dog
D. none of above
D. Horse
57. What is the speed of a Horse
51. Which breed of dairy cattle is the most
popular, black & white, and has high milk A. 44 mph (Maximum, Sprint)
production? B. 55 mph (Maximum, Sprint)
A. Guernsey C. 66 mph (Maximum, Sprint)
B. Jersey D. 77 mph (Maximum, Sprint)
C. Brown Swiss 58. What what is an immature female of the
D. Holstein cattle breed called?
A. Hen
52. steadily going down in number
B. Filly
A. endangered
C. Heifer
B. alive
D. Gilt
C. threatened
59. If Mrs. Berlauk buys a candy bar and gives
D. extinct it to Mr. Pienaar who eats it, who is the
53. Major parts of the respirator system are consumer?
A. Mrs. Berlauk
A. Trachea, nasal cavity, and heart
B. Mr. Pienaar
B. Trachea, nasal cavity, and lungs
C. Both
C. Alveoli, heart, blood vessels
D. Neither
D. Lungs, Alveoli, and brain
60. birds that are bored or need a mate often
54. A castrated male horse is called what? resort to:
A. Heifer A. feather plucking
B. Bull B. flying in circles
C. Stallion C. singing a sad song
D. Gelding D. sleeping on one foot

61. Which body system is responsible for re- 66. Even if there is no actual discharge of
moval of waste from the body? waste, a $10, 000 per day penalty can be
charged if there is a man-made structure

A. Endocrine
to:
B. Muscular-skeletal
A. clean waste from buildings
C. Circulatory
B. house animals
D. Digestive
C. route waste away from a lagoon.
62. If a swine farm has total assets of $250,
000 and total liabilities of $150, 000, D. take waste to lagoons
which number is recorded on the net worth
67. In addition to the functions they perform in
line of a net worth statement?
livestock, which group of body parts sup-
A. 5 cents ply most of the food that humans eat from
B. $100, 000 livestock?
C. $150, 000 A. bones
D. $400, 000 B. internal organs
63. The federal (government) department re- C. muscles

sponsible for developing and executing D. nerves
federal laws related to farming, agricul-
ture, forestry, food, nutrition, and rural 68. Which of the following are cold-blooded
development is the animals that lay eggs and have scaly
skin?
A. USDA
A. invertebrate
B. FDA
C. School Food Program B. bird
D. CTE C. mammal
D. reptile
64. What chemical substance in the endocrine
system travels throughthe bloodstream? 69. Which essential nutrient makes up 70% of
A. glands an animal’s body?
B. cells A. Carbohydrates
C. hormones B. Water
D. lymph C. Protein
65. One area that should be considered when D. Minerals
doing a self-analysis before choosing an
occupation is the person’s ability which 70. to adapt the bahavior of animals to fit the
means: needs of humans is called?
A. health, strength, and stamina. A. Training
B. capacity to perform. B. Breeding
C. how others see a person. C. Domestication
D. things that hold a person’s attention. D. Culling

71. The process of changing form or shape 76. The original use of permanent identifica-
tion of livestock was to
A. Metamorphosis
B. Life Cycle A. Cull because of age
C. Pupa B. Show ownership
D. Adult C. Keep breeding records

D. Keep performance records
72. Horses are also known as what?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Bovine 77. Which class nutrients not only provides
material for the growth of bones, teeth
B. Porcine and tissue, but also regulates many of the
C. Equine vital chemical processes of the body?
D. Galine A. carbohydrates
73. What is the person that produces food, B. fats & oils
fiber, and other agricultural commodities C. minerals
by raising livestock or crops
D. proteins
A. Scientist
B. Farmer/Rancher 78. How long is the gestation period of
swine?
C. Animal Breeder
A. 9 months and 9 days
D. none of above
B. 6 months and 3 weeks
74. Yield grades are affected by C. 3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days
A. marbling D. 12 months, 2 weeks, 2 days
B. muscling and amount of fat
79. An example of an analytical Supervised
C. retail cuts Agricultural Experience is:
D. primal cuts
A. conducting a scientific experiment.
75. You can briefly restrain your golden re- B. making a marketing display.
triever by having the dog sit, placing one
C. painting a cattle trailer.
arm under its neck with the forearm hold-
ing the dog’s head, and at the same time, D. raising beef cattle.
using the other arm and hand to:
80. Jordan received a cat bite the first day he
A. grip the dog’s muzzle and force it down
as a vet assistant. What is the most prob-
to the chest of the animal.
able cause of the bite
B. pull the dog’s front feet close to its
A. cat was taking a nap
chest while lifting the dog from the floor.
B. cat had rabies
C. wrap around and pull the dog’s body
close to her body. C. a dog was heard in the next room
D. grip the dog’s muzzle and force it down D. the cat received improper handling
to the chest of the animal. due to Sandy’s inexperience

81. Addressing the presiding officer, receiving 86. What do you call an immature female
recognition to speak, stating the motion, swine?
the chair securing a second, restating the

A. pig
motion, discussion, voting, and announcing
the vote are steps used to receive and dis- B. piglet
pose of the: C. sow
A. main motion. D. gilt
B. motion to adjourn. 87. Bumblefoot is a painful ailment that causes
C. motion to stop debate. a bird to have difficulty
D. motion to suspend the rule. A. breathing while at rest
B. clasping its perch
82. Structural Soundness refers to
C. eating sunflower seeds
A. The building the animal lives in
D. flying outside the cage
B. The condition of the skeletal structure,
especially the feet and legs 88. Which species contains the breeds Quarter
Horse, Arabian, and Morgan?
C. The feet of the animal only
A. Rabbits
D. The condition of the head and neck of
the animal B. Swine
C. Dairy Cattle
83. Sheep are classified by their
D. Horses
A. use.
B. wool type. 89. Controlling temperature, odor, moisture,
and airborne disease organisms is done
C. age. through:
D. none of these A. air conditioning
84. Which category of professionals does es- B. heating
sential research and development that im- C. spraying water mist
proves the competitive position of the
D. ventilation
United States in world markets?
A. Education and communication special- 90. After a person does a self-analysis and
ists gets as much information as possible about
an occupation, the next step is to:
B. Managers and financial specialists
A. determine the educational require-
C. Marketing and sales representatives ments.
D. Scientists and engineers B. select a retirement plan.
85. Incisor teeth is to C. make a decision.
A. Cut the food D. buy tools for the job.
B. Grind the food 91. Molar teeth is to
C. Tear the food A. Cut the food
D. none of above B. Grind the food

C. Tear the food 97. Which system is most closely associated

D. none of above with the brain?
A. nervous
92. What type of Supervised Agricultural Ex-
B. muscular
perience uses the scientific process to dis-
cover new knowledge? C. circulatory
A. Entrepreneurship D. respiratory
B. Experimental 98. Mature Female Sheep
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Exploratory A. Doe
D. Placement B. Ewe
C. Queen
93. What is the average lifespan of a
chicken? D. none of above
A. 12 years 99. Animal with a four-chambered stomach,
B. 4 years consumes large quantities of roughages.
A. Roughage
C. 5-10 years
B. Ruminant
D. 2 years
C. Silage
94. Which of the following is a characteristic D. Vitamin
of mammals?
A. their body temperature changes de- 100. What is an example of the Fat Feedstuff
pending on their surroundings A. Corn
B. they do not have backbones B. Silage
C. they are single celled organisms C. oils
D. they give birth to live young D. Alfalfa
95. Which of the following is NOT a major con- 101. The two parts that make up about 85%
sideration when dealing with animals? of the four-part ruminant stomach are
the:
A. Degree of tameness
A. abomasum and omasum
B. Perception of humans
B. cecum and liver
C. Temperament
C. reticulum and rumen
D. Perception of animals D. small and large intestines
96. In which of the following situations is the 102. What does a Animal Breeder do?
animal being anthropomorphized?
A. Select and breed animals according to
A. A dog pulling a bobsled their characteristics
B. The dog being included in the family B. Diagnose and treat injuries of animals
pictures
C. A dog cooking pancakes in a television C. Study behavior of animals and wildlife
cartoon
D. A dog performing tricks in a circus D. none of above

103. Humans began domesticating first with C. salmonellosis

A. horses D. strep throat

B. cows 109. What is the birthing process of a horse
C. dogs called?
D. pigs A. Foaling
104. In a self-analysis, evaluating how much B. Farrowing

education one is willing and able to get is C. Wethering
called:
D. Lambing
A. educational aspirations.
110. Which of the following are examples of
B. ability.
a learned behavior?
C. interest.
A. Opening a gate latch
D. educational requirements.
B. Fighting when threatened
105. What are ham, bacon, sandwich meat, C. Breathing
pre-cooked items, etc?
D. Digesting food
A. subprimal
111. Which trait would be considered Quanti-
B. value added products
tative?
C. primal
A. Coat Color
D. retail
B. Coat Texture
106. Which type of Supervised Agricultural Ex- C. White Face
perience would have an entry recorded un-
der the “Hypothesis” heading? D. How many pounds of milk a dairy cow
produces
A. Entrepreneurship
B. Experimental 112. Which word complete the given correla-
tion? Silk: Cocoon, Wool:
C. Exploratory
A. Hair of rabbit
D. Placement
B. Cotton plant
107. the source of toxoplasmosis is most C. Fleece of sheep
likely caused by
D. Jute of hemp
A. bird feces
B. dog bites 113. Animal waste management systems that
rely on anaerobic lagoon and soil/plant
C. cat feces systems for the treatment of animal waste
D. tick bites are Type:
108. Why should you wash your hands after A. A

handling reptiles? B. B
A. lyme disease C. C
B. rabies D. D

114. Does not have the same rights as a ser- 119. Which animals usually have the same
vice animal but can be used to help ease body temperature?
stress for individuals at doctors or dentist A. warm-blooded
offices or raise spirits for those in hospi-
tals or nursing homes. B. cold-blooded
C. aquatic
A. Seeing Eye Dog
D. terrestrial
B. Signal Dog
120. Animals are considered to be domesti-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Therapy Animal
cated when
D. Hippotherapy
A. they are kept for a distinct purpose
115. Rhode Island Red belongs to which ani- B. humans control their breeding
mal species?
C. they develop traits not found in the
A. Beef wild and depend on humans for sruvival
B. Chickens
C. Dairy D. all of the above
D. Rabbits 121. Purebred breeders use high-quality boars
as a MAJOR way to:
116. Which type of Supervised Agricultural Ex-
perience requires the student to make en- A. Decrease the influence of marketing
tries under the headings of “Type of Enter- on prices.
prise” and “Efficiency Factors”? B. Improve genetic makeup of one breed
A. Analytical of swine.
B. Entrepreneurship C. Increase body fat on hogs.
C. Placement D. Reduce hybrid vigor.
D. Supplementary 122. Guard hairs are most useful for
117. Blood meal and meat and bone scraps are A. helping the animals swim
animal by-products used for: B. protecting the animal from rain and
A. Fertilizer cold.
B. Livestock Feed C. keeping the animal from gaining

weight
C. China
D. allowing the mothers to carry them
D. Shoes without hurting them.
118. The Health Research Extension Act was 123. “studying the biology of animals that are
passed in 1985. It sets standards for care under the control of humankind.” It can
of animals used for and behavioral re- also be described as the production and
search. management of farm animals.
A. biomedical A. entomolgy
B. cosmedic B. agronomy
C. military C. animal science
D. none of above D. biotechnology

124. The term to describe: species name for B. introducing motions

horses C. referring motions

A. bovine D. voting
B. caprine
130. Equipment sales in the animal science
C. ovine
industry need to understand animals and
D. equine the jobs of the people who use their equip-
ment.
125. Groups use the book Robert’s Rules of
Order to conduct business using a for- A. representatives
mal organized approach with well-defined B. consumer
rules called:
C. feed
A. consensus.
D. skills
B. dictatorship.
131. results from injury improper nutrition and
C. fighting.
genetic abnormality
D. parliamentary procedure.
A. noninfectious disease
126. There are approximately how many cat- B. disease
tle in ND?
C. infectious disease
A. 1000000
D. virulence
B. 1840000
C. 200000 132. Mature Female Cattle
D. 768000 A. Heifer
B. Cow
127. Sheep & goats are different from other
large livestock because C. Ewe
A. they are more popular. D. none of above
B. they do not require expensive grains. 133. Which type of breeding system is done to
C. they are found in concentrated areas create new breeds of animals?
in the USA. A. Purebred
D. they can be kept as pets in most cities. B. Commercial
128. The type of manure dairy cattle usually C. Line-Breeding
produce. D. Inbreeding
A. Gases
134. The nutrient most important for produc-
B. Solid ing enzymes and providing material for the
C. Liquid growth of bones and teeth is:
D. none of above A. Carbs
129. Voice, rising, secret ballot, and roll call B. Fats

are the four common methods of: C. Minerals
A. debating motions D. Proteins

135. Which of the following is an example of B. getting too close to the heat source.
a Dairy Breed? C. getting too hot.
A. Jersey D. wandering away from the heat.
B. Holstein
141. What large animal, whose population
C. Milking Shorthorn
was once around 30 Million, was hunted
D. All of the Above to near extinction and whose population
is around 340, 000?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
136. Which of the following animal is long?
A. Buffalow
A. Giraffe
B. Beefalo
B. lion
C. Cattlelo
C. elephant
D. Bison
D. Snake
142. To means to end a meeting.
137. Which animal system secretes hormones
into the blood to travel to and stimulate A. Amend
certain organs to perform their specific B. Debate
functions?
C. Adjourn
A. circulatory
D. Second
B. endocrine
C. muscular 143. The gestation period in goats is
months.
D. skeletal
A. 5
138. Which of the following is a characteristic B. 6
that all mammals share?
C. 9
A. they all have a pouch
D. 10
B. they all have a cloaca
C. they all have hair 144. Which is not a sector of the beef cattle
industry?
D. they all have a short gestational period
A. Cow-Calf Operation
139. Animal control scientists study the
B. Stocker Operation
organisms that cause disease, how they
spread, and how various types of live- C. Purebred Operation
stock fight off these diseases. D. Farrowing Operation
A. nutrition
145. Which type of tissue in the animal’s
B. breeding body holds various tissue together such as
C. health/disease bone?
D. lab A. muscle
140. A hover guard is used the first week to B. fluid

prevent the chicks from: C. nerve
A. eating too much feed D. connective

146. Organisms without a backbone A. entrepreneurship

A. vegans B. :placement

B. vegetarians C. improvement
C. invertebrates D. exploratory
D. vertebrates
152. The main reason automatic hog feeding
147. What is a learned behavior? and watering equipment is used is to:
A. A behavior that is inherited. A. decrease initial costs.
B. A behavior that an animal is born know- B. increase labor.
ing how to do. C. save feed.
C. A behavior that is learned from the en- D. save labor.
vironment or by watching the parents.
D. A behavior that is learned from the 153. The purpose of an SAE project is to:
brain. A. lose money.
148. Mature Female Poultry B. gain work experience.

A. Hen C. get a grade.
B. Pullet D. make friends.
C. Capon 154. The part of a speech used to catch the at-
D. none of above tention of the speaker’s audience is the:
A. body.
149. If a pig has a notch cut close to its head
on the bottom of his left ear and his right B. introduction.
ear his number is: C. outline.
A. Pig 1 Litter 1 D. summary
B. Pig 3 Litter 3
155. Which dog disease is caused by fungus?
C. Pig 9 Litter 9
A. distemper
D. Pig 12 Litter 12
B. glaucoma
150. Animal welfare supporters believe that
C. rabies
should be the basis for decisions, laws,
and regulations related to animal wel- D. ringworm
fare.
156. The part of the ruminant’s digestive sys-
A. scientific information tem where partially digested feed is mixed
B. emotionally based concepts with pancreatic juice, bile, and intestinal
juice is the:
C. public opinion
A. cecum
D. none of above
B. omasum
151. The type of SAE the involves exploring ca-
reers through short times spent observing, C. large intestine
shadowing, or helping is: D. small intestine

157. Wool is obtained from the of sheep. 163. Mature Female Goat
A. Sheep A. Ewe
B. Fibre B. Sow
C. Fleece C. Doe
D. Skin D. none of above
158. Why is marbling important to meat? 164. Temperature control and vocalization are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Adds Prettiness functions of the:
B. Adds Flavor A. circulatory syste
C. Makes its easier to cut B. hormones
D. It is a sign that all blood has been C. nervous system
drained out of the carcass
D. respiratory system
159. The dewlap is the loose fold of skin most
noticed under the chin of a female: 165. What is the breed Braford used for?
A. bird A. Milk and beef
B. dog B. Milk and the Rodeo
C. fish C. Beef and The Rodeo
D. rabbit D. Nothing
160. Where is the Beefmaster originated 166. The poultry digestive system has several
from? special parts because poultry have no:
A. California A. liver
B. South Texas B. small intestine
C. France C. teeth
D. Switzerland D. tongue
161. Which cause of a toxic, noninfectious dis- 167. in danger of becoming extinct
ease does Robert note as he performs his
routine hard checks? A. endangered
A. Wound B. threatened
B. Meal C. extinct
C. Virus D. inherited
D. Spiders
168. small, thin, flat plates that help protect
162. Which animal groups hatch from eggs? fish
A. Only Birds A. eyes
B. Birds, Reptiles, Amphibians, and Fish B. fossils
C. Mammals and Reptiles C. scales
D. none of above D. water

169. One of the earliest animals to be domes- 174. The stages of growth for all organisms
ticated was A. Life Cycle

A. Cattle B. Pupa
B. Goat C. Nymph
C. Horses D. Metamorphosis
D. Sheep
175. The best ingredient to improve palata-
170. The major problem in locating hog produc- bility and reduce dust that a beef cattle
tion facilities is: farmer can mix with his cattle feed is:
A. drainage A. blood meal
B. odors B. hay
C. roads C. molasses
D. urea
D. woods
176. The U.S. pet industry provides over 1.3
171. If a beef farmer’s inventory shows 100
million
cattle worth $400 each, medicine and sup-
plies worth $1, 000, and land valued at A. Jobs
$200, 000, what amount should be en- B. Taxable dollars
tered on the nondepreciable inventory line
of the financial statement? C. Pets
D. none of above
A. $241, 000.00
B. $200, 000.00 177. what does the shorthorn look like
C. $41, 000.00 A. a black cow
D. $400.00 B. a black and white cow
C. a brown cow
172. Fats aid in absorbing fat-soluble vitamins
and have 2.25 times more energy than: D. a brown and white cow
A. Calcium 178. The first basic step in selecting an occupa-

B. Vitamins tion is:
A. analyzing oneself.
C. Carbohydrates
B. selecting a retirement plan.
D. Minerals
C. making a decision.
173. The method of marketing livestock by
D. studying the occupation.
public bidding with the animals (Livestock)
selling to the highest bidder is: 179. what does the angus cattle look like
A. Terminal Markets A. a black cow
B. Auction Markets B. a black and white cow
C. Yardage C. a brown cow
D. Futures Contracts D. none of above

180. technicians are highly skilled and D. not washing your hands after handling
have a solid understanding of artificial in- reptiles
semination, perform embryo transfers in
cattle, and embryo preservation. 185. Which of the following is flytless bird?
A. representatives A. nightangle
B. Penguin
B. embryo transfer
C. None of the above
C. feed
D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. skills
186. Essential features of a corral include a
181. What are the requirements of Spanish
holding pen, a working chute, and a:
goats in the areas of housing and feed?
A. barn
A. Intensive grain diet with complete
shelter B. headgate
B. No feed and no shelter C. pasture
C. Mainly browse fed and little shelter D. scale
D. none of above 187. The best treatment for scaly leg mites on
birds is to
182. Central markets or public stockyards
A. add vitamins to the drinking water
where livestock are consigned to a commis-
weekly
sion firm to bargain with purchasers for a
fee are: B. apply Vaseline over encrusted de-
posits to seal air holes used by mites
A. Terminal Markets
C. bandage the legs while the birds roost
B. Auction Markets
at night
C. Electronic Markets
D. feed oyster shell and ground limestone
D. Yardage as a supplement to the birds diet
183. Helping develop a chapter Program of Ac- 188. The type of SAE the involves a series
tivities provides students experiences that of activities that improve the value or
could be used in a purebred swine organi- appearance of the place of employment,
zation to: home, or community is:
A. conduct safety inspections A. entrepreneurship
B. keep financial records B. placement
C. set goals and develop plans C. improvement
D. prepare meals D. exploratory
184. Someone diagnosed by the doctor as hav- 189. On a net worth statement, net worth is
ing toxoplasmosis most likely contracted the same as:
the sickness from: A. current assets
A. bird feces B. equity
B. ticks C. inventory
C. cat feces D. total liability

190. What is the name for an uncasterated C. Shoat

porcine?
D. Lamb

A. Sow
B. Barrow 196. You found a garden snake and baby tur-
C. Boar tle that you intend to keep as pets. You
should be careful to wash your hands af-
D. Bull
ter handling these animals to avoid what
191. Finish is bacterial disease?
A. The end of the animal’s life A. streptococcal
B. The weight the animal is harvested at B. ticks
C. The degree of fatness
C. salmonellosis
D. How fast the animal can make it to the
“finish” line D. rabies
192. A breed of cattle with black and white 197. Newborn Cattle
markings clearly defined is:
A. Kid
A. Yorkshire
B. Hampshire B. Poult
C. Holstein C. Calf
D. Dorset D. none of above
193. Meat and dairy inspectors review live-
stock food products for by testing milk, 198. Which phrase is used in the conclusion of
meat, poultry, and eggs for the presence a speech about grading meat?
of antibiotics among other duties. A. First, I want to review the history of
A. wholesomeness grading meat.
B. managers B. Have you ever wondered why meat is
C. producers graded?
D. flavor C. In summary, USDA grades of meat in-
dicate quality.
194. Animals that are born from soft eggs,
cold-blooded and can have scales or shells D. Ladies and gentlemen, my topic is
are called ‘What Meat Grades Mean to You’.
A. mammals
B. reptiles 199. Because the first career choice may NOT
work out, students should:
C. amphibians
A. get angry
D. invertebrates
B. plan for alternative careers
195. What do you call a newborn sheep?
A. Kid C. quit school or college
B. Kinder D. refuse to work

200. How can you prevent a cat from scratch- C. Cheval

ing you and avoid injury to the cat at the D. Kinder
same time?
205. The treatment that an animal receives in-
A. Hold the cat by the hind leg with one
cluding animal care, animal husbandry, and
hand and use the other to examine the in-
humane treatment. In addition providing
jury
for its physical and mental needs.
B. lay the cat on its side and hold it down
A. Animal Rights
with both hands which looking at the injury
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Pets
C. wrap the cat in a blanket leaving only C. Animal Welfare
the head and neck exposed D. none of above
D. wrap each paw of the animal with ster- 206. Workers in the Animal Science pathway:
ile bandages prior to doing the exam
A. May research and analyze growth and
201. American breeds developed by crossing destruction of species
the Braham from India with English breeds B. May diagnose diseases and injuries of
are bred to: animals
A. Improve meat quality. C. Can work in laboratories or in the field
B. Increase heat tolerance.
C. Increase milk production. D. All of the above
D. Reduce the size of calves. 207. Which animal system has the function of
supplying oxygen to tissues and removing
202. Animals that hurt plants and cause dam- carbon dioxide from the body?
age are known as
A. circulatory
A. pests
B. endocrine
B. pollinators C. muscular
C. irritants D. respiratory
D. insects
208. The best term to describe the application
203. When the digestive system of a mature of scientific principles and new technolo-
cow is inspected, the tube-like structure gies to agriculture is
that one sees connecting the mouth to the A. Agribusiness
stomach is the:
B. Renewable Natural Resources
A. colon C. Farming
B. esophagus D. Agriscience
C. pancreas
209. An animal showing signs of carbs defi-
D. small intestine ciency will most likely:
204. This types of meat comes from a sheep A. Extremely excited
that is younger than 1 year old B. Loss of body heat and energy
A. Mutton C. Increase of body heat and energy
B. Lamb D. Show signs of increased energy

210. Learning to Do, Doing to Learn, Earnign A. associate’s degrees.

to Live, and LIving to Serve are part of B. bachelors’s degrees.
the FFA

C. high school diploma.
A. Salute
D. masters’s or doctoral degrees.
B. Mission Statement
C. Motto 216. Most local regulations for animal opera-
tions deal with:
D. Pledge
A. health and disease.
211. What makes a jellyfish different from a
B. zoning or location
fish such as salmon?
C. waste management
A. A jellyfish does not have a backbone.
B. A jellyfish is in the animal kingdom. D. water quality
C. A jellyfish can reproduce. 217. The livestock identification system which

D. A jellyfish lives in water. uses a metal instrument to burn or freeze
a mark on the animals :
212. What cluster matches the following de- A. Branding
scription?Focuses on the essential ele-
ments of life - food, water, land, and air. B. Ear Notching
A. Health Science C. Tagging
B. Human Services D. Tattooing
C. Hospitality & Tourism 218. Llamas and Alpacas along with camels
D. Agriculture, Food & Natural Resources originated from this continent?
A. South America
213. What is the name of the white small
breed of chicken that is used in egg pro- B. North Africa
duction? C. North America
A. Rhode Island Red D. Asia
B. Leghorn
219. Why do we ear notch?
C. Khaki Campbell
A. To make swine look cool
D. Broad-Breasted Large White
B. To be awesome
214. Which animal system has the function of
C. We don’t lose it like tags
responding to the five senses?
D. none of above
A. circulatory
B. endocrine 220. The animal waste management system
operator must be:
C. nervous
A. a technical college graduate.
D. respiratory
B. a university graduate
215. About two-thirds of the jobs in the agri-
cultural scientists, engineers, and related C. certified
specialists category require: D. the owner

221. A DVM stands for A. “First, I want to review the history of

A. Doctor of Veterinary medicne grading meat.”
B. Diagnostic medical terminology B. “Have you ever wondered why meat

has a grade on it?”
C. Department of Mobile vehicles
C. “In summary, USDA grades of meat in-
D. Diverse Vets Memorial dicate quality.”
222. Which feed nutrient supplies material to D. “My references for this speech are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
build body tissues such as muscles, skin USDA Quality Standards.”
and hair?
227. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining
A. carbohydrates silk is called———
B. fats & oils A. Agriculture
C. proteins B. Sericulture
D. water C. Aquaculture
223. Livestock work with the livestock on D. poultry
a day to day basis by providing them with
their basic needs and normal care taking. 228. Most careers in agriculture are actually
in
A. inspection
A. animal production
B. industry
B. sales and service, biotechnology and
C. technicians ag science
D. veterinarians C. farming
224. North Carolina regulations require every D. beef cattle ranching
farm animal operation of significant size
that uses a liquid waste management sys- 229. Which genotype would be considered het-
tem to develop and use a/an: erozygous?
A. air conditioned facility. A. HH
B. animal disease specialist. B. hh
C. animal waste management plan. C. Hh
D. balanced ration. D. HHH
225. which one of the following is a type of 230. is a fox a hervevor or a carnovor
natural fibre A. a hervovor
A. Elastene B. both
B. Viscose C. a carnovore
C. Silk D. none of above
D. Polyamide 231. What tactic are animal rights activists
226. Which phrase would be used in the intro- most likely to use?
duction of a speech about grading meat? A. have celebrities support buying furs

B. teach dog walkers how to walk their C. egg, nymph, adult

dog
D. egg, nymph, pupa

C. ecoterrorism to prevent the use of an-
imals by humans 237. Chickens are
D. open season hunting to control animal A. carnivores
population
B. omnivores
232. In agriculture production happens C. herbivores
where?
D. none of above
A. on the farm
B. in a factory 238. Some businesses produce livestock
made of a blended ration of food made
C. in a grocery store
from other food products to feed animals
D. in a bucket in the livestock industry.
233. To assure that all sides of an issue are A. development
treated fairly and that everyone has an B. consumer
opportunity to discuss and vote is known
as: C. feed
A. parliamentary law D. control
B. quorum. 239. Silk fibre obtained from silkworm is its
C. simple majority
D. secret ballot. A. Protein
234. The demand and availability of an occupa- B. Carbohydrates
tion; factors in size of an industry is called C. Fats
A. it’s not called anything D. Vitamins
B. job shadowing
240. Uncastrated Male Cattle
C. volunteering
D. job outlook A. Steer
B. Bull
235. Animals’ eating habits can be classified
into C. Tom
A. 2 D. none of above
B. 3 241. The nutrient that helps dissolve other nu-
C. 5 trients and carry them to different parts
D. 4 of the animal’s body is:
A. carbohydrates
236. the three stages of incomplete metamor-
phosis B. minerals
A. egg, larva, adult C. proteins
B. egg, pupa, larva D. water

242. why is placing a rabbit on a smooth sur- 247. The breed of swine that is red, has ears
face a bad practice? that droop forward and is noted for it’s
A. rabbit can escape quick growth rate and feed conversion is
B. rabbits have fur on its foot pads that A. Tamworth

prevent traction and may result in injury if B. Duroc
it tries to move
C. Hampshire
C. leaves germs to infect the next animal
D. Berkshire
NARAYAN CHANGDER
on the table
D. if rabbits see a mirror image in the sur- 248. The muscle tissue of an animal is known
face, it becomes upset that another rabbit as:
is present
A. Fat
243. Which nutrient is responsible for growth B. Muscle
and repair?
C. Carcass
A. Protein
D. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Vitamins 249. A livestock supervises technicians
for various parts of the industry includ-
D. Fats
ing poultry hatcheries, feed mills, breeding
244. What is a castrated male of the cattle barns, and even farrowing houses.
breed called? A. inspection
A. Gelding B. managers
B. Steer
C. technicians
C. Barrow
D. veterinarians
D. Wether
250. One major reason for early career plan-
245. Megan is receiving a series of shots after ning is to:
having been bitten by a feral cat.What vi-
ral disease is she most likely being treated A. be in class with your friends
for? B. get early release from school
A. psittacosis C. take easy high school courses
B. rabies D. take the right high school courses
C. ringworm
251. If a pig has a notch cut into the top of his
D. salmonellosis right ear and a notch cut on the bottom of
246. Which type of breeding system mates his left ear close to the head, his number
VERY closely related animals? is:
A. Line-Breeding A. Litter 3 Pig 3
B. Purebred B. Litter 81 Pig 1
C. Inbreeding C. Pig 1 Litter 1
D. Cross-Breeding D. Pig 9 Litter 9

252. Newborn Sheep C. Repairing muscle, skin, hair, and

A. Lamb nerves

B. Kid D. Regulating body glands and protecting
against disease
C. Poult
258. Any food or feed high in fiber and low
D. none of above
in digestible nutrients such as many fruits
253. The nutrient that makes up from 40 to 80 and vegetables, straw, and low-quality
percent of an animal’s body is: vegetation, hay, haylage, and silage.
A. calcium A. Roughage
B. salt B. Ruminant
C. vitamin c C. Silage
D. water D. Vitamin
254. The best way to learn more about an oc- 259. The main function of the large intestine is
cupation is through: to:
A. library research. A. absorb nutrients
B. watching television documentaries. B. absorb water
C. work experience. C. produce bile
D. worker interviews. D. store roughage
255. A young female swine that has NOT had 260. The main reason we want hybrid vigor is
pigs or is NOT showing signs of pregnancy to:
is: A. Decrease sales in swine
A. Gilt B. Increase disease in swine
B. Sow C. Make a uniform product
C. Heifer D. Improve genetic makeup of swine
D. Ewe 261. Which is true of pet cockatoos?
256. Are diseases and parasites that can be A. best singers
passed between animals and humans. B. hardest to train
A. Viruses C. most intelligent
B. Bacterial Infections D. smallest of birds
C. Toxic Materials
262. If an animal science student were label-
D. Zoonosis ing a picture of a cow’s skeleton, where
would that student find the scapula?
257. Carbs are most important for:
A. front foot
A. Controlling the animal’s body tempera-
ture B. rear foot
B. Converting food to energy and produc- C. shoulder blade

ing heat D. tail

263. The most expensive type of beef cattle 269. ability to overcome resistance of the
feeding facility to build is a/an: host
A. cold confinement barn. A. noninfectious disease
B. open feedlot. B. disease
C. open barn and feedlot. C. infectious disease
D. warm confinement barn. D. virulence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
264. In the US what % of the total workforce 270. If Billy had to get shots after being bit-
related to agriculture jobs? ten by a stray cat, what is he most likely
being treated for?
A. 18%
A. rocky mountain spotted fever
B. 2%
B. psittacosis
C. 10%
C. streptococcal
D. 80%
D. rabies
265. What is the birthing process for cattle
called? 271. What type of animal spends its entire life
under water, has fins, and breathes using
A. Farrowing gills
B. Calving A. amphibian
C. Foaling B. fish
D. Birth C. bird
266. What do you call a mature male horse? D. reptile
A. Gelding 272. Chemical process by which your body
B. Mare breaks down food to release energy
C. Stallion A. metabolism
D. Colt B. nutrition
C. homeostasis
267. Mature Female Turkey
D. dehydration
A. Hen
273. Most food nutrients used by nonrumi-
B. Sow
nants such as swine are absorbed from
C. Doe the:
D. none of above A. large intestine
268. Which of the following is not one of the B. rumen
6 nutrients animals need? C. small intestine
A. proteins D. stomach
B. carbohydrates 274. Which of the following careers would fall
C. minerals under the Animal Science Pathway?
D. amino acids A. Family Doctor

B. Zoologist and Wildlife Biologist C. Study behavior of animals and wildlife

C. ER Nurse

D. Plant and Soil Scientist D. none of above
275. Who is considered the Father of the NFA? 280. Which essential nutrient is primarily re-
sponsible for building muscle and repairing
A. H.O. Sargent
the body?
B. Henry Groseclose
A. Carbohydrates
C. C.H. Lane
B. Protein
D. Rufus Stimson
C. Fats/Oils
276. If you wanted to specialize in working
D. Water
with rabbits, guinea pigs, and domestic
cats, which type of practice would you en- 281. For a school-to-work employment plan to
ter? help a student, the plan must be:
A. Companion and small animal clinic.
A. complex
B. Large animal clinic.
B. implemented
C. Exotic animal practice.
C. signed by the principle
D. Aquatic animal practice.
D. simple
277. In most commercial laying flocks of chick-
ens, the lights are controlled by: 282. It is a violation of North Carolina law for
animal waste to reach:
A. automatic time clocks.
A. air
B. manual switches
C. mirrors B. lagoons
D. shades C. soils
D. surface water
278. Which is NOT a physical alteration to an
animals body for management purposes? 283. A bull calf is a
A. Declawing (cats)
A. mature male in cattle
B. Dehorning (cattle)
B. immature male in cattle
C. Tail docking (cattle, dogs, sheep,
swine) C. castrated male in cattle
D. Clipping a beef cow’s coat before a D. female

show
284. What are genotypes made up of?
279. What does a Farm-Worker do? A. Alleles
A. Select and breed animals according to
B. Genes
their characteristics
C. Traits
B. Take care of farm, ranch, or aquacul-
tural animals D. Phenotypes

285. Although animals are used very little for C. Increased

this purpose in the United States, they are D. Stayed the Same
used in less developed countries to provide
much of their: 291. The part of the poultry digestive system
A. Power that crushes feed particles and mixes them
with digestive juices is the:
B. Fuel
C. Medicine A. cloaca
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Recreation B. crop
C. gizzard
286. This is the solid and liquid material that
we eat each day. D. vent
A. Poultry 292. The group would like to delay a motion
B. Milk to allow members to attend to more ur-
C. Rice gent business. The correct parliamentary
procedure ability to use would be:
D. Food
A. to lay on the table
287. Substances the body needs to regulate
B. to suspend the rules
bodily functions, promote growth, repair
tissues, and obtain energy C. a point of order
A. metabolism D. a main motion
B. calories
293. Which animal system plays an important
C. nutrients role in the body functions of growth, fat-
D. minerals tening, and reproduction?
A. endocrine
288. Immature Female Turkey
A. Hen B. nervous
B. Pullet C. respiratory
C. Gilt D. skeletal
D. none of above 294. A is a castrated male goat.
289. What are three main body parts of an in- A. Buck
sect? B. Doe
A. Head, chest, tail
C. Wether
B. Head, antenna, abdomen
D. Ram
C. Thorax, antenna, heart
D. Head, thorax, abdomen 295. Which of these is not a fibre?
A. cotton
290. During the past ten years the number of
swine farms in Georgia has: B. wool
A. Doubled C. nylon
B. Decreased D. leather

296. What do a call a castrated Chicken? 302. Approximately 99% of broilers and hogs
A. Cockeral raised in the United States are marketed
through:

B. Bantam
A. Vertical Integration
C. Capon
B. Future Contracts
D. Roosteral
C. Virtual Contracts
297. This animal is our primary source for milk D. Electronic Contracts
A. cows 303. The term to describe: young sheep
B. goats A. calf
C. lamb B. foal
D. chicken C. lamb
298. What is the BEST way to learn more D. kid
about a job? 304. Which is NOT considered an exotic ani-
A. Talking to Someone mal?
B. Work Experience A. Non-domesticated canines (wolves,
wolf-hybrids)
C. School
B. Non-human primates (monkeys, apes,
D. Sports
and prosimians)
299. What is a mature female of the cattle C. Reptiles
breed called? D. Sheep
A. Cow
305. Most popular type of companion animal.
B. Mare
A. Reptiles
C. Heifer
B. Cats & Dogs
D. Jill C. Rodents
300. The part of the near rear leg that corre- D. Birds
sponds to the knee, but bends the other
direction 306. Uncastrated Male Turkey
A. Buck
A. knee
B. Tom
B. hock
C. Tomcat
C. leg
D. none of above
D. pastern
307. What is the imaginary circle around the
301. Mature Female Swine animal or the herd
A. Gilt A. Flight Zone
B. Barrow B. Personal Space
C. Sow C. Cattle Safety Zone
D. none of above D. Kicking Zone

308. What internal parasite is most likely the D. Helping pass legislation to make Mc-
problem if small rice-like segments are Donald’s exempt from animal slaughter
seen in the birds feces? guidelines
A. Capillaria worms
313. The digestive system begins at the mouth
B. ring worm where food:
C. goiter
A. absorbs into the animal’s body
D. tapeworms
B. enters the animal’s body
NARAYAN CHANGDER
309. Which of the following feeds would give
C. is stored for later use
an animal protein?
A. Corn D. leaves the body as feces
B. Water 314. Animals with backbones are called
C. Cottonseed meal
A. Invertebrates
D. Alfalfa
B. Protists
310. Immature Female Poultry
C. Vertebrates
A. Hen
D. Angiosperms
B. Pullet
C. Capon 315. Why do beef cattle usually have a more
D. none of above solid manure than dairy animals.
A. Different digestive tract
311. Johnny was bitten by a cat the first day
he was a veterinary assistant. What is B. Nutrition-the feed they eat
the most probable cause of the bite?
C. They drink more water
A. The cat did not want to be disturbed
from the nap it was taking in Johnny’s D. They run around more
arms.
316. An animal science career in the marketing,
B. The cat had a case of undetected ra- merchandising, and sales representatives
bies. category is:
C. A dog was heard in the next room.
A. Agricultural Education teacher.
D. The cat received improper handling
due to Johnny’s inexperience. B. livestock buyer.
C. poultry farmer.
312. Dr. Grandin helped McDonald’s by doing
what? D. veterinarian.
A. Promoting their hamburgers at her
speeches 317. This plant is grown for its products
B. Creating an evaluative scoring system A. Trees
for slaughterhouses that sell beef to Mc- B. Flowers
Donald’s
C. Pigweed
C. Encouraging consumers to eat chicken
and fries instead of hamburgers D. Crop

318. Meat, dairy, and poultry foods compa- 323. Animals that are raised for human use
nies manufacture food products from are
the meat, eggs, milks, and other by-

A. Domesticated
products from these animals.
B. Livestock
A. development
C. Ruminant
B. consumer
D. Aquaculture
C. inspectors
324. Grassed waterways, buffers, and cover
D. control
crops that reduce the potential for nega-
319. What is breed character? tive environmental impact are called:
A. visible in the head and general appear- A. anaerobic lagoons.
ance of an animal B. best management practices.
B. refers to the distribution of muscle C. discharge rates.
throughout the animal D. sludge.
C. the phsyical arrangement of bone and
body tissue 325. an animal that exhibits the preferred
characteristics of the breed, resulting from
D. refers to the amount of fat cover on an generations of unmixed breeding
animal
A. straight breeding
320. Mostly grass eating animals are B. crossbreeding
called
C. purebred
A. Carnivore
D. hybrid
B. Omnivore
326. When the digestive system of a rooster is
C. Ruminants
inspected, the enlarged sac-like structure
D. Scavenger with feed in it that one sees is the:
321. Developed for hunting and tracking by A. cloaca

sight or smell. They range in weight from B. colon
18-30 pounds and are usually about 13- C. crop
15” at the shoulder.
D. yolk sac
A. Beagle
B. Basset Hound 327. the best prefix to use with medical termi-
nology that means before is:
C. Fox Terrier
A. post
D. Fox Hound
B. anti
322. The world’s most popular meat is: C. dys
A. Pork D. pre
B. Beef
328. Which is a component of a North Carolina
C. Cheval animal waste management plan?
D. Lamb A. odor control

B. Amount of feed per animal C. pull the dog’s front feet close to its
C. Bird Control chest while lifting the dog from the floor.
D. total amount of feed used D. wrap around and pull the dog’s body
close to her body.
329. An associate’s degree typically takes
how long for a person to complete? 334. What is agriculture?
A. 2 A. the hunting and gathering of monopoly
pieces
B. 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 6 B. the altering genetic material of plants
D. 8 C. the cultivation of plants/domesticating

animals
330. What does EPD stand for in animal genet- D. using technology to increase produc-
ics? tion
A. Equivalent Progeny Differential
335. Ear mark kids and vaccinate them for
B. Estimated Progeny Difference
soremouth when they are months old.
C. Expected Professional Difference
A. 2
D. Expected Progeny Differential
B. 1 - 1 1/2
331. Which career related to animal science is C. 3 1/2 - 4
in the education, communication, and infor-
mation specialists category? D. 6
A. Beef cattle farmer 336. An 2 year degree in biology is done in a
B. Food inspector A. technical college
C. Microbiologist B. community college
D. Agriculture Education teacher C. university
332. A lack of a certain nutrient in an animals D. none of above
ration.
337. Uncastrated Male Poultry
A. Toxicity
A. Rooster
B. Deficiency
C. Ration B. Capon
D. Nutrient Requirement C. Tom

D. none of above
333. Kim briefly restrains her black lab by hav-
ing the dog sit, placing one arm under its 338. a vet who orders a sick animal to be kept
neck with the forearm holding the dog’s away from other small animals is the most
head, and at the same time, using the concerned the animal may
other arm and hand to
A. have an infectious disease
A. grip the dog’s muzzle and force it down
B. keep other animals from eating
to the chest of the animal
B. pin the dog’s tail around to its side and C. play with other animals
over its back. D. sleep all the time

339. Newborn Poultry B. Amphibians

A. Kid C. Omnivore

B. Chick D. Reptiles
C. Poult
345. What is meant by selective breeding?
D. none of above
A. Only the strongest animals survive
340. The person providing the foundation for
scientific study of heredity was B. Breeding for desired characteristics
A. Gregor Johann Mendel C. Animals breed with whichever animal

they want
B. George Washington Carver
D. none of above
C. Joseph Glidden
D. Thomas Jefferson 346. American breeds developed by crossing
Brahman from India with English breed are
341. How many types dentition of animals?
created to:
A. 3
A. Improve meat quality
B. 4
B. Increase heat tolerance
C. 5
C. Increase milk production
D. 6
D. Reduce the size of calves
342. The blood clot and heart attack preven-
tion medicine extracted as a by-product 347. The class of nutrients made up of amino
from the lungs of animals is acids is:
A. Heparin A. carbohydrates
B. Insulin B. proteins
C. Warfarin
C. vitamins
D. Aspirin
D. water
343. The large part of a ruminant’s stomach
that uses bacterial action to change large 348. GMO stands for
amounts of roughage into amino acids A. Generally Made Organic
needed by the animal is the:
B. Genetically Modified Organism
A. abomasum
C. Genetic Mutation Omission
B. omasum
C. reticulum D. None of these.
D. rumen 349. An adult male swine is called what?

344. Dear, horse and elephant are class into a A. Boar
group called Herbivore. What is the suit-
B. Sow
able group to classify monkeys based on
their eating habits? C. Farrow
A. Carnivore D. Gilt

350. Quality means C. rumen

A. how good D. small intestine
B. how much 355. An area that should be considered when
C. how many doing a self-analysis before choosing an
D. none of above occupation is the person’s physical makeup
which means:
351. where is the best place for Janna to put A. health, strength, and stamina.
her parakeets cage in order to provide a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
stress free environment? B. how a person thinks about life.
A. in a heated garage that has little direct C. things that hold a person’s attention.
sunlight D. willingness to change.
B. in front of an exposed west-facing win-
356. Which of the following can be found on a
dow and next to an air conditioner vent
SDS?
C. out of direct sunlight and drafts and at
A. Spill and Leak Procedure
a constant temperature
B. Health Hazard Information
D. outside in a cage next to the dog ken-
nel C. Special Protection Information
D. All of the Above
352. The dairy cattle breed that has the high-
est milk fat content is 357. Which Dairy Cattle is known for it black
A. Ayrshire and white markings?
B. Brown Swiss A. Jersey
C. Holstein B. Angus
D. Jersey C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
353. A homogeneous RAW or PRIMARY agri-
cultural product (how it comes off the 358. Automatic hog feeding and watering
farm) is called a commodity. Examples of equipment when compared to hand feed-
a commodity include: ing and watering is:
A. grain, precious metals, oil, beef, and A. about the same cost
wheat.
B. free
B. Bacon, corn chips, bread, gasoline,
cheese C. less expensive
C. pressed steal, fruit salad, natural gas D. more expensive
D. ketchup, mustard, mayonnaise, and 359. which bird is easiest to recognize be-
zombies. cause of the crest or tuft of feathers on
its head?
354. When the digestive system of a hog is
observed, the dark brown organ beneath A. cockatoo
the stomach is the: B. common canary
A. esophagus C. finch
B. liver D. talking mynah

360. Immature Castrated Male Sheep 366. The part of a ruminant’s stomach that is
A. Wether the true stomach where gastric juice acts
on the feed is the:

B. Capon
A. abomasum
C. Tom
B. omasum
D. none of above
C. reticulum
361. The largest segment of the meat industry D. rumen
in the USA is
A. Beef Cattle 367. What is a mature male goat called?
B. Swine (Pigs) A. Steed
C. Dairy Cattle B. Stallion
D. Poultry (Chickens & Turkeys) C. Boar
D. Buck
362. Extra carbohydrates are stored in the
body of livestock as: 368. is the most dangerous gases in ma-
A. carbohydrates nure pit
B. fat A. Hydrogen sulfide
C. protein B. Carbon dioxide
D. water C. Ammonia
D. Methane
363. The first line of the FFA Motto is
A. Doing to Learn 369. what does the Holstein Friesian cattle
look like
B. Earning to Live
A. a black cow
C. Learning to Do
B. a black and white cow
D. Living to Serve
C. a brown cow
364. The notches in a pig’s left ear indicate the D. a brown and white cow
animal’s
A. Birth date 370. The ration function that includes making
milk and eggs is:
B. Individual Number
A. fattening
C. Litter number
B. growth
D. Parents
C. production
365. If a livestock farmer wishes to add an D. reproduction
animal protein source that as a high per-
cent protein to his/her feed mix, he/she 371. What is the part that surrounds the eye
should use: of many birds?
A. barley A. crown
B. fish meal B. ear covert
C. soybean meal C. nape
D. wheat D. orbital ring

372. The term to describe: species name of D. 60 minute training sessions conducted
hogs by her father, younger sister, and mother
A. porcine on alternating days
B. poultry 377. Which of the following is not a common

C. caprine zoonotic disease
D. feline A. Rabies
B. Ringworm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
373. Spanish goats are raised primarily for
C. Chicken Pox
A. Milk D. Avian Flu

B. Wool 378. The only acceptable way to start a mo-
C. Meat tion is to say
D. All answers A. I believe
B. I make a motion that
374. Pigs usually reach market weight around
what age? C. I move
A. 6 weeks D. I think
B. 10 weeks 379. Most dairy cattle in the United States are
C. 16 weeks what breed?
D. 20 weeks A. Ayrshire
375. The group of bones that make up each B. Brown Swiss

rear leg of livestock is called the: C. Holstein
A. Axial skeleton D. Jersey
B. pectoral limb
380. The Angus is BEST known for its:
C. pelvic limb
A. Black color and high quality meat
D. ulna
B. Hump and heat tolerance
376. If Mandy wants to train her budgerigar C. Large calves and fast growth rate
to talk and keep the birds stress to a min-
imum, she should have: D. Large size and leaner meat
A. 15 minute training sessions conducted 381. The end of the digestive system for live-
at various times every day by her father stock where the undigested part of the
and mother feed is passed out of the animal’s body is
B. 15 minute training sessions conducted the:
at the same time every day and conducted A. anus
by her little sister
B. aorta
C. 45 minute training sessions at the
C. esophagus
same time once a week and conducted by
her mother D. small intestine

382. Quality managers monitor the produc- 387. caused microorganism that gains en-
tion process to ensure high quality meat, trance to the body
dairy, and poultry products are used and

they meet a product standard consumers
demand. B. disease
A. wholesomeness
D. virulence
B. animal welfare
388. The term to describe: young chicken
C. inspectors
A. pullet
D. control
B. pup
383. Which component of a North Carolina an- C. kitten
imal waste management plan includes soil
D. chick
and waste analysis reports and the dates
and rates of waste applied to land sites? 389. The function of the crop in poultry diges-
A. Animal Mortality Rate tion is:
A. absorption
B. Insect Control
B. excretion
C. Odor control
C. grinding
D. Record keeping
D. storage
384. Market animals are used for 390. This type of cut is large cuts are sold to
A. Production of meat stores or butcher shops and then is cut into
smaller pieces to be sold to the customers.
B. Promoting the livestock industry
A. retail
C. Making money
B. wholesale
D. none of above C. Chuck Cuts
385. What is the largest division of taxon- D. Variety Cuts
omy? 391. What is the name for a young female
A. Kingdom bovine that has never given birth?
B. Organism A. Cow
C. Domain B. Bull
C. Heifer
D. Species
D. Sow
386. Which of the following do Conservation
392. A pig ready for market usually weighs
Officers do?
around
A. Educate the Public about Wildlife
A. 100-180 pounds
B. Investigate Wildlife Crimes B. 220-260 pounds
C. Assist in Wildlife Research C. 400-600 pounds
D. They do all of these D. 1000 - 1200 pounds

393. What do you call a newborn horse? C. Heifer

A. Calf D. Jill
B. Colt 399. Why is it UNSAFE to store remaining
C. Lamb chemicals in an empty milk gallon?
D. Foal A. Accidental poisoning can occur.
394. What is the best way to prevent Veteri- B. Chemicals get weaker with age.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nary clinic contamination? C. Chemicals get stronger overtime.
A. Washing your hands and surfaces and D. Chemical could be thrown away
wearing protective equipment
400. Livestock, dairy, and poultry receipts ac-
B. never cleaning count for over half of the total annual
C. allowing infected animals to stay with agricultural cash receipts, often exceeding
well animals $ billion per year.
D. eating lunch in the treatment room. A. 100
395. What is a castrated male pig called? B. 10
A. Boar C. 1.5
B. Barrow D. 12
C. Gilt 401. A female beef or dairy animal that has

D. Piglet had one or more calves is a:
A. Cow
396. Crossbreeding means
B. Heifer
A. Mating registered purebred male and
female of the same breed C. Bull
B. Mating closely related animals D. Free Martin
C. Mating a male and female of different 402. The use of horses or ponies to provide
breeds therapy to individuals with spinal injuries.
D. none of above One goal of this therapy is to improve bal-
ance, flexibility, and muscle tone.
397. Which of the following is considered a A. Seeing Eye Dog
heat emergency?
B. Signal Dog
A. Heat Exhaustion
C. Therapy Animal
B. Heat Stroke
D. Hippotherapy
C. Heat Prostration
D. All the Above 403. What is Muscle (regarding animal
anatomy)?
398. What is a mature female of the goat A. visible in the head and general appear-
breed called? ance of an animal
A. Doe B. refers to the distribution of muscle
B. Mare throughout the animal

C. the phsyical arrangement of bone and 409. What type of Supervised Agricultural Ex-
body tissue perience involves planning, implementing,
operating, and assuming financial risks in

D. refers to the amount of fat cover on an
animal raising hogs?
A. Analytical
404. Annual domestic consumption of pork
has remained stable over the past two B. Entrepreneurship
decades (approximately 67 pounds per C. Exploratory
capita). Per capita means:
D. Placement
A. Per person
B. Per family 410. What ratio of homes in the US have at
least one pet?
C. Per Adult
A. 1/2
D. Per City
B. 1/3
405. pick the synthetic fibre out of the follow-
ing C. 1/4
A. cotton D. 2/3
B. nylon 411. Seth has a blue and gold macaw that he
C. jute keeps as the FFA mascot. Seth quickly
learns that wood is the best material to
D. wool
use for the:
406. What is the breed of Angus color? A. bird perch
A. White B. cage bars
B. Red C. doors of the cage
C. Brown
D. water container
D. Black
412. fibers are chunky white hairs.
407. The Angus is best known for it’s:
A. Kemp
A. Black color and high quality meat.
B. Wool
B. Hump and heat tolerance.
C. Cashmere
C. Large calves and fast growth rate.
D. Mohair
D. Large size and leaner meat.
408. A breed of cattle that is red with a white 413. Which symptom is common to almost all
face and raised primarily for beef produc- nutrient deficiencies and therefore hard to
tion is: isolate to one deficiency?
A. Angus A. Rickets
B. Brahman B. Slow growth
C. Hereford C. Muscle tremors
D. Charolais D. Anemia

414. When something alive creates light, it is 420. To properly handle livestock, all types of
called: beef cattle operations should have a:
A. bioluminescence A. corral
B. science B. barn
C. awesome C. lagoon
D. echolocation D. silo
421. THIS ORGAN OF THE AVIAN DIGESTIVE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
415. Which genotype would be considered ho-
mozygous recessive? SYSTEM ACTS AS THE BIRD’S TEETH.
A. HH A. CROP
B. GIZZARD
B. hh
C. SMALL INTESTINE
C. Hh
D. JEJUNUM
D. HHH
422. “Specific nutrients and amounts that
416. Newborn Goat must be included in complete and balanced
A. Lamb diets for healthy animals.”
B. Kid A. Toxicity
C. Poult B. Nutrient Requirements
D. none of above C. Ration
D. Deficiency
417. Which of the following is not considered
a ratite? 423. What type of nerves allow for voluntary
responses to stimuli?
A. Rhea
A. central
B. Partridge
B. somatic
C. Ostrich
C. autonomic
D. Kiwi
D. brain
418. Which is NOT an example of a use of an-
imal biotechnology? 424. The most certain source to prevent a min-
eral deficiency in animal feed is:
A. RFID ear tags in cattle
A. corn
B. Feeding GMO’s in an animals diet
B. pasture
C. Genetic Engineering C. premix
D. Cloning D. salt block
419. A sheep covering is called 425. what is a armodilo
A. Cashmere A. a rodent
B. Wool B. a carnovore
C. Hide C. a toilet
D. Hair D. a cycle

426. ’ Is one of the two largest breeds of C. $560, 000.00

dogs and is friendly companion or watch- D. $60, 000.00
dog Weight: Average: 110-115 females,

120-150 males Height at the shoulder: 431. Animals that can legally be used as ser-
more than 28” females, more than 30” vice animals include which of the follow-
males ing?
A. Great Dane A. Miniature horses and dogs
B. Mastiff B. Any animal, as long as it is certified
C. Saint Bernard C. Dogs only
D. Giraffe D. Companion animals only
432. The motion to refer a motion to a commit-
427. The three legs of the fire triangle are:
tee should include:
A. fire, heat oxygen
A. meeting times and places.
B. heat, oxygen, fuel
B. names of committee members and
C. fuel, oxygen, spark chairperson.
D. none of the above C. number on committee, how appointed,
powers, and when to report
428. The Difference between mutton and lamb
is: D. who appoints committee, where it will
meet, and names of committee members.
A. The age of the sheep
433. Energy for muscle contractions comes
B. The Amount of marbling in the sheep’s
from:
meat
A. deoxyribonucleic acid
C. Mutton comes from goats, lamb from
Sheep B. adenosine triphosphate
D. none of above C. sensory neurons
D. hormones
429. Most piglets are weaned when they are
old. 434. The identification system used to number
pigs by cutting out little “V”’s on their
A. 1 week
ears is
B. 6 weeks
A. Ear notching
C. 9 weeks B. Ear tagging
D. 11 weeks C. Docking
430. If a swine producer has a $500, 000 D. Eat tattooing
mortgage on his land and buildings, and
435. A type of a SAE that places students in
he owes Farm Credit Service $60, 000
jobs outside the regular school day is:
for this year’s mortgage payment, what
amount should be entered on the current A. entrepreneurship
liability line of the financial statement? B. placement
A. $500, 000.00 C. improvement
B. $440, 000.00 D. exploratory

436. Cows, buffaloes and rabbits are 441. The type of muscle that makes up the ma-
jority of meat consumed by humans is:
A. herbivores
A. striated
B. carnivores
B. smooth
C. omnivores
C. tendons
D. none of above
D. cardiac
437. If a beef cattle producer has a $250, 000
NARAYAN CHANGDER
442. What part of the nonruminant digestive
mortgage on his farm, and he owes Farm system receives, churns, and mixes the
Credit Service $30, 000 for this year’s feed and adds gastric juice to help in the
payment, what amount should be entered digestive process?
on the noncurrent liability line of the finan-
cial statement? A. cecum
B. large intestine
A. $30, 000
C. small intestine
B. $220, 000
D. stomach
C. $250, 000
D. $280, 000 443. In commercial broiler operations, baby
chicks need heat, which is provided by:
438. Canine teeth is to A. brooders
A. Cut the food B. heat lamps
B. Grind the food C. light bulbs
C. Tear the food D. wood heaters
D. none of above 444. Newborn Turkey

A. Kid
439. What is the name of a castrated male
rooster? B. Chick
A. Capon C. Poult
D. none of above
B. Rooster
C. Pullet 445. Definition of a lamb
D. Drake A. A baby goat

B. A baby horse
440. If a beef cattle farmer needs a dry C. A baby pig
roughage to provide some energy and high
fiber, which of these materials should be D. A baby sheep
selected?
446. The Nubian goat originated in
A. alfalfa hay A. France
B. corn B. England
C. mineral premix C. Germany
D. peanut meal D. Africa

447. An FFA activity that will help students in- 452. Most beef cattle feedlots are found in the
terpret performance data, observe and de- Midwest because it is near feed sources,
termine desirable traits, make and defend the one exception to this is the state of

decisions, and evaluate beef, sheep, and , which has more feedlots than any
swine is the: other state.
A. Equine Science Proficiency Award A. California
B. Livestock Career Development Event B. Oklahoma
C. Program of Activities C. Texas
D. State Convention D. Nevada
448. What animal gives us eggs to eat for 453. Where is the breed Limousin originated
breakfast? from?
A. goats A. England
B. chickens B. Scotland
C. France
C. cows
D. Germany
D. ducks
454. what is the best description of Newcastle
449. Why is it best to isolate sick animals?
Disease
A. to give animals antibiotics A. bacterial disease that affects a birds
B. too keep the room temperature con- liver
stant B. chronic inflammation of a birds heart
C. to prevent the disease from spreading as a result of worm infestation
C. rapidly spreading viral disease often
D. to provide the animals with more play- contracted from imported birds
time D. swelling of a birds neck because of io-
dine deficiency
450. The part of a chicken’s digestive system
that connects the mouth to the crop is the: 455. Holsteins are black and white cattle that
A. cloaca are BEST known as:
B. colon A. A small breed of cattle
C. esophagus B. The major dairy breed of cattle in the

US
D. ventriculus
C. An exotic breed of heat tolerant cattle.
451. How does extreme temperature outside
an animals comfort zone effect feed effi- D. The most used show cattle in America.
ciency?
456. vet clinic contamination can best be pre-
A. is not changed
vented by
B. increases
A. eating lunch in the treatment room
C. decreases B. frequently washing hands and wearing
D. none of above protective clothing

C. placing a first aid kit in every room 462. What is structural soundness?
D. treating all sick animals at one time A. the arrangement of bone and muscle
tissue
457. Complete and incomplete metamorphosis
B. refers to the distribution of muscle
begin with what stage?
throughout the animal
A. adult
B. pupa body tissue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. nymph D. refers to the amount of fat cover on an
D. egg animal
458. Jack is reliable/prompt. He can be 463. A niche market example is

counted on at work. This professional A. bee keeping
characteristic is: B. organic farming
A. Compertence C. GMO crop production
B. Dependability D. Both A and B
C. Honest
464. These colleges are specialized 2 year col-
D. Hard working leges that offer programs focusing on ca-
reer and technical education.
459. Which of these crops should be grown
by a swine farmer who needs to grow a A. Community
crop that will control soil erosion and wa- B. University
ter runoff as well as use the most nutri-
C. Technical
ents from the waste applied to the land?
D. Graduate
A. Corn
B. Bermuda Grass 465. During the stage of complete meta-
morphosis, the insect undergoes changes.
C. Soybeans
A. egg
D. Wheat
B. larva
460. Agriscience encompasses C. pupa
A. Wildlife and Fish D. adult
B. Ornamental Plants and Trees
466. Which is NOT a setback to new farmers
C. Farms and Agribusiness wanting to start an operation?
D. All the About and More A. Financial capital required
461. Working for another person to learn a B. Land availability
trade is C. Environmental regulations
A. really fun D. New farmer grants
B. an apprenticeship 467. What is something that animal welfare
C. volunteering groups are NOT supportive of?
D. useless A. owning pets

B. animal cruelty C. collecting ripened crops from the field

C. eating meat

D. dog walking D. removing undesired plants from the
crop field
468. Details of the amount of waste gener-
ated, the fields and crops receiving the 473. mating animals of different breeds
waste, and the best management practices A. straight breeding
to be used in a livestock operation are in-
cluded in the: B. crossbreeding
A. animal mortality management plan C. purebred
B. breeding records. D. hybrid

C. net worth statement. 474. What species of animal is most closely as-
D. animal waste management plan. sociated with Dr. Grandin?
A. Horses
469. A fun fact for the breed Texas Longhorn
is B. Pigs
A. They are not maternal C. Cattle
B. Their horns are 7 feet D. Dogs
C. They are used for milk
475. What do a call a young female Chicken?
D. They are shy
A. Hen
470. This service animal is responsible for B. Pullet
helping individuals in wheelchairs with
their everyday life, allowing them to be C. Hokey
more independent. D. Chicken
A. Service Dog
476. The livestock identification system that
B. Signal Dog uses special pliers to attach plastic pieces
C. Therapy Animal with numbers on them to the ears of ani-
mals is:
D. Hippotherapy
A. Culling
471. Some of the most common vertebrates
B. Docking
are , birds, reptiles, and fish.
A. spiders C. Ear Notching
B. squid D. Ear Tagging
C. mammals 477. Pork comes from that animals?

D. starfish A. Goat
472. Harvesting is a process of B. Cattle
A. separating grains from stalk C. Pigs
B. preparing soil for sowing seeds D. Sheep

478. Which of the following are animal science C. nectar

industry careers? D. seed
A. Animal training and care
484. Which of the following are het-
B. Animal production
erotrophs?
C. Education
A. Plantae
D. All the above
B. Eubacteria
NARAYAN CHANGDER
479. Wool & silk are- C. Archaebacteria
A. Plant fibre D. Fungi
B. Synthetic fibre
485. what is a female lion called
C. Animal fibre
A. lion
D. Synthetic nylon
B. lionness
480. The projecting jaw of a dog that includes
C. no name
the nose and mouth is the:
D. none of above
A. brisket
B. muzzle 486. Serving as FFA reporter or as an active
C. stifle member of the public relations committee
helps students gain experiences that could
D. withers be used in animal science organizations
to:
481. Bears eat fish, insects, plants, seeds and
nuts . They are called A. feed livestock
A. Omnivores B. keep financial records.
B. Carnivores C. serve refreshments.
C. Herbivores D. write news reports.
D. Scavenger
487. Examples of Biotechnology include
482. the elbow on small animals is the A. Glowing pigs
A. fleshy part of the sides between the B. Vaccines
ribs and the rump.
C. All of these
B. hind limb extending from the rump to
the hock. D. None of these
C. large joint halfway up the hind limb 488. About one-third of the projected employ-
D. upper joint of the front leg just below ment openings for college graduates in the
the shoulder. field of agriculture are in the category of:
A. agricultural production.
483. what is the feed consumed by most
birds? B. education and communication.
A. fruit C. marketing and sales.
B. green plant material D. social services.

489. “Made up of chains of amino acids” 495. Muscles in livestock are classified as:
A. Carbohydrates A. internal or external

B. Protiens B. pectoral or pelvic
C. Fat C. tendons or ligaments
D. Water D. voluntary or involuntary
490. Immature Female Sheep 496. Uncastrated Male Sheep

A. Molly A. Buck
B. Doeling B. Ram
C. Ewe Lamb C. Stud
491. To help it function properly, a chicken giz- 497. This breed of horse was developed for
zard usually contains: its ability for running a quick 1/4 mile dis-
tance.
A. eggs
A. Quarter Horse
B. grit and gravel
B. Morgan
C. metal objects
C. Mustang
D. villi
D. Thoroughbred
492. % of the worlds production of mohair
498. Which of the following careers is NOT
comes from Texas
within the Animal Science pathway?
A. 20
A. Farm-Worker
B. 40 B. Animal Scientist
C. 50 C. Biomedical Chemist
D. 60 D. Animal Breeder
493. Choose the correct match. 499. Which livestock part is made up of invol-
A. Owl - Carnivore untary muscles?
B. Zebra - Omnivore A. Ham
C. Gaur - Omnivore B. Heart
D. Eagle - Herbivore C. Round
D. Shoulder
494. Complete metamorphosis has
stages. 500. What does the EPD of BW stand for?
A. 2 A. Birth Width
B. 3 B. Birth Weight
C. 4 C. Born Width
D. 5 D. Birthing Withers

501. is the science and business of pro- C. Broiler

ducing domestic livestock species, includ-
D. Turkey
ing but not limited to beef cattle, dairy cat-
tle, horses, poultry, sheep, and swine.
507. The nutrient that is usually supplied to an-
A. Pet science imals separate from other nutrients is:
B. Crop science A. water
C. Animal science B. fats & oils
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Livestock science
C. proteins
502. What do you call a mature male sheep? D. vitamins
A. Bull
B. Board 508. The animal waste management system
generally used to treat waste from cattle
C. Ram is Type:
D. Gelding A. A
503. What are some poultry quality factors? B. B
A. conformation C. C
B. fleshing
D. D
C. fat covering
D. all 509. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the
.
504. What is body capacity?
A. mouth
A. the arrangement of bone and muscle
tissue B. stomach
B. refers to the distribution of muscle C. large intestines
throughout the animal D. small intestines
C. the depth of rib the animal displays
D. refers to the amount of fat cover on an 510. How many taps of the gavel are needed
animal to officially start a meeting?
A. 1 tap
505. Which service animal is responsible for
helping those who are deaf or heard of B. A series of loud taps
hearing? C. 2 taps
A. Signal Dog
D. 3 taps
B. Seeing Eye Dog
C. Therapy Animal 511. When are animals domesticated?
D. Hippotherapy A. They are kept for a distinct purpose
506. Which type of chicken is used for meat? B. Humans control their breeding
A. Bantam C. Their survival depends on humans
B. Layer D. all of the above

512. Agribusiness is 517. What is the Finish?

A. A. the same as agriculture mechanics A. visible in the head and general appear-

B. limited to the sales of agriculture prod- ance of an animal
ucts B. refers to the distribution of muscle
C. business steaming from agriculture throughout the animal
D. special work done by medical doctors C. the phsyical arrangement of bone and
body tissue
513. Believe very strongly that animals should
not be exploited or harmed by humans, fur- D. refers to the amount of fat cover on an
thermore that people should not use ani- animal
mals to meet their entertainment, clothing,
or food needs 518. The inventor of the iron plow
A. Animal Welfare A. Thomas Jeffersen
B. Pets B. John Deere
C. Animal Rights C. Joseph Glidden
D. none of above
D. Cyrus McCormick
514. If a member believes that a parliamen-
tary error has been made, the member 519. The science and art of growing trees and
should: making them into products.
A. call for a division of the assembly A. Agronomy
B. move to adjourn the meeting B. Forestry
C. move to suspend the rules C. Horticulture
D. rise to a point of order D. Landscaping
515. What is body conformation?
520. What is the definition for Anatomy?
A. visible in the head and general appear-
ance of an animal A. science of body structure or parts of
an animal
B. refers to the distribution of muscle
throughout the animal B. judging the animal on the external re-
gions
body tissue C. the study of animals and the different
D. refers to the amount of fat cover on an breeds
animal D. none of above
516. Fastest-growing category in the compan-
521. To shed all or part of the outer layer
ion animal industry.
A. incomplete metamorphosis
A. Cats & Dogs
B. Birds B. egg
C. Rodents C. complete metamorphosis
D. Reptiles D. molt

522. The specialized cells that transform carti- A. Carbs

lage to bone are called:
B. Minerals
A. tendons
C. Proteins
B. osteocytes
D. Water
C. ligaments
D. oocytes 528. What is meant by herbivores?
A. Animals that eat other animals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
523. Which of the following are qualifications
to think about when choosing a career? B. Animals that eat plants only
A. Do you like routine or do you like every- C. Animals that eat plants and animals
day to be different D. Animals that eat living things and non-
B. Do you like working with people or living things
working alone
529. The stages of complete metamorphosis
C. Do you like working inside or outside
A. egg, larva, adult
D. All of these
B. egg, pupa, nymph, adult
524. The part of the poultry digestive system
C. egg, larva, pupa, adult
where both feces and urine pass out of the
body is the: D. egg, nymph, adult
A. crop
530. Which describes an invertebrate?
B. gizzard
A. many arms and legs
C. small intestine
B. no backbone
D. vent
C. no eyes
525. What do you call a male chicken? D. has a backbone
A. Capon
531. Water from the undigested food is ab-
B. Rooster
sorbed mainly in the
C. Hokey
A. Stomach
D. Lucky
B. Food Pipe
526. A person who helps out at a vet clinic is C. Small Intestine
MOST likely a
D. Large Intestine
A. zoo keeper
B. vet 532. The type of SAE that involves planning
and conducting an agricultural experiment
C. vet tech using the specific method is:
D. curator
A. Improvement
527. The nutrient that is most important for B. Placement
dissolving other nutrients and carrying
C. entrepreneurship
them to different parts of the Animal’s
body is: D. experimental

533. When animals do not receive enough wa- 538. Which of the following are NOT charac-
ter, one of the first signs is: teristics of mammals?

A. Overheating A. Hair or fur on body
B. Bright eyes B. Mothers make milk for babies
C. Glossy hair coat C. Cold-blooded
D. Increased weight gain D. Warm-blooded

539. The component of a North Carolina an-
534. The FFA activity that recognizes students imal waste management plan that de-
who use the best management practices to scribes the method of disposing of dead
produce and market hogs, keep accurate fi- animals is:
nancial records, and maintain a record of
skills learned and used in their Supervised A. animal mortality management.
Agricultural Experience is the: B. emergency management.
A. Livestock Career Development Event. C. waste application rates
B. Program of Activities. D. waste and soil testing.
C. Small Animal Care Proficiency Award. 540. Which type of service animal is respon-
D. Swine Production Proficiency Award sible for helping those who are legally
blind?
535. Would the heritability factor of .59 be A. Seeing Eye Dog
considered high or low? B. Signal Dog
A. Low C. Therapy Animal
B. High D. Hippotherapy
C. Neither 541. What Are Animal Scientist Called
D. none of above A. Zoologist
536. A beef cattle farmer who needs a dry B. Geologist
roughage to provide some energy and high C. Astronomers
fiber should use: D. Marine Scientists
A. alfalfa hay
542. How often are dairy cows milked?
B. corn
A. 2
C. mineral premix B. 2-3
D. peanut meal C. 1
537. Plant science is also called and is the D. none of above
scientific study of plants. 543. Immature Castrated Male Swine
A. Botany A. Barrow
B. Soil science B. Boar
C. Cropology C. Capon
D. Cultivation D. none of above

544. When one looks at the digestive system 549. What are the primary uses of Angora
of a mature cow and inspects the stom- goats?
ach, the compartment that appears to be A. Meat and Mohair
much larger than the other compartments
is the: B. Mohair and Milk
C. Meat and Milk
A. abomasum
D. Meat and Packing
B. omasum
550. Which class of nutrients is designated by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. pancreas
different letters such as A, B, D, E and
D. rumen K and helps regulate many of the body’s
functions?
545. What structures compose the circulatory
system? A. minerals
B. proteins
A. heart, lungs, blood
C. vitamins
B. heart, blood, blood vessels
D. water
C. lungs, blood vessels, heart
551. Which is most true of vitamins?
D. brain, heart, lungs
A. Contain twice the energy of fats
546. The plant roots contain nitrogen fixing B. Needed in very large amounts
bacteria
C. Needed in very small amounts
A. Orange
D. Regulate body temperature
B. Pea
552. The main purpose of an SAE project is to:
C. Mango
A. gain work experience
D. Tomato
B. lose money
547. If a livestock farmer mixes feed on the C. get a grade
farm needs a plant protein source, which D. make friends
of these should be selected?
553. The FFA Career Development event that
A. corn will help students develop knowledge and
B. oats skills needed to effectively participate
in animal science organization’s business
C. silage
meetings is:
D. soybean meal A. Agricultural Mechanics.
548. What part of the heart sends oxygenated B. Dairy Foods.
blood to the various parts of the body? C. Farm Business Management.
A. aorta D. Parliamentary Procedure.
B. lungs 554. The longest part of a speech is the:
C. pulmonary veins A. body
D. left atruim B. hypothesis

C. outline 560. Small farms are declining due to

D. summary A. farmers aging

B. increase of farmers selling land for
555. animal that has feathers, wings, and two
high profit
legs
C. younger family not wanting to continue
A. bird farming
B. fish D. all the above
C. elephant
561. Health concerns have caused an increase
D. fossil in per capita consumption of:
556. Fear Free™veterinary practices are most A. Beef

commonly used with which animals? B. Pork
A. Cats and dogs C. Goat
B. Cattle D. Poultry
C. Pigs & Chickens 562. Rapid heating and cooling of milk to re-
D. Exotic species of pets move harmful bacteria
A. process
557. Which of the following is NOT true about
B. homogenization
Farm-workers.
C. pasteurization
A. Perform scientific research
D. milk
B. Take care of farm, ranch, or aquacul-
tural animals 563. Baby cows are called
C. Require a high school diploma A. chics
D. Duties include feeding, watering, herd- B. calf
ing, weighing, and maintaining animal C. foal
housing areas
D. baby cows
558. Bio means
564. The ruminant structures are :
A. a study of A. espohgus, mouth, teeth and cecum
B. life B. rumen, reticulum, omasum and abo-
C. three masum
D. science C. stomach, small intestine large intes-
tine
559. Composting means that you will take the D. none of above
solids from the manure and
565. Which is NOT a current change that we’re
A. add water to make them liquids
seeing in the food animal industry?
B. add water but dry them out over time
A. The number of farms is decreasing
C. add water but dry them out in 1 day B. The average size of farms is increasing
D. never add water, nothing needs it

C. The average age of farm- C. minerals

ers/producers/operators is climbing
D. water
D. The average age of farm-
ers/producers/operators is decreasing 571. What is an example of the Protein Feed-
stuff
perience is observing and assisting a poul- A. Corn
try farmer so that the student will gain B. Orchard Grass
awareness of possible careers?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. oils
A. Analytical
B. Experimental D. Soybean meal
C. Exploratory 572. Brisket means

D. Supplementary A. The muscled portion of the rear leg
567. A naturally occurring material or compo- B. Muscled portion between the front
nent that is valuable to people, plants, and legs of the animal
wildlife is a Examples of this include:
Soil, Water, Wind, Natural gas, Oil, Wood, C. The muscled portion between the neck
etc. and ribs of the animal
A. Agriculture D. none of above

B. Commodities
573. A gelding is a
C. Natural Resources
A. Castrated Male horse
D. Environment
B. Castrated male goat
568. During the stage insects build a pro-
C. Castrated male sheep
tective covering
A. adult D. Castrated male pig
B. nymph 574. Which type of beef cattle feeding facility

C. larva has no buildings?
D. pupa A. Cold Confinement barn
569. Which type of beef cattle enterprise re- B. feeding lot and barn
quires the simplest facilities? C. open feedlot
A. breeding bulls
D. Open barn and feedlot
B. feeder calf
C. feedlot 575. What degree is awarded for a program
that lasts 4 or more years?
D. cow-calf
A. associate’s degree
570. The nutrient class supplied to livestock
and poultry in liquid form is: B. bachelor’s degree
A. concentrates C. certificate
B. fats D. technical degree

576. Which area is the most common for swine 581. All of the following foods contain corn in-
(pig) production? gredient EXCEPT :

A. Northwestern States A. Popcorn
B. Midwestern States B. Organic Mac and Cheese
C. Northeastern States C. Canned peaches
D. Eastern States D. Peanut Butter
577. What do you call a castrated male 582. Boarding/breeding/training facilities
horse? need facility managers with specific
A. Steer and knowledge to help them perform spe-
cialized tasks and manage facility staff.
B. Gelding
A. development
C. Wether
B. consumer
D. Capon
C. feed
578. What do the muscular system and skele-
tal system have in common? D. skills
A. Both systems protect the brain. 583. Which of the following are exotic breeds?
B. Both systems pump blood to the body. (i) Brawn (ii) Jersey (iii) Brown Swiss (iv)
Jersey Swiss
C. Both systems are made up of soft ma- A. (i) and (iii)

terial. B. (ii) and (iii)
D. Both systems assist the body with C. (i) and (iv)
movement
D. (ii) and (iv)
579. A Gilt is a
584. What specialization would a veterinarian
A. adult female pig working at a zoo be?
B. castrated male sheep A. Companion and small animal clinic.
C. young horse B. Large animal clinic.
D. immature female pig C. Exotic animal practice.
580. Dr. Grandin’s principle work has been to D. Aquatic animal practice.
do what?
585. A Veterinarian falls under which Agri-
A. Reduce the number of animals con-
culture, Food & Natural Resources Path-
sumed for meat in the United States
way?
B. Encourage people to eat a vegetarian-
A. Animal Science
based diet
B. Biotechnology Research and Develop-
C. Increase the profitability of McDon-
ment
ald’s
C. Agribusiness
D. Improve livestock slaughter facilities
to make slaughter more humane D. Plant Science

586. Which is not one of the top three pork in a tight container above or below the
producing states in the US: ground.
A. Iowa A. Roughage
B. Minnesota B. Ruminant
C. North Carolina C. Silage
D. South Carolina D. Vitamin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
587. Confinement turkey houses usually have 592. Frogs are examples of
dirt floors covered with: A. mammals
A. concrete B. invertebrates
B. wood shavings C. amphibians
C. manure D. vertebrates
D. wire
593. An organic substance that performs spe-
588. Most plant protein sources have the plant cific and necessary functions in relatively
name in front of the word: small concentrations in an organism.
A. grain A. Roughage
B. meal B. Ruminant
C. supplement C. Silage
D. urea D. Vitamin
589. Which group of animals are verte- 594. animal that has fur or hair
brates? A. mammal
A. Cnidarians B. reptile
B. Amphibians C. bird
C. Arthropods D. fish
D. Echinoderms 595. Scientific names come from which two
590. What is a feedlot? levels of classification?
A. Raises large numbers of animals in a A. Domain and Kingdom

more confined area B. Kingdom and Phylum
B. A herd of cows are bred each year to C. Genus and Species
produce calves D. Genus and Family
C. Also known as purebred breeders
596. What types of nutrients are A, K, D & C?
D. Purchase calves from a cow-calf pro-
ducer and care for them for approximately A. Protein
5 months B. Vitamins
591. A crop that has been preserved in moist, C. Fats

succulent condition by partial fermentation D. Water

597. Which fabric would be best used for hot- 602. Identify the function of the musculoskele-
ter climates or in the summer? tal body system.

A. silk A. Transports nutrients around the body
B. wool B. Responsible for gas exchange
C. cashmere C. Removes waste from the body

D. Responsible for movement
D. mohair
603. is also called aqua-farming or fish-
598. When the digestive system of a hen is in- farming and involves harvesting aquatic
spected, the muscled, purplish colored or- animals and plants for food and other prod-
gan that one sees is the: ucts.
A. cloaca A. Waterculture
B. gizzard B. Aquaculture
C. rumen C. Fishculture
D. small intestines D. Aquatic harvesting
604. Immature Castrated Male Goat

599. The cells that conduct impulses in the ner-
vous system are called: A. Doe
A. hormones B. Ewe
B. veins C. Wether
D. none of above
C. neurons
D. receptors 605. The marketing method that lets cattle
producers sell their animals on their farm
600. The production and marketing of food and without commission firms, brokers, or auc-
fiber products is known as: tioneers involved is:
A. Agronomy A. auction markets
B. Agriculture B. direct selling

C. local sale barns
C. Horticulture
D. terminal markets
D. Ranching
606. The part of a speech that is presented
601. managers and technicians work on first to the audience is the:
multiple projects related to animal science
A. hypothesis.
and carry out experiments and clinical tri-
als for government and private research B. introduction.
facilities. C. summary.
A. representatives D. table of contents.
B. embryo transfer 607. Chickens were domesticated
C. extension A. Before sheep and goats
D. lab B. After sheep, goats, horses and cattle

C. After sheep but before horses 613. group of related organisms

D. After goats but before cattle A. scales
608. If an animal science student is labeling B. species
the parts of a pig’s nervous system, what C. reptiles
is the name of the part in the center of the
vertebral column that is also connected to D. amphibians
the brain?
614. It is projected that future U.S. per capita
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. cerebellum consumption of food animal products will
B. cerebrum remain stable; thus, increased demand for
C. somatic nerve products will most likely come from
D. spinal cord A. Local growers

B. Exports
609. Inorganic compounds needed in small
amounts in livestock feed are: C. Labs
A. fats & oils D. Alternative meat sources
B. minerals
615. Definition of gestation
C. proteins
A. the act of food being digested in the
D. water stomach
610. What year does “F” represent? B. the process of growing offspring in the
A. 2013 womb
B. 2015 C. eating special feed
C. 2018 D. the process of growing into an adult
D. 2017 animal
611. When the digestive system of a hog is in- 616. A permanent, simple and relatively pain-
spected, the opening on the end farthest less identification system that is used on
from the mouth is the: rabbits and goats:
A. anus A. Docking
B. cloaca B. Ear Notching
C. colon C. Neck Chains
D. vent D. Tattooing
612. The type of SAE that requires planning,
617. Which of the following types of dogs as-
implementing, operating, and assuming fi-
sist the police in capturing criminals?
nancial risk is:
A. entrepreneurship A. alert dogs
B. placement B. working dogs

C. improvement C. guide dogs
D. experimental D. hearing dogs

618. Which livestock system is responsible for 623. Which of the is the largest producer of
supplying body tissues with nourishment silk
and collecting waste materials through

A. India
blood?
B. China
A. circulatory
C. America
B. endocrine
D. Africa
C. nervous
D. respiratory 624. Which group played the biggest influence
on early laws protecting animals?
619. What is the main function of the circula-
A. animal welfare
tory system?
B. animal rights
A. Transport materials throughout the
body C. human welfare
B. supply the body with oxygen for D. human rights
breathing
625. What vote is required when a motion will
C. balance fluid levels in the body limit the rights of a member?
D. Filter blood A. simple majority
620. This is the highest degree offered by col- B. Two-thirds majority
leges and universities: C. Unanimously favorable
A. Associate D. Voice
B. Bachelor’s
626. An action which indicates the interest of
C. Master’s at least another member of the assembly
D. Doctoral to bring the item of business before the
group is called:
621. Which procedure guarantees that more
A. Amendment
than one person wants an item of business
brought before the group? B. Second
A. Appeal the decision of the chair C. Sustain
B. Call for a division of the house D. Debate
C. Motion to refer to a committee 627. What was the MAJOR reason exotic
D. Second the motion breeds of cattle were imported into the
US?
622. What do a call a mature female chicken?
A. Consumers demanded leaner meat
A. Sven
B. Disease wiped out the English Breeds
B. Pullet
C. Producers wanted smaller calves
C. Hen
D. To produce quality meat from dairy
D. Capon breeds

628. The BEST way to improve hybrid vigor in C. A organ that is part of the nervous sys-
swine production is to cross: tem
A. Brothers and sisters in the same litter. D. None of the above
B. Pigs from the litter with their parents. 634. The skeletal frame of a young animal
should be
C. Purebred boars to purebred sows. A. Large and in charge, bigger the better
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Purebred boars to crossbred sows.
B. Small, the animal’s frame will grow as
629. is a state of an individual living in com-
the animal grows
plete harmony
A. Health C. Larger, room for growth potential
B. Normal D. Small, the frame changes over time
C. Virulence
635. Debate or discussion is such an important
D. Pathogen part of parliamentary law that stopping
debate on a debatable motion:
630. How many years of training does it take
to be a veterinarian? A. cannot be done.
A. 3-4 B. can only be done by the president.
B. 5-6
C. requires a 2/3 majority vote.
C. 6-7
D. requires a unanimous favorable vote.
D. 7-8
631. About 85% of the jobs in the agricultural 636. What would be the best definition of phe-
marketing, merchandising, and sales rep- notype?
resentatives category require: A. The genetic make-up
A. associate’s degrees. B. The overall DNA sequence
B. bachelors’s degrees.
C. The physical traits that we see present
C. doctoral degrees.
D. masters’s degrees. D. The physical and genetic make up of an
632. What is a cow’s “TRUE STOMACH”? animal
A. Abomasum 637. Serving as FFA treasurer or as an active

B. Reticulum member of the finance committee helps
C. Rumen students gain experiences that could be
used in animal science organizations to:
D. Colon
A. grill steaks
633. What is a nutrient?
B. keep financial records
A. Something only animals need
C. write minutes of meetings
B. elements or compounds that aid in the
support of life D. write news articles.

638. Proteins are complex nutrients mainly C. a brown cow

used to: D. a brown and white cow

A. Control’s the animal’s body tempera-
643. The best plant protein source for a live-
ture
stock farmer to mix with his/her feed is:
B. Develop and repair muscles A. corn
C. regulate body glands and protect B. oats
against disease
C. silage
D. Support breathing and produce heat
D. soybean meal
for body warmth
644. What should an animal science student
639. The mission of the FFA through all of label the funnel-shaped, hollow, muscular
its ceremonies, activities, and awards is organ that is the pump for the circulatory
to make a positive difference in the lives system of a cow?
of students by developing their potential
A. Brain
for:
B. heart
A. career development event participa-
tion. C. liver
B. having fun and meeting people. D. ovary
C. learning to farm. 645. What is described as the potential that

an animal has to show a trait because of
D. premier leadership, personal growth,
it’s genetics?
and career success
A. Heredity
640. Vertical Integration means B. Genotype
A. Uses personal website to advertise C. Heritability
his/her product and collects orders
D. EPD’s
B. Own finishing operations, feed mills,
and slaughter facilities 646. The 4 types of digestive systems are
A. carnivore, herbivore, insectivore and
C. A farmer sells a cow to a local family
omnivore
to slaughter for beef
B. monogastric, pseudoruminant, avian,
D. none of above
and ruminant
641. Which one has loose dewlap, insect toler- C. rumen, reticulum, abomasum and
ant, and floppy ears? reticulum
A. dewlap D. none of above
B. simmental 647. Animal waste management systems that
C. brahman primarily rely on soil and plant systems to
treat animal waste are Type:
D. angus
A. A
642. what does the Jersey cattle look like B. B
A. a black cow C. C
B. a black and white cow D. D

648. What is the definition of animal behav- 653. Hard outer coverings that protect the
ior? bodies of some animals without backbones
A. A group of animals with similar charac- are called
teristics A. invertebrates
B. An animal’s reaction to their environ- B. internal
ment C. vertebrates
C. ability to perceive the relative distance D. exoskeletons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of objects in one’s visual field
D. none of above 654. animal care and management will re-
sult in healthier, more productive animals,
649. Harmful insects, rodents, and diseases reduced medical expenses, and increased
are all referred to as profitability
A. Animals A. Proper
B. Pl;ants B. Inadequate
C. Pests C. Poor
D. Parasites D. none of above
650. Which of the following would be an ac- 655. What do you call a mature male pig?
ceptable job working with animals for a A. Bull
person who has adopted the animal rights B. Boar
philosophy?
C. Shoat
A. A job caring for calves on a dairy farm
D. Barrow
B. A job raising fish at a fish hatchery 656. What level of organization includes a
C. A job as a lab technician at an animal group of the same species?
lab A. Population
D. A job as a wildlife rehabilitator B. Community
651. What can animals be used for? C. Ecosystem

D. Biosphere
A. Food
B. Tools 657. Fibers are thin threads of natural or ar-
tificial material that can be used to make
C. Shelter
cloth, paper. Examples are
D. All of the above
A. hemp and jute
652. A duck has a pair of to help them B. cotton and cashmere
swimming in the water.
C. wool and silk
A. A. webbed feet
D. All of these are fibers.
B. B. leg
658. The part of a speech that contains the ma-
C. C. wings jor information that is presented by the
D. D. eyes speaker is the:

A. bibliography. C. Ag Mechanics
B. body. D. Chemistry

C. conclusion. 664. Successful embryo transfers MOST likely
D. introduction. require the services of a/an:
659. Which category of horses was initially A. Veterinarian

used for agricultural purposes including B. Extension Agent
pulling plows and heavy coal carts? C. Herdsman
A. Light Horses D. Nutritionist
B. Ponies
665. A plant cultivated by people is called a
C. Draft Horses
A. green
D. none of above
B. stem
660. Which nutrients, found in unknown or C. crop
varying amounts in many different feed
materials, are included in commercial an- D. tree
imal feed premixes to supply adequate 666. why is it an unsafe practice for Regan to
amounts? save extra flea dig in an empty gallon milk
A. carbohydrates container?
B. fats & oils A. accidental poisoning can occur
C. vitamins & minerals B. chemicals get stronger with age
D. water C. chemicals get weaker with age
661. Of the options below, which nutrient D. explosion may occur if dip mixes with
would be considered an energy nutrient? milk
A. Vitamins 667. Which of these traits would be consid-

B. Minerals ered Quantitative?
C. Protein A. White Face
D. Carbs B. Coat Texture

C. Birth Weight
662. The major muscle that is a part of the cir-
culatory system of animals is the: D. Spots
A. heart 668. If a member wants a small group of mem-

B. liver bers to gather more information about a
main motion before a vote is taken, the
C. pencreas members, during debate on the motion,
D. stomach would move to:
663. What is the science of growing crops and A. amend the motion
raising livestock? B. lay the motion on the table
A. Agriculture C. reconsider the motion
B. Horticulture D. refer to a committee.

669. Which type of selection breeding do we C. terminal markets

use in agriculture? D. vertical integration contracts
A. Artificial Selection
675. is an organism that eats animals for
B. Natural Selection energy.
C. Both Above A. Omnivores
D. None of the Above B. Herbivores
C. Carnivores
NARAYAN CHANGDER
670. Hooves, Horns, Bones and Hides are ani-
mal by-products used to produce: D. none of above
A. Potted Meat 676. Which career related to animal science is
B. Gelatin in the agricultural production specialist cat-
egory?
C. Cereal
A. College professor
D. Paint Brushes
B. Farm manager
671. Which of the following is an example of C. Geneticist
a goat breed?
D. Meat inspector
A. Morgan
B. Boar
perience requires a written Training Agree-
C. Boer ment signed by the student, parent or
D. Holstein guardian, teacher, and employer or super-
visor?
672. Although there are a number of breeds of
A. Exploratory
dairy goats, only breeds are common
in the United States B. Improvement
A. 2 C. Placement
B. 7 D. Supplementary
C. 6 678. Which is most true of vitamins in the

small animal’s diet?
D. 10
A. Needed in very large amounts
673. What is the birthing process for sheep?
B. Needed in very small amounts
A. Farrowing C. Provide most of the energy needed
B. Fallowing D. Regulate body temperature of small
C. Lambing animals
D. Kinding 679. the viral disease that affects a dog’s cen-
tral nervous system is
674. Approximately 99 percent of the broilers
raised in the United States are marketed A. botulism
through: B. leptospirosis
A. auction markets C. rabies
B. futures contracts D. tuberculosis

680. The system of marketing livestock by auc- C. 19

tioning online using computers is : D. 22

A. direct selling
686. Which is needed the least to meet the nu-
B. electronic marketing
tritional needs for small animals?
C. futures contracts
A. Protein
D. terminal markets
B. Carbs
681. The flank on small animals is the:
C. Sugar
A. back of the neck
D. Water
B. fleshy part of the sides between the
ribs and the rump. 687. Below is a list of a few types of
C. hind limb extending from the rump to animals.P- DuckQ- MonkeyR - FrogS -
the hock. ChickenWhich animal does not belong to
the same group according to its eating
D. upper joint of the front leg just below habit?
the shoulder.
A. P
682. About one-third of the employment op-
B. Q
portunities for college graduates in food
and ag careers is in C. R
A. food processing D. S
B. education
688. What is the birthing process for pigs?
C. marketing and sales
A. Pigleting
D. engineering
B. Shoating
683. The term to describe: species name for C. Farrowing
sheep
D. Narrowing
A. ovine
B. equine 689. When ruminants eat, the liquid part of
their feed goes into the:
C. porcine
D. poultry A. abomasum
B. cecum
684. Which of the following is a retail cut?
C. reticulum
A. Flank
D. rumen
B. plate
C. Round 690. body parts that take in oxygen from the
D. Ribeye Steak water
A. species
685. Cashmere fibers must be less than mi-
crons in diameter. B. traits
A. 5 C. scales
B. 15 D. gills

691. Computerizing the production records for B. Cultural Pest Control

a hog farm is an example of Supervised C. Chemical Pest Control
Agricultural Experience:
D. Integrated Pest Control
A. entrepreneurship.
B. experiments. 697. During a meeting, one tap of the gavel:
C. improvement activities. A. calls the meeting to order
D. supplementary activities. B. calls members to stand up.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. signifies the meeting is adjourned
692. The part of an FFA meeting that is a ritual
to emphasize tradition and beliefs and to D. signifies that the members should be
explain the meaning of certain emblems is quiet and orderly.
the:
698. Carbohydrates and fats give an
A. creed. animal
B. gavel. A. energy
C. opening and closing ceremony. B. muscle
D. unfinished business C. strong eyesight
693. An animal that belongs to the caprine D. clots blood
species are
699. What does a Zoologists and Wildlife Bi-
A. Cats ologist do?
B. Dogs A. Select and breed animals according to
C. Goats their characteristics
D. Sheep B. Study behavior of animals and wild life
694. Why is the cockatiel most often recom-
mended as an ideal bird for the first pet C. Take care of farm, ranch, or aquacul-
bird tural animals
A. aggressive nature D. none of above
B. easy to raise 700. What is a mature male horse called?
C. good talker A. Steed
D. singing ability B. Stallion
695. Uncastrated Male Swine C. Boar
A. Barrow D. Buck
B. Boar 701. evidence of an organism that lived long
C. Capon ago
D. none of above A. species
696. The application of many different meth- B. trait

ods of pest control. C. scale
A. Biological Pest Control D. fossil

702. An organic substance obtained from the C. pupa

decomposition of plant and animal wastes
D. adult
by the action of microbes

A. Fertiliser 708. The internal organ of livestock which fil-
B. Manure ters waste products from the blood is the:
C. Pesticide A. brain
D. Insecticide B. heart
703. A permanent, simple and relatively pain- C. kidney

less identification system that can be used D. stomach
for many types of animals is:
A. Docking 709. how animals get traits from their par-
ents
B. Ear Notching
A. endangered
C. Neck Chains
B. amphibian
D. Tattooing
C. threatened
704. What year did the Georgia FFA start in
the state? D. inherit
A. 1928 710. How many taps of the gavel are used to
B. 1929 indicate the members in the assembly need
C. 1930 to sit down?
D. 1931 A. A series of loud taps

B. 1 tap
705. The temporary form of employment with
an emphasis on supervised on-site train- C. 2 taps
ing, which may be paid or unpaid is a(an) D. 3 taps
A. internship
B. being lazy 711. Immature Castrated Male Cattle
C. apprenticeship A. Steer
D. validity B. Bull
C. Heifer
706. what is the lifespan of the Domestic pig
A. 1 - 2 years D. none of above
B. 5 - 10 years 712. Which bird is considered the best talker
C. 10 - 20 years because its voice best resembles a hu-
man?
D. 15 - 20 years
A. african grey parrot
707. The second stage of complete metamor-
phosis is B. blue and gold macaw
A. egg C. budgie
B. larva D. cockatoo

713. Which Safety Color signifies warning 719. animal that begins life in water and
A. Green moves on to land as an adult
A. fossil
B. Orange
B. amphibian
C. Red
C. bird
D. Yellow
D. whale
714. What is the number one job in the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
world? 720. Doctors that are veterinarians who
work for poultry companies and oversee
A. Manufacturing their feed formulation, limit disease trans-
B. Doctor mission, and direct breeding practices.
C. Advertising A. industry
D. Agriculture B. breeding
C. health/disease
715. Most accidents don’t just happen, they
are caused by human D. veterinarians
A. Sleepiness 721. Herbivores have strong to cut plants.

B. Error A. canines
C. Thoughts B. incisors
D. Forgetfulness C. molars
D. none of above
716. Immature Castrated Male Poultry
722. Sheep were domesticated for
A. Rooster
A. wool and meat
B. Pullet
B. transportation
C. Capon
C. protection
D. none of above
D. companionship
717. The notches in a pig’s right ear indicate
the animal’s: 723. Uncastrated Male Goat
A. Buck
A. Age
B. Stud
B. Individual Number
C. Tom
C. Litter Number
D. none of above
D. Weight
724. The study of the early stages of life is
718. The largest mammal is called
A. a human A. reproducing
B. the blue whale B. captivity
C. a gorilla C. embryology
D. a reptile D. biology

725. Which class of vertebrates has scales and 731. Who does the United States not fall be-
lives only in water? hind in pork (swine/pig) production?

A. Amphibians A. Asia
B. Reptiles B. Europe
C. Birds C. South America
D. Fish
D. The USA falls behind all of these in pork
726. Ovine are what kind of animal? production.
A. Pigs 732. Almost all the hogs produced in North
B. Horses Carolina are raised:
C. Cattle A. on pastures with portable houses.
D. Sheep B. in cold confinement houses.
727. Which is not one of the top three beef C. in climate-controlled confinement
producing states in the US: houses.
A. Texas D. on dirt lots with portable houses.
B. Nebraska
733. What should an animal science student la-
C. Kansas bel the two large spongy organs that are
D. Missouri part of a cow’s respiratory system?
728. Bio-security protocols should include: A. arteries

A. Using Dirty Equipment B. kidneys
B. Preventing Farm Tours C. lungs
C. Wearing The Same Boots D. ovaries
D. Removing Decontamination Areas
734. A castrated male sheep is a
729. The most commonly used grain to pro- A. Ram
vide carbohydrates for animal feeds in the
United States is: B. Wether
A. barley C. Ewe
B. corn D. Lamb
C. oats
735. Animal researchers dedicate their ca-
D. wheat reer to evaluating feed rations for live-
stock to improve performance and overall
730. The major sources of fats and oils in ani-
animal health.
mal feeds are:
A. grains and protein concentrates A. nutrition
B. manure and urine B. embryo transfer

C. petroleum products C. extension
D. vitamins and minerals D. lab

736. The reticulum D. Undesirable insects present in the

A. absorbs nutrients field.
B. works with the rumen to mix food 742. The main organs in the digestive system
are
C. ferments food
A. esophagus, stomach, small intestine
D. digests food
and large intestine
737. Adapting animal behavior to fit the needs B. kidneys and bladder
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of people
C. lungs
A. Training
D. stomach and intestines
B. Domestication
743. What is pelvic capacity?
C. Breeding
A. a measurement taken on the highest
D. Culling point of the hip of cattle at a given age.
738. What is t he science of classifying organ- B. the physical characteristics that distin-
isms called? guish males from females.
A. Taxonomy C. the exposed muscle surface that re-
B. Binomial nomenclature sults when a side of beef is cut between
the twelfth and thirteenth rib.
C. Taxodermy
D. the dimensions of a female’s pelvic
D. Biology area that is an indication of its ability to
give birth easily.
739. Which career is responsible for shoeing
horses feet? 744. Which is not one of the top three broiler
A. Farrier (meat chicken) producing states in the US:
B. Nutritionist A. North Carolina
C. Farm hand B. Georgia
D. Horse Vet C. Arkansas
D. South Dakota
740. The method of marketing livestock by
public bidding with the animals selling to 745. A baby cow is called a
the highest bidder is: A. chics
A. auction markets B. calf
B. futures contract C. foal
C. terminal markets D. baby cows
D. vertical integration contracts
746. What is the usual number of offspring a
741. Weeds can be defined as cow has in one calving?
A. Useful plants present in the field A. 3
B. Undesirable plants present in the field B. 1
C. 0
C. Plants that cannot be used at all D. 2

747. Amelia wants to remove feather dust and C. reduce its size so it will fit in a smaller
dirt and help her cockatoo stop feather cage
plucking. What is the best action she can

D. train it to sing
take?
A. add crushed granite to the birds diet to 752. Which is not a typical farm animal?
supply grit A. Goat
B. attach cuttlefish bone to the inside of B. Chicken
the birds cage
C. Rabbit
C. spray a mist of water over the bird to
encourage preening D. Pig
D. drape a towel over the cage and keep 753. Marbling in beef is an example of which
the bird covered feed nutrient function?
748. Highly trained staff that even assist vet- A. fattening
erinarians with many types of procedures B. growth
as well as the day-to-day handling and
work with animals are vet C. maintenance
A. inspection D. reproduction
B. technicians 754. What is the MAJOR use for the Broad

C. health/disease Breasted White?
D. veterinarians A. Bantam show hens
B. Commercial turkey production
749. What part of the circulatory system car-
ries blood from the heart to organs in the C. Home egg production
animal’s body? D. Meat production
A. veins
755. The management, marketing and financ-
B. capillaries ing of food, fiber, and fuel production is
C. arteries called
D. heart A. cleaning the lab for extra credit
750. What is an example of the Carbohydrate B. Agribusiness

Feedstuff C. flying drones
A. Corn D. having a lemonade stand
B. Soybean meal
756. Which of the following is NOT true about
C. oils Animal Science?
D. Alfalfa A. May research or diagnose diseases of
animals
751. Clipping a birds wings is the best way to
B. Creates new diseases
A. encourage it to use a perch
B. keep it from escaping when out of a C. May research the growth of a species
cage D. May work on a farm or ranch

757. The way that an individual manages his 763. gone forever
or her time and energy between work ac- A. mammals
tivities and home activities
B. fish
A. benefits
C. extinct
B. work-life balance
D. endangered
C. validity
D. job shadowing 764. How much do feeder animals weigh?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 3, 000 pounds
758. What are examples of multicellular
motile consumers? B. 2, 000 pounds
A. Animalia C. 350 to 1, 000 pounds
B. Fungi D. 1, 500 pounds
C. Plantae 765. What is the term for Linnaeus’s two-

D. Protista word system for naming organisms?
A. genus species
759. The term sericulture is used for
B. latin
A. Culture of bacteria
C. binomial nomenclature
B. Rearing of sheep
D. taxonomy
C. Rearing of silkworm
D. Rearing of honey bees 766. A biopsy is the best procedure to perform
when
760. Lights are on 24 hours a day in houses A. cleaning a surface to prevent infection
used for:
A. breeding flockers B. inserting a tube to drain fluids
B. layers C. keeping animals from mating
C. broilers D. removing tissue for diagnosis
D. pullets
767. Which system of the human body pro-
761. What are unicellular and multicellular, au- vides protection to most of the major or-
totrophs and heterotrophs called? gans?
A. Fungi A. skeletal system
B. Protista B. circulatory system
C. Archaebacteria C. respiratory system
D. Animalia D. muscular system
762. What do a call a newborn chicken? 768. Immature Female Goat

A. Peep A. Doeling
B. Fuzzy B. Doe
C. Henlet C. Ewe
D. Chick D. none of above

769. What is a baby of the cattle breed 774. Which part of sheep’s body yield fibres?
called? A. Eye

A. Kit B. Mouth
B. Kid C. Hair
C. Colt D. Liver
D. Calf 775. The humane care and treatment of ani-
mals by providing adequate housing, san-
770. Placing a rabbit on a smooth surface (to
itation, nutrition, water, and veterinary
administer care to it) could be dangerous
care is called:
because the animal:
A. Animal welfare
A. can escape
B. Animal rights
B. has fur on its foot pads that prevent
C. Pet ownership
traction and may result in injury if it tries
to move D. Livestock ownership
C. leaves germs to infect the next animal 776. What does a groomer do?
placed on the table A. provides basic care for animals
D. sees a mirror image in the surface B. provides cosmetic services for ani-
and becomes upset that another rabbit is mals
present
C. studies the way animals behave
771. The linking together of two or more steps D. trains animals
of production, marketing, and processing
777. A companion animal is also known as a
is:
A. Livestock Animal
B. futures contract B. Crop
C. performance testing C. Mammal
D. vertical integration D. Pet
772. A mature female cat is called a 778. Which tenet of parliamentary law helps
ensure that unpopular ideas are not
A. Queen
adopted by the group?
B. Tom
A. Courtesy is extended to everyone.
C. Kitten B. Only one item is addressed at a time.
D. Hen C. Rights of the minority are protected.
773. Organic compounds needed in small D. The majority rules on all question s.
amounts for the nutrition of livestock are: 779. Definition of Calving
A. carbohydrates A. A pig having babies
B. fats & oils B. A horse having a baby
C. vitamins C. A cow having a baby
D. water & fiber D. A sheep having babies

780. What part of the respiratory system is C. fat

responsible for the actual exchange of car-
D. protein
bon dioxide and oxygen?
A. nostrils 786. Which mineral is responsible for healthy
B. trachea bones and teeth?
C. pharynx A. Sodium
D. alveoli B. Selenium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
781. The class of nutrients that has 2.25 times C. Iron
the energy value of carbohydrates and D. Calcium
also carries a certain group of vitamins is:
A. calcium 787. Which career related to animal science is
in the social services professionals cate-
B. fats & oils gory?
C. minerals A. Animal scientist
D. water
B. Grain buyer
782. The main function of the esophagus is to: C. Hog farmer
A. break down roughage into amino acids. D. Food inspector
B. chew feed into smaller particles. 788. If a swine producers inventory shows
1000 hogs valued at $100 each, 10 tons
C. connect the mouth to the stomach.
of feed worth $300 per ton, medicine
D. produce bile. and supplies worth $2000, and 10 acres
of land valued at $4000 per acre what
783. Which is the largest CROCODILIAN?
amount should be entered on the total
A. Black Caiman value on non-depreciable inventory line of
B. Saltwater Crocodile the inventory page?
C. American Alligator A. $6, 400

D. Gharial B. $40, 000
784. Which nutrient is found in the largest C. $105, 000

quantities in livestock feed? D. $145, 000
A. carbohydrates
789. Livestock feed visit animal food man-
B. fats & oils ufacturing facilities, review product labels,
C. proteins sample and analyze animal food for haz-
D. vitamins ards like fungal spores.
A. wholesomeness
785. Nutrient found naturally in rocks and soil
(inorganic) B. animal welfare
A. vitamin C. inspectors
B. mineral D. flavor

790. What should you do immediately after B. Pigs/Hogs

applying fertilizer? C. Horses

A. Water the plants D. Zombies
B. Feed the livestock
796. Water is considered the most important
C. Eat Lunch nutrient because:
D. Wash your hands A. Bone joints are lubricated with water
791. These animals eat both plant and other B. Water converts food to energy and pro-
animal EXCEPT duces heat
A. Rabbit C. protein is its major component
B. Monkey D. Water makes up 55 to 65% of the ani-
C. Bird mal’s body
D. Chicken 797. with low temperature and wind can
cause animals to lose heat at a rapid rate.
792. The belief that animals are not to be used
by humans for any purpose is most likely A. Stress
held by people who believe in: B. Environmental Changes
A. Animal welfare C. Precipitation
B. Animal rights D. none of above
C. having pets
798. a body feature an animal inherits
D. Animal neglect
A. trait
793. Genetic and animal scientists re- B. scale
search how animals develop heat toler-
C. extinct
ance, build muscle, and produce milk to pro-
vide deeper knowledge used in breeding D. endangered
programs.
799. The three parts of an organized prepared
A. nutrition speech are:
B. breeding A. hypothesis, experiment, and conclu-
C. extension sions.
D. lab B. introduction, body, and conclusion.
794. How many steers were born in 2017? C. outline, table of contents, and sum-
mary.
A. 1.5 million
D. thesis, references, and quotes.
B. 10 million
C. 10000 800. What is the leading agency that has a
role in agriculture commodity marketing in
D. None of the Above the United States?
795. Examples of livestock animals include ALL A. United States Department of Agricul-
of the following EXCEPT: ture
A. Cattle B. Agriculture Marketing Service

C. Foreign Agricultural Service 806. Which is the most common symptom for
D. Food Safety and Inspection Service all types of nutrient deficiencies in small
animals?
801. What do you call a young female horse? A. Extra energy
A. Filly B. Increased feed efficiency
B. Wether C. Shiny hair coat
C. Barrow D. Slow growth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mare 807. Which is not one of the top three dairy
producing states in the US:
802. Livestock raise animals for use as
various food products such as meat, milk, A. California
and eggs, but also for other products. B. Wisconsin
A. producers C. Idaho
B. managers D. Vermont
C. technicians 808. Blood from the lower part of the ani-

mal's body enters the heart through
D. veterinarians
the:
803. What is compost? A. caudal vena cava
A. A material used to measure ecological B. alveoli
footprints C. cranial vena cava
B. A mixture of living and nonliving ani- D. lungs
mals
809. Which feed nutrient has the primary func-
C. A mixture of decomposing organic mat- tion of providing energy for body cells?
ter made to fertilize soil.
A. Carbohydrates
D. Normal dirt from the ground
B. Minerals
804. How many types of breeding systems C. Proteins
does cattle use? D. Vitamins
A. three
810. What do farmers use to plow their
B. zero fields?
C. one A. rakes
D. all B. trucks
C. animals
805. What is the book of authority on parlia-
mentary law? D. tractors
A. Career Development Events Handbook 811. The fleece of the Angora goat is called:
A. Mohair
B. FFA Student Handbook B. Wool
C. Official FFA Manual C. Cashmere
D. Robert’s Rules of Order D. Fur

812. Small and large animal are trained in D. Ladies and gentlemen, my topic is
various animal species to vaccinate, treat, ‘What Meat Grades Mean to You’.
and operate on them for many kinds of in-

juries and diseases. 817. This dairy breed is black and white and
produces as much as 13 gallons of milk a
A. inspection day.
B. industry A. Guernsey
C. health/disease B. Holstein
D. veterinarians C. Jersey
813. What is the biological study of livestock D. Brown Swiss
called?
818. The application of scientific principles and
A. Animals new technologies to agriculture
B. Animal Science A. agriculture
C. Science B. agribusiness
D. Scientific method C. entomology
814. If a member wants to improve a main mo- D. hydroponics
tion by adding words, substituting words,
819. The waste management practice that pro-
or striking out words, the member would
hibits applying animal waste within a cer-
move to:
tain distance of water, homes, and prop-
A. adjourn the meeting erty lines is:
B. amend the main motion A. anaerobic lagoons.
C. refer to a committee B. irrigation.
D. take from the table C. buffers.
815. Ear notchers, needle teeth clippers, and D. soil analysis.
castrating knives are small equipment
820. The breed of beef cattle that varies in
needed for a:
color, has a hump on its back with a loose
A. farrowing house dewlap, is resistant to heat and insects is
B. growing facility the:
C. finishing facility A. Santa Gertrudis
D. pug nursery B. Brahman
C. Brangus
816. Which phrase is used in the body of a
speech about grading meat? D. Sannen
A. Do you know what a USDA Choice beef 821. After there has been much discussion on a
grade means? motion with no new ideas or information
B. First, meat grading standards were being presented, the official way to stop
adopted in 1916. the discussion is to say:
C. In conclusion, USDA grades of beef in- A. “I move to amend the motion”.

dicate quality. B. “I move the previous question ”.

C. “question ”. 827. What percentage is choice quality

D. “shut up”. grade?
A. 2%
822. The feed allowed an animal during a 24-
B. 75%
hr period regardless of whether it is fed at
one time or at different times. C. 25%
A. Fat D. 80%
B. Feedstuff 828. overtly show physiological, anatomical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mastication or chemical changes
D. Ration
B. disease
823. The consumer demands hogs today are:
A. Able to grown without being fed grain D. virulence
B. Fat type hogs that produce lard for
cooking 829. Silk fibre is obtained from the of the
silk moth.
C. Good for soap production
A. Hair
D. Lean type hogs for meat production
B. Fleece
824. land animal with dry skin and covered C. Cocoons
with scales D. Skin
A. species
830. The animal waste management system
B. bird generally used to treat waste from swine
C. reptile is Type:
D. scales A. A
B. B
825. Teaching, , and training are three
ways students can develop knowledge C. C
that they will use in a profession to ed- D. D
ucate others.
831. Most commercial laying flocks of chickens
A. representatives use:
B. embryo transfer A. cages
C. extension B. dirt floors with shavings
D. skills C. open floor systems
826. A male beef or dairy animal that was cas- D. wood hen nests
trated when older is called a: 832. Organisms with a backbone
A. Stag A. invertebrates
B. Steer B. vertebrates
C. Bull C. vegetarians
D. Wither D. vegans

1.24 Animal biotechnology 687
1.24 Animal biotechnology

1. A condition which prevents their eyes, B. Biotechnology
ears, or brain from working properly. Dis- C. Cloning
ability, condition, disorder, defect .
D. Genetic Engineering
A. Impairment
B. Exo-skeleton 7. The flexibility in plants is due to a tissue
called
C. Amputation
A. parenchyma
D. Implant
B. chlorenchyma
2. A group of similar cells to perform a spe-
C. collenchyma
cific function form
D. sclerenchyma
A. organ
B. organ system 8. Xylem and phloem are examples of
C. organism A. epidermal tissue
D. tissue B. connective tissue
3. Other than transporting water, what is a C. protective tissue

function of xylem? D. vascular tissue
A. making food 9. One of the paired bodily parts of animals,
B. transporting food used esp. for moving or grasping; a leg,
C. helping support the plant arm, or wing.
D. catching light A. Limb

B. Prosthesis
4. Involuntary muscles include
C. Wheelchair
A. smooth and striated
D. Implant
B. striated and cardiac
C. cardiac and smooth 10. Packaging tissue
D. striated and skeletal A. parenchyma
B. collenchyma
5. Use of antigen-antibody reaction is not in-
volved in which technique C. xylem
A. Sanger Sequencing D. phloem
B. Western Blotting 11. Denaturation, Annealing and Extension
C. ELISA are the steps of which technique
D. Precipitation reaction A. Southern Blotting
6. Using biotechnology to change the genetic B. PCR

makeup of an organism is called C. Northern Blotting
A. Tissue Culturing D. DNA fingerprinting

1.24 Animal biotechnology 688
12. Used in places where diffusion needs to oc- 17. Muscular tissue that is found in the heart
cur, such as blood vessels and air sacs in A. Skeletal
the lungs
B. Smooth
A. Cuboidal
C. Cardiac
B. Columnar
D. Connective
C. Simple Squamous
18. A tissue whose cells are capable of divid-
D. Stratified Squamous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing and re-dividing is called
13. Which area of biotechnology is most likely A. complex tissue
to create ethical problems?
B. permanent tissue
A. insulin production by bacteria
C. connective tissue
B. organ cloning D. meristematic tissue
C. genetic engineering to increase crop
yields 19. Plant tissue that helps in the conduction of
food from leaves to all parts of the plant
D. forensic testing of crime scene evi-
dence A. Xylem
B. phloem
14. Moving food through the digestive tract
C. xylem and phloem
and emptying the bowels and bladder
are examples of “housekeeping” activi- D. None
ties normally handled by muscles.
20. A clone is
A. skeletal
A. recombinant DNA
B. smooth
B. a transgenic organsim
C. cardiac
C. plasmid
D. none of above
D. genetically identical
15. The metal part of an ice skate that comes 21. A region of plant cells that are capable
into contact with the ice; used by runners. of dividing and developing into specialized
A. Blade plant tissues.
B. Wheelchair A. Phloem
C. Bionics B. Stomata
D. Limb C. Tropism
D. Meristems
16. A genetically engineered organism that
contains a new gene from a different or- 22. A cloned daughter organism receives
ganism is called? from the identical parent organism.
A. Bacterial A. An egg
B. Genetic B. The DNA (nucleus)
C. Transgenic C. The DNA and egg
D. Multigenic D. none of above

1.25 Dairy Science 689
23. Type of parenchyma cells that has chloro- 25. If you need to analyze total protein
phyll in it. against specific protein which of the fol-
lowing technique will be used

A. Arenchyma
A. Southern Blotting
B. collenchyma
B. Northern Blotting
C. chlorenchyma C. Western Blotting
D. sclerenchyma D. DNA fingerprinting
24. Lines ducts and glands 26. Name the two types of stem cells.
A. Columnar A. Reproductive and Therapeautic

B. Adult (bone marrow) and Reproductive
B. Cuboidal
C. Simple Squamous C. Embryonic and Therapeutic
D. Transitional D. Embryonic and Adult (bone marrow)
1.25 Dairy Science

1. The Second most popular dairy breed is C. Holstein
A. Holstein D. Guernsey
B. Jersey 5. How many pounds of milk does it take to
C. Aryshire produce one pound of cheese?
D. Guernsey A. A. 15
2. Which of the following dairy product re- B. B. 12
quires live cultures during processing? C. C. 26
A. A. Ice cream D. D. 10
B. B. Butter
6. At which consistency are food pieces
C. C. Yogurt added to ice cream?
D. D. Milk A. A. Liquid
3. What stomach compartment is most like a B. B. Soft-serve
human stomach? C. C. Fully frozen
A. Rumen D. D. Custard like
B. Reticulum
7. Cheese grades are NOT determined using
C. Omasum which of the following quality factors?
D. Abomasum A. A. Flavor
4. Which cow has the healthiest udders? B. B. Smell
A. Ayrshire C. C. Texture
B. Brown Swiss D. D. Appearance

8. Which of the following components are 14. Which of the following is conducted
NOT included in a dairy animals feed? through each step of the product’s produc-
A. A. Hay tion, from farm to store?
A. A. Quality checks
B. B. Grain
B. B. Taste tests
C. C. Straw
C. C. Consistency checks
D. D. Vitamins
D. D. Smell assessments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. Stirred yogurt has which kind of texture?
15. Mozzarella cheese fits into which of the
A. A. Thick following categories?
B. B. Whipped A. A. Hard
C. C. Soupy B. B. Soft and fresh
D. D. Creamy C. C. Pasta Filata
D. D. Semi-soft
10. Where is milk stored on a dairy cow?
16. What is it called when milk separates into
A. Cows don’t make milk
water and solids
B. Stomach
A. Curdling
C. Udders B. Pasteurization
D. none of above C. Tempering
11. Light ice cream contains what percentage D. Reconstitute
less milk fat than regular ice cream? 17. When did the Turkish immigrants bring yo-
A. A. 50 percent gurt to North America?
B. B. 15 percent A. A. 1400s
C. C. 42 percent B. B. 1700s
D. D. 25 percent C. C. 1920s
D. D. 1650s
12. Which of the following is NOT suitable for
culturing? 18. What color is a Jersey cow?
A. A. Ultra pasteurized milk A. Brown
B. B. Raw milk B. Black and White
C. C. Pasteurized milk C. Red

D. none of above
D. D. Homogenized milk
19. How long is buttermilk aged after separat-
13. The Chick-fil-a cow is a? ing before churning takes place?
A. Guernsey Cow A. A. 10 hours
B. Jersey Cow B. B. 24 hours
C. Holstein Cow C. C. 16 hours
D. none of above D. D. 20 hours

20. What is the healthier choice when choosing C. Ayrshire

milk?
D. Brown Swiss

A. Whole milk
B. 2% milk 26. Which of the following is the approximate
percentage of water in milk?
C. Skim Milk
A. A. 3.3 percent
D. 1% Milk
B. B. 83 percent
21. Which of the following is the liquid
drained from cheese curds before they are C. C. 3.4 percent
pressed? D. D. 87 percent
A. A. Whey
27. Which of the following yogurt companies
B. B. Casein produced the first fruit yogurt?
C. C. Water
A. A. Yoplait®
D. D. Cream
B. B. Chobani®
22. What stomach compartment looks like C. C. Stonyfield FarmTM
pages of a book?
D. D. Dannon®
A. Rumen
B. Reticulum 28. Which nutrient in milk helps build strong
C. Omasum bones?
D. Abomasum A. Vitamin A
B. Calcium
23. What dairy farm is located in Montpelier,
Louisiana? C. Protein
A. Borden Dairy Farms D. Vitamin B
B. Kleinpeter Dairy Farms
29. Calves can stand how long after birth?
C. Brown Dairy Farms
A. Immediately
D. none of above
B. Within 1 hour
24. In 1777, which newspaper published the
first ice cream advertisement? C. 1 day
A. A. New York Gazette D. none of above

B. B. American Gazette 30. Which of the following is another name
C. C. Continental Journal for the butter formed after the first churn-
ing?
D. D. New-England Chronicle
A. A. Chunky butter
25. Which cow is the best at living in Antarc-
tica? B. B. Popcorn butter
A. Jersey C. C. Lumpy butter
B. Guernsey D. D. Corn butter

31. Which cow will be best at running a 37. What stomach compartment uses acid to
marathon? break the food down?
A. Aryshire A. Rumen
B. Holstein B. Reticulum
C. Guernsey C. Omasum
D. Brown Swiss D. Abomasum
NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. Where was yogurt first industrialized? 38. is a large fermentation vat where bac-
A. A. Athens teria and protozoa thrive to breakdown
roughages.
B. B. Barcelona
A. abomasum
C. C. Venice
B. rumen
D. D. Paris
C. omasum
33. What stomach compartment has papillae D. reticulum
on the inside lining?
A. Rumen 39. Milk is thrown out when tested positive
for which of the following?
B. Reticulum
A. A. Vitamins
C. Omasum
B. B. Antibiotics
D. Abomasum
C. C. Minerals
34. Who sells milk to the co-op or middle D. D. Fats
man?
A. Farmers 40. Whole milk fat %
B. Walmart A. .5%
C. Cows B. 2.5%
D. none of above C. 3.25%

D. none of above
35. Which dairy product contains the highest
percentage of fat? 41. Bacteria makes milk what?
A. heavy cream A. Chocolate
B. whole milk B. Sweeten
C. half-and-half C. Sour
D. skim milk D. none of above
36. When baking cookies, which butter is the 42. How much less milk fat does light butter
best used? contain?
A. A. Salted A. A. 40 percent
B. B. Whipped B. B. 12 percent
C. C. Unsalted C. C. 56 percent
D. D. Spreadable D. D. 27 percent

43. Which of the following is NOT a danger of 49. Which of the following states CANNOT
consuming raw milk? legally sell raw milk?

A. A. Foodborne illnesses A. A. Arizona
B. B. Good bacteria B. B. Iowa
C. C. Disease causing bacteria C. C. Oklahoma
D. D. Human pathogens D. D. Maine
44. Which region of the ruminant stomach ab- 50. The abomasum in cattle is gallons.
sorbs water and nutrients?
A. 1
A. rumen
B. 2
B. reticulum
C. 3
C. omasum
D. 4
D. abomasum
51. Which of the following is not a breed of
45. Cows can drink how much water a day? dairy cattle?
A. An entire bathtub A. Holstein
B. A gallon B. Guernsey
C. A silo
C. Capybara
D. none of above
D. Brown Swiss
46. If you want milk for your cereal but the
52. Which of the following is NOT a top dairy
milk hurts your stomach what is another
producing state?
dairy product you can buy instead?
A. A. New York
A. Almond milk
B. Butter B. B. Idaho
C. Water C. C. Rhode Island
D. Chocolate Milk D. D. California
47. Which of the following cheese varieties 53. Which type of milk contains the most milk
stretches when melted? fat?
A. A. Hard A. A. Skim
B. B. Processed B. B. Organic
C. C. Pasta filata C. C. Whole
D. D. Semi-soft D. D. Lactose-free
48. The best dairy choices for weight reduction 54. Which of the following butter styles con-
are: tain the highest fat content?
A. all dairy products. A. A. Salted
B. low-fat dairy products. B. B. Whipped
C. imitation dairy foods. C. C. Spreadable
D. processed cheeses. D. D. European

55. Which of the following is the most milk fat 61. Which cow is the smallest breed?
skim milk can contain? A. Jersey
A. A. 0.5 percent B. Ayrshire
B. B. 0.7 percent C. Brown Swiss
C. C. 0.2 percent D. Holstein
D. D. 0.9 percent
62. When creating thick sauces and dips,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. In which year did Louis Pasteur discover which yogurt would be the best base?
pasteurization? A. A. Greek style
A. A. 1975 B. B. Stirred
B. B. 1783 C. C. Set style
C. C. 1627 D. D. Flavored
D. D. 1862
63. Which of the following ingredients are
57. The United States produces how much milk NOT included when producing ice cream?
annually? A. A. Stabilizers
A. A. 23 billion gallons B. B. Egg yolks
B. B. 24 thousand gallons C. C. Liquid cane sugar
C. C. 16 billion gallons D. D. Sweetened condensed milk
D. D. 30 trillion gallons
64. How many pounds of cheese are produced
58. Where do cows go to be milked? annually?
A. Milking parlor A. A. Six billion
B. Grocery store B. B. Two billion
C. Vets office C. C. Nine billion
D. none of above D. D. One billion
59. How many cows are in an average herd? 65. Which cow has the best milk for making
A. A. 115 ice cream?
B. B. 250 A. Ayrshire
C. C. 500 B. Guernsey
D. D. 150 C. Brown Swiss

D. Jersey
60. Which type of ice cream is produced using
more milk than cream? 66. Farmers track their cows using what?
A. A. Italian gelato A. yellow ear tags
B. B. Fat-free B. collars
C. C. Soft serve C. ankle tags
D. D. Lactose-free D. none of above

67. Which of the following comprises the ma- 73. Which of the following is the least amount
jority of milk? of time given to age cheese?
A. A. Six hours

A. A. Fat
B. B. Protein B. B. Ten days
C. C. Water C. C. Four months
D. D. Nutrients D. D. Sixty days
74. Which of the following types of butter is
68. Skim Milk has what % of fat
NOT suited for cooking?
A. less than 1/2% A. A. Whipped
B. 1% B. B. Light
C. 2% C. C. Organic
D. More than 2% D. D. Spreadable
69. The only milk that can be sold for bever- 75. Which type of butter is a mixture of butter
ages is and oil?
A. Grade A A. A. Whipped
B. Grade B B. B. Spreadable
C. Grade C C. C. Light
D. Grade D D. D. Salted
76. What stomach compartment has a honey-
70. What stomach compartment is largest at comb structure inside?
birth?
A. Rumen
A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
B. Reticulum
C. Omasum
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum
D. Abomasum
77. How many times a day is a dairy cow usu-
71. On average, how much time per day do ru- ally milked?
minants spend grazing? A. A. Two to three
A. 6 hours B. B. Five to eight
B. 8 hours C. C. Six to seven
C. 10 hours D. D. One to two
D. none of above 78. Ruminants chew food:
72. What is an example of a dairy product? A. Using premolars and molars
B. On one side of the mouth and then the
A. Chicken
other
B. Cheese
C. That has aready been swallowed and
C. Lobster brought back up through the esophagus
D. none of above D. All listed.

1.26 Dairy Technology 696
1.26 Dairy Technology

1. Which of the following packaging material 6. Whole milk with 3.9% fat and skimmed
should be used in order to avoid off flavor milk with 0.04% fat content were used
formation in homogenized milk? to produce standardised milk with 2.5%
fat? How much skimmed milk do you need
A. Transparent glass bottles
to produce 2, 000 kg of the standardised
B. Transparent pouches milk?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Transparent plastic bottles A. 725.4 kg
D. Opaque containers B. 825.4 kg
C. 925.4 kg
2. Disruption of fat globules into much
D. 715.4 kg
smaller fat globules is defined as
A. Standardisation 7. Blue Cheese mould is
A. Penicillium roqueforti
B. Centrifugation
B. Stachybotrys chartarum
C. Homogenisation
C. Aspergillus niger
D. Mixing
D. Penicillium camemberti
3. An example of an extra hard cheese is 8. Which of the following is the effect of ho-
A. Parmesan mogenization on the appearance of milk?
B. Muenster A. Dusty appearance

B. Yellowish appearance
C. Ricotta
C. Whitish appearance
D. Brie
D. Transparency
4. Bahan dasar pembuatan cream (ex: whip-
9. Zat gizi mikro yang seringkali di-
ping cream), yaitu..
tambahkan ke produk susu untuk
A. Lemak susu meningkatkan jumlahnya, yaitu..
B. Casein susu A. air
C. Whey B. Vit D
C. protein
D. Gula susu
D. Vit C
5. Main function of second stage of ho-
10. Cottage cheese is a soft, unripened cheese
mogenisation is
with approximately % moisture con-
A. fat globule reduction tent.
B. separation of clusters of fat into indi- A. 20
vidual fat molecules B. 50
C. oxidation C. 80
D. off flavour development D. 90

11. The unwanted build-up of material on a C. Astringency development

surface is called?
D. Increased fat content

A. Secretion
B. Plating 17. Which of the following standardisation is
more desirable in large-scale operation?
C. Fouling
A. Continuous standardisation
D. Layering
B. Batch standardisation
12. Standardization of milk involved which of
the following? C. No standardisation
A. Adjustment of fat content D. Partial standardisation

B. Breakdown of protein 18. Whey is the by-product in the manufacture
C. Whitish appearance of milk of
D. Increase in nutritional content of milk A. skimmed milk
13. What form of milk is made by the churning B. butter
of whipping cream? C. cheese
A. Cream D. yogurt
B. Ghee
C. Curd 19. What is the effect of heat treatment (tem-
perature above 100◦ C) on lactose?
D. Butter
A. Greenish colour
14. Destruction of which enzyme is used as an
B. Bluish colour
index of HTST pasteurization?
A. Catalase C. Brownish colour
B. Lipase D. Reddish colour

C. Lactoperoxidase 20. Homogenised milk show sensitivity to
D. Amylase which enzyme?
15. Propionic acid bacteria (propionibacteria), A. Lipases

notably Propionibacterium freudenreichii B. Tryptases
subsp. shermanii transform lactic acid into
C. Amylase
and
A. water; carbon dioxide D. Oxyin
B. propionic acid; carbon dioxide 21. Homogenization has which of the follow-
C. lactose; water ing effects on the physiology of nutrition
of milk?
D. ethanol; carbon dioxide
A. Improved digestibility
16. Lack of homogenisation leads to which of
the following developments? B. Reduced digestibility
A. Cream layer development C. Cholesterol
B. Protein development D. No effect on physiology

22. Which bacteria is responsible for ripening B. Edam/gouda

Emmenthal cheese? C. Swiss
A. Lactobacillus helveticus and Lacto- D. Blue
bacillus bulgaricus
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus 28. Legal butter must contain at least what
percentage of fat?
C. Bifidobacteria
A. 70%
D. Streptococcus diacetylactis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 80%
23. Which of the followings is NOT character-
C. 90%
istic abilities of starter cultures of primary
importance in cheesemaking? D. 95%
A. Produce carbon dioxide 29. Suhu yang diaplikasikan pada pasteurisasi
B. Produce lactic acid HTST (high temp short time) selama 15 de-
tik, yaitu
C. Break down protein
A. 63
D. Break down fat
B. 72
24. Which bacteria are also known as “The
C. 100
cheese destroyer”?
D. 82
A. Propionic acid bacteria
B. Coliform 30. In order to prevent sedimentation in ho-
mogenised milk which of the following
C. Lactic acid bacteria
measure prove effective?
D. Butyric acid bacteria
A. Heating of milk
25. Preferred homogenisation pressure is B. Pasteurisation of milk
A. 5-15 MPa C. Concentration of milk
B. 10-25 MPa D. Filtration/clarification of milk prior to
C. 25-50 MPa homogenisation
D. 60-70 MPa 31. The process of raising or lowering the per-
cent of fat in milk or cream to the desired
26. The lactulose content with increased
standard is called?
intensity of the heat treatment.
A. Enrichment
A. decrease
B. increase B. Fortification
C. remains same C. Standardisation
D. first increase and then decrease D. Addition/Elimination
27. Of the 14 cheese varieties, which has 32. Main function of first stage of homogeni-
a tangy peppery flavour, is crumbly and sation is
pasty, has a white interior with veins of A. fat globule reduction
mould that are marbled or streaked? B. separation of clusters of fat into indi-
A. Muenster vidual fat molecules

C. oxidation 38. Berikut ini jenis keju mentah (unrippened)

D. off-flavour development atau tanpa proses aging dalam pembuatan-
nya

33. After renneting or coagulation, the coagu-
A. permesan
lated curd mass (also known as ) was
cut to initiates the moisture/whey loss B. cottage
from the soon-to-be cheese. C. cheddar
A. lump D. camembert
B. cake
39. What dairy product is made by heating
C. agglomerate milk along with a substance called ren-
D. coagulum net?
34. To add the mould to the blue cheese, it is A. Milk
mainly B. Curd
A. injected into the cheese C. Cheese
B. grown on the cheese D. Butter
C. mixed in the whey mixture
40. is an important process during cheese-
D. none of the mentioned making, whereby it defines the flavour
35. The wrapping material for butter must be and texture of the cheese, which differen-
tiates the many varieties. The duration of
this process is dependent on the type of
A. impervious to light
cheese and the desired quality, and typi-
B. impervious to flavouring and aromatic cally ranges from 3 weeks to 2 or more
substances years.
C. impermeable to moisture A. Curdling
D. All of the above B. Storage
36. Butter made of cream from buffalo milk is C. Ripening
, as buffalo milk D. Salting
A. green, contains chlorophyll
41. What is the result of heat treatment on
B. yellow, contains carotenoids
milk proteins?
C. pale pink, contains anthocyanin
A. Denaturation
D. white, does not contain carotenoids
B. Blanching
37. Working takes place when the buttermilk C. Froth formation
has been drained off. The butter grains
are pressed and squeezed to remove the D. Creaming
between them.
42. What is a product with fat content similar
A. air to butter, but made mainly from edible fat
B. cream or edible oil?
C. carotenoids A. Margarine
D. moisture B. Ghee

C. Fat spread 48. Which of the followings are the role of

D. Vanaspati salt in butter?I. Impart salty taste to the
butterII. Stabilise the water-in-fat emul-
43. What is the additional step required in the sionIII. Prolong shelf life of the butterIV.
making of butter when milk is used as raw Improve the yellow colour of butter by re-
material? acting with carotene
A. Homogenisation A. II and IV
B. Separation B. I and III
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Pasteurisation C. II, III, and IV
D. Filtration D. All of the above
44. Butter is usually wrapped in 49. Temperatures above 65◦ C viscosity of
A. paper skim milk.
B. aluminium foil A. parabolic decrease
C. high-density polyethylene (HDPE) B. linear decrease
D. polyethylene terephthalate (PET) C. constant
45. Berikut pernyataan yang benar tentang D. increase

mentega
50. Prevention of the development of psy-
A. Terbuat dari lemak nabati chrotrophic bacteria in milk is critical for
B. Banyak mengandung lemak tidak butter. This is achieve by chilling the raw
jenuh material to 2 - 4 ◦ C immediately on arrival
at the dairy and store it at that tempera-
C. Terbuat dari lemak hewani (susu) ture until it is pasteurised. Why?
D. Disimpan di suhu ruang
A. Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains
46. Which of the following is the time- produce spores which can survive pas-
temperature combination for thermisa- teurisation
tion? B. Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains
A. 72 to 74 ◦ C for 15 to 20 sec will survive pasteurisation and cause
spoilage to the butter during storage
B. 135 to 140 ◦ C for 2 to 4 sec
C. Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains
C. 63 ◦ C for 30 min
produce lipolytic enzymes which can
D. 57 to 68 ◦ C for 15 sec break down the fat
47. Proses pengolahan susu yang bertujuan D. Some psychrotrophic bacteria strains
untuk mencapai tekstur yang seragam produce pigment that will cause dis-
(ukuran partikel seragam, tidak ada colouration to the butter
gumpalan) disebut..
51. What is the method of using the heat of
A. Pasteurisasi a hot liquid, such as pasteurized milk, to
B. Homogenisasi preheat cold incoming milk?
C. Sterilisasi A. Heating
D. Fermentasi B. Cooling

C. Regeneration 57. Changing whole milk to butter is a process

D. Standardization of transforming a emulsion (milk) to a
emulsion (butter).

52. Which heat exchanger used for heating A. water-in-fat; fat-in-water
and cooling viscous, sticky and lumpy prod-
B. fat-in-water; water-in-fat
ucts?
C. fat-in-water; Air-in-fat-in-water
A. Plate heat exchanger
D. water-in-fat; Air-in-fat
B. Tubular heat exchanger
C. Scraped surface heat exchanger 58. Which of the following mineral is affected
by heat treatment in milk?
D. Spray dryer
A. Calcium
53. The fat globules in milk when heated to B. Potassium
74◦ C show which of the following phe-
C. Calcium hydroxyphosphate
nomenon?
D. Zinc
A. Frothing
B. Evaporation 59. Which one is used as an emulsifying agent
in process cheese blend?
C. Cream plug formation
A. Paprika
D. Condensation
B. Pectin
54. What is the effect of pasteurization on vi- C. Glycerides
tamins in milk?
D. Whey powder
A. Great loss
60. Perbedaan utama susu kental manis
B. Little or no loss
(sweeetened condensed milk) diband-
C. Increase ingkan produk olahan susu lainnya,
D. Sublime yaitu..
A. Teksturnya yang kental
55. Homogenization temperature applied nor-
B. Kadar gula >40%
mally are
C. Rasanya yang sangat manis
A. 30-40 ◦ C
D. Kandungan lemaknya yang tinggi
B. 50-60 ◦ C
C. 60-70 ◦ C 61. Storage of homogenised milk may lead to
which of the following development?
D. 90-100 ◦ C
A. Sediment development
56. Tests for proper pasteurization are based B. Fat development
on the activity of which enzyme?
C. Protein development
A. Lactase
D. Cream layer development
B. Diastase
62. Denature protein contributes to an im-
C. Phosphatase provement in the quality of which of the
D. Catalase following milk products?

A. Cultured milk product 68. is butter with almost all of its water
B. Skimmed milk and milk solids removed, leaving almost-
pure butterfat.
C. Ice cream
A. Clarified butter
D. Cream
B. Ghee
63. Buttermilk is a fluid product resulting from
the manufacture of C. Vanaspati
D. Dairy spread
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cheese
B. Yogurt 69. Homogenization reduce the size of fat
C. Ice cream globules to which size?
D. Butter A. Less than 2 µ m
64. Ripening tanks of butter cream come under B. Less than 3 µ m

which of the following categories? C. Less than 4 µ m
A. Process tank D. Less than 5 µ m
B. Mixing tank
70. Except for fresh cheese types such as cot-
C. Balance tank
tage cheese and quarg, in which the milk
D. Storage tank is clotted mainly by lactic acid, all cheese
manufacture depends upon formation of
65. Which enzyme is tested for cream pasteur-
curd by the action of
ization?
A. rennet
A. Plasmin
B. Phosphatase B. amylase
C. Catalase C. lipase
D. Peroxidase D. diastase
66. The “eyes” in swiss cheese are formed by 71. Nama jenis gula yang terkandung pada
the growth of which of the following mi- susu adalah..
croorganism?
A. laktosa
A. Leuconostoc
B. Glukosa
B. Propionibacterium
C. Fruktosa
C. Streptococcus
D. Sukrosa
D. Lactobacillus
67. Zigzag tube in heat treatment is used for 72. Which of the following is an example of
which purpose? “soft cheese”?
A. Reduce fouling A. Cheddar

B. Mixing of milk B. Swiss
C. Holding for a long holding time C. Brick
D. Discard unwanted milk D. Cottage

73. 500 kg of whole milk with 6.5% fat to B. 135 to 140 ◦ C for 2 to 4 sec
be standardised to 3.1% fat using skim C. 63 ◦ C for 30 min
milk containing 0.05% fat. Therefore, the

quantity of skim milk required to be added D. 57 to 68 ◦ C for 15 min
to 500 kg whole milk will be?
78. Which of the following would be classified
A. 557.38 kg as a “hard cheese”?
B. 440.58 kg A. Brick
C. 575.38 kg B. Monterey Jack
D. 404.58 kg C. Cheddar
74. is the process of removal of mi- D. Brie
croorganisms from milk using centrifugal
79. Dibawah ini yang termasuk golongan ren-
force. It is a special form of separation
net hewani untuk pembuatan keju, adalah.
of microorganisms, mainly spore formers
..
(Bacilli/Clostridia) to enable milk to be
sterilised at lower temperature-time com- A. Cynara cardunculus
binations. This process is used mainly in B. Papain
cheese processing.
C. Rhizomucor meihel
A. Fumigation
D. pepsin
B. Bactofugation
80. At refrigerated temperatures, the butter
C. Filtration
will begin to lose some of its natural
D. Mitigation flavour after how long?
75. is clarified butter that has been heated A. Within 2 months
to around 120 ◦ C after the water evapo- B. Within 6 months
rated, turning the milk solids brown.
C. Within 1 year
A. Vanaspati
D. Butter will not lose its natural flavour
B. Dairy spread when stored properly
C. Ghee
81. Which of the following method is used in
D. Margarine a standardization of milk?
76. Yellow colour of butter can be attributed A. Pearson square method
to which of the following? B. Donald cube method
A. Carotene C. Kjeldahl method
B. Anthocyanin D. Bradford method
C. Sunset yellow
82. Buttermilk is the product resulting from
D. Chlorophyll
77. Which of the following is the time- A. an addition of extra fat to raw fluid milk
temperature combination for LTST pasteur-
ization? B. removal of the butter (fat particles)
A. 72 to 74 ◦ C for 15 to 20 sec form raw fluid milk

1.27 Food Science 704
C. heating of both butter and milk to facil- A. dissolve carotene and turn butter into
itate the blending of them together yellow colour
D. artificial product produced using non- B. separate and form a layer at the top
saturated vegetable oil
C. join with each other and form clumps
83. What is a milk fat product with fat content of fat
between 62 and 80%?
D. surround air and form bubbles
A. Butter
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Dairy spread 85. Which of the followings is NOT principal
C. Fat spread types of culture used in cheesemaking?
D. Blended spread A. Mesophilic cultures
84. Churning physically agitates the cream un- B. Thermophilic cultures
til it ruptures the fragile membranes sur-
C. Psychrophilic cultures
rounding the milk fat. Once broken, the
fat droplets can D. Adjunct cultures
1.27 Food Science

1. Which food analog must carry warning la- 4. Foods that are high in fat also have more
bels about possible abdominal cramping of these
and diarrhea
A. fibre
A. Aspartame
B. proteins
B. Olestra
C. calories
C. Saccharin
D. none of above
D. Simplesse
5. is the protection of food products
2. What is the world’s largest organization from intentional adulteration by biological,
of food and nutrition professionals? chemical, physical, or radiological agents
A. FDA A. HACCP
B. International Food Council B. Process Containment for Food
C. American Dietetic Association C. Food Defense
D. USDA D. Surveillance
3. Fact, occurrence, circumstance, or process 6. are chemicals from food that your body
that can be observed. uses to carry out its functions.
A. numerical observation A. protein
B. kilogram (kg) B. resources
C. phenomenon C. ergonomics
D. International System of Units (SI) D. nutrients

7. Which is a function of lipids? C. liquid

A. Crystallization D. solid

B. Heat Transfer
13. The aroma and color of pancakes come
C. Structure from a chemical reaction known as
D. Thickening A. Enzymatic browning
8. If your blood glucose levels rise after you B. Maillard browning
drink milk, it is because you are C. Carmelization
A. lactose intolerant D. Oxidative browning
B. lactose persistant
14. Your biggest influence of your food choices
C. lactase intolerant is
D. lactase persistant
A. your family
9. how much light can pass through an object B. your friends
A. translucency C. tv
B. opacity D. tik tok
C. synersis
15. Another name for fiber is
D. cellulose
A. amylose
10. What will happen if all animals eat meat? B. cellulose
A. The number of animals will increase
C. gums
B. The number of animals will decrease
D. pectins
C. Meat production will increase
16. Which of the following is not a function of
D. Competition for food will happen
fat in a food?
11. The GRAS list is continually under constant A. Tenderizing
revision. FDA recommends Class 5 ingredi-
ents B. Flavor
A. be considered safe at present and an- C. Aeration

ticipated levels of use D. Gelling Agent
B. be safe at current use levels but eval-
17. When salt and sugar are added to
uate if an increase in use could be haz-
water
ardous
A. there are no changes in freezing and
C. have restricted use and require more
boiling points
research
B. the boiling point stays the same and
D. be removed from the GRAS list
the freezing point is lower
12. Flour-liquid mixtures that are stiff enough C. the boiling point and freezing point are
to be shaped by hand is called lower
A. batter D. boiling point is higher and freezing
B. dough point is lower

18. Protection of food products from interna- 23. Why do we keep fruits and vegetables in
tional adulteration by by biological, chem- refrigerator?
ical, physical, or radioactive agents A. To make them tasty
A. Organic B. To make them crisp
B. Food security C. To keep them fresh
C. Farm to table D. None
D. Food defense 24. Suppose your egg whites are not making
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a very impressive foam. What might be
19. The storage of food products at tempera- some reasons?
tures where water contained in the prod-
ucts becomes ice. A. not beating the foams long enough
B. not removing the chalaza
A. freezing
C. part of the yolk being left in the egg
B. refrigeration white
C. drying D. waiting too long to add the sugar
D. none of above
25. Resistance to force measures assessment
to texture, and stretchability measures:
20. Prior to 1991, solder was commonly
used to seal the seams on tin cans for A. texture
food. B. resistance of a mixture to flow
A. steel C. elongation
B. tin D. lightness to darkness
C. aluminum 26. Who is responsible for the overall security
D. lead of the nation and the American people?
A. FDA
21. About how many calories should a kid your
B. USDA
age have each day?
C. DHS
A. 800
D. NASA
B. 1, 200
27. What happens during the physical change
C. 2, 000
called Sublimation?
D. 3, 000 A. solid to gas
22. water activity is B. liquid to gas
A. measured from 1 to 3 C. solid to liquid
D. gas to liquid
B. the measure of vapor pressure over
pure water 28. Which factor cannot be controlled during a
C. the water available to support enzyme taste test panel?
activity A. lighting
D. all of the above B. interaction with other testers

C. personal preferences 34. You have been tasked with creating an in-
D. temperature novative dairy beverage. You have 30%
heavy cream and 3.5%fat milk. Your tar-

29. Darren need to measure the volume of get dairy product should have 7% fat.
lemon juice, water, and sugar for an ex- Since this is a test batch in your product
periment. Which piece of equipment will development lab, you will be making an 8
he use? pound batch. How much heavy cream will
the batch require?
A. Beaker
A. 1.35 lbs
B. Erlenmeyer Flask
B. 6.64 lbs
C. Graduated Cylinders
C. 1.06 lbs
D. Test tubers D. 6.94 lbs
30. An enzymatically controlled change in a 35. What are stomata?
food product brought on by the action of
A. parts of the flower that make food
microorganism
B. bumps on the roots of a plant that eat
A. pasteurization soil
B. fermentation C. tiny mouths on the undersides of
C. aerobic leaves
D. anaerobic D. rough patches on leaves that protect
plants from being eaten
31. large molecule that consists of many units
36. Which food product is made by texturizing
linked together
the proteins?
A. polymer A. Gelatin dessert.
B. gelatiniaztion B. Instant pudding.
C. pectin C. Processed cheese.
D. retrogradation D. none of above
32. Our body makes in the presence of sun- 37. Which best explains how bacon is fried on
light. a stove burner?
A. Vitamin A A. The bacon creates a convection cur-
rent, the heat rises to the pan, and then
B. Vitamin D rises to the stove burner.
C. Vitamin B B. The bacon transfers heat directly to
D. Vitamin C the pan, and the pan transfers heat di-
rectly to the stove burner.
33. Ionic bonds characteristically C. The stove burner radiates heat to the
A. form between two metals pan, and the pan radiates heat to the ba-
con.
B. form a crystalline structure
D. The stove burner transfers heat di-
C. involve a sharing of electrons rectly to the pan, and the pan directly
D. None of the above. transfers heat to the bacon.

38. Energy that is transferred from an object 43. What is the study of producing, processing,
at a higher temperature to an object at a preparing, evaluating and using foods?
lower temperature is called A. Biotechnology
A. Heat B. Food science
B. Temperature C. Food Chain
C. Radiation D. Biology
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
44. Denaturation can be caused by
39. What happens to a banana if you put it in A. pressure
the fridge?
B. sound waves
A. Nothing happens
C. freezing
B. Causes cell damage
D. All of the above
C. Makes the banana ripen faster
D. Freezes it 45. Angel Food Cake is what type of cake?
A. Butter/Shortened
40. Pathogenic bacteria require time to multi-
ply in a warm, moist, high protein environ- B. Foam
ment. Generally, they must be in the TDZ C. Sponge
more than to reach dangerous numbers
D. none of above
that can cause foodborne illness.
A. 8 hours 46. In food spoilage, which of these factors
has the fastest rate of deterioration?
B. 4 hours
A. Biological
C. 2 hours
B. Chemical
D. 6 hours
C. Physical
41. Testable predictions that explain certain D. none of above
observations
A. experiment 47. Which nutrient is used by our thyroid gland
to make thyroid harmones?
B. test panel
A. calcium
C. hypothesis
B. protein
D. results
C. starch
42. Educated guess of a possible or tentative D. iodine
solution to a problem based on available
evide 48. An example of a heterogeneous mixture is
A. hypothesis A. vegetable soup
B. applied science B. creamed potatoes
C. meiscus C. fizzy soda
D. variable D. cheesy soup

49. Intensity of a color. 55. A company needed to find an alternative

A. chroma bean to use for lima beans in its soup for-
mulation. Which statement is an example

B. value of a research question for this problem?
C. hue A. Bean B proved to be the best replace-
D. weight ment for lima beans
50. Another name for cane sugar is B. Can beans be simmered for 4 hours
A. sucrose C. Is bean A, B, or C the best substitute
for lima beans
B. fructose
D. Test beans A, B, and C for quality.
C. glucose
D. caramel 56. Water makes a good medium for cooking
food because:
51. The combine effect of taste and aroma
A. its polarity creates increased surface
A. flavor tension
B. texture B. its temperature will steadily climb as
C. chewiness cooking progresses
D. mouthfeel C. heat is transferred throughout by con-
duction and convection
52. Which method of sample labeling will cre-
ate the least phsychological bias among D. most foods dissolve in it
taste testers? 57. Which of this contain less oxygen than car-
A. AA, AB, AC bohydrate?
B. 1, 2, 3 A. Fat
C. 014, 532, 617 B. Starch
D. A, B, C C. Protein
53. tissue is the tissue in which the body D. Vitamins
store lipids for future use.
58. Curved surface of a liquid in a measuring
A. Collagen container.
B. Adipose A. science
C. Muscle B. control
D. Fatty C. meniscus
54. Vitamins and are the nutrients which D. hypothesis
protect our body from diseases and keep
us healthy. 59. What is the outside of the egg called?
A. Vitamin A A. Shell
B. Vitamin D B. shell membrane
C. Minerals C. chalaze
D. Water D. albumen

60. Chemical formulas on the right side of an 66. how many food groups are there? (dis-
equation. cussed in class)
A. reactants A. 5
B. solute
B. 7
C. shell
C. 8
D. products
D. 6
61. In the 1800’s what was the percentage of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
farmers? 67. energy is stored energy; It is the work
A. 5- 10 done in lifting objects to a position
B. 2 - 10 A. potential
C. 9- 10 B. kinetic
D. 1 -10
C. thermal
62. This is often added to Chinese food to en-
D. heat
hance flavor.
A. Lecithin 68. A: We don’t have any milk. B: I know. I
B. MSG get some from the supermarket
C. BHT A. ’m going to
D. BHA B. ’m going
63. How do scientists alter certain features of C. will
an organism?
D. will to
A. They can train the animal
B. Feed the organism special food 69. What is the waste product that is produced
C. hope for the best from photosynthesis?
D. They can alter the genes in DNA A. oxygen
64. The functionality of carrageenan in a B. carbon dioxide
gummy bear is to provide
C. dirt
A. flavor
D. sugar
B. texture
C. color 70. occurs when a cooler, denser mass of a
D. antimicrobial activity liquid or gas replaces a warmer, less dense
mass of a gas or liquid by pushing it up-
65. What will tenderize meat if it is left in the ward.
fridge with the meat?
A. Conduction
A. pineapple
B. Convection
B. apple
C. grape C. Radiation
D. bananna D. none of above

71. Which vitamin helps our body to use C. chewiness

calcium for strengthening our bones and D. graininess
teeth?

A. Vitamin A 77. what is a triglyceride
B. Vitamin B A. 3 bacterias
C. Vitamin C B. 2 bacterias
D. Vitamin D C. 1 bacteria
D. yeast
72. Out of all dehydration techniques which of
these uses the lowest heat? 78. Acids turn litmus paper
A. Spray Dryer A. blue; blue
B. Drum Dryer B. red; red
C. Oven Bake C. blue; red
D. Freeze Dryer D. red; blue
73. are needed by the body, but the body 79. Which of the following is not a food preser-
cannot make by itself. vative?
A. essential amino acids A. Salt
B. complete proteins B. Pepper
C. nonessential amino acids C. Sugar
D. incomplete proteins D. Vinegar
74. A range used to express the degree of con- 80. A flavor based on negative or positive ex-
centration of hydrogen or hydronium ions periences with food is called
present in a solution. A. objective evaluation
A. pH B. subjective evaluation
B. pH Scale C. taste bias
C. Phase Change D. psychological bias
D. Physical Change
81. When oxygen reacts with in freshly
75. Removing the moisture from a food prod- cut banana, the bananas turn brown.
uct. A. Acids
A. drying B. Bases
B. Electromagnetic spectrum C. Enzymes
C. irradiation D. Moisture
D. none of above
82. is a group of people who evaluate the
76. is a texture quality based on a food flavor, texture, appearance, and aroma of
resistance to pressure. food products.
A. firmness A. consumer test panel
B. brittleness B. product evaluators

C. taste test panel 87. Cooled boiled water has a flat taste be-
cause
D. sensory evaluators
A. boiled water contains more impurities
83. The crystalline substance that is left
when all minerals, flavorings, and coloring B. cooking destroys bacteria
agents are removed from brown sugar.
C. there is a lower dissolved oxygen level
A. Granulated Sugar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Confectioner’s Sugar D. all of the above
C. Powdered Sugar 88. When 1 molecule is broken down into 2
D. Brown Sugar smaller parts by adding water
A. enzymes
84. Which best describes the process of con- B. hydrolysis
vection?
C. disaccharides
A. Convection is the primary way heat
D. carmelization
travels through rays.
B. Convection is the primary way heat 89. Purpose of sugar in cakes?
travels through metals. A. Flavor
C. Convection is the primary way heat B. Structure
travels through appliances. C. Stabilize Egg Whites
D. Convection is the primary way heat D. Leaven
travels through liquids and gasses.
90. colouring is added into food to make it
85. In the U.S., milk is regulated by the A. attractive
A. Department of Health and Human Ser- B. more testier
vices Food and Drug Administration C. stay mixed
B. United States Department of Agricul- D. none of above
ture Food Safety and Inspection Service
91. is considered an allergen that would
require labeling on a food product in the
C. United States Environmental Protec- U.S.
tion Agency
A. Coconut
D. The Centers for Disease Control and B. Corn meal
Prevention
C. Celery
86. Which is a personal hygiene rule to follow D. Canola oil
when cooking food?
92. Resistance of a mixture to flow
A. tie hair back
A. translucency
B. clean surfaces B. opacity
C. store high risk food in fridge C. stability
D. use a red chopping board for raw meat D. viscocity

93. Which of the following are types of food 99. A thickened mixture of starch and liquid
spoilage? A. paste

A. Chemical.
B. gel
B. Physical.
C. jello
C. Microbial.
D. glucogon
D. All of the Above.
100. Which of the following keeps the diges-
94. We should drink at least glasses of wa- tive system healthy and is also used for
ter every day. other chemical reactions?
A. 4 - 6
A. Roughage
B. 6 - 8
B. Water
C. 10 - 12
C. Mineral
D. 8 - 10
D. Fats
95. Crops grown with their roots suspended in
liquid nutrient solutions. 101. Rachel conducts an experiment to deter-
mine if increased UV radiation increases
A. hydroponic crops
the number of freckles a person has.
B. biotechnology Which of the following is the dependent
C. aquaponic crops variable?
D. fodder A. UV radiation
96. Which of the following is a type of min- B. Freckles

eral? C. Amount of sunlight
A. Orange D. Wrinkles
B. Macro mineral
102. Excess calories from carbohydrates are
C. Fish stored in the body as
D. Vegetables A. sugar
97. careers involve preserving, sorting, B. starch
grading, packaging, and shipping food
C. fat
A. Production
D. protein
B. Food service
C. Product development 103. Dry methods of cooking include
D. Regulation and compliance A. dry-frying spices, baking an apple pie,
poaching an egg
98. bacteria are used for fermentation in
B. deep-fried chips, braised lamb,
the vinegar making process.
stewed fruit
A. Lactic acid
C. roasted sweet potato, baked apples,
B. Acetic acid fried eggs
C. Carbon dioxide D. spaghetti bolognaise, baked meringue
D. Proteolytic pudding, beef burger

104. Sink Two is used for 110. The is a handbook available through
A. cleaning the FDA that provides current information
about the major known agents that cause
B. soaking foodborne illness.
C. rinsing A. Microbiological Specifications of Food
D. suddsing Pathogens
105. The human analysis of the taste, smell, B. Microorganisms in Food
sound, feel, and appearance of food is C. The Microbiology of Safe Food
NARAYAN CHANGDER
called D. Bad Bug Book
A. taste bias
111. Two or more elements chemically com-
B. sensory evaluation bined, whose properties are completely
C. taste test panel different from those of the individual el-
ements
D. volatility
A. compound
106. Which food is a good example of a carbo-
B. B. heterogeneous mixture
hydrate?
C. homogeneous mixture
A. Meat
D. solution
B. Broccoli
C. Garlic 112. The boiling point of water at sea level is
D. Bread A. 100◦ F
B. 32◦ F
107. The complete destruction of all microor-
ganisms C. 100 ◦ C
A. sterilization D. 32 ◦ C
B. Electromagnetic spectrum 113. Half of your plate should be and

C. pasteurization A. Vegetables and Protein
D. none of above B. Fruits and Vegetables
C. Fruits and Grains
108. Sodium nitrite is added to some meat
products as a D. Protein and Dairy
A. Stabilizer 114. This product is churned cream.
B. pH controller A. Margarine
C. Curing agent B. Butter
D. Binding agent C. Shortening
D. Cream Cheese
109. When a dehydrated food Is reconstituted
115. In Hindi cardamom is popularly known as
A. it is eaten in the dehydrated state. A. Loung
B. The moisture level is below 5%. B. Elaichi
C. water is added back to it. C. Yelakka

116. are compounds or metabolites pro- 122. Glycogen is

duced by molds that are toxic or have A. stored in the kidneys.
other adverse biological effects on hu-

mans. B. the body’s store of reserve glucose.
A. Psychrotrophs C. not easily available to the body during
exercise.
B. Mycotoxins
C. Iodophors D. none of above
D. Biofilms 123. These are trace minerals except
117. Which does not describe a physical prop- A. Selenium
erty B. Chromium
A. Hardness
C. Phosphorus
B. Luster
D. Iron
C. Viscosity
D. Weight 124. Defficiency of vitamin B1 causes
A. Beriberi
118. You can smother a kitchen fire by using:
B. Rickets
A. baking soda
B. salt C. Scurvy
C. tri-class extinguisher D. Goiter

D. all of the above 125. This type of sugar has been recommended
119. Fat in cake for people withdiabetes.
A. tenderizes the gluten A. Fructose

B. gives structure B. Glucose
C. adds sweetness C. Sucrose
D. causes cakes to rise D. lactose
120. The process of breaking down food into 126. What group of foods coagulate?
a form the body can use.
A. Protein
A. Diet
B. Sugars
B. Metabolism
C. Carbohydrates
C. Calories
D. All of them
D. Digestion
121. A common emulsifier used in food prod- 127. All matter has two properties. Which
ucts two?
A. chocolate A. physical and chemical

B. citric acid B. physical and density
C. lecithin (egg) C. chemical and density
D. vinegar D. density and compound

128. What type of heat transfer is used when C. Disodium Phosphate

cooking in a microwave?
D. Nitrates
A. convection
B. conduction 134. Why is it important for food to be prop-
erly prepared?
C. radiation
A. So it is safe and best for your enjoy-
D. none of above
ment
is a form of food spoilage when auto-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
129. B. So it is really good to eat
oxidation causes lipids to deteriorate caus-
ing an unpleasant odor and flavor. C. So the chef gets a good review on Yelp
A. Denaturation
D. So it isn’t burnt on the outside but
B. Retrogradation
under-cooked on the inside
C. Rancidity
D. Rotten 135. The temperature at which maximum
swelling occurs
130. Watch what you eat A. beurre manie
A. refuse certain food because you want
B. retrogradation
to stay slim
B. be careful about what you eat, and the C. gelatinization point
quantities you eat D. pectins
C. educe the amount of (fatty or sugary
foods, for example) 136. Fruit sugar
D. none of above A. fructose

B. sucrose
131. Is required for the formation of
haemoglobin in our blood. C. lactose
A. Iodine D. none of above
B. Iron
137. Charged particles that have gained or lost
C. Phosphorus an electron are called
D. Calcium A. atoms
132. Carbohydrates are commonly called B. elements
A. Barbz C. metals
B. Carbs D. ions
C. Hydrates
138. Proteins are broken up into
D. Carbos
A. glucose
133. This common additive is often used to in-
crease the nutritional value of pastas. B. fatty acids and glycerol
A. Guar Gum C. fats
B. Tartaric Acid D. amino acids

139. Which food preservation technique C. 75%

works by reducing oxygen exposure to D. 50%
food?

145. Another name for Ascorbic Acid is:
A. Vacuum Sealing.
A. Vitamin C
B. Dehydrating.
B. Vitamin D
C. Freezing.
C. Iron
D. none of above
D. Protein
140. Which of these are a mechanical raising
agent? 146. Which element is not found in a carbohy-
drate?
A. Whisking
A. oxygen
B. Folding
B. nitrogen
C. Creaming
C. hydrogen
D. All of them
D. carbon
141. The process involving the browning of 147. Food product dating is
starch when food is subjected to dry heat
A. required for all food products
A. coagulation
B. required for all meat products
B. caramelisation
C. required for all infant formulas
C. dextrinisation
D. required for all products that are con-
D. gelatinisation sumed, regardless of product type
142. What education is needed for a product 148. The thinness of a food product, which can
development scientist? be measured in terms of pourability
A. Bachelors Degree and some experi- A. firmness
ence B. consistency
B. Masters Degree C. garnish
C. Bachelors Degree D. appearance
D. No education required
149. Solutions are composed of .
143. Which sample will provide the most in- A. salts and solutes
tense flavors for comparison? B. solvents and salts
A. lasagna that is served piping hot. C. solutes and alloys
B. lasagna tested @ 10 am D. solutes and solvents
C. lasagna tested under red lights
150. A pattern of eating that includes how
D. lasagna that is served warm much, what, and how often a person eats.
144. How many of the world’s children are A. Metabolism
malnourished? B. Diet
A. 10% C. Calories
B. >25% D. Vitamins

151. What do people use to replace the meat C. Cellulose

in veggie burgers?
D. Algal polysaccharide
A. Zucchini
B. Squash 157. This is the scientific name for salt.
C. Soy beans A. Lecithin

D. Soy meal B. Ascorbic Acid
152. This is the Japanese term for delicious or C. Sodium Benzoate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
savory. D. Sodium Chloride
A. Edamame
158. Freezer burn is
B. Brothy
A. Mold growing on a product in a freezer
C. Astringency
D. Umami
B. Not detrimental to food quality
153. Food Science is C. Occurs in tightly vacuum packaged
A. The study of producing, processing, food
preparing and evaluating food. D. Caused by moisture loss from food
B. Using modern genetics to process when food is exposed to air in a freezer
food
C. cultivating a variety of plants & ani- 159. The tiny organisms that growing and on
mals foods.
D. The study of how the body uses food A. microbes

B. yeast
154. . Starches can be defined as
A. polymers of sugars C. cells
B. indigestible saccharide D. none of above

C. monosaccharides 160. Where does water boil at a lower tem-
D. disaccharides perature?
155. Delay in microbial decomposition can be A. St.Louis, MO

achieved by B. Pike’s Peak
A. Asepsis C. The Atlantic Coast
B. Filteration D. New York City
C. Radiation
161. Fruits and vegetables are primarily com-
D. All the above
posed of:
156. is the main plant fiber found in food A. Fructose
and is a polymer made of a form of glucose
called beta-D- glucose. B. Minerals
A. Pectin C. Water
B. Hemicellulose D. Maltose

162. Sugars are identified by which of the fol- 168. What is Hydrogenation? & Is it good for
lowing suffixes? us?

A. -ase A. Hydrogen atoms converting a solid fat
B. -ose into liquid/NO
C. -itis B. Hydrogen atoms converting a solid fat
D. -post into liquid/YES
C. Hydrogen atoms converting an oil into
163. Thickened liquids that are pourable
a solid form/ NO
A. sols
D. Hydrogen atoms converting an oil into
B. pastes a solid form/ YES
C. carbohydrate gums
169. In between testing fatty food samples, it
D. gels
is important to rinse the mouth with
164. What happens to protein molecules when A. cold water
they denature?
B. hot water
A. They enlarge
B. They swell C. warm milk
C. They get smaller D. warm water
D. They break down 170. Creaming butter and sugar is an example
165. When you don’t drink enough water you of
can become: A. Denaturing Protein
A. silly B. Retrogradation
B. hyper
C. Syneresis
C. intoxicated
D. Aerating Batter
D. dehydrated
166. To reduce the risk of BSE in the U.S. food 171. Mouthfeel refers to the texture of the
supply, is not permitted in human food A. hands
products or dietary supplements.
B. palate
A. Beef brain
C. mouth
B. Beef cheek meat
D. eyes
C. Pork brain
D. Pork cheek meat 172. When pancakes are cooked on the griddle,
heat is transferred to the pancake batter
167. What was establisjed in 1862, to over-
by
see food production and agriculture.
A. conduction
A. USDA
B. CEC B. convection
C. CDC C. radiation
D. FDA D. none of above

173. Which is an example of a safe way to 178. An advantage of cooking with steam is:
handle glassware? A. Foods are more flavorful
A. cool hot glass in lukewarm water B. it is faster than boiling when pressure
B. move hot beakers to storage for cool- is added
ing C. food is more nutritious
C. point test tubes toward people as they D. all of the above
are heated
NARAYAN CHANGDER
179. What does the research indicate about di-
D. position glassware on burner before ets high in complex carbohydrates?
turning on heat
A. Improves an athletes performance
174. What is a compound? B. Hinders an athletes performance
A. the simplest form of a substance C. Is hard for most athletes to maintain
B. a combination only of 3 elements D. Is the best diet for all people
C. a combination of 2 or more elements 180. Who can explain how a change would
D. a place where people are held chemically alter the product and affect its
taste?
175. Why do we process food? A. Flavor scientists
A. To make it taste better B. Chef
B. To prevent bacteria from growing C. Flavor chemist
C. To take all the moisture and air out of D. Food design consultant
our food 181. From the 8 tips for healthy eating please
D. To make our food healthier fill in the guidelines below:-3. Eat more
A. fruit and vegetables
176. Which atom does not need eight electrons
in its outer energy level to be stable? B. starchy foods
A. Carbon C. fish
D. protein
B. Chlorine
C. Hydrogen 182. What causes the bonds to break?
D. Sodium A. Force
B. Energy
177. What happens when a chemical reaction C. Other bonds
occurs between 2 substances?
D. Chemicals
A. nothing happens
183. The first artificial sweetener produced
B. chemical bonds are broken and then
formed again by an enzyme A. acesulfame K
C. chemical bonds are broken and new B. aspartame
ones form C. olestra
D. connect with other chemicals D. saccharin

184. A crock pot transfers energy through B. Fats

A. Microwaves C. Proteins

B. Conduction D. Iodine
C. Convection 190. What is the importance of food preserva-
D. Hot air rising and cool air falling tive?
185. conditions are necessary for a foam A. improve taste

to remain stable. B. enhance flavor
A. Two C. fight spoilage
B. Three D. minimize lifespan
C. Four 191. Milk with chalk added is an example of
D. Five which type of food?
A. adulterated
186. When two amino acids form a bond,
is lost. B. analog
A. Sugar C. hydroponic
B. Fat D. synthetic
C. Vitamin K 192. Vitamin is needed for proper function-
D. Water ing of blood vessels.
A. Vitamin A
187. You are formulating a product that will
contain 0.03% of a flavoring agent. How B. Vitamin B
many parts per million (ppm) does this C. Vitamin C
equate for this ingredient?
D. Vitamin D
A. 30 ppmb
193. A flavor preference based on negative
B. 300 ppmc
or positive experiences with food is called
C. 3000 ppmd .
D. 30000 ppm A. taste bias
188. When grocery shopping, one of the ways B. subjective evaluation
to avoid foods with added sugar is to: C. psychological bias
A. Concentrate purchases on fruits and D. objective evaluation
vegetables
194. How do thickeners improve a food prod-
B. Avoid the bakery altogether uct?
C. Shop the perimeter of the grocery A. They prevent spoilage due to oxygena-
store tion.
D. Make a shopping list and stick to it. B. They increase the viscosity of a prod-
189. , not only provide energy to our uct.
body but also keep us warm. C. They preserve the flavor of a product.
A. Minerals D. They keep food from drying out.

195. Which of the following statements about 200. Sugar is the main product of the follow-
organic foods is true? ing plant activity:
A. The terms “natural” and “organic” are A. photosynthesis
interchangeable. B. flowering
B. Organic foods and conventional foods C. seeding
both have good safety records.
D. losing its leaves (foliage)
C. Evidence shows that organic foods are
201. Professional trained to know and re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
more nutritious than conventional foods.
search the biology and chemistry of foods
D. Organic foods have never been the
and the processes used to improve and pre-
cause of a foodborne illness outbreak.
serve them.
196. is a large molecule containing many A. nutritionist
atoms. B. food scientist
A. micromolecule C. scientific method
B. albumen D. food product developer
C. macromolecule
202. A characteristic of a plant or animal is
D. coagulation also known as one of its
197. Which of the following is an example of A. Genes
a psychological influence on food choices? B. Traits
A. A Jamaican eats a lot of tropical fruit. C. Aspects
B. A Hindu does not eat beef. D. Norms
C. A consumer always chooses the same 203. Which food item is not a source of mineral
brand of yogurt. ’iron’?
D. A child is unable to taste sweets. A. Nuts
198. A group of people who evaluate the fla- B. Spinach
vor, texture, appearance, and aroma of C. Apples
food products
D. Lemon
A. test panel
204. What happens if you overmix a cake
B. consumers batter
C. sensory evaluators A. Cake won’t cook
D. taste test panel B. Lack of volume
199. Who developed over 100 products from C. Batter is runny resulting in a very
peanuts, pecans, and sweet potatoes? tough cake
A. George Washington Carver D. You can’t overmix cakes
B. Fannie Farmer 205. Lemonade is a special mixture called a
C. Justus von Liebig A. substance
D. Clarence Birdseye B. solution

C. plasma C. Vitamin D
D. ingredient D. Vitamin B12

206. Which numerical scale will be the most 211. cooled boiled water has a flat taste be-
effective for a sensory evaluation? cause
A. 1 to 11 A. cooking destroys bacteria
B. 1 to 6 B. there is a lower dissolved oxygen level
C. 1 to 5
C. boiled water contains more impurities
D. 1 to 3
207. is a method that measures ATP by its D. all of the above

reaction with the luciferin-luciferase com-
plex to provide an indication of the micro- 212. Which nutrient insulates the body against
bial load on the surface of food processing the cold and protects internal organs?
equipment A. Proteins
A. Turbidity B. Fats
B. Impedance C. Minerals
C. Bioluminescence D. Nutrients
D. Catalase 213. To carry out certain provisions of the ,
208. Which Vitamin food is required for proper food facilities that manufacture, process,
functioning of blood vessels, for keeping pack, or hold food are required to be reg-
gums healthy and for healing of wounds? istered.
A. Vitamin C A. FDA
B. Vitamin B B. FSMA
C. Vitamin k C. Bioterrorism Act
D. Vitamin A D. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

214. When analyzing product texture,
209. Publication that offers safe food handling
refers to how well one part of a food slides
recommendations to anyone seeking infor-
past another without breaking.
mation on the topic?
A. firmness
A. FDA’s Food Code
B. brittleness
B. World Health Magazine
C. graininess
C. Rachel Ray News
D. chewiness
D. Organic Health report
215. What should be done in between tasting
210. The time of day, season, where you live,
food samples that contain fat?
your skin color, and how often you use sun-
screen can all affect the amount of which A. Sip your favorite drink
vitamin your skin is able to make? B. Sip warm water
A. Vitamin A C. Smell Coffee Beans
B. Vitamin C D. Brush your Teeth

216. Which is not an example of a preserved B. Dairy group

food?
C. Bread group
A. Frozen Pizza
D. none of above
B. Canned Food
C. Milk 222. Minerals that are needed in small
D. Cereal amounts are called
A. macro minerals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
217. When is a universal evaluation form most
likely to be used in taste tests? B. zirconia minerals
A. when young children are the testers
C. trace minerals
B. with consumer taste test panels
D. water soluble minerals
C. during test marketing
D. during early stages of product develop- 223. water that is tied to the structure of large
ment molecules like proteins and starches
218. Carbohydrates are found in many of your A. bound water
favorite foods like fruit, bread and cook-
ies. What is the biggest reason your body B. hydrogen bond
needs carbohydrates? C. nonpolar covalent bond
A. To give us energy
D. covalent bond
B. To help build strong bones
C. To help give us strong muscles 224. Why is having excess cholesterol in our
arteries is not desirable?
D. To help us sleep
A. having excess cholesterol makes us
219. The practical application of scientific weigh more
knowledge is know as
A. Food science B. It is desirable to have excess choles-
terol in your arteries
B. Technology
C. Can block blood flow and lead to heart
C. Career science
disease
D. Food production
D. none of above
220. Which of the following are forms of en-
ergy are used by the food industry 225. Term describing foods and beverages
A. mechanical that supply vitamins, minerals, and other
healthful substances with relatively few
B. chemical
calories.
C. electrical
A. nutrient dense
D. all of these
B. thermodynamics
221. Milk, cheese, and yogurt are in which
group? C. descriptive observation
A. Meat group D. metric system

226. When a company sanitizes equipment or C. graininess

a processing area, they are D. chewiness

A. physically removing soil from the sur-
face 231. Functions of food packaging includes all
of the following except:
B. treating with heat or chemicals to re-
duce the number of microbes present A. Food preservation
C. implementing a dry pick up of debris B. Classify product
D. treating so the equipment and process- C. Educate customer
ing area are free from all living microbes D. Cause spoiling and mishandling
227. The appearance of food includes its
232. In the development of food the women
A. shape and children of early settlers help by
B. size A. plowing
C. condition B. weeding
D. all of the above C. searching for nuts and fruit
228. If both protons and neutrons are found in D. clearing land
the nucleus, why is it positive?
233. When the bacteria uses almost anything
A. The reason it is positive is because as a nutrient.
neutrons have a positive charge and pro-
tons have a negative charge. A. Heterotrophic
B. The reason it is positive is because B. Autotrophic

neutrons have a negative charge and pro- C. Omniotrophic
tons have a positive charge
D. none of above
C. The reason it is positive is because
neutrons have no charge and protons 234. A process by which a wild plant or an-
have a positive charge. imal is altered to become a reliable food
D. The reason it is positive is because source.
neutrons have no charge and protons A. domestication
have a negative charge
B. preservation
229. which one is a preservative? C. process
A. chlorine D. none of above
B. aspartame
235. Science of applying nutritional principles
C. boric acid to meal planning and preparation to ad-
D. none of above dress both health and disease.
A. nutritionist
230. A texture quality based on the size of the
particles in a food product B. dietetics
A. brittleness C. food product development
B. firmness D. nutritional therapist

236. To produce biscuits that are snowy white 241. One is equal to the amount of energy
inside: needed to raise the temperature of 1g of
water by 1 degree C.
A. Use lard instead of butter
A. Calorie
B. Use a ratio of 3 parts flour to 1 part
liquid B. Heat
C. Use buttermilk and baking soda C. Thermal Energy
D. Use milk and baking powder sour milk D. Temperature
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and soda produce a slightly acidic dough 242. Why do some plants consume insects?
causing the biscuits to be white. On the
other hand an alkaline residue would pro- A. they are evil plants
mote a creamy color B. they need additional nutrients
C. they dislike flies
237. Vitamin that is not present in milk is
D. they can’t complete photosynthesis
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1 243. Which artificial sweetener is not heat sta-
ble in its original form
C. Vitamin C
A. Acesulfame K
D. Vitamin D
B. Aspartame
238. Water performs all of the following func- C. Saccharin
tions in the body except D. Sucralose
A. maintaining body temperature
244. Name a healthy source of calcium
B. dissolving and transporting nutrients
A. canned salmon
C. serving as a reactant for chemical re-
B. cream
actions
C. steak
D. providing energy
D. nuts
239. which type of food processing kills bacte-
245. Path of food from the growth of raw
ria and its spores?
product, through processing, preparation,
A. cooling and presentation, to the final consumer.
B. vacuum packaging A. hydroponic crop
C. freeze-drying B. harvesting
D. canning C. farm to table
D. farm to school
240. When our body is low in or missing an
essential nutrient this is called a 246. Consider one slice of pizza contains 5g
of fat, 4g of protein and 3g of carbohy-
A. deficiency
drates. What will the total calories be in
B. devise three slices of pizza?
C. without A. 37 calories
D. deficit B. 73 calories

C. 146 calories C. adding sugar.

D. 219 calories D. controlling enzymes.

247. Artificial sweeteners are combined with 253. Identifies organs related to the sense of
bulking agents in food to smell
A. enhance the texture A. mouthfeel
B. provide the mouthfeel of sugar B. olfactory
C. thicken the consistency C. consistency
D. all are correct D. olfactory bulb
254. How does adding sugar work to preserve
248. The number of electrons in the outer-
food?
most energy level when most elements are
chemically stable is A. Water content is decreased.
A. 6 B. Removes oxygen exposure.
B. 8 C. Provides an acidic environment.
C. 3 D. none of above
D. 1 255. Timeline to turn an new idea into a prod-
uct
249. Botanical name of cardamom
A. 1-2 years
A. Elettaria cardamomum
B. 2-4 months
B. Curcuma longa
C. 1-2 months
C. Capsicum frutescens
D. 2-4 years
D. none of above
256. Contaminate means to make
250. The only vegetable that is considered a A. clean
complete protein is a
B. not clean
A. peanut
C. bigger
B. soybean
D. smaller
C. pecan
257. MSG is a type of
D. walnut
A. flavouring
251. Energy is the ability to do B. preservative
A. science C. Coloring
B. work D. none of above
C. force
258. Making a mixture results in only.
D. nothing
A. chemical reactions
252. Rehydration is B. separate parts
A. removing liquid. C. physical changes
B. adding water back. D. two subtances

259. The fiber present in the food which helps B. Vitamin B

us to get rid of undigested food is called? C. Vitamin C
A. Vitamin
D. Vitamin D
B. Minerals
265. All ice cream is made from a basic
C. Roughage
mix
D. Fats
A. Cream
NARAYAN CHANGDER
260. Umami is found in food and beverages B. White
that are high in
C. Yellow
A. Sodium
D. Milk
B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates 266. is a process that changes the shape
of a protein molecule without breaking its
D. Amino Acids
peptide bonds.
261. Study of the nature of food, the causes A. coagulation
of deterioration, the principles underlying
food processing, and the improvement of B. bonding
foods for the consuming public. incaparina C. denaturation
A. food science D. proteination
B. food product developer
267. The water that will give the most success-
C. nutrition ful food preparation is
D. food safety specialist A. free water
262. Water that is tied to the structure of B. hard water
large molecules like protein and starches C. soft water
is
D. temporarily hard water
A. anydrous
B. bound water 268. When making angel food cake, you must
in the flour.
C. free water
A. mix
D. hydrogen bond
B. fold
263. is the transfer of heat through matter
from particle to particle collisions. C. stir
A. conduction D. pound
B. convection 269. Why should we take fats in small quanti-
C. radiation ties?
D. none of the above A. Causes obesity
B. Gives energy
264. Which vitamin is required for healthy skin
and proper functioning of nerves? C. Does not provide nutrients
A. Vitamin A D. none of above

270. Retrogradation is undesirable 276. Tall container used to accurately mea-

A. when a mixture thickens as it cools sure the volume of liquids to the nearest
milliliter.

B. when it causes syneresis
A. weight
C. in any food mixture
D. All of the above. B. graduated cylinder
271. The storage of foods at a temperature C. science

below room temperature but above freez- D. International System of Units (SI)
ing.
A. refrigeration 277. is the ability of a substance to draw
B. sterilization up the muscles of the mouth.
C. irradiation A. mouthfeel
D. freezing B. astringency
272. helps in digestion of food and absorp- C. taste bias
tion of nutrients in our body.
D. brittleness
A. Vegetables
B. Seafood 278. A: We don’t have any bread. B: Really?
I get some from the shop then.
C. Water
D. Salt A. will
273. Which sample labeling system will result B. ’m going to

the least psychological bias during sensory C. am going to
analysis?
D. will not
A. 1 letter
B. 2 digit numbers 279. This is the most common food sweetener
C. 3 digit numbers in the world
D. 3 or more letters A. sucrose
274. Electrons that are shared equally are B. fructose
A. non polar covalent bond C. glucose
B. polar covalent bond D. grandiose
C. hydrogen bond
D. free water 280. It is a sweet juicy fruit that is round at
the bottom and becomes thinner at the
275. If your blood glucose levels rise after you top.
drink milk, it is because your body can
A. peach
A. not digest lactose
B. cherry
B. digest lactose
C. digest lactase C. pear
D. not digest lactase D. none of above

281. are starch mixtures that are rigid B. Erlenmeyer flask

and the molecules are bound together in C. data
a three dimensional network.
D. metric system
A. Slurries
B. Pastes 287. consists of many sugar units
C. Gels A. ketones
D. Sols B. pectin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
282. refers to how an object blocks light. C. polysaccharide
A. opacity D. glucogon
B. viscosity 288. are factors that can change in an ex-
C. junction periment.
D. amulose A. data
283. Which is an example of a raw food? B. components
A. Lemon C. variables
B. Hummus D. hypotheses
C. Pizza 289. Kool-Aid is an example of a(n) .
D. Pop Tart A. element
284. Cross contamination is the transfer of? B. compound
A. A liquid ingredient with a dry ingredi- C. heterogeneous mixture
ents D. homogeneous mixture
B. A harmful bacteria from one substance
to another 290. Preparing food several hours in advance
can make food unsafe because:
C. Clean dishwater with dirty dishwater
A. Bacteria can grow if the food tempera-
D. Jelly in peanut butter
tures fall into the danger zone
285. A homogeneous mixture. B. Foods can lose their flavor, color and
A. shell general quality
B. solute C. Foods can lose their nutritional value
C. solution D. Refrigerators can only hold so much
D. solvent food
286. System of steps used to solve problems. 291. is the temperature at which all lipids
Steps include asking question s, defining in a mixture are in a solid state.
the problem, conducting research, stating A. Solidification Point
the hypothesis, designing the experiment,
B. Hardening Point
conducting the experiment, evaluating the
results, and reporting the results. C. Freezing Point
A. scientific method D. Melting Point

292. What flavour does bicarbonate of soda B. m’ going to

create in your food? C. will

A. Salty D. ’ll
B. Soapy
298. Sugar found in milk; Disaccharide com-
C. Spicy posed of one glucose and one galactose
D. None molecule
293. Nonmetals are typically A. Sucrose
A. shiny solids B. Glucose
B. good conductors of heat and electricity C. Fructose
D. Lactose
C. gases at room temperature
299. Process of preservation of milk
D. found on the left side of the periodic
A. Fermentation
table
B. Pasteurisation
294. Offspring are formed by simple cell divi-
C. Salting
sion, and not by the fusion of nuclei.
D. Dehydration
A. asexual reproduction
B. molds 300. Bread manufactured from can use the
term “whole wheat” on the label.
C. sexual reproduction
A. wheat with the germ and bran re-
D. none of above
moved
295. The fungus known as bread mold B. wheat with the germ intact
A. Mucor C. wheat with the bran intact
B. Rhizopus D. wheat with the bran and germ intact
C. Penicillium
301. A company is formulating a new food
D. Aspergillus product labeled as low fat. This means
296. Chemical bonding A. the amount of fat is nutritionally trivial
A. is affected by the number of electrons
an element has B. it contains 3 g of fat or less per serving
B. is the force that holds atoms together or 100 g of food
in the molecule C. it has no more than 25% of the fat of a
C. occurs between two or more unstable comparable food
atoms D. it has less than 0.5 g of fat per serving
D. All of the above. 302. is the change of a protein’s shape un-
297. A: Why do you need to borrow my new der stress, such as when egg whites are
suitcase? B: I visit my cousin in Swe- beaten to form a foam.
den next month. A. Acetylation
A. am going to B. Derivatization

C. Acylation 308. In which state is water most dense?

D. Denaturation A. gas
B. liquid
303. Which nutrient keep our bone healthy?
C. it is equally dense in all states
A. Calcium
D. solid
B. Iodine
C. Vitamin B 309. A very small amount of seasoning is
called a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Vitamin C
A. dot
304. The canning process was invented in B. dash
A. America C. grate
B. Disney D. slice
C. France 310. Lipids do all of the following in cooking
D. Germany except
A. tenderize
305. Which of the following sugars does not
have a formula of C6H12O6? B. aerate
A. sucrose C. enhance flavor
B. glucose D. thicken sauces
C. fructose 311. Elements essential for good health. e.g.

Calcium, Iron, Potassium
D. galactose
A. Protein
306. Which will most likely occur when raw B. Fat
egg is placed on black pavement on a hot,
summer day? C. Minerals
A. The pavement will conduct the heat D. Carbohydrates

and cook the egg. 312. A texture quality based on a food resis-
B. The egg will reflect the heat and make tance to pressure
the pavement hotter underneath. A. brittleness
C. The egg will absorb the heat and leave B. chewiness
the pavement hotter underneath.
C. firmness
D. The pavement will absorb the heat D. graininess
from the egg, and the egg will stay raw.
313. The best before date is there to
307. Which of the following is classified as a
A. make you want to buy a product
nutritive sweetener
B. tell you that it has expired
A. Acesulfame K
C. let you know it is the best product to
B. Carrageenan
buy
C. Mannitol D. to tell you about the quality of the prod-
D. Saccharin uct

314. What education level does a R&D Special- 320. careers involve enforcing food indus-
ist? try regulations.

A. high school diploma A. Production
B. bachelors degree B. Regulation and compliance
C. associates degree C. Product development
D. no degree needed D. Food Service
315. Gluten is a protein made up of that 321. The main difference between ice cream
provides texture to bread. containing natural vanilla flavoring from
A. glutenin and gliadin vanilla beans versus artificial vanilla fla-
B. globulin and albumin voring is
C. glutenin and globulin A. cost

D. gliadin and albumin B. nutritional value
C. texture
316. can be found in liquid or solid form,
like butter or margarine. D. all are correct
A. Proteins 322. What are the areas of food science?
B. Carboydrates A. Consumption, and evauating
C. Fats B. production, vegetation, use
D. none of above C. Production, processing, evaluation,
317. People will on the moon in the fu- and use
ture. D. nutrition, science, biology, eating
A. living
323. Various freezing points of different fatty
B. live acids in lipids cause
C. be live A. different types to melt at the same
D. none of above temperature
318. All carbohydrates are: B. different types to smoke at the same

temp
A. made of amino acids
C. them to provide structure to foods
B. composed of carbon, hydrogen and
oxygen atoms D. them to solidify rather than freeze
C. made of fatty acids 324. The difference between measuring pH
D. composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxy- and water activity is:
gen and nitrogen atoms A. pH measures acidity or base concen-
tration, water activity measure water
319. A form of fungus.
pressure
A. molds
B. pH measures elongation, water activ-
B. bacteria ity measures assessment to texture
C. yeast C. pH measures lightness or darkness,
D. none of above water activity measures texture

D. pH measures water pressure, water 331. Which government agency was devel-
activity measure acidity or basic concen- oped to prevent food adulteration? Hint:
tration in food, Adulteration means the addition or substi-
tution of lower quality ingredients.
325. free of water
A. anhydrous A. OSHA
B. hydrogen bond B. FDA

C. nonpolar covalent bond C. USDA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. polar covalent bond D. CDC
326. An enzyme that breaks down carbohy-
drate into simpler sugars 332. Which of these is not a Vitamin
A. Base A. A
B. Carbohydrase B. Iron
C. Lactose
C. B6
D. Olfactory
D. C
327. how do you ferment some thing
A. you wait 5days-2months 333. Hydroxyl groups (-OH) are
B. you wait one day A. a part of organic alcohols
C. you ferment it B. found in all carbohydrates
D. call it fermented
C. a hydrogen atom and an oxygen atom
328. The most abundant of the sugars, and it bonded together
is people’s basic energy source.
D. all answers are correct
A. Galactose
B. Lactose 334. All of these individuals work with food
C. Glucose scientists except
D. Maltose A. engineers
329. which food is high in potassium B. dog walkers

A. Banana C. sensory evaluation experts
B. bread D. marketing analysts
C. chicken
D. possum 335. The process of asking question s and
seeking answers using controls and collect-
330. After cooking and serving food, food can ing data.
remain un-frigerated for how long?
A. Research
A. 30 min
B. Food Scientist
B. 1 hour
C. 2 hours C. Quality assurance
D. 3 hours D. Food technologist

336. foods that are made from milk, such as B. High temperature slows down the mi-
cream, butter, and cheese crobes.

A. creamy products C. High temperature prevents the mi-
B. farm procuts crobes from growing.
C. milk products D. none of above
D. dairy products 342. When Tom arrives we a party.
337. careers involve creating new and im- A. will has
proved food products.
B. have
A. Production
C. will have
B. Food Service
D. none of above
C. Product development
D. Regulation and compliance 343. Will you get up early tomorrow morn-
ing?
338. Which food poisoning bacteria is com-
A. Yes, I will.
monly associated with raw chicken?
A. listeria monocytogenes B. No, I wont.
B. bacillus cereus C. Yes, I will not.

C. campylobacter D. none of above
D. stapplycoccus aureus 344. Name given in organic chemistry to all
339. Why freezing food helps to reduce food carbohydrates that are classified as sug-
spoilage? ars
A. Low temperature kills the microbes. A. Carbohydrates

B. Low temperature slows down mi- B. Saccharide
crobes activity. C. Monosaccharide
C. Low temperature prevents the mi- D. Invert Sugar
crobes from growing.
D. none of above 345. what is yeast
A. fungus
340. A: Why are you carrying a hammer and
some nails? B: I put up some pictures B. bacteria
on that wall.
C. sugar
A. am going to
D. barf
B. will
C. won’t 346. What cholesterol is the “good” one?
D. going to A. low density lipoprotein (LDL)

B. high density lipoprotein (HDL)
341. Why heating food to above 100 oC helps
to reduce food spoilage? C. folate
A. High temperature kills the microbes. D. riboflavin

347. The odor of food. 353. bonds are formed within a water
A. aroma molecule.
B. texture A. Intermolecular
C. taste B. Hydrogen
D. appearance C. Nonpolar Covalent
D. Polar Covalent
348. When apples, potatoes and bananas are
peeled and exposed to air, results in a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
354. Ergonomics is..
chemical reaction know as
A. learning about nutrients
A. dextrinisation
B. cash flow
B. caramelisation
C. eating veggies
C. coagulation
D. work simplification
D. enzymatic browning
349. Proteins are made up of building blocks 355. Surfaces that touch food are called
called A. surfoodies
A. amino acids B. surfing
B. cells C. food contact surfaces
C. lipids D. contact specs
D. enzymes
356. The is the reaction between proteins
350. An area of space surrounding the nu- and carbohydrates that causes food to
cleus. brown when cooked.
A. products A. Maillard Reaction
B. reactants B. Adipose Reaction
C. shell C. Denaturation Reaction
D. solute D. Leavening Reaction
351. Hexose sugars contain 6 carbons. Which 357. What part of the plant takes in water and
of the following does not fit that descrip- nutrients from the soil?
tion?
A. leaves
A. galactose
B. roots
B. glucose
C. stem
C. deoxyribose
D. petals
D. fructose
358. Scientists believe that the lactose per-
352. what is the meaning of convection?
sistent genes were passed down because
A. cold rises heat falls some
B. heat A. ancient people survived famine by
C. cold drinking milk.
D. hot rises cold falls B. people really like eating ice cream.

C. people don’t mind having diarrhea. 364. Assessing risks is important before cook-
D. people have ancestors that made ing. Name an accident that could occur
when making a dish using raw meat

cheese.
A. you could overcook the meat
359. what is the scale of a salinometer (in
B. you could food probe it to 85◦ c
numbers)
C. it could be undercooked and contain
A. 3.0-4.4
food poisoning bacteria
B. 3.7-5.7
D. none of above
C. 4.0-5.5
365. An advantage of cooking in steam is
D. 1.1-10.10
A. it is faster than boiling when pressure
360. High levels of mercury in a fish product is added.
is considered a hazard. B. foods are more flavorful
A. biological C. foods are more nutritious
B. physical D. all of the above.
C. chemical
366. The type of electromagnetic waves used
D. radiological for irradiation are called
361. Particles that are contain parti- A. Gamma rays
cles that evaporate or become gaseous B. Infrared waves
quickly.
C. Ultraviolet waves
A. fibrous
D. Radio waves
B. volatile
367. Which of these sugars does not form crys-
C. olfactory
tals allowing is to be blown and spun into
D. aroma sugar creations?
362. The first meal of the day A. Isomalt
A. breakfast B. Honey
C. Sorghum syrup
B. lunch
D. Xylitol
C. dinner
D. none of above 368. This type of sugar is sometimes called ta-
ble sugar.
363. A food processor is using water as part of
A. sucrose
a product formulation. GMPs require that
this water be suitable or safe for drinking. B. glucose
This is also known as water. C. fructose
A. sanitary D. cellulose
B. palatable 369. How does dehydration work to preserve
C. comestible food?
D. potable A. Provides an acidic environment.

B. Removes oxygen exposure. 375. How many fluid ounces are in 1 cup?
C. Removes water content. A. 4
D. Removes water content by freezing B. 8
water particles. C. 12
D. 16
370. Which fat replacer can be used to fry
foods 376. Prior to WW1 people preserved foods by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Salatrim A. salting
B. Olestra B. drying
C. Simplesse C. pickling
D. all of the above
D. all are correct
377. Which sense is used first when eating?
371. From the 8 tips for healthy eating please
A. Tongue
fill in the guidelines below:- 1. Base your
meals on B. Nose
A. the eatwell guide C. Touch
D. Sight
B. starchy foods
C. fats and salt 378. Which of the following are not examples
of food preservation techniques.
D. protein
A. Adding Sugar, Dehydrating & Pickling.
372. What food do plants make?
B. Freezing, Adding Lactic Acid & Dehy-
A. sugar (glucose)
drating.
B. oxygen C. Adding Salt, Canning & Vacuum Seal-
C. seeds ing.
D. carbon dioxide D. Baking, Frying & Boiling.
379. With technology today 2 farmers can pro-
373. is the food we get from plants.
duce enough food for people
A. Milk A. 25
B. Meat B. 50
C. Vegetables C. 75
D. Eggs D. 100
380. Minerals are needed by our body in
374. Which one is not one of the five senses?
amounts only.
A. Touch
A. Big
B. Sight B. Large
C. Cost C. Medium
D. Smell D. Small

381. contribute(s) to bitter flavors in tea B. inside houses with access to the out-
and coffee. side

A. Caproic and caprylic fatty acid ethyl es- C. by feeding organic feed
ters
D. without the use of antibiotics
B. Carotenoids
387. Neutral solutions have the pH value of
C. Trans 2-hexenal
D. Polyphenols
A. 8
382. Will Peter go to Canada next year? B. 7
A. No, he willn’t go next year. C. 6
B. No, he will not go next year. D. 14
C. No, he shall not go next year.
388. Which will cause fat to stabilize during
D. none of above
processing? Think Mayonaise
383. Which sentence is correct? A. Aerate butter
A. Jack will calls me. B. Egg Yolk
B. Jack will call me. C. Milk
C. Jack will call me yesterday. D. Water
D. none of above
389. thickening a liquid with a starch
384. is the study of food and the principles
A. gelatinization
of its production, processing, preservation,
and preparation. B. pectin
A. Chemistry C. retrogradation
B. Food Science D. syneresis
C. Microbiology
390. Which of the following is not an example
D. Nutrition of a food analog?
385. The first margarines A. microwave popcorn
A. were made from soybean oil B. saccharin
B. did not look like butter because they C. soy hamburger
were white D. nondairy whipped topping
C. immediately became popular in the
U.S. 391. Deliberate contamination of food and/or
water supplies.
D. were developed in the U.S.
A. food security
386. Eggs labeled “free-range” means that
B. food defense
the eggs were produced from chickens that
were raised C. adulteration
A. inside houses without cages D. food terrorism

392. is required for healthy bones and over identical heat sources, the tempera-
teeth. ture of the cooking oil will increase much
A. Calcium faster than water because
B. Magnesium A. The specific heat of water is higher

than that of oil
C. Vitamin k
B. The specific heat of oil is higher than
D. Folic acid that of water
NARAYAN CHANGDER
393. impurities in water C. The density of water is higher than that
of oil
A. are only a concern to beverage indus-
try D. The density of oil is higher than that of
water
B. can change the physical and chemical
characteristics of water 398. Which of the following is not a water sol-
C. do not affect the way water reacts in uble vitamin?
mixtures A. Vitamin C
D. are more likely in cold than hot water B. Vitamin K
394. A material in which another material is C. Vitamin B12

dissolved D. Thiamin
A. solution 399. Scientists believe that the lactose toler-
B. reactants ant gene mutated
C. solvent A. because all ancient people were lac-
D. reactants tose tolerant.
B. because ancient farmers collecting
395. which food is a healthy source of starchy milk from their domesticated animals.
carbohydrates?
C. because people needed to drink more
A. chocolate milk.
B. milk D. because people were tired of drinking
C. baked potato water.
D. chips 400. The area that fits into the shape of a sub-
strate is called the ?
396. The study of the components of food and
how they are used by the body to sustain A. Active Site
life and health. B. Chemical Reaction
A. nutrition C. Beginning Site
B. food science D. Activation Site
C. adulteration
401. What event encouraged development and
D. food processing acceptance of food products?
397. When equal amounts of water and cook- A. Korean War

ing oil are placed in matching containers B. WW 1 & 11

C. Civil War 407. Megaloblastic anaemia can be prevented

by
D. Revolutionary War

A. Calcium
402. Simple sugar molecule that cannot be bro- B. Iron
ken down into a smaller molecule without
C. Vitamin C
changing its basic nature
D. Vitamin B12
A. Saccharide
B. Monosaccharide 408. Cardamom is popularly known as
A. King of spices
C. Invert Sugar
B. King of species
D. Insulin
C. Queen of spices
403. how do people make ramen D. none of above
A. with love 409. Sensory organs located on various parts
B. with delicious ingredients of the tongue
C. food A. papillae
B. salivary glands
D. with japanese ingredients
C. olfactory
404. is the combined effect of taste and D. taste buds
aroma.
410. how much calories are in one gram of fat
A. texture
A. 9 calories
B. olfactory
B. 25 calories
C. flavor
C. 3 calories
D. appearance D. 10 calories
405. Energy that travels as electromagnetic 411. Energy storage nutrients that help the
waves is called body store some vitamins e.g. oils, but-
A. conduction ter, margarine
A. Fats
B. convection
B. Carbohydrates
C. radiation
C. Minerals
D. none of above
D. Vitamins
406. Starches are selected for commercial use 412. Which of the following is not a method
A. thickening ability to stop sugars from forming crystals when
cooking sugar?
B. based on their translucency versus
opacity A. Stir the pot continuously through out
the process
C. A and B
B. Add an acid such as lemon juice or vine-
D. None of the above gar

C. Add a different type of sugar such as 417. Saturated fats are at room tempera-
corn syrup ture.
D. Washing down the sides of the pot with A. liquid
water and a brush or placing a lid on the B. gases
pot while cooking the sugar
C. plasma
413. As part of your responsibility with Kraft D. solid
Foods, you have been asked to develop
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a jalapeno jelly as a line extension for 418. Denaturation changes the structure of a
the jelly product line. Your initial formu- protein molecule in which way?
lation is:Red Peppers 9 ozGreen Peppers A. looser
9 ozJalapeno Peppers 6 ozCider Vinegar
8 ozFruit Pectin 49.7 gButter 2.3 gSugar B. remains the same
35 ozWhat percent of the formulation are C. tighter
jalapenos?
D. firmer
A. 5.0%
419. Which of these are not needed for photo-
B. 25.0%
synthesis
C. 10.2% A. Sunlight
D. 8.7% B. Carbon Dioxide
414. Making good decisions regarding food C. Oxygen
can do all of the following EXCEPT: D. Water
A. guarantee good health
420. What preserves the food by lowering wa-
B. help you look your best ter content?
C. help you stay energetic A. refrigeration
D. affect you later in life B. irridation
415. What do microbiologists research? C. dehydration

D. cellopane
A. Mold, bacteria
B. food, beverages 421. Additive
C. diseases A. A change in protein structure where
the proteins bond together, usually by
D. viruses
heat, acid or shear; solubility is lost and
the helix structure breaks apart
416. is a tendency to like or dislike a
food based on positive or negative expe- B. Ingredients added to foodstuffs to al-
riences. ter them to preserve or enhance specific
qualities eg taste, color
A. test panel
C. When added to an acid, will form a salt.
B. taste bias
Accepts hydrogen ions from an acid
C. hypothesis
D. An enzyme that breaks down carbohy-
D. taste blind drate into simpler sugars

422. Which nutrient help our heart to beat? C. Fructose

A. Vitamins D. Sucrose

B. Protein 428. The substance being dissolved in a solu-
C. Carbohydrate tion.
D. Calcium A. sands
B. solute
423. A Pathogen is:
C. solvent
A. Small, living organism
D. alloy
B. Disease causing organism
C. Organisms that cause spoilage but not 429. What is the smallest subatomic particle?
illnesses A. proton
D. none of above B. neutron
424. The human analysis of the taste, smell, C. electron
sound, feel, and appearance of food is D. none of above
A. mouthfeel 430. Starch granules contain
B. sensory evaluation A. a mixture of amylose and amylopectin
C. experiment B. either amylose or amylopectin
D. appearance C. neither amylose or amylopectin
425. Why would we die if all the plants in the D. none of above
world died?
431. is the source of carbohydrates.
A. there would not be carbon dioxide for
us to breathe A. Fruits
B. Vegetables
B. plants are pretty and we would not
have them to look at C. Maize
C. plants produce oxygen, and there D. Juices
would be no more oxygen for us to breathe
432. A person trained in the chemistry,
physics, and biology of food and food sys-
D. we would not have any more sugar tems.
426. What is essential to be a food scientist? A. Food technologist
A. Wealth B. Research
B. Patience C. Food scientist
C. Cooperation D. Quality assurance
D. Respect 433. which of these 4 are all minerals?
427. Which of the following sugars is consid- A. iron Zinc sodium b6
ered to be the sweetest? B. fibre vitamin c vitamin D vitamin A
A. Glucose C. b2 b6 sodium potassium
B. Maltose D. iron, zinc, sodium, potassium

434. All carbohydrate names end with which 440. Nutrient which helps in to repairing the
ending: damage body cells?
A. ise A. Protein
B. ase B. Carbohydrate
C. ese C. Calcium
D. ose D. Iron
435. Which artificial sweetener should not be 441. has vitamins to help your bones and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
used by people who cannot digest the teeth.
amino acid phenylalanine A. Milk
A. Acesulfame K B. Pepsi
B. Aspartame C. Lemon tea
C. Saccharin D. none of above
D. Sucralose
442. Packaging materials for food products
436. a substance that is added to food in or- are regulated by the
der to improve its taste or appearance or A. FDA
to keep it fresh and stop it from decaying
B. FSIS
A. added substance
C. EPA
B. aditives
D. CDC
C. additives
D. dairy products 443. thickened liquids that are pourable
such as pancake and muffin batter.
437. Which of the following represents the em- A. Pastes
pirical formula for a carbohydrate?
B. Gels
A. C2H4
C. Sols
B. CHO
D. Slurries
C. CH2O
D. H2O 444. Grown with their roots suspended in liq-
uid nutrient solution
438. odor A. food analogs
A. flavor B. food security
B. mouthfeel C. nutrition
C. aroma D. hydroponic crops
D. astringency
445. USDA organic seal means it is certified or-
439. The hydrolysis of lactose produces ganic and % of more organix content.
A. glucose and galactose A. 80%
B. glucose and glucose B. 85%
C. glucose and fructose C. 90%
D. maltose and fructose D. 95%

446. An example of a compound is 452. Which vitamin we get from sunlight?

A. Iron A. Vitamin A

B. Water B. Vitamin B1
C. Coca-Cola C. Vitamin C
D. Vegetable Soup D. Vitamin D
447. Proteins can be provided by 453. WILL + NOT =?
A. dried beans, peas, nuts A. willn’t
B. meat, fish, poultry B. wolln’t
C. milk and eggs C. want
D. all D. won’t
448. Which is an example of proximate analy- 454. substances that are liquid form at ex-
sis? tremely low temperatures.
A. checking the percentage of sugar used A. cryogenic liquids
B. food analogs
B. comparing taste of three variations C. hydroponic crops
C. identifying controls and variables D. organic
D. listing experimental procedure to be
followed 455. This is often added to cured meats in or-
der to prolong shelf life and give them
449. When a substance moves from a gas to a color.
liquid phase is called A. Saccharin
A. condensation B. Nitrates
B. evaporation C. Sulfites
C. sublimation D. Calcium Carbonate
D. deposition
456. any substance that plants or animals
450. Food stuffs containing is called body need in order to live and grow
building food. A. calories
A. Minerals B. nutrient
B. Vitamins C. nutrition
C. Proteins D. nutrent
D. Roughage
457. A group of people having a joint duty to
451. The scurvy disorder occurs due to a lack taste and/or evaluate a food or beverage
of product
A. Vitamin B. A. NPD
B. Vitamin C. B. Taste panel
C. Iodine. C. Sensory
D. Iron. D. Additives

458. A like compound made of short- and 464. Why did Sir Francis Bacon not get to ex-
long-chain acid triglyceride molecules is periment with the preservation of chick-
known by the acronym SALATRIM. ens?
A. protein A. He died of Bronchitis
B. fat B. The chicken ate him
C. starch C. he was allergic to chicken
D. sweetener D. not enough snow
NARAYAN CHANGDER
459. To keep chocolate from settling out of 465. High fat cakes have two methods for mix-
chocolate milk, are added. ing, what are they?
A. antioxidants A. Pour it all in and hope for the best
methods
B. foaming agents
B. Creaming and two stage methods
C. gelling agents
C. Creaming and 5 stage methods
D. stabilizers
D. Flour method and liquid method
460. The ability of a substance to draw up the
muscles of the mouth 466. A salt that interacts with other ingredi-
ents to enhance salty and sour tastes
A. mouthfeel
A. sea salt
B. astringency
B. monosodium glutamate
C. texture
C. iodized salt
D. graininess
D. kosher salt
461. Thiamine is what type of vitamin?
467. Which of the following is the best method
A. Vitamin A for drying foods?
B. Vitamin B A. sun
C. Vitamin C B. oven
D. Vitamin K C. food dehydrator
462. This food additive increases the vitamin D. none of above
C in foods. 468. Which of the following is not a source of
A. Ascorbic Acid carbohydrates?
B. Guar Gum A. Oats
C. Fructose B. Eggs
D. Tartaric Acid C. Barley
D. Pasta
463. Disaccharide that contains one glucose
and one fructose molecule 469. Which taste will spoil teeth quickly?
A. Sucrose A. Bitter
B. Glucose B. Sour
C. Fructose C. Sweet
D. Lactose D. Salty

470. The amount of energy the body gets from 476. Sometimes a , or a mixture of equal
food is measured in. amounts by weight of flour and fat that is
cooked to varying degrees of doneness, is

A. Metabolism
used to thicken sauces and gravies.
B. Diet
A. Gel
C. Calories
D. Protein B. Sol
C. Roux
471. When water boils, a phase change occurs
so that liquid turns into a gas. The phase D. Slurry
change is called
A. Condensation 477. A chicken salad sandwich left in the TDZ
could have a growth of pathogenic bacte-
B. Vaporization
ria because
C. Evaporation
A. It is a protein-rich food
D. Sublimation
B. It has neutral pH
472. Pure substances
C. It has a high water activity
A. are made up of only one material
D. All of the above
B. have definite and constant properties
C. are elements or compounds 478. Which mineral is required for the forma-
D. All of the above. tion of haemoglobin in the blood and to
protect us from infections?
473. Free water is water that
A. Phosphorus
A. is free of metal ions
B. Iron
B. is free of impurities
C. is held in various molecules of food C. Iodine
D. readily separates out of food D. Calcium
474. Which part of MY PLATE does this food 479. Cheese comes from which group?
(bread)belong to?
A. Vegetable Group
A. Dairy
B. Grains B. Fruit Group
C. Fruit C. Dairy (Milk) Group

D. Protein D. none of above
475. Flavorings are not essential ingredients 480. Which is not a category of carbohy-
in cakes but they drates?
A. give structure
A. lipid
B. tenderizes the gluten
B. sugar
C. give flavor such as spices, extracts
such as vanilla and almond C. starch
D. gives sweetness to cakes D. fiber

481. A: Susan are you ready to order the C. Physical Change

meal? B: I haven’t decided yet Okay, D. Phase Change
I have the steak and the vegetables,
please. 487. What is the function of a carbohydrate?
A. will A. Stores energy
B. won’t B. Movement
C. am going to C. Stores genetic information
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. taking D. Speeds up reactions
482. A mixtures is a combination of two or 488. If a commercial manufacturer of prepared

more in which no new kinds of matter muffins stirred the batter too long prior to
are formed. baking, a
A. subtances A. tough product with tunnels would oc-
cur due to overdevelopment of gluten
B. parts
B. light and delicate product would result
C. leaves
due to underdevelopment of gluten
D. pebbles C. tough product would occur due to
483. A material that is dissolved in another overdevelopment of gliadin
material D. tender product with tunnels would oc-
A. solute cur do to underdevelopment of gluten
B. products 489. Sucrose molecule with fatty acids at-
C. solvent tached to hydroxyl groups
D. shell A. aspartame
B. olestra
484. Enzymes are identified by the suffix
C. saccharin
A. -ase
D. Simplesse
B. -ose
490. is a complex chain reaction that starts
C. -ol
when lipids are exposed to oxygen, caus-
D. none of above ing them to deteriorate.
485. Electrons are shared equally. A. Auto-oxidation
A. bound water B. Rancidity
B. hydrogen bond C. Oxygenation
C. nonpolar covalent bond D. Oxylipidation
D. covalent bond 491. A tendency to like or dislike a food based
on positive or negative experiences
486. Alteration in shape, physical state, size,
or temperature without a change in the A. mouthfeel
chemical identity. B. astringency
A. pH C. taste bias
B. pH Scale D. flavor

492. The sensation of enhanced mouthfeel de- 497. is a bundle of nerve fibers located at
tected through calcium-sensing receptors the base of the brain behind the bridge of
on the tongue the nose.

A. Kokumi A. olfactory
B. Lactose B. colorimeter
C. Winterising C. olfactory bulb

D. senses
D. Rennet
498. Through which part does carbon dioxide
493. is the main type of organism respon- enter the leaf?
sible for food poisoning
A. Stomata
A. Bacteria
B. Vein
B. Mould
C. Root
C. Virus D. Flower
D. Parasite
499. An atomic mass unit equals
494. A is a substance made of two or A. the number of protons in the nucleus
more different elements chemically joined of each atom
together B. the mass of an electron
A. compound C. the sum of the masses of protons and
B. mixture neutrons in an atom
C. solution D. the mass of one proton or neutron
D. disaccharide 500. subatomic particles found on the outer-

most shell & responsible for the atom’s re-
495. A natural process that results in the activity
breakdown of a food into different com- A. neutrons
ponents.
B. valence electrons
A. deterioration
C. isotopes
B. process
D. ions
C. domestication
501. Which group of foods should be taken in
D. none of above a small amount?
496. Any deliberate change in food occurring A. Carbohydrates
between its point of origin and its avail- B. Fats
ability for consumption.
C. Vitamins
A. food analog D. Proteins
B. food security
502. is an elastic substance formed by mix-
C. food processing ing water with proteins found in wheat.
D. food defense A. acid

B. foam 508. A complex set of enzymes used in cheese-

making and usually derived from a calves’
C. amino acid
stomach-lining
D. gluten A. Homogenise
503. Who has the buden to increase the food B. Invert sugar
supply for the expanding world popula- C. Rennet
tion
D. Lactose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Food Scientist
509. Binds batters to meat and vegetables dur-
B. Ronald McDonald ing deep frying.
C. NASA A. amylose
D. Dietetic B. pastes
504. What happens to milk proteins when milk
D. gels
is boiled?
A. Gelatinise 510. Where does galactose come from?
A. Wood or straw
B. Coagulate
B. Milk and dairy products
C. Caramelize
C. Barley
D. none of above
D. none of above
505. The study of microscopic organisms 511. Vacuum packing is
A. microbiology A. air free packing
B. chemistry B. water free packing
C. biology C. Both of these
D. physics D. None of the above
512. The main sugar found in milk that is com-
506. What does the ATOMIC MASS tell us
posed of one glucose molecule and one
about an atom?
galactose molecule.
A. Protons + Neutrons A. Maltose
B. Protons + Electrons B. Galactose
C. Neutrons + Electrons C. Lactose
D. none of above D. Lactase
513. A texture quality based on how easily a
507. Eggs lack
food shatters or breaks apart
A. Vitamin A
A. brittleness
B. Phosphorus B. graininess
C. Vitamin K C. firmness
D. Vitamin C D. chewiness

514. Which of the following ingredients is ba- 520. what is h2o

sic? A. water vapor

A. lemon juice B. grass
B. baking soda C. water
C. cream of tartar D. air
D. vinegar 521. Nutrients that build and repair tissues
515. Which artificial sweetener has a bitter af- and cells e.g. meat, milk, eggs.
tertaste at higher concentrations A. Fat
A. Acesulfame K B. Minerals
B. Aspartame C. Vitamins
C. Saccharin D. Protein
D. Sucralose 522. The application of heat to food to bring
about physical and chemical changes is
516. The body’s inability to move glucose from called
the bloodstream to the cells is called
A. cooking
A. Diabetes
B. prepping
B. Heart Disease
C. shopping
C. Glucose Allergy D. all of the above
D. Glucose Intolerance
523. Potato is rich of
517. is an energy transfer from one body A. Fat
to another caused by a temperature differ-
B. Protein
ence between the 2 bodies.
C. Starch
A. mixing
D. All of the above
B. heat
C. blending 524. Which of the following are true of disac-
charides?
A. They are the simplest carbohydrate
518. Factors that can change in an experiment molecule.
A. ingredients B. They do not contain carbon.
B. components C. They are formed when two monosac-
charides molecules join together.
C. variables
D. They are made up of many monosac-
D. items charides molecules.
519. A charged atom 525. (The mobile phone rings) A: I get it!
A. Ion A. will
B. Isotope B. am going to
C. Electron Cloud C. get
D. Quark D. will got

526. What does it mean to preserve food? C. 1/2 of a cup

A. To make food last longer D. 3/4 of a cup
B. To stop the growth of bacteria 532. In 1812 which city opened the first can-
C. To not waste food ning plant in America?
D. All of these A. Chicago
527. From the 8 tips for healthy eating please B. Jamestown

fill in the guidelines below:-2. Eat lots of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. New York
D. Atlanta
A. fruit and vegetables
533. A decorative arrangement added to food
B. starchy foods or drink is a
C. fats and salt A. aroma
D. protein B. garnish
528. Why are LDLs (Low-Density Lipopro- C. MSG
teins) considered “losers” D. food additive
A. They are found in every fatty food
534. How many chalaza cords are there?
B. They transport excess cholesterol
back to liver A. 1
C. They transport excess cholesterol to B. 2

arteries C. 3
D. They are processed through the body D. 4
very slowly
535. Which one is not one of the 6 essential
529. A dipeptide of aspartic acid and pheny- nutrients?
lalanine A. protein
A. acesulfame k B. calcium
B. aspartame C. Vitamins & minerals
C. olestra D. water
D. saccharin
536. careers deal with the preparation and
530. An organism that lives off of another or- serving of food
ganism. A. Food scientist
A. parasite B. quality assurance
B. molds C. food service
C. yeast D. food technologist
D. none of above
537. When cheese is made what is separated
531. 8 Tablespoons equal how many cups? from the whey?
A. 1/3 of a cup A. Cream
B. 2/3 of a cup B. Milk

C. Yogurt 543. Tea and coffee are not brewed in boiling

D. Curds water because boiling water:

A. damages nutrients
538. The smallest particle that still maintains
B. dissolves more impurities
the chemical properties of that substance
is a(n) C. creates too strong of a flavor
A. atom D. releases bitter polyphenols
B. electron 544. From Sunlight we get which Nutrient?

C. neutron A. Vitamin D
D. proton B. Minerals
C. Fats
539. Monosaccharide found widely in fruits
and honey D. Sodium
A. Sucrose 545. Granulated sugar that has been ground
B. Glucose into a fine powder.
A. Brown Sugar
C. Fructose
B. Confectioner’s Sugar
D. Lactose
C. Honey
540. to measure volume accurately in a D. Molasses
beaker, Tyler places the beaker on a level
surface at eye level. Another step that is 546. It is the responsibility of the to en-
required with a graduated cylinder is to sure that all ingredients used are of food-
look at the: grade purity and comply with specifica-
A. bottom of the meniscus tions and limitations in all applicable au-
thorizations.
B. middle of the meniscus
A. FDA
C. top of the meniscus
B. USDA FSIS
D. Widest part of the meniscus
C. manufacturer of any food
541. Why do we need vitamin A? D. FFDCA
A. strong bones 547. natural or manufactured substances that
B. strong teeth are used in place of foods or food compo-
nents.
C. healthy blood
A. cryogenic liquids
D. eyesight
B. hydroponic crops
542. The best grain foods to have are: C. farm to the table
A. White bread D. food analogs
B. Whole grains
548. A factor that changes in an experiment is
C. Donuts known as a(n)
D. Bagels A. Constant

B. Variable 554. in a hydrogen bond, the

C. Response A. hydrogen of one atom is attracted to
D. Hypothesis hydrogen of another
B. hydrogen end of the molecule is
549. What is the study of the composition, slightly negative
structure, and properties of MATTER?
C. hydrogen of one atom is attracted to
A. Chemistry oxygen of another
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Biology D. oxygen of the molecules is slightly pos-
C. Geology itive
D. Physics 555. which food is a healthy source of pro-
tein?
550. Acid has a taste.
A. kale
A. sour
B. peppers
B. bitter
C. pizza
C. soapy
D. beans
D. neutral
551. The use of a process that allows a food 556. Non tasters has as few as taste buds
to keep its usefulness beyond its natural per square cent.
life. A. 20
A. preservation B. 30
B. domestication C. 40
C. deterioration D. 50
D. none of above
557. It is best to consume water
552. The monitoring of the entire production A. regularly throughout the day
process for compliance with health, safety,
and product standards B. until your thirst appears to be
quenched
A. Food scientist
C. when you first begin to feel thirsty
B. Quality assurance
D. after coordination has been reduced
C. Research by a water shortage
D. Food technologist
558. Hydroponic crops are grown
553. Which food is a good example of a fat? A. In sandy soil
A. Cabbage B. Within containers that are suspended
B. Rice C. With roots suspended in liquid nutrient
C. Cheese solutions
D. Spinach D. Under artificial lights

559. Bryce found that water froze at 32 de- C. The study of producing, processing,
grees. Which temperature scale was he marketing, and distributing agricultural
using? food products.

A. Celsius D. The biological component of our food
system.
B. English
C. Fahrenheit 565. What are the positively charged particles
in an atom?
D. Kelvin
A. Protons
560. An regular oven transfers heat through B. Neutrons
A. Microwaves C. Electrons
B. Infrared Radiation D. none of above
C. Convection 566. What is the %of volatile oil present in
D. Conduction cardamom?
A. 5-8
561. Which ingredient interferes with gluten
formation? B. 2-10
A. Lipids C. 2-8
D. none of above
B. Salt
C. Starches 567. birds, such as chickens, that are bred for
their eggs and meat are called
D. Water
A. polutry
562. is created when air bubbles incor- B. poultry
porated and trapped in a protein film by
C. pulses
whipping.
D. processed food
A. foam
568. Bacteria generally grow well in foods
B. gluten
that are
C. protein
A. Warm, moist, protein-rich, and low
D. acid acid
563. People who are lactose persistent are de- B. Cold, dry, low in protein, and high acid
scendants from
A. a few regions in Europe and Africa. C. Very hot, wet, calcium-rich and neutral
B. many regions all over the world.

D. Cold, dry, protein-rich, and low acid
C. finland, swedan, and norway.
569. Canning microorganisms due to the
D. the americas. extreme temperatures
564. What is the definition of food science? A. slows the growth of
A. The study of producing, processing, B. destroys
preparing, evaluating, and using food. C. encourages growth of
B. The chemistry of food products. D. none of above

570. Molds that grow at room temperature. 576. Pasteurization of milk will
A. psychrophiles A. Kill spoilage bacteria
B. thermophiles B. Denature enzymes
C. mesophiles C. Increase the rate of spoilage
D. none of above D. Decrease the safety of the milk
571. are (is) commonly used in soft drinks 577. A is a dye, pigment or other sub-
to stop the growth of yeast and bacteria. stance, which is capable of imparting color
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Sulfites when added or applied to a food.
B. Humectants A. color additive
C. Benzoic acid B. colorant
D. Calcium propionate C. secondary direct food additive
D. processing aid
572. Natural or manufactured substances used
in place of foods or food components. 578. is the discipline in which engineering,
A. food analogs biological and physical sciences are used to
study nature of food.
B. food terrorism
A. Food science
C. adulteration
B. Food chemistry
D. food security
C. Food Engineering
573. When a solution holds more of a solute D. none of above
that can be dissolved it is termed
A. a solid 579. What causes food to decay?
B. saturated A. Heat
C. supersaturated B. Dirty hands
D. none of the above C. Microbes
D. Water
574. According to the U.S. government,
ground beef should be cooked to a min- 580. nutrients used for growth, maintaining
imum internal temperature of for and repairing tissues and cells
safety. A. proteins
A. 62.8o C B. fats
B. 65.6o C C. carbohydrates
C. 68.3o C D. none of above
D. 71.1o C
581. Firming of a gel during cooking and stand-
575. A chain of glucose molecules ing.
A. starch A. pectins
B. sucrose B. junction
C. glucose C. granules
D. ketosis D. retrogradation

582. Which of the following is a disadvantage A. food processing

of sweet alcohols B. adulteration

A. They have less sweetening power than C. food analogs
sucrose
D. food defense
B. They are Calorie-free
C. They cause allergic reactions in many 588. Temperatures to prevent microbial
people growth a. What should be the inside tem-
perature of a refrigerator?
D. They promote tooth decay
A. 8◦ c
583. The process of coating a food product B. 10◦ c
with another ingredient
C. -5◦ c
A. Enrobing
D. 5◦ c
B. Fibre
589. What is a pure substance made of two
C. Gellan
or more elements that are chemically com-
D. Kokumi bined called?
584. The ability of some starch-water mix- A. A. element
tures to thicken as they cool is called B. B. compound
A. gelatinization C. C. mixture
B. retrogradation D. D. solution
C. syneresis
590. helps us to grow and repair worn out
D. viscosity tissues.
585. is an enzyme that converts milk sugar A. Fats
into glucose and galactose. B. Carbohydrates
A. Lactase C. Vitamins
B. Amylase D. Proteins
C. Phytase
591. A foam is
D. Invertase
A. The process of starch swelling and
586. Many GMO’s are created to the bursting
growth of the plant or animal this means B. The process of trapping a liquid in a
growth is sped up. solid
A. Decrease C. The process of sugars browning
B. Accelerate D. The process of trapping a gas inside a
C. Accentuate liquid
D. Velocity 592. Protein can be obtained by which of these

food items.
587. a lowering of the quality and safety of a
product by adding inferior or toxic ingredi- A. Animal Meat
ents B. Eggs

C. Milk 598. Which of the following foods is astrin-

D. All The Above gent
A. cheese
593. are uncooked mixtures of water and
B. mushrooms
starch used in the processing and chemical
alteration of starches. C. orange peel
A. Slurries D. Tea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Sols 599. An example of a homogeneous mixture
C. Gels is
D. Pastes A. mayonaise
B. oatmeal
594. A(n) is a pure substance made of a
single type of atom and cannot be broken C. salt
down. D. vegetable soup
A. Element 600. is a protein formed from glutenin and
B. Compound gliadin found in wheat.
C. Molecule A. Keratin
D. Mixture B. Gluten
C. Gelatin
595. Product that is contained in a MAP pack-
age means that it is packaged in D. Casein
A. Modified Activated Pressure 601. An organic salt that includes potassium
B. Modified Atmosphere Packaging A. acesulfame K
C. Membrane Advanced Packaging B. aspartame
D. Managed Aerobic Plastic C. olestra
596. What cake is made using the melting D. saccharin

method? 602. A meniscus is caused by water’s
A. Brownie A. freezing point
B. Victoria Sponge B. adhesion property
C. Swiss roll C. boiling point
D. Cupcakes D. cohesive propery
597. The shape, size, color, and condition of a 603. What is used to measure the color of food
product in terms of hue, value and chroma?
A. appearance A. Microscope
B. flavor B. Humeter
C. aroma C. Chromameter
D. mouthfeel D. Colorimeter

604. Food Scientist conduct a subjective evalu- B. Geology

ation called a
C. Zoology

A. Taste Test
D. Cytology
B. Sensory Evaluation
C. Calorie intake 610. The exposure of food to gamma rays gen-
erated by a radioactive material.
D. Nutritional Value
A. irradiation
605. Which factor has the most effect on the
B. pasteurization
intensity of the flavor of many foods?
C. Electromagnetic spectrum
A. temperature
B. mouthfeel D. none of above
C. color 611. Which of them give us energy?

D. time of day A. Carbohydrate
606. The percent daily value recommendation B. Protein
on a Nutrition Facts label is based on a
C. Calcium
calorie daily diet.
D. Vitamin
A. 1, 000
B. 1, 500 612. Which preservative method is used to re-
C. 2, 000 move the moisture present on the food?
D. 3, 000 A. Curing
B. Drying
607. A company recalled chicken spring rolls
because the product contained eggs that C. Drying
were not listed on the package label. This D. Pickling
would be an example of a hazard due to
a(n) 613. In food preparation, an example of a
A. Pathogen physical change is
B. Allergen A. freezing punch in rings
C. Radiological Contaminant B. sauteing onions and peppers
D. Physical Contaminant C. marinating meat
608. White chocolate contains D. baking a cake
A. Chocolate liquor 614. is a salt that interacts with other
B. Cocoa butter ingredients to enhance salty and sour
C. Caffeine tastes.
D. Chocolate butter A. food additive

B. flavor ehancer
609. Which science examines the structure of
living organisms at the atomic level? C. MSG
A. Biochemistry D. preservative

615. Sugar with chlorine atoms replacing hy- 621. What is a solvent?
droxyl groups A. The substance that does the dissolving
A. Olestra in a solution.
B. saccharin B. The substance that is being dissolved
C. Simplesse in a solution.
D. sucralose C. The mixing of different substances.
D. The process in which neutral
616. Which of the following is not a recom-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecules lose or gain electrons
mended salt substitute for flavoring foods
A. butter 622. three states of matter
B. herbs A. solid, liquid, oxygen
C. potassium chloride B. gas, air, hydrogen
D. spices C. liquid, solid, gas
617. is the inability to distinguish between D. none of above

the flavors of some foods. 623. Fried eggs are a good example of
A. taste bias A. gelatinisation
B. mouthfeel B. coagulation
C. taste blind
C. aeration
D. astringency
D. a foam
618. The study of food components and how
624. The property of evaporating quickly
the body uses them to sustain life and
health is ? A. evaporation
A. chemistry B. condensation
B. food science C. volatile
C. microbiology D. graininess
D. nutrition 625. How should you lift the lid off of a pot?
619. Starches high in Amylose A. so the steam is directed toward you
A. form gels B. straight up
B. are also high in amylopectin C. so the steam is directed away from you
C. make good pie fillings
D. come from tapioca and arrowroot D. all
620. A fifth taste to which the tongue may re- 626. In a sample of salt water, NaCl would be
spond is called considered the
A. astringency A. Solution
B. Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) B. Solute
C. umami C. Solvent
D. volatile D. Solvation

627. A potato is baked in a microwave oven. 632. Fat soluble Vitamins are:
A. conduction A. Vitamin A

B. convection B. Vitamin D
C. potawave C. Vitamin E
D. radiation D. All of the above
628. Rohan is a cricketer whereas Sarah is an 633. Out of these which food item is not a
ICT engineer. Who needs more carbohy- source of protein?
drates?
A. Milk
A. Rohan
B. Pulses
B. Both
C. Cheese
C. None of them
D. Spinach
D. Sarah
634. is an artificial sweetener that is a
629. When sugars are heated to a high enough
chlorinated sucrose derivative, is not ab-
temperature to cause a color and flavor
sorbed by the body when consumed, and
changes, this is caused by
does not break down with heat so it can
A. Mallard reaction be used in baked products
B. Caramelization A. Sucralose
C. Oxidation B. Aspartame
D. Reduction C. Acesulfame potassium
630. What is baking powder made up of? D. Stevia
A. Bicarbonate of soda and baking pow- 635. Which of these is a method of preventing
der cross contamination?
B. Bicarbonate of soda and flour A. cook food to 60◦ c
C. Cream of tartar and bicarbonate of B. use the correct coloured chopping
soda board for preparing fish, eg blue
D. Cream of tartar and baking powder C. tie hair back
631. When heated beyond seven minutes, D. none of above
chlorophyll changes to a dull yellow-green
pigment called 636. The most abundant complex carbohy-
drate in the diet is , which is made up
A. Chlorophyllase
of many sugar units.
B. Phytol
A. Starch
C. Pheophytin
B. Pectins
D. Cryptoxanthin pheophytin Is the color
C. Carbohydrates Gums
resulting when the magnesium ion is re-
placed with hydrogen (dull yellow-green) D. Cellulose

637. Which of the following is NOT a way to C. Copper sulphate

determine if a cake is done? D. Smashing it on a surface
A. Golden brown appearance
643. Which is not an element found in carbo-
B. Toothpick comes out clean hydrates?
C. Springs back when touched A. Carbon.
D. Pulls away from sides of pan B. Hydrogen.
638. Caffeine is an example of a(n)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Nitrogen.
A. Heterogeneous mixture D. Oxygen.
B. Homogeneous mixture
644. When sugar is subjected to high or pro-
C. Element longed heat, and it changes into a brown
D. Compound liquid.
A. Molasses
639. When carbon dioxide is dissolved in a liq-
uid such as carbon dioxide in a carbonated B. Caramelization
soda, the carbon dioxide is more soluble C. Brown Sugar
under
D. Honey
A. Colder temperatures
645. Which numerical scale provides the most
B. Low pressure
reliable data for a sensory evaluation?
C. Pressure and temperature have no ef-
A. 1-2
fect
B. 1-5
D. Warmer temperature
C. 1-10
640. Which of the following in NOT a type of
D. none of above
carbohydrate?
A. Starch 646. Organisms which are living and have
been “scientifically modified” in a labora-
B. Sugar
tory to be able to withstand herbicides, in-
C. Saturated Fat secticides, and other chemicals are known
D. Fiber as
A. Bacteria
641. Oils high in polyunsaturated fatty acids
than oils high in monounsaturated B. GMO’s
fatty acids. C. Botulism
A. will have lower melting points D. Listeris
B. will have more hydrogen atoms
647. Matter can have a physical change. What
C. are more dense change happens during freezing?
D. have more trans fatty acids A. solid to gas
642. We can test starch by B. gas to solid
A. Iodine solution C. liquid to solid
B. Caustic soda D. liquid to gas

648. Which dehydration method is fastest? 654. In ovens, fans move the heated air
A. Belt drying. around in the oven, distributing it more
evenly. Food is heated faster & more

B. Drum drying. evenly with less burning.
C. Spray drying. A. convection
D. Tray drying. B. convectional
649. Which of the following is a lipid? C. microwave
A. cholesterol D. all of the above
B. cellulose 655. When you are lactose intolerant, you do
C. glucose not produce which of the following en-
zymes which is needed to breakdown milk
D. protein
sugar?
650. Which step in the experiment process A. galactase
involves monitoring a control and varia-
B. sucrase
tions?
C. lactase
A. defining the problem
B. designing the experiment D. maltase
C. conducting the experiment 656. This is located at the base of the brain
D. evaluating the results and associates with 1000’s of types
of nerve stimulation with specific foods
651. Supertasters can have as many as and/or experiences.
taste buds per square cent. A. Thalamus
A. 500 B. Olfactory Bulb
B. 900 C. Astringency
C. 1100 D. Epidermis
D. 1500
657. is essential for forming
652. What is the effect of an unbalanced food haemoglobin.
intake? A. Vitamin A
A. Strong teeth B. Phosphorus
B. Constipation C. Iron
C. Strong body D. Calcium
D. Feel full
658. To avoid health problems you should eat
653. is a type of organic acid. and
A. gluten A. fruits only
B. essential amino acid B. fruits and vegetables
C. coagulation C. vegetables only
D. amino acid D. none of above

659. Refrigerators should be set on.. 665. Which food group should you eat every
A. 43F or below day?
B. 40F or below A. Protein

B. Fat
C. 42F or below
C. Carbohydrates
D. 44F or below
D. ALL of the above
660. water boiling is an example of
666. Obesity occurs when we eat rich of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. conduction
A. Protein
B. radiation
B. Vitamin
C. density
C. Fat
D. convection D. Calcium
661. What is the sorce of energy plants use 667. The information gathered during an ex-
for photosynthesis? periment
A. oxygen A. components
B. carbon dioxide B. data
C. sunlight C. variables
D. water D. garnish
662. Ground beef turns from a bright cherry 668. Americans often eat spaghetti, pizza, and
red color to brown or due to prolonged tacos. This indicates Americans
exposure to oxygen. A. lack traditions
A. myoglobin B. have cultural diversity
B. deoxumyoglobin C. lack cultural diversity
C. oxymyoglobin D. none of above
D. metmyoglobin 669. Which vitamin is required for good eye-
663. A method for preventing lumps when sight?
thickening a sauce with starch A. Vitamin B12
A. slurry B. Vitamin K
B. roux C. Vitamin C
C. cold water paste D. Vitamin A
D. buerre manie 670. one of the many substances found in food
such as meat, cheese, fish, or eggs, that
664. This is often added to fruit to prevent it is necessary for the body to grow and be
from turning brown. strong
A. Nitrates A. protein
B. Fructose B. vitamins
C. BHA C. fibre
D. Sulfites D. mineral

671. Which of the items below is not a natural C. cooking preserves food for later use
sugar? D. all of the above

A. galactose
677. What is an example of a reversible phys-
B. saccharin ical change?
C. glucose A. Change in odor
D. dextrose B. Chopping
672. is the network of elastic protein C. Phase change
strands that give bread dough its struc- D. Rusting
ture and is responsible for the elasticity of
dough. 678. Disaccharides and other large molecules
undergo this process where they are di-
A. Gluten
vided into smaller parts by adding water
B. Stretching
A. Hydrolysis
C. Dough
B. Photosynthesis
D. Batter C. Solubility
673. Which factors could sway a tester D. Caramelization
A. enviroment of the testing room 679. Atmospheric pressure can change the
B. psychological biases amount of energy needed to break hydro-
C. influences from other testers gen bonds in water. In which of the fol-
lowing places will water boil at the lowest
D. all of the above temperature?
674. Thickens, stabilizes, and traps flavors A. St. Louis, MO
and color in food products. B. Pike’s Peak
A. sols C. The Atlantic Coast
B. pastes D. New York City
680. The body uses this to carry nutrients
D. gels and waste. It also helps joints move
smoothly.
675. the water that will give the most success-
ful food is: A. Fat
A. Free Water B. Water
B. Temporary Hard Water C. Minerals
C. Hard Water D. Vitamin
D. Soft Water 681. Which is not the main category of sen-
sory characteristics in food products?
676. Why do we cook food?
A. appearence
A. Cooking improves the digestibility of
food B. sound
B. Cooking destroys organisms and mate- C. flavor
rials that may cause diseases D. texture

682. If a turkey has to thaw in the refrigera- C. Scrape off the toppings and just eat
tor for 24 hours per 5 pounds, how long the beef
do you need to thaw a 15-pound turkey?
D. Cover the burger and save it for later.
A. 24 hours
B. 36 hours 687. In the Heat Transfer Cooking lab, the con-
stants were
C. 48 hours
A. the types of cooking methods
D. 72 hours
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. the amount and type of ingredients in
683. Which of the following elements are NOT the cake
found in carbohydrates?
C. the cake cooked in the regular ovens
A. Carbon
B. Helium D. the way the cake tasted
C. Hydrogen 688. The least viscous starch mixture is a

D. Oxygen A. sols
684. Microbes that require high salt concen- B. pastes
trations to function are called and are
used to make bean cakes in Asia. C. carbohydrate gums
A. halophilic D. gels
B. psychrotrophic
689. A chemical compound made up of one or
C. thermophilic more simple sugar e.g. bread, rice, pasta
D. mesophilic A. Protein
685. changes a liquid into a soft, semi-solid B. Water
clot or mass.
C. Fat
A. denaturation
D. Carbohydrates
B. foamation
C. coagulation 690. What is cultivating a variety of plants
D. bonding and animals called?
A. biodiversity
686. You bought a hamburger on the way
home from school and were about to eat it B. biology
when a friend stopped by to go to a movie. C. chemistry
When you came home four hours later, you
noticed it sitting where you left it. You D. organic chemistry
know it’s been in the TDZ for more than
two hours, but you are pretty hungry. You 691. Roger (come) to see us tomorrow.
should A. come
A. Reheat the burger in the microwave to B. will come
kill all the bacteria
C. will comes
B. Throw the burger away because you
don’t want to get sick D. none of above

692. Photosynthesis is 698. Which of these could be signs of food

A. captures energy from sunlight spoilage?

B. the process in which plants make food A. Mould growth on fruits
B. Loaf of bread that have hardened over
C. tiny structures in a plant cell time
D. the substance that makes plants green C. Over ripen fruit
693. You must check the strength of the sani- D. All of the above
tize with a
A. finger cot 699. Foodstuffs containing vitamins and min-
B. spatula erals are called
C. sting kit A. Energy giving food

D. test kit & strip B. Bodybuilding food
694. Most microbes cannot grow and multiply C. Protective food
when the
D. Roughage food
A. conditions are dry
B. temperature is low 700. Which of the following statements is
FALSE about fibre?
C. temperature is very high
D. All the above A. Encourages constipation
695. How are ingredients usually listed on a B. Comprises of cellulose

recipe? C. Stimulate peristalsis
A. alphabetical order
D. Fruits, vegetables and grains are high
B. from largest to smallest in fibre
C. dry ingredients then liquid ingredients
701. In the following, which number of teeth
is correct?
D. the order in which they are used
A. Milk teeth : 20, Permanent teeth : 24
696. The nucleus of an atom is made up of
A. Protons and Neutrons B. Milk teeth : 20, Permanent teeth : 32
B. Neutrons and Electrons C. Milk teeth : 24, Permanent teeth : 32

C. Protons and Electrons D. Milk teeth : 24, Permanent teeth : 36
D. none of above
702. Hydroxyl groups are
697. Which food product is an excellent pro-
tein emulsifier? A. a type of fat.
A. Egg white. B. fructose and glucose.
B. Egg yolk. C. complex carbohydrates.
C. Gelatin. D. a hydrogen atom and an oxygen atom
D. none of above bonded together.

703. What is another name for a “shortened 709. A patient asks to see the dietitian be-
cake”? cause her chicken is not done. When the
A. Butter Cake dietitian check the tray, she finds the meat
near the bone is darker. What caused the
B. Foam Cake meat near the bone to be darker?
C. Sponge Cake
A. Spoilage
D. Creamed Cake
B. Hemoglobin
704. If an acid is added to milk lowering the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Older bird
pH to about 4.6, the breaks down and
forms lumps called curds. D. Rapid thawing
A. Whey
710. Pan handle should face which direction
B. Casein when cooking on a stove?
C. Calcium A. Towards you
D. Lactose
B. Towards the next cooking element
705. Which step of the experiment process in- C. Inward
volves choosing a control and variations?
D. none of above
A. defining the problem
B. designing the experiment 711. Louis Pasteur invented the process of
C. conducting the experiment heating milk to destroy harmful bacteria
which is called what?
D. evaluating the results
A. Homogenization
706. is how a food feels in the mouth
B. UHT
A. firmness
C. Freezing
B. astringency
C. aroma D. Pasteurization
D. mouthfeel 712. Protein is made up of all of the following

707. Which candy uses ripening to develop a except
smooth texture? A. nitrogen
A. Caramels B. oxygen
B. Fondants C. hydrogen
C. Rock Candy
D. puron
D. Suckers
713. Fats and sugars creamed together in a
708. Milk, cheese and yogurt are all good
cake recipe trap air. This is known as
source of
A. whisking
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin C B. coagulation
C. Protein C. aeration
D. Vitamin B D. sweetening

714. What type of knife do you use to crumb C. Removes water content by freezing
coat a cake? water particles.

A. Paring D. none of above
B. Chefs 720. What holds atoms, molecules, and com-
C. metal spatula pounds together?
D. Butcher A. Chemical Bonds
715. Which is an example of an objective mea- B. Electromagnetism

surement? C. Magnetism
A. control variable D. Electricity
B. flavor preference
721. Sugar contains carbohydrates but does
C. mass in grams not contain
D. texture description A. Fruits
716. Factors like label terms, brand names, B. Proteins
and advertising are a type of influ- C. Vegetables
ence.
D. Grains
A. Physical
722. Temperatures to prevent microbial
B. Cultural
growthWhat should be the temperature
C. Psychological of a freezer?
D. Environmental A. 18◦ c
717. Which of these cakes is traditionally B. -10◦ c
made with bicarbonate of soda? C. -15◦ c
A. Gingerbread D. -18◦ c
B. Victoria Sponge
723. Where might you get a good source of
C. Swiss roll vitamin C?
D. Pineapple upside down cake A. steak
718. Food products formulated to have a pH B. salmon
4.6 will inhibit toxin production by C. eggs
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. oranges
B. Clostridium botulinum
724. The test used by food scientists to mea-
C. Listeria monocytogenes sure the resistance to flow of a starch
D. Salmonella thickened mixture is called
719. How does freezing work to preserve A. gelatinization

food? B. retrogradation
A. Provides an acidic environment. C. viscosity
B. Removes oxygen exposure. D. syneresis

725. The process of acids reacting with a base B. a sweet protein

is called C. heat and PH stable
A. mixing
D. all are correct
B. neutralisation
731. Which food item is not a source of mineral
C. dissolving
phosphorus?
D. chemical reaction
A. Milk
NARAYAN CHANGDER
726. JR & Brandon finished their experiment B. Rice
and determined that a certain packaging in-
creased the shelf-life of a product. Which C. Pulses
step in the experimental process is this? D. Green leafy vegetables
A. define the problem
732. Chemical formulas on the left side of an
B. evaluate the results equation.
C. identify steps of experiment A. shell
D. state the research question B. reactants
727. It is best to consume water C. products
A. regularly throughout the day D. solute
B. when you first begin to feel thirsty
733. aid(s) in the extraction of oil from
C. until your thirst appears to be olives.
quenched
A. Cellulase
D. after coordination has been reduced
by water shortage B. Amyloglucosidase
C. Pectic enzymes
728. Lipids provide all of the following func-
tions for the body except D. Catalase
A. feeling of fullness 734. The UDSA FSIS ensures that is whole-
B. increase digestion time some, safe, and properly labeled.
C. provide a steady supply of energy A. meat, poultry, and seafood
D. provide an immediate source of en- B. meat, poultry, and the processed egg
ergy supply
729. how do you find the ph of a pickle C. meat, poultry, and shellfish
A. you use ph paper D. meat, poultry, and the shell egg supply
B. you use pickle juice 735. With mass food production and canning
C. you say 4 what became a widespread problem?
D. it is a sour pickle it has no ph A. Delivery of food
B. adulteration
730. Brazzein is
A. found in a vine plant with grapelike C. supply
fruit D. storage

736. Old people were not very active & need B. there are pigments in meat com-
less of and fats. pounds causing iridescence when ex-
posed to heat and processing

A. Minerals
B. Proteins C. there is a safety concern and the meat
should not be consumed
C. Vitamins
D. oil has been spread on the meat sur-
D. Carbohydrates face
737. The human analysis of taste, smell, 742. Which affect nutrient needs?
sound, feel, and appearance of food is
called A. age
A. sensory evaluation B. climate

C. gender
B. taste test panel
D. all
C. taste bias
D. volatility 743. Economical cereal that contains 28%
protein and is formulated from maize,
738. What are the 3 types of cakes? sorghum, and cottonseed flour.
A. Shortened, Lengthened, Halved A. incaparina
B. Shortened, Sponge, Foam ( unshort- B. amaranth
ened)
C. freekeh
C. Chocolate, Vanilla, Strawberry
D. millett
D. Moistened, sponge, foam
744. The inability to distinguish between the
739. Ancient grain used by the Aztecs with flavors of some foods
a high protein level and resistance to
A. mouth blind
drought.
B. sensory blind
A. maize
C. taste blind
B. sorghum
D. hearing blind
C. amaranth
D. farro 745. Vinegar is used to pickle foods. In this
instance, vinegar is acting as a(n):
740. are twisted, ropelike structure that A. Antioxidant
keeps the egg yolk centered.
B. Flavor enhancer
A. chalaza
C. Preservative
B. shell
D. Thickener
C. albumen
D. shell membrane 746. Two monosaccharides joined together
A. Disaccharide
741. An iridescent look on the surface of slices
meat means B. Saccharide
A. the quality has declined in the product C. Monosaccharide

D. Compound Sugar

747. The handwashing process should take a B. test panel

minimum of seconds.
C. hypothesis
A. 15
D. consumer taste panel
B. 20
C. 10 753. which is the smallest measuring spoon?
D. 5 A. dessert spoon
B. table spoon
NARAYAN CHANGDER
748. If we are making Kool-aid with sugar,
Kool-aid powder, and water, which part C. teaspoon
is the solvent? D. none of above
A. water
754. is required for healthy skin and
B. powder
proper functioning of nerves.
C. sugar
A. Iodine
D. powder and sugar
B. Vitamin B
749. Red pigmentation of spoiled food is due
C. Phosphorus
to
D. Vitamin A
A. Pseudomonas
B. Clostridium 755. Sulfuring and sulfating protects
C. Salmonella A. foods high in fat.
D. Serratia B. heat sensitive nutrients such as vita-
min C.
750. Through photosynthesis, plants
C. people with allergies.
A. convert starch to sugar
B. convert radiant energy to chemical en- D. none of above
ergy
756. A is an instrument used to measure
C. turn water into fructose the pH of a substance accurately.
D. All of the above. A. universal indicator
751. Freezing is a food preservation method B. litmus paper
because
C. pH meter
A. Low temperature retards the growth
D. natural indicators
of microbes.
B. Low temperature removes water con- 757. The method of starting the cooking pro-
tent cess by submerging a food in boiling wa-
C. Both of the above ter.
D. None of these A. Salting

B. Drying
752. Provides a way to test a hypotheses in
order to verify or disprove it C. Blanching
A. experiment D. Shocking

758. The sandy texture felt on the tongue 763. A process of burning fat without carbohy-
when too much milk solids are added to drates
a product is the result of:

A. paste
A. Milk sugar being the sweetest sugar
B. ketosis
available
B. The presence of phospholipids C. glucosis
C. Calcium phosphate salts D. fatosis
D. Crystallization of lactose Lactose has 764. What are jobs that don’t require any ex-
the tendency to crystallize far more read- perience?
ily than other sugars
A. Part-time jobs
759. The study of the nature of food and B. Careers
the principles of its production, processing,
preservation, and packaging. C. Entrepreneur jobs
A. nutrition D. Entry-level jobs
B. food scientist 765. What is the substance that makes plants
C. food science green and captures energy from the sun?
D. food security A. cells
760. A hormone produced by the pancreas that B. leaves

allows glucose to move into the cells for C. water
use as energy.
D. chlorophyll
A. Bile
B. Galactose 766. What part of the plant helps catch sun-
light to make food?
C. Insulin
A. leaves
D. Estrogen
B. roots
761. What is the function of cream of tartar in
cakes? C. stem
A. Leavening agent D. petals
B. Stabilize egg yolks 767. Eating too much sugar may cause all the
C. Stabilize egg whites following to a person except
D. Provide creamy texture A. strengthen body organs including
heart, pancreas and liver
762. The solution given to dehydrated person
is known as B. increases blood sugar which may
cause diabetes
A. Benedicts solution
C. cause weight gain due to excess un-
B. ORSolution used carbohydrates
C. Iodine solution D. increase bacteria in the mouth (bacte-
D. Just a cup of pure water. ria love sugar too) causing tooth decay

768. The scientific study of food and its prepa- 773. Sucrose comes from
ration is , and has saved many lives A. sugar cane
throughout history.
B. fruit
A. Technology
C. honey bees
B. Food science
D. maple trees
C. Ergonomics
774. Covalent bonds are formed when
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. an electron is transferred
769. Denaturation if the first step in the pro- B. two nonmetals share an electron
cess of protein , or when a liquid C. two metals lose electrons
changes into a soft, semisolid clot or solid
mass such as in the process of manufactur- D. opposite electric charges attract
ing yogurt 775. Heating a marshmallow over a fire is
A. Dispersion where heat is transferred by means of
B. Separation A. Infrared Radiation
C. Homeostasis B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Coagulation
D. Microwaves
770. Which texture quality describes pourabil-
ity of a food 776. a hormone produced by the body, for ex-
ample when you are frightened, angry, or
A. Firmness excited, that makes the heart beat faster
B. Consistency and prepares the body to react to danger:
C. Chewiness A. addictive
D. Astringency B. adrenelin
C. adrenalin
771. Which of these are biological raising D. antacid
agents?
A. Baking powder 777. Which type of fat is most likely to cause
rancidity
B. Bicarbonate of soda
A. Vegetable oils
C. Yeast B. Animal Fats
D. Whisking C. Glycerol fats
772. A pure substance that cannot be sepa- D. Saturated fats
rated into simpler substances by chemical 778. Quality of how well one part of a food
or physical means. slides past another without breaking.
A. Element A. chewiness
B. Compound B. graininess
C. Mixture C. brittleness
D. Chemical D. firmness

779. Which of the following sugars is not an B. It helps you make informed decisions
example of a monosaccharide? about food.

A. galactose C. It helps you understand how to read
B. fructose food labels.
C. maltose D. All of the above are reasons to study
food science.
D. glucose
780. Which process will interfere with gluten 785. A group of untrained consumers who
formation? evaluate products after they have been de-
veloped to determine what the average
A. Adding water consumer will prefer
B. Cutting in Butter
A. test panel
C. Letting dough set
B. sensory evaluators
D. Vigorous Mixing
C. consumer taste panel
781. When you whisk eggs what happens to
D. taste test panel
the proteins?
A. They denature 786. A group of molecules, typically called fats
B. They coagulate and oils, that carry flavor in foods. Ex-
amples include: butter, olive oil and mar-
C. Both answers garine
D. none of above
A. molecules
782. Why are HDLS (High-Density Lipopro- B. lipids
teins) considered the “heroes”?
C. molecules
A. They transport excess cholesterol
back to liver D. lyposiine
B. They transport excess cholesterol to 787. Responsible for the texture of jams and
arteries jellies, found in plant cells and made of
C. They are processed through the body sugar acids
very quickly A. polysaccharide
D. They are found in every fatty food
B. pectin
783. is a device that measure the color of C. polysaccharide
foods in terms of value, hue, and chroma.
D. gelatinization
A. colorimeter
B. color wheel 788. Which of the following is an example of
a physical contaminant in water
C. color guage
D. color analysis A. Hydrochloric Acid
B. Plastics
784. Which of the following is a benefit of
studying food science? C. Calcium Ions
A. It helps you become a better cook. D. Magnesium Ions

789. Which vitamin is necessary for good eye- B. firmness

sight and healthy skin?
C. chewiness
A. Vitamin A
D. brittleness
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin B 795. Which person died during their experi-
ment
D. Vitamin C
A. Fannie Farmer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
790. Which of following is not a property of
B. George Washington Carver
water
C. Sir Frances Bacon
A. it is an excellent solvent
B. it is a nonpolar molecule D. Justus von Liebig
C. it contains weak hydrogen bonds 796. What can you do to celery to make is
D. it has a greater surface tension than crisp again if it has lost its crispy ness?
most compounds A. Soak it in ice water
791. Placing foods in acidic solutions like vine- B. Bake it
gar to prevent growth of spoilage organ-
C. Cool it off in the fridge
isms
D. Nothing you can do
A. Pickling
B. Paraffin 797. What things must plants have in order to
C. Fermentation make food?
D. Drying A. Oxygen, sunlight, carbon dioxide

B. water, sunlight, oxygen
792. Which method of identifying a food sam-
ple will create the least psychological C. leaves, roots, stems, petals
bias? D. carbon dioxide, water, sunlight
A. AA, AB, AC
798. Which example of denaturation is not re-
B. 4, 5, 6
versible?
C. 25, 54, 39
A. Beating egg whites until frothy.
D. 014, 523, 617
B. Breaking hydrogen bonds.
793. Which food analog is saturated with fat-
C. Breaking disulfide cross-links.
soluable vitamins
D. none of above
A. Simplesse
B. Carrageenan 799. A molecule is formed when two or more
C. Oatrim chemically join together.
D. Olestra A. Atoms
B. Compounds
794. A texture quality based on how easily a
food shatters or breaks apart is C. Mixtures
A. tenderness D. Solutions

800. The force of the weight determined by 805. The measure of water vapor in air, also
the pull of earth’s gravity pressing down known as , affects the storage shelf life
on a surface is: of perishable foods.

A. atmospheric pressure A. humidity
B. cohesion B. dew point
C. adhesion C. water activity
D. altitude D. partial pressure
801. Deep, wide-mouthed container with a 806. complex carbohydrates, composed of

pouring lip used to hold substances during many units or saccharides
experim
A. monosaccharides
A. beaker
B. disaccharides
B. length
C. polysaccharides
C. meta-analysis
D. none of above
D. conclusion
807. Two of the major ingredients in cakes
802. Substances that affect crystal growth are are fat and water which are by nature un-
called mixable so your goal is to make a uniform
mixture called
A. enzymes
A. Emulsion
B. blockers
B. Remove air bubbles
C. interfering agents
C. Help cake cook throughly
D. fermenting agents
D. Steam
803. A decorative arrangement added to food
or drink 808. Weak attraction between positive and
negative ends of two molecules.
A. accessory
A. bound water
B. garnish
B. hydrogen bond
C. olfactory
C. nonpolar covalent bond
D. variables
D. covalent bond
804. A person trained in the chemistry,
physics, and biology of food and food sys- 809. Lowered quality and safety of a product
tems who is concerned with short-term caused by adding inferior ingredients that
problem solving in food systems. may be toxic.
A. Food technologist A. food security
B. Research B. food terrorism
C. Quality Assurance C. adulteration
D. Food scientist D. food analogs

810. Table sugar 816. Which of the following is an example of

A. sucrose a carbohydrate?
B. glucose A. Monosaccharide
C. fructose B. Disaccharide
D. none of above C. Polysaccharide
811. If an overweight teenager wishes to lead D. All of the above

a healthier diet, which type of milk would
NARAYAN CHANGDER
817. Which is a MACRO mineral?
you recommend that teenager?
A. Iron
A. Full cream milk
B. Calcium
B. Low fat milk
C. Sodium
C. Skimmed milk
D. none of above D. Potassium
812. Which of the following factors can reduce 818. Crops grown with their roots suspended
a starch’s thickening ability? in liquid nitrogen liquids
A. Adding an acid A. Hydroponic crops
B. Heating to the gelatinization point B. Organic
C. Reducing salt content C. Food processing
D. Reducing water content D. Cryogenic liquids
813. All of the following are functions of of 819. What elements make up carbohydrates?
complex carbohydrates in food prepara-
A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
tion except
B. sulfur, carbon, hydrogen
A. decrease viscosity
C. glucose and fructose
B. thicken
C. bind D. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
D. provide structure 820. Which of the following is true about most

fast foods?
814. Eating too much sugar is the leading
cause for what diseases? A. they are low in nutrient density
A. Common cold B. they are high in fat and calories
B. Diabetes C. they are low in vitamins and minerals
C. The flu D. all of the above
D. none of above 821. This term refers to the thickness of a
815. What is the food pyramid? product
A. A guide to take care of our food A. brittleness
B. A guide to choose healthy food B. firmness
C. A guide to increase stamina C. consistency
D. A guide to buy types of food D. density

822. Human cells use this sugar for energy 828. is (are) a water soluble pigment
A. Glucose found in blackberries, blueberries, and
other fruits and vegetables, and turn red

B. Sucrose in acid solutions.
C. Fructose A. Chlorophyll
D. Comatose B. Tannins
823. When do prices go up? C. Anthocyanins
A. When the seller wants the price raised D. Quinones
829. A food technologist is making a new prod-

B. When items are in demand
uct that will use a powdered granulated
C. When items are new sugar with an added anti- caking agent
D. When there is plenty of supplies such as cornstarch.This type of sugar is
called
824. water that leaks from a gel
A. Table sugar
A. syneresis
B. Brown sugar
B. cellulose
C. Molasses
C. amylopectin
D. Confectioners sugar
D. polymer
830. Pectin and agar are used to firm up tex-
825. Lisa investigates the affect that environ- ture of foods, and are considered:
mental temperature has on the heartbeat
of a human. Which of the following is the A. Flavor enhancers
independent variable in her experiment? B. Antioxidant
A. Heartbeat C. Stabilizers
B. Temperature D. none of above
C. Sunlight
831. Food scientists recently developed a MRE
D. Environment pizza having at least a three-year shelf life
826. What is the function of egg in custard? for the military. What does MRE mean?
A. Glazing A. military ready to eat
B. Thickening B. meal ready to eat

C. Aeration C. meal real time eating
D. Binding D. military ready to export
827. What cannot be controlled during a taste 832. The human analysis of the taste, smell,
test? sound, feel, and appearance of food
A. lighting A. taste test panel
B. interaction with other taste testers B. sensory evaluation
C. personal food preferences C. colorimeter
D. temperature of the food D. test panel

833. A diet which contains all the nutrients, 838. Which of these best describes ho-
roughage and water in right amount is mogenised milk.
called? A. Milk is heated to a temperature of
A. Rough diet 72◦ C for 15 seconds and then cooled
rapidly.
B. Balanced diet
B. Milk undergoes a process to break
C. Improper diet up the fat globules and disperse them
D. None of the above throughout the milk
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Milk can be stored up to 10 months
834. Which micro-nutrient is not manufactured without refrigeration, but once opened,
by living things? should be kept refrigerated and con-
A. Vitamins sumed as soon as possible.
B. Carbohydrates D. none of above
C. Fats 839. thickened mixtures of starch and liq-

uid that have very little flow but are thin
D. Minerals
enough to be spread easily.
835. Sodium hydroxide and are used to A. Pastes
test the presence of proteins.Fill in the B. Sols
blanks.
C. Gels
A. Formoterol solution
D. Slurries
B. Dilute iodine solution
840. Which of the following is one of the basic
C. Copper sulphate solution tastes to which the tongue responds to?
D. None pf the above. A. Peppery
836. Liquefied gases that have very low boil- B. Lemony

ing points C. Yeasty
A. Adulteration D. Salty
B. Food processing 841. are lacking one or more amino acids.
C. Cryogenic liquids A. essential amino acids
D. Food security B. incomplete proteins
C. nonessential amino acids
837. A small amount of gelatin may be added
to beer and processed apple juice to com- D. complete proteins
plex with that can cloud these bever-
842. Which of the following causes a chemical
ages; the complex is then filtered out.
change to occur?
A. terpenes A. Chopping
B. isocyanates B. Cooking
C. saponins C. Peeling
D. tannins D. Slicing

843. What do plants get from the soil? 849. During the milling process of brown rice,
A. nutrients a by-product called “brokens” are pro-
duced. While “brokens” are used for a

B. food variety of things, it is mostly used for the
C. bugs production of
D. sunlight A. beer
844. Macaroni is cooked in a pot of boiling wa- B. cereal
ter. C. rice flour
A. conduction D. fertilizer
B. radiation
850. What is the Law of Conservation of
C. yummy mass?
D. convection A. Mass is created in a chemical reaction
845. An illness that results from consuming im-
properly prepared or stored foods. B. Mass is created in a physical change
A. food-borne illness C. New chemicals formed from a chem-
B. deterioration ical reaction have a larger overall mass
than the original reactants
C. preservation
D. Mass is never created or destroyed
D. none of above
851. What is an advantage of preserving
846. Which Characteristic is found in lipids but
food?
not carbs?
A. It tastes better.
A. Complex Molecular structure
B. It increases the nutritional value.
B. Function of Thickening Agent
C. Insoluble in Water C. It lasts longer.
D. Natural Sweetener D. none of above
847. a homogeneous mixture of one material 852. What is the main reason for eating a
dissolved in another wide variety of foods?
A. solution A. to learn the food label
B. mixture B. to provide all the nutrients you need
C. solute C. to keep from getting bored with your
diet
D. blending
D. to help improve physical fitness
848. is the diet which contains all the nutri-
ents, roughage and water in appropriate 853. Which of the following teeth is used to
amount. grind food?
A. Breakfast A. Incisor tooth
B. Lunch B. Milk teeth
C. Balanced diet C. Molar tooth
D. Dinner D. Canine tooth

854. About how many teaspoons of sugar C. supersaturated.

does the average American eat and drink D. not possible.
every day?
A. 9 860. Which of the following involves a chemi-
cal change?
B. 13
A. Combining baking soda and vinegar.
C. 17
B. Combining salt and water.
D. 22
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Sweetening iced tea.
855. Organic compounds that control several
D. mixing a salad.
body functions. e.g. A, C, K
A. Carbohydrates 861. Why is food preservation important?
B. Metabolism A. Because it keeps food from spoiling
and no one wants to eat food that is
C. Vitamins
spoiled.
D. Digestion
B. Because it makes food taste better.
856. Which foodborne illness can be found in C. Because it takes less time to cook.
raw or undercooked poultry or eggs?
D. Because it is easily accessible to any
A. staph consumer.
B. botulism
862. The study of the substances we eat, their
C. salmonella makeup, and the processes used to alter
D. e. coli them.
A. food science
857. An example of a disaccharide is su-
crose. Which of the following are the two B. food technology
monosaccharides which make up sucrose. C. food contamination
A. 2 molecules of Fructose D. none of above
B. 2 molecules of Glucose
863. in the 1800’s, what was the precent of
C. Glucose and Galactose farmers?
D. Glucose and Fructose A. 1-5
858. What is NOT a function of eggs in cakes? B. 1-7
A. Color C. 9-10
B. Tenderness/moisture D. 3-4
C. Flavor 864. Carbohydrates found in milk comes in the
D. Structure form of
859. A solution that holds more solute at a A. Lactose

given temperature than normal is B. Starch
A. a solid. C. Maltose
B. saturated. D. none of above

865. What is the best way to store an egg? B. fats and salt
A. room temperature and covered C. protein

B. refrigerated and uncovered D. carbohydrates
C. room temperature and uncovered 871. Which of the following is an example of
D. refrigerated and covered a non-newtonian fluid?
866. what is the meaning of conduction A. water
A. when heat transfers from objects that B. olive oil
are not touching C. corn starch suspension
B. heat rise D. vinegar
C. cold fall
872. During the manufacture of crackers, am-
D. when heat transfers from objects that monium bicarbonate in the presence of
are touching heat produces , carbon dioxide, and wa-
ter.
867. Lab safety rules are established to pro-
tect people from injury, keep lab spaces or- A. Sodium Carbonate
ganized, and safeguard food from contam- B. Sodium Chloride
ination. Which rule helps safeguard food
C. Trisodium Diphosphate
from contamination?
D. Ammonia
A. Cool hot glass slowly
B. out away all equipment 873. When a protein and sugar or starch are
present in the same mixture and dry heat
C. return supplies to their proper places
is applied during baking, creating a golden
D. use food grade equipment brown crust is called
868. Forms the rigid structure of plants A. Crusting
A. amylose B. Browning
B. carbohydrate gum C. Chemical Reaction
C. cellulose D. Maillard Reaction
D. pectin 874. Which of the following is considered ta-
ble sugar?
869. Prior to World War I most people could
preserve foods only by: A. glucose
A. Drying B. fructose
B. Salting C. sucrose
C. Pickling D. maltose
D. All of the Above 875. Carbohydrates proteins, fats, vitamins
870. From the 8 tips for healthy eating please and minerals are the main found in our
fill in the guidelines below:-4. Cut down food.
on A. Nutrients
A. starchy foods B. Diet

C. Ingredients C. facts
D. Food items D. data
876. Which of the following influences affect 882. A child named Akash is having disease
our food likes and dislikes? which is caused due to the lack of Vita-
min D. Which is the disease he is suffering
A. Psychological
from?
B. Cultural
A. Rickets
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Environmental B. Anaemia
D. All of the above C. Beriberi
877. 1000ml is the same as D. none of above
A. a litre 883. What will cold air do to bananas?
B. a millilitre A. freeze them
C. a centilitre B. Make them moldy
D. a fluid ounce C. Damage cells
878. Sugar contains ? D. Make them stale
A. Fats 884. Foods that have a pH greater than 5.3

are considered to be
B. Minerals
A. high acid foods
C. Proteins
B. neutral
D. Carbohydrates
C. low-acid foods
879. A person doing a lot of physical work D. none of above
needs more of -
A. Minerals 885. The study of certain microbes and how
they affect food.
B. Carbohydrates
A. Food microbiology
C. Calcium
B. Food Science
D. Proteins
C. Food contamination
880. The canning process was invented in D. none of above
?
886. A glass bowl should be used when whip-
A. America ping egg whites because
B. England A. plastic bowls are not able to reach a
C. Russia temperature cold enough for whipping
D. France B. fats cling to certain chemicals in a plas-
tic bowl
881. is the information gathered during an C. metal bowls create a chemical reac-
experiment. tion
A. hypothesis D. metal bowls become too cold for whip-
B. inference ping

887. In the baking industry, proteases C. 35%

gluten, enabling dough to rise faster. D. 45%

A. conjugate
893. A labeling term that indicates the food
B. agglomerate was produced through approved meth-
C. bind ods.
D. hydrolyze A. farm to the table
B. hydroponic crops
888. Bread turns brown when toasted, also
known as C. organic
A. caramelisation D. nutrition
B. burning 894. A convection oven transfers heat
C. aeration through
D. dextrinisation A. Microwaves
B. Infrared radiation
889. Foodstuffs containing carbohydrates and
are called energy giving food. C. Conduction
A. Proteins D. Hot air rising and cool air falling
B. Fats 895. Lecithin is an emulsifier because
C. Nutrients A. It has a polar end that is attracted to
D. Vitamins oil and a non-polar end that is attracted to
water
890. Which of the following causes chemical B. It inhibits oil (dispersed phase) from
changes in food? being dispersed into water (continuous
A. Chopping phase)
B. Cooking C. It has a polar end that is attracted
to water and a non-polar end that is at-
C. Peeling
tracted to oil
D. Slicing
D. It disrupts an emulsion colloid
891. The process of breaking food down into
896. In the Heat Transfer Cooking lab, the in-
simpler compounds the body can use is
dependent variables were
called
A. the types of cooking methods
A. digestion
B. the amount and type of ingredients in
B. absorption
the cake
C. metabolism
D. calorie
D. the way the cake tasted
892. Milk chocolate must contain at least 897. Oils have a tendency to go rancid from
cocoa liquor. exposure to the air. To counter this, you
A. 10% should use a(n):
B. 20% A. Antioxidant

B. colouring 903. What gas do chemical raising agents cre-

C. stabilizer ate when they are heated?
A. carbon dioxide
D. none of above
B. hydrogen peroxide
898. What is the process by which plants C. carbon
make their own food?
D. oxygen
A. metamorphosis
904. This refers to the size of the particles in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. photosynthesis a food product
C. cooking A. firmness
D. photography B. chewiness
899. Which of the following foods are consid- C. consistency

ered potentially hazardous? D. graininess
A. Foods cooked to extremely high tem- 905. A linear arrangement of all known forms
peratures. of energy.
B. Canned fruits and vegetables A. freezing
C. Moist, high-protein, low-acid foods. B. Electromagnetic spectrum
D. Foods left in the Temperature Danger C. bacteria
Zone less than one hour D. none of above
900. The USDA organic seal on a food product 906. In the Heat Transfer Cooking lab, the con-
means it is certified organic and has % trol was
or more organic content? A. the types of cooking methods
A. 100% B. the amount and type of ingredients in
the cake
B. 98%
C. 95%
D. the way the cake tasted
D. 70%
907. A substrate is also referred to as a ?
901. Foam cakes do NOT contain: A. Lock
A. Egg yolks B. Mountain
B. Egg whites C. Key
C. Cream of tartar D. Solvent
D. Flour 908. Change occurring when new substances
with different chemical and physical prop-
902. Carrots are in which food group?
erties are formed.
A. Vegetable group A. Chemical Change
B. Meat group B. Incubator
C. Fat group C. Inoculate
D. none of above D. Melanin

909. the term food scientists use to describe C. Retort

thickening a liquid with starch.
D. Formax

A. polysaccharides
B. gelatinization 915. Rice classified as
C. cellulose A. fats
D. syneresis B. sugars
910. A reduction in the risk of is a benefit C. carbohydrates
of eating soybeans.
D. none of above
A. cardiovascular disease
B. celiac disease 916. What conditions are needed for bacteria
growth?
C. diabetes
D. coronary heart disease A. coolnessmoisturefood
B. warmthmoisturefood
911. The energy that supplies the force needed
for a reaction is C. warmthdrynessfood
A. Activation Energy D. coolnessdrynessfood
B. Explosive Energy
917. how do you pickle some thing
C. Initial Energy
D. Starter Energy A. dip a cucumber in acetic acid
912. is a common process used in the food B. dip a cucumber in lactic acid
industry that involves the addition of salt, C. call a cucumber a pickle
sugar, and vinegar to lengthen their shelf
life. D. pickle it
A. canning 918. Diabetics must monitor in the diet as

B. dehydration carefully as sucrose
C. pickling A. artificial sweeteners
D. salting B. nonnutritive sweeteners
913. How does freezing foods affect bacterial C. nutritive sweeteners
growth?
D. all are correct
A. Kills bacteria
B. Allows bacteria to grow rapidly 919. The process of a food item becoming un-
C. Stops or slows down bacteria fit for consumption due to contact with an
unclean organism.
D. none of above
A. food contamination
914. A large pressure canner used to commer-
cially can food is called a B. food microbiology
A. Finisher C. food science

B. Extruder D. none of above

920. The process of piercing meat with needles 925. Three categories of microbes can have
or sharp blades to break up muscle fibers positive uses in food are
is called A. bacteria, viruses, hyphae
A. grinding B. mycelium, hyphae, spores
B. mechanical tenderization C. yeast, viruses, mycelium
C. emulsification D. bacteria, yeast, mold
D. tumbling 926. is bright orange in color and found in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
921. What method of food preserving de- foods from plant sources.
prives microorganisms of moisture? A. Retinol
A. canning B. Beta-carotene
B. pickling C. Ergocaliciferol
C. drying D. Cobalamin
D. freezing 927. The boiling point of water at sea level is
922. If a particular is missing from the diet,

A. 100 F
it can affect the growth and proper func-
tioning of the body. B. 100 C
A. Food C. 32 F
B. Nutrient D. 32 C
C. Roughage 928. What food group supplies a large amount

of protein?
D. Water
A. Dairy
923. Heat sensitive products such as milk,
B. Fruit
eggs, and protein powders are usually
dried using drying to reduce nonenzy- C. Meats
matic browning and carmelization of the D. Vegetables
finishedproduct.
929. What is the maximum number of food
A. tray samples untrained tasters should be given
B. belt to evaluate at one time?
C. drum A. 2
D. spray B. 5
C. 8
924. ovens work by making the molecules
in the food vibrate. This vibration is what D. 10
causes the heat. 930. An example of a solute is
A. convection A. sugar
B. convectional B. steam
C. microwave C. water
D. all of the above D. none of the above

931. Fish mainly give us B. Microorganisms and excess produc-

A. Fats tion

B. Protein C. Enzymes an excess production
C. Vitamin C D. All the above
D. Vitamin D 937. What happens when you have too much

fat in your diet?
932. Cellulose is indigestible but necessary for
A. Obesity
A. feeling full B. Diabetes

B. holding food together while cooking C. Thin
C. aiding in elimination D. Kidney disease
D. preventing stomach cancer 938. An example of denaturation by mechani-
cal agitation is
933. is a philosophy that encourages peo-
ple to take responsibility for their own A. kneading bread
health. B. exposure to sound waves
A. etiquette C. freezing meat
B. wellness D. none of above
C. nutrition
939. What are the three large molecules most
D. ergonomics commonly found in food?
934. are poisonous substances produced A. Proteins, Amino acids, Carbohydrates
by certain molds found primarily on grain B. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats
and nut crops, but may also be on celery,
grape juice, and apples. C. Fatty acids, Carbohydrates, Proteins
A. Scrombrotoxins D. Glucose, Proteins, Fats
B. Ipomeamarones 940. Protection of food products from inten-
C. Mycotoxins tional adulteration
D. Ciguatera toxins A. food security
B. food defense
935. Which food preservation technique
works by heating and sealing food in an C. food science
airtight container? D. adulteration
A. Vacuum Sealing.
941. Which of the following is NOT the effects
B. Dehydrating. of deficiency in mineral phosphorus?
C. Canning. A. Rickets
D. none of above B. Goiter
936. Food spoilage is due to C. Brittle teeth
A. Micro-organisms and enzymes D. DNA and RNA deformities

942. Food provides enjoyment because of 947. Which artificial sweetener is a sugar that
A. the way it looks, smells, tastes is not digested in the body
A. Acesulfame K
B. the pleasure of preparing creative
dishes B. Aspartame
C. the challenge of learning new skills C. Saccharin
D. all D. Sucralose
948. What was established in 1862 to over-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
943. Choose the correct sentence with the
given word. Lucy goes to school every day. see food production and agricultural re-
(tomorrow) search?
A. FDA
A. Lucy go to school tomorrow.
B. USDA
B. Lucy went to school tomorrow.
C. CDC
C. Lucy will go to school tomorrow.
D. CEC
D. none of above
949. When did Clarence Birdseye help the
944. The more solute present in a solution, the frozen food industry get started?
the boiling point and the the freez-
A. 1925
ing point will be.
B. 1896
A. Lower, Lower
C. 1626
B. Lower, Higher
D. 1768
C. Higher, Lower
950. Organic compounds found in fresh fresh
D. Higher, Higher
fruits, vegetables and nuts
945. results when a liquid or semiliquid A. minerals
protein forms solid or semisoft clots, such
B. fats
as milk curdling to form cheese.
C. carbohydrates
A. Adulteration
D. none of above
B. Coagulation
951. Which fat replacer provides no Calories
C. Denaturation
A. Carrageenan
D. Clotting
B. Oatrim
946. Which is a safe way to handle glass- C. Olestra
ware?
D. Simplesse
A. Cool hot glass in lukewarm water
952. What is the first process in the food
B. move hot beakers to storage for cool-
chain?
ing
A. Plant the seed and watch it grow
C. point test tubes away from people as
they are heated B. Animals eat the plant
D. preheat burners before heating glass- C. Humans eat the plant
ware. D. Wait till the plant reaches 5ft tall

953. Which of the following starches will pro- B. spraying

duce an opaque gel? C. wiping

A. Potato starch. D. disinfecting
B. Tapioca starch.
959. What is a job called if it doesn’t require
C. Cornstarch. a degree?
D. Wheat flour A. Starter job
954. Which of the following is not a biological B. Career

contaminant of water? C. Entry-level job
A. Bacteria D. Internship
B. Virus 960. An example of an element is
C. Parasite A. air
D. Pesticide B. iron
C. sugar
955. Which state is water most dense?
D. water
A. Gas
B. Liquid 961. Substances that contain particles that be-
come gaseous quickly are called
C. Solid
A. Gases
D. It is equally dense in all states
B. Smelly
956. Prions from cattle are believed to be re- C. Hard
sponsible for a rare disease called in
D. Volatile
humans.
A. mad cow disease 962. the permanent change in the structure of
the protein in food can be referred to as
B. variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A. denaturation
C. bovine spongiform encephalopathy
B. coagulation
D. prion disease
C. gelatinisation
957. Each of the letters in FAT TOM represent D. aeration
a condition necessary for microorganisms
to grow and multiply. The letters “O” and 963. lemon juice is example of
“M” stand for which two conditions? A. bound water
A. Oxygen and Minerals B. free water
B. Oxygen and Moisture C. hydrates
C. Oleo and Margarine D. all of the above
D. Old and Moldy 964. What is the importance of water?
A. provides energy
958. The process of removing dirt, dust, blood,
or there visible contaminants from a sur- B. regulate body temperature
face or equipment is called C. for growth
A. cleaning D. none of above

965. Which of the following is not a true state- 970. a chemical compound that contains carbon
ment? two hydrogens and one oxygen
A. Naturally occurring sugars have a dif- A. vitamins
ferent caloric content than commercially B. carbohydrates
produced sugars C. proteins
B. Table sugar (white granulated sugar) D. minerals
is primarily produced from sugar cane and
sugar beets 971. are polysaccharides that are soluble
NARAYAN CHANGDER
in water and are extracted from plants
C. Lactose only occurs in milk and are used to thicken, stabilize mixtures,
D. Fructose is the sweetest of naturally and trap color and flavor.
occurring sugars A. Carbohydrate Gums
B. Pectins
966. Which is NOT a type of fat?
C. Starches
A. Unsaturated.
D. Cellulose
B. Saturated.
972. How many food samples can generally be
C. Trans fat. evaluated at one time during sensoryeval-
D. Complete protein. uation?
A. 10
967. Molds that grow at refrigerated temper-
B. 5
atures.
C. 7
A. psychrophiles
D. 3
B. thermophiles
973. The substance in which a solute is dis-
C. mesophiles solved
D. Heterotrophic A. sands
B. solvent
968. The pH scale ranges from number to
C. alloy
A. 0; 6 D. negative particles
B. 8; 14 974. is the egg white.
C. 1; 14 A. chalaza
B. yolk
D. 0; 14
C. albumen
969. Which nutrient carries nutrients and oxy- D. shell membrane
gen throughout the body?
975. Food can be classified into groups.
A. Dairy
A. Five
B. Minerals B. Six
C. Protein C. Seven
D. Water D. none of above

976. When a substance moves from a liquid to A. Myoglobin

gaseous phase, it is called
B. Collagen

A. evaporation
C. Gluten
B. condensation
D. Meat
C. sublimation
D. deposition 982. What causes egg to coagulate?
A. Air
977. Maltase in yeast cells acts as a catalyst
for the breakdown of to simple sugars B. Time
in the process of making yeast bread. C. Acid
A. Glucose D. Heat
B. Galactose
983. TABLE SUGAR
C. Sucrose
A. FRUCTOSE
D. Maltose
B. SUCROSE
978. Dairy products are a major source of
C. GLUCOSE
what mineral?
A. Vitamin A D. MALTOSE
B. Vitamin D 984. the permanent change in protein from a

C. Calcium liquid to a more solid food is referred to
as
D. Potassium
A. denaturation
979. Process through which plants convert en-
B. coagulation
ergy from the sun into glucose
C. emulsification
A. Photosynthesis
D. aeration
B. Caramelization
C. Hydrolysis 985. Vegetables are a protein supplier to the
D. Crystallization human body. Vegetables are a first class
protein.
980. Which of the following is an advantage A. Correct
of fermenting foods?
B. Wrong
A. Microbes shorten shelf life of some
foods C. Not accurate
B. Microbes accelerate softening of D. No answer
foods
986. Sweet and Salt added to food items for
C. Microbes help preserve some foods
A. Reservation
D. Microbes cause foods to sour
B. Numeration
981. is a protein in connective tissue that
C. Preservation
begins to soften and break down when
cooked in moist heat. D. None

987. water performs all the following func- 992. If you needed to measure 3/4 cup of
tions in body except sugar but didn’t have a 3/4 cup, you could
use all EXCEPT what method?
A. serving as a reactant for chemical re-
actions A. 12 tablespoons
B. dissolving and transporting nutrients B. 1/2 cup three times
C. 1/4 cup three times
C. maintaining body temperature
D. 1/2 cup plus 1/4 cup
D. providing energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
993. Which of the following is not a com-
988. The meat industry is mandated to have pound?
HACCP while FDA commodities other than A. HCl
juice or seafood are mandated to have
B. Cl
plans for food safety
C. NaCl
A. Preventative Controls for Human Food
D. CO2
B. Process Containment for Food 994. Most bacteria are killed at to *F,
but spores are not
C. Production Checks for Food
A. 100 to 180
D. Potential Controls for Human Food
B. 34 to 62
989. A stick of butter is what type of fat? C. 180 to 200
A. Saturated Fat D. 89 to 56
B. Polyunsaturated Fat 995. Most pathogenic bacteria prefer environ-

mental conditions that are
C. Monounsaturated Fat
A. Dry
D. none of above
B. Wet
990. is a distinctive quality that comes C. Acidic
from a food’s unique blend of appearance, D. none of above
taste, odor, feel, and sound
996. a texture quality based on the size of
A. scent the particles in a food product.
B. texture A. chewiness
C. coloring B. brittleness
D. flavor C. firmness
D. graininess
991. The starch molecules that have the great-
est thickening power are 997. We need to eat to stay healthy. They
are rich in vitamins and nutrients.
A. amylopectins.
A. Fruits
B. amylose. B. Vegetables
C. branched polymers. C. Fruits and vegetables
D. linear sugars. D. none of above

998. The temperature range in which most bac- B. Ice cream and sweets
teria can grow, also known as the danger
C. Fruit and vegetables
zone, is defined by the FDA as

D. none of above
A. 70F-120F
B. 85F-115F 1004. Molds that grow at high temperatures
C. 55F-125F A. psychrophiles
D. 40F-140F B. thermophiles
999. A naturally occurring fatty chemical C. mesophiles
that’s an important part of the outer lin-
ing of cells in the body is called D. none of above
A. minerals 1005. What book did Justus von Liebig write?

B. protein A. Paula Deen Cook Book
C. cholesterol B. Boston Cooking School Cook Book
D. carbs
C. Southern Living
1000. A course, method, or series of opera- D. Researchers on the Chemistry of Food
tions used in producing a food product.
A. process 1006. Which factor does not affect the ability
of starch to thicken?
B. food science
C. deterioration A. The pH level of the food
D. none of above B. The size of crystals formed from a so-

lution.
1001. what does vitamin b6 do for your
C. The proportion of amylose and amy-
body?
lopectin molecules.
A. turns food into energy
D. The serving temperature
B. makes you smarter
C. cucumber 1007. is the fibre present in the food.
D. cleanses your liver A. Water
1002. The term used for water leaking from a B. Protective food
gel over time, such as the liquid that sepa- C. Vitamin E
rates from mustard.
D. Roughage
A. Gelatinization
B. Viscosity 1008. What three things does yeast need to
grow?
C. Retrogradation
D. Syneresis A. Soil, food, moisture
B. Moisture, sugar, cool termperature
1003. Which of these is the best healthy op-
tion? C. Moisture, warmth, food
A. Cakes and biscuits D. Agar, sugar, moisture

1009. Adipose Tissue C. vaccum packaging

A. stores carbohydrates for the future D. All of the Above
B. stores lipids for the future
1015. in the development of food women and
C. stores bile for the future children of early settlers
D. stores hormones for the future A. searched for nuts and fruit
1010. Producers of organic livestock must B. split hybrid corn
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Use 100% organic feed C. shopped at kroger
B. Provide access to outdoors D. begged
C. Meet all animal health & wellfare stan-
dards 1016. What is the rate of increase for protein
denaturation for each increase in tempera-
D. All of the Above ture of 10◦ C?
1011. The specks or streaks of fat in muscle A. 10 times faster.
tissue that indicate flavor and tenderness
B. 100 times faster.
are called
C. 600 times faster.
A. Collagen
B. Marbling D. none of above
C. White Lines 1017. BLOOD SUGAR

D. Meat A. FRUCTOSE
1012. Foodborne illness may occur if a food B. SUCROSE
plant employee is a carrier of , a C. GLUCOSE
predominant bacterial species normally
present on the skin. D. MALTOSE
A. E. coli O157:H7 1018. Prior to drying, many foods are pre-
B. Salmonella sp. treated to prevent
C. Staphylococcus aureus A. crystallization.
D. Campylobacter jejuni B. decomposition.
1013. Which food poisoning bacteria is com- C. stabilization.
monly associated with rice? D. enzymatic browning.
A. listeria monocytogenes
1019. A heat treatment that destroys all
B. bacillus cereus
pathogenic microorganisms, but not organ-
C. campylobacter isms that cause spoilage.
D. stapplycoccus aureus A. irradiation
1014. NASA program discoveries include B. pasteurization
A. Freezer to oven cookware C. sterilization
B. teflon coating D. none of above

1020. What does the symbol NaCl represent? 1026. is the transfer of heat by the motion
of molecules within a liquid or a gas, such
A. salt
as water or air.

B. pepper
A. conduction
C. sugar
B. convections
D. flour C. radiation
1021. The term hard water refers to water D. none of the above
that
1027. Syneresis is more likely to occur
A. is nonpolar
A. when a starch mixture is cooled too
B. has metal ions in it rapidly
C. is filtered B. when there is a high level of amy-
lopectin
C. when there is extreme retrogradation
1022. Electrons have what charge?
A. Negative D. when there is little or no retrograda-
tion
B. Positive
C. Neutral (No Charge) 1028. The handles of a saucepan should
D. none of above A. point towards the inside
B. hang over the edge
1023. How a food feels in the mouth
C. point to the outside
A. firmess
D. be on the left side
B. brittleness
1029. Which food product was developed be-
C. chewiness fore the industrial revolution?
D. mouthfeel A. cheese
1024. which food is a healthy source of fat? B. commercial yeast
A. chocolate C. self-rising
B. butter D. pancake mix
C. salmon 1030. What lowers the amount of activation

energy needed to start the reaction?
D. beans
A. Enzyme
1025. On average, Americans eat about B. Substrate
pounds of fish and shellfish each year
C. Catalyst
A. 12
D. Coenzyme
B. 15
1031. When starch is dissolved in a liquid and
C. 8
then heated, it will swell and produce a
D. 4 thick paste. This process is known as

A. aeration 1036. When evaluating the color of food,

which word describes the lightness or
B. emulsification
darkness of that color?
C. creaming
A. Hue
D. gelatinisation B. Value
1032. Choose the correct sentence with the C. Chroma
given word. Jordan will spend a lot of D. Shade
NARAYAN CHANGDER
money on computer games. (yesterday)
1037. Which of the following is not a step in
A. Jordan will spend a lot of money on the food supply chain?
computer games yesterday.
A. Consumption.
B. Jordan spends a lot of money on com-
puter games yesterday. B. Sale.
C. Storage.
C. Jordan spent a lot of money on com-
puter games yesterday. D. none of above
D. none of above 1038. Substances that are formed in a chemi-
cal change.
1033. Atmospheric pressure can change the
A. Acid
amount of energy needed to break hydro-
gen bonds in water. In which of following B. Base
locations will water boil at lowest temper- C. Reactant
ature
D. Products
A. Atlantic Coast
1039. Seafood is a type of protein.
B. Pike’s Peak
A. True
C. New York City
B. False
D. St. Louis, MO.
C. Maybe
1034. is the transfer of heat by electro- D. none of above
magnetic waves
1040. To keep sugar crystals in candy small,
A. conduction you could do any of the following
B. convection except
C. radiation A. add corn syrup
D. all of the above B. beat vigorously after cooling

C. allow sugar crystal to form on the
1035. Carbohydrates are divided into two cat- sides of your pan
egories. They are: D. add egg whites or butter
A. Simple and Fiber
1041. All infant can digest milk because
B. Simple and Complex their bodies make lactase.
C. Fiber and Complex A. animals
D. none of above B. reptiles

C. mammals 1047. Collagen and elastin are

D. no infants can digest milk A. examples of fibrous proteins

B. found in muscle fibers, ligaments, and
1042. National Aeronautics and Space Admin- tendons
istration (NASA) program discoveries in-
clude C. helix-shaped strands
A. Freezer-to-oven cookware D. All of the above.
B. Vacuum Packaging Techniques 1048. The most important carbohydrate for

the body is
C. Teflon Coatings
A. glucose
D. All of the Above
B. sucrose
1043. Who has the burden to increase the food C. fructose
production for the expanding world popu-
D. cellulose
lation?
A. Food Scientist 1049. When materials combine to form a mix-
ture, they
B. Dietetic
A. A. keep their original properties.
C. Reach Chef
B. B. react to form a new substance with
D. Global Chef new properties.
C. C. combine in a specific ratio.
1044. Muscle is the part of the meat.
D. D. always change their physical state.
A. lean
B. connective 1050. Which of the following statements is
the function of carbohydrate?
C. flabby
A. Regulate body processes
D. fat
B. Replace dead cells
1045. Your freezer should be set at what tem- C. Act as a chemical solvent
perature? D. Supplies a lot of energy
A. 40
1051. Will they like their new stationery?
B. 0
A. Yes, they won’t.
C. 32 B. No, they will.
D. 38 C. No, they won’t.
1046. A substance that speeds up the rate of D. none of above
a reaction without being a permanently 1052. Which food group give us energy that
changed or used up itself is? our body can store?
A. Chemical Bond A. fruit and vegetables
B. Enzyme B. fats
C. Substrate C. fish and meat
D. Catalyst D. bread, pasta and rice

1053. Which is a true statement? 1058. The qualities of a food identified by the
A. A food with a higher fat content will senses
freeze slower than a similar food with a A. olfactory
lower fat content
B. sensory characteristics
B. Increase airflow in a freezer de-
creases freezing rate of food C. senses
C. The thinner a product is, the longer it D. brittleness
will take to freeze in the center
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Water conducts heat away from food 1059. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
slower than fat ple of kinetic energy
A. energy found in food
1054. One calorie is the heat needed to raise
the temperature of one of water one B. riding a bike
degree Celsius
C. kneading dough
A. ounce
D. using a blender
B. kilogram
C. pound 1060. Which of the following are true of
D. gram monosaccharides?
1055. is the temperature at which a sub- A. They are the simplest carbohydrate
stance changes from a solid to a liquid. molecule.
A. Melting Point B. They do not contain carbon.

B. Solidification Point C. They are formed when two monosac-
C. Liquidation Point charides molecules join together.
D. Boiling Point D. They are the most complex carbohy-
drate molecules.
1056. The chemical formula for water is
A. HO 1061. Which of the following is never used up
B. H2O or destroyed during a reaction?
C. H2O2 A. Enzyme
D. H3O B. Coenzyme
1057. What is the order for washing dishes by C. Substrate

hand? D. Catalyst
A. dishesglassesflatwarekitchen toolscook-
ware 1062. Starches are made up of simple sug-
B. glassesdishesflatwarekitchen toolscook- ars
ware A. saturated fats
C. flatwareglassesdisheskitchen toolscook- B. sugars
ware
C. fats
D. glassesflatwaredisheskitchen toolscook-
ware D. carbohydrates

1063. nutrients that store energy and some vi- C. Blue grey
tamins; helps produce hormones D. none of above

A. water
1069. An uncooked mixture of starch and wa-
B. fats ter is called
C. minerals A. paste
D. vitamins B. slurry
1064. Niacin is the chemical name of which Vi- C. gel
tamin? D. sol
A. Vitamin B3
1070. Nutrient found in meat that is essential
B. Vitamin B1 in repairing worn out tissues .
C. Vitamin B2 A. Iron
D. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E
1065. What cake making method will you use C. Protein
when making Swiss roll? D. Magnesium
A. Whisking
1071. The body uses hydrolysis to
B. Melting
A. digest fat in food.
C. Creaming
B. digest amino acids in food.
D. All in one
C. digest water in food.
1066. 1kg of flour is the same as D. digest disaccharides in food.
A. 10g
1072. Which of the following is not an organic
B. 100g compound?
C. 1000g A. Carbohydrate
D. 10000g B. Lipid
1067. In his garden, James notices that plants C. Protein
in the shade do not grow as much as plants D. Water
that receive direct sunlight. This is known
as a(n) 1073. What are the building blocks of MAT-
A. Testable hypothesis TER?
B. Scientific theory A. Atoms
C. Observation B. Cells
D. Conclusion C. Protons
D. Neutrons
1068. What is the colour of the seeds in car-
damom .? 1074. Anhydrous means
A. Brownish red A. Electrons shared equally.
B. Brownish black B. Free of water.

C. Unequal sharing of electrons. 1080. To find the name of an enzyme change

D. Weak attraction between positive and the ending to
negative ends. A. -ase
1075. This development helped scientists bet- B. -ose

ter understand the effects of bacteria on C. -ite
foodspoilage and human health. D. -ate
A. industrial revolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1081. What does eviscerating (eviscerate)
B. microscope mean?
C. pasteurization A. A rock band
D. periodic table B. removal of organs
1076. Basic energy source of humans; C. grinding to enhance meat/poultry
Monosaccharide that is the most abundant D. Cut to desired size
of the sugars
A. Sucrose 1082. The group is largest block on the
Food Guide Pyramid.
B. Glucose
A. Fats
C. Fructose
B. Proteins
D. Lactose
C. Carbohydrates
1077. Process of altering organisms or any D. none of above
part of these organisms to create new or
improved products. 1083. the term hard water refers to water
A. biotechnology that:
B. hydroponic crops A. is filtered
C. adulteration B. is nonpolar
D. amaranth C. has metal ions in it

1078. Food labeling and compliances are con-
trolled by: 1084. Berries are example of
A. Borth FDA & USDA A. Low acidic food
B. IFIC B. High acid food
C. FDA C. Acid foods
D. USDA D. Medium acid food
1079. The leakage of liquid from a gel or paste 1085. How many kilocalories per gram are
as in ketchup and mustard is called provided by complex carbohydrates?
A. gelatinization A. 4
B. viscosity B. 6
C. retrogradation C. 100
D. syneresis D. none of above

1086. nutrients used for building, maintaining 1092. Cassie needs to measure the volume of
and repairing tissues and cells corn syrup. Which metric unit should she
use?

A. proteins
B. fats A. Grams
C. carbohydrates B. Newtons
D. water C. Liters
1087. Study of food components and their use D. Pounds

by the body to sustain life and health
1093. Leaves from the tea plant, which is part
A. Food analogs of the family, grow in a wide range of
B. Food defense climates and are used to make tea.
C. Organic A. Oleasceae
D. Nutrition B. Camellia
1088. What is the chemical formula of glu- C. Moraceae
cose? D. Rutaceae
A. C12O6H6
B. H12O6C6 1094. Color tone that refers to whether the
basic color is red, blue, or green.
C. C6H12O6
A. texture
D. none of above
B. value
1089. With technology today two farmers can
produce enough food for? C. weight
A. 25 people D. hue
B. 50 people 1095. A: Are you busy tonight? Would you
C. 75 people like to go to the cinema? B: Sorry. I
D. 100 people go to the library. I’ve been planning to
study all day and night.
1090. The odor of food is A. am going to
A. aroma
B. will
B. astringency
C. won’t
C. consistency
D. going to
D. texture
1096. are made up of two atoms of hydro-
1091. Atoms of the same element with a dif-
gen and one atom of nitrogen.
ferent number of neutrons
A. Ion A. macromolecule
B. Gluons B. amine group

C. Isotope C. micromolecule
D. Quarks D. essential amino acid

1097. Which of the following is an example of 1102. What is a disadvantage of preserved

a monosaccharide? foods?
A. glucose A. The food is old.
B. lactose B. It tastes bad.
C. maltose C. The nutritional value of the food is al-
tered.
D. sucrose
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1098. what mineral do you get most from yo-
ghurt 1103. For pectin to gel, which of the following
compounds must be present?
A. potassium
A. Acid, sugar, and water.
B. calcium
B. Calcium, sugar, and water.
C. sodium
C. Cellulose, sugar, and water.
D. zinc D. none of above
1099. Using temperature and time to reduce 1104. On level 4 of the food pyramid, we
microorganisms to a safe level without ma- are encouraged to consume these types of
jor alteration to the properties of the prod- foods in small quantities. Among the types
uct e.g milk (72◦ C for 15 sec.) of foods in this level are oil, sugar and
A. Additives A. Meat
B. Homogenise B. Nuts
C. Winterising C. Cereal
D. Pasteurisation D. Salt
1100. are bonds between nitrogen of one 1105. Three enzymes which come from papaya
amino acid and the carbon of a second fruit are diluted with salt to make a dry
amino group. powder that can be used as a
A. polypeptide bonds A. Coagulation agent
B. amine bonds B. Clarifying agent
C. peptide bonds C. Meat tenderizer
D. protein bonds D. Antioxidant
1106. What is a good source of proteins

1101. The reaction between proteins and car-
bohydrates that causes food to brown is A. milk
called B. cheese
A. the Maillard reaction C. red meat
B. carmelization D. chocolate
C. crystallization
1107. The was established in 1944 by
D. proteolysis the United Nations with the objectives of

eliminating hunger and improving nutrition 1112. Which food additive is used to create
worldwide. mayonnaise and ice cream, which requires
mixing water and fat?

A. World Health Organization
A. Emulsifier
B. Food and Agricultural Organization
B. Bulking agent
C. Codex Alimentarius
C. Humectant
D. UNICEF
D. none of above
1108. The time line to turn an idea into a new 1113. Which vitamin helps in the production
product can take of red blood cells and supplies oxygen to
A. 1- 2 cells?
B. 2- 3 A. iron
C. 2- 4 B. protein
C. copper
D. 3- 5
D. calcium
1109. Rice is rich of
1114. A bundle of nerve fibers located at the
A. Protein base of the brain behind the bridge of the
B. Carbohydrate nose
C. Vitamin A. olfactory
D. Calcium B. scent receptor

C. olfactory bulb
1110. Some pathogenic bacteria are present D. aroma
and can multiply in foods we eat. This
makes some foods 1115. A food scientist is analyzing multiple
A. Potentially hazardous published research studies to determine
which ingredient would provide the best
B. A thing to avoid functionality for a product. When the
C. Heavier because of the weight of results of several individual studies are
pathogens pooled to yield an overall conclusion, it is
called
D. none of above
A. coherent-analysis
1111. Select the nutrient that best applies to B. a cumulative frequency distribution
the description. This nutrient helps reg- C. meta-analysis
ulate chemical reactions withinthe body.
There are two types of this nutrient, macro D. a correlation coefficient
and trace. What is the nutrient?
1116. is a body building food.
A. Minerals A. Wheat
B. Vitamins B. Cheese
C. Water C. Oil
D. Water D. Sugar cane

1117. The solidification point of can be al- 1123. This mineral is used by the body to help
tered by changing the fatty acids used in bones stay strong.
its development A. Calcium
A. carrageenan B. Vitmain A
B. Oatrim C. Vitamin D
C. olestra D. none of above
D. Simplesse
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1124. Which of the following is not a function
1118. Babies are born preferring of complex carbohydrates?
A. sour taste A. Stabilize ice cream.
B. bitter taste B. Bind batters to foods during deep fry-
ing
C. sweet taste
C. Thicken liquids.
D. salty taste
D. Brown breads and baked goods.
1119. What is the name of a large pot used to
make soup or pasta? 1125. Food Labeling regulations and compli-
ances are controlled by?
A. Sauce
A. FDA
B. Cauldron
B. IFIC
C. Stock
C. Both FDA & USDA
D. Dutch
D. USDA
1120. How many major nutrients are there?
1126. Condition of a food to have an agreeable
A. 3 taste.
B. 4 A. palatability
C. 5 B. sterilization
D. 6 C. irradiation
1121. a food that is used with other foods in D. pasteurization

the preparation of a particular dish 1127. A food scientist is designing a product
A. fat that requires a mold inhibitor. Which one
of the following ingredients should this
B. calories
person select to provide this function?
C. ingredient
A. Propoinic Acid
D. preservative
B. Calcium Alginate
1122. Acids taste C. Tartaric Acid
A. sour D. Silicon Dioxide
B. bitter 1128. What should you do to the pan before
C. salty pouring in a shortened cake?
D. tasteless A. Grease only

B. Leave ungreased 1134. What is the food chain?

C. Grease and flour A. matter and energy transfer between
organisms as food

D. Flour only
B. the usage of genetics to improve
1129. During a taste test panel a tester should plants and animals
refrain from C. eating food for a long time
A. making verbal signs to other testers D. a variety of food
B. commenting on the taste of the food 1135. Which tooth functional to cut food?
C. using body language to express A. Incisor tooth
fellings about the food B. Canine tooth
D. All of the above C. Small tooth
D. Molar tooth
1130. Foo.ds are concentrated to
1136. Access to nutritionally adequate and
A. add water. safe food.
B. add protein. A. food security
C. remove sugar. B. food defense
D. remove a portion of the water. C. food analogs
D. food terrorism
1131. Calcium, Iron and Phosphorus are exam-
ples of - 1137. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of a moist cooking method?
A. Fats
A. frying
B. Proteins
B. boiling
C. Vitamin C. poaching
D. Minerals D. stewing
1132. We can get from the iodised table 1138. Out of these which is a source of vita-
salt. min C?
A. Carrot
A. Calcium
B. Peas
B. Sodium
C. Lemon
C. Iodine
D. Milk
D. Iron
1139. The complete destruction of all microbes
1133. Lemon juice is an example of in food processing is completed through
A. bound water
A. blanching
B. free water B. pasteurization
C. hydrates C. sterilization
D. all of the above D. commercial sterilization

1140. Water makes a good medium for cook- C. Food Bible

ing food because D. Organic Lists
A. most foods dissolve in it.
1146. After the microwaves turns off,
B. its temperature will steadily climb as
molecules continues to cook food. It is
cooking progresses.
important to
C. heat is transferred throughout by con-
duction and convection. A. give food resting time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. its polarity creates increased surface B. give the food reefing time
tension. C. give the food coolling time
1141. provides a way to test a hypothesis D. give the food flipping time
in order to verify or disprove it.
1147. Neutrons have what charge?
A. test panel
A. Negative
B. experiment
B. Positive
C. theory
C. Neutral (No Charge)
D. consumer taste panel
D. none of above
1142. Pectins are
A. called sugar acids 1148. How many tablespoons are in 1/2
cup?
B. derived from sugar
A. 4
C. found naturally in plant cells
D. All of the above. B. 8
C. 12
1143. What is soybeans used to make?
D. 16
A. Newspaper
B. Gasoline 1149. to use fuel, energy, or time, especially
in large amounts
C. Shoes
D. Oil A. digest
B. contain
1144. Starches with a branched structure are
called C. control
A. amylopectin D. consume
B. granules 1150. Two or more elements chemically com-
C. polymers bined, whose properties are completely
D. amylose different from those of the individual el-
ements, are known as a
1145. Publication offers safe food handling
A. compound
recommendations to anyone seeking infor-
mation. B. heterogeneous mixture
A. FDA’s Food Code Index C. homogeneous mixture
B. CDC Code D. solution

1151. Another name used to describe FATS is 1157. The best way to prevent spreading
called: viruses through food is to
A. Examine food carefully for mold

A. Lipids.
B. Essential fatty acids. B. Use good personal hygiene
C. Carbohydrates. C. Thaw frozen foods under refrigeration
D. Proteins.
D. Scrub all vegetables before use
1152. unequal sharing of electrons
1158. The color of fresh meat before it be-
A. bound water
comes oxygenated is
B. hydrogen bond
A. Red
C. nonpolar covalent bond
B. Brown
D. polar covalent bond
C. Purple
1153. Sour foods are evaluated in terms of D. Blue
this.
1159. The prevention of Food Adulteration Act
A. Astringency came into force in the year
B. Temperature A. 1950
C. Umami B. 1955
D. Consistency C. 1962
1154. What do you have to do to make D. 1970
peaches ripen faster?
1160. Anything that takes up space and has
A. Place them in direct sunlight mass is known as
B. Leave them at room temperature A. Matter
C. Sit them in the fridge B. Molecules
D. Put them in a closed bag C. Compounds
1155. If a grease fire were to start in a D. Stuff
kitchen, all of the following are appropri- 1161. Who is at greatest risk of getting food-
ate EXCEPT borne illness?
A. cover it with a lid A. Teenagers and young adults
B. use a fire extinguisher B. Newlyweds
C. pour water on the fire C. Chronically ill people
D. sprinkle with baking soda D. Food service workers
1156. Out of these which is not a source of 1162. Water activity is
Vitamin ’A’? A. the chemical reaction in food.
A. Spinach B. the measure of partial water pressure
B. Mango over a food.
C. Carrot C. measured from 1 to 3.
D. Pulses D. none of above

1163. A company developed a new food prod- B. sight

uct and is asking several hundred people C. touch
how much they like or dislike the product
or one of its flavor/texture characteristics. D. taste
This would be an example of
1169. Botulism is?
A. Consumer panel
A. A type of wild mushroom
B. Laboratory panel
B. A type of fungus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Highly trained expert panel
C. A type of the most deadly food poison-
D. Research panel ing
1164. Moist methods of cooking include; D. A types of French cooking term
A. grilled lamb chops, fried fish, veg- 1170. Fat the cake.
etable stir-fry
A. folds
B. boiled pasta, poached fish,
caramelised onions B. fits
C. banana bread, mashed sweet potato, C. tenderizes

steamed wontons D. shapes
D. savoury mince, pumpkin soup, rata- 1171. refers to any change of the shape of
touille a protein molecule without breaking pep-
1165. Sugar is a tide bonds.
A. Carbohydrate A. Coagulation
B. Protein B. Myoglobin
C. Vitamin C. Adipose
D. Fibre D. Denaturation
1166. Unequal sharing of electrons.. 1172. The measure of hydrogen or hydronium

ions present in a solution.
A. anydrous
A. Acid
B. bound water
B. Base
C. free water
C. pH
D. polar covalent bonds
D. pH Scale
1167. The hydrolysis of sucrose produces
A. glucose and galactose 1173. Explanation based on a body of knowl-
edge gained from many observations and
B. glucose and glucose supported by the results of many experi-
C. glucose and fructose ments
D. maltose and fructose A. hypothesis
1168. Which sense is determined by the olfac- B. experiment

tory bulb? C. theory
A. smell D. list

1174. you come with me? 1180. is a testable predictions that explain
A. Will certain observations.

A. data
B. Shall
B. hypothesis
C. Will / Shall
C. experiment
D. none of above
D. variable
1175. A device that measure the color of foods
1181. The way a product feels to the fingers,
in terms of value, hue, and chroma
tongue, teeth, and palate
A. chromameter A. graininess
B. huemeter B. firmness
C. apmeter C. consistency
D. colorimeter D. texture
1176. Which of these is NOT a role of food ad- 1182. Eating turkey at Thanksgiving is an ex-
ditives? ample of influence on food choices.
A. Preserving the lifespan of food. A. regional eating
B. Providing additional calories to food. B. cultural
C. Changing the color of food. C. bird box food
D. Enhancing the flavor of food. D. gobble grub

1183. What do beans and rice supply a good
1177. An example of saturated fat is source of?
A. avocado A. Carbs
B. butter B. Sodium
C. beef C. Fat
D. none of above D. Protein
1178. Milk is fortified with this vitamin: 1184. When using a scale in FOOD SCIENCE,
this procedure is used to find the mass of
A. Vitamin E
a substance, but not it’s container
B. Vitamin K A. leveling
C. Vitamin B B. setting
D. Vitamin D C. taring
1179. What does running a knife through the D. weighing
batter do? 1185. One celled microscopic plants.
A. Gives cake marbled appearance A. bacteria
B. Prevent it from sticking B. yeast
C. Removes air bubbles C. mold
D. Nothing D. none of above

1186. Tender, Flaky texture of pie crust will C. Alkaline

result from? D. none of above
A. Melted butter
1192. Able to be repeated with similar results
B. Oil by following a written record.
C. Shortening A. astringency
D. Liquid Margarine B. replicable
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1187. help our body to grow and repair C. compression
the worn out tissues. D. texture
A. Fats
1193. Which of the following elements is the
B. Proteins main component of an organic compound?
C. Minerals A. hydrogen
D. Carbohydrates B. oxygen
1188. Why should you eat healthy food every- C. nitrogen
day? D. carbon
A. It will make your heart pump faster
B. It will give you energy a dry cooking method
C. It will make you get A’s in school A. baking
D. none of above B. roasting
1189. Ability of a thickened mixture to re- C. grilling

main constant over time and temperature D. all of the above
changes
1195. Which is an example of a processed
A. translucency food?
B. opacity A. Clementine
C. stability B. Peanut Butter
D. viscocity C. Pear
1190. A food that has been left untouched, D. Onion
processed or preserved.
1196. Bake-lite Cake company conducted cook-
A. Whole Food ing trials for a new sugar substitute. They
B. Processed Food now need to conduct a proximate analysis
in order to:
C. Preserved Food
A. control variables to ensure accurate
D. none of above
results
1191. Most types of bacteria cannot live in B. determine the percentage of each in-
foods that are gredient
A. Acidic C. evaluate the new sugar substitutes
B. Neutral D. publish the test results

1197. A texture quality based on the ease B. garnish

with which one part of the food slides past C. appearance
another without breaking

D. aroma
A. chewiness
B. graininess 1203. Which food item is not a source of vita-
C. brittleness min B?
D. firmness A. Green leafy vegetables

B. Beans
1198. When onion are fried they
A. melt C. Soya bean
B. thicken D. Pulses
C. caramelise 1204. An example of a heterogeneous mixture
D. denature is
1199. There are many influences on food pref- A. cola

erences. Which one does “taste bias” fall B. iced tea
under? C. sodium chloride
A. Physical
D. mixed salad
B. Psychological
C. Cultural 1205. Which of the following is not a property
of water?
D. Environmental
A. It is an excellent solvent.
1200. Sublimation is induced in a method of
B. It is a nonpolar molecule.
food preservation called
A. Dehydration C. It has a greater surface tension than
most compounds.
B. Retorting
D. It heats food steadily.
C. Freeze drying
D. Refrigeration 1206. Manufactures that do not follow regula-
tions may?
1201. is a pathogen that has the potential
to contaminate ready- to-eat foods by con- A. Be Fined
taminating the food after processing and B. Face recalls
before packaging, and was responsible for C. Close Plant
a recent recall with Eggo waffles.
D. All of the above
A. E. Coli O157:H7
B. Salmonella sp. 1207. Which vitamin helps our blood clot nor-
C. Staphylococcus aureus mally?
D. Listeria monocytogenes A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
1202. is the shape, size, color, and condi-
tion of a product. C. Vitamin K
A. chroma D. Vitamin E

1.28 Agribusiness 814
1.28 Agribusiness
1. In terms of marketing a product, what is a B. consumer
promotion? C. retailer
A. a catchy phrase or jingle D. harvester
B. letting people know about goods & ser-
vices in a positive way that will make them 6. Succession planning refers to:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
want to buy A. planning to raise a new variety of soy-
C. letting people know about goods & ser- beans that have not been tried before
vices, but not encouraging them to buy it B. planning for next year’s success of the
business
D. feedback via attendance, contribu- C. planning to move the business to the
tions, or purchases younger generation
2. dividing total job into specific job, design D. planning to increase the size of the
connecting, span of control, are farm business
A. planning 7. Which of the following is NOT an example

B. organizing of a liability?
A. Equipment loans
C. leading
B. Feed store bills
D. controlling
C. Car loans
3. A lender will only lend money to an
D. Feed
agribusiness or farmer if there is enough
and/or the agribusiness or farmer will 8. Which of the following is required as a part
make enough money to pay off the loan. of a company’s financial reports?
A. Collateral A. Net worth statement
B. Character B. Net income statement
C. Contracts C. Statement of cash flow
D. Equity D. Statement of ownership equity
4. Determining reasons that customers may 9. The government has set a price floor for
wish to buy a product or service is called milk at $14/cwt (cwt = 100 pounds), but
the: market conditions indicate that the market
A. buying function equilibrium is $11/cwt. What effect will
the price floor have?
B. distribution function
A. stimulate establishment of new dairies
C. promoting function
D. selling function B. cause a shortage of milk in the market
5. Which person or component starts and
ends the Ag Production cycle? C. no effect on the supply of milk
A. farmer D. cause a surplus of milk in the market

10. Cattle on feed should be marketed when C. Improving credit score

A. they have reached their maximum D. Establishing a projected goal

weight
B. their marginal cost of gain is no longer 15. Holding combinations of investments is
below their selling price called
C. their average cost of gain is no longer A. diersification

below their selling price B. verification
D. their marginal cost of gain is no longer C. dissatisfaction
below their original purchase price
D. variations
11. What law refers to the amount of profit
generated by additional inputs (i.e.., at 16. What is the length of non-current?
what point does the cost of adding more
A. 2 months
fertilizer outweigh the benefit of getting
a higher yield)? B. 6 months
A. Law of Diminishing Returns C. 12+ months
B. Law of Comparative Advantage D. 0-12 months
C. Law of Opportunity Costs
17. The selection of a product or service to be
D. Law of Resource Substitution sold for profit is called the:
12. A farmer increases an investment in land, A. buying function
building, and equipment to increase the to-
B. distribution function
tal units of production. The cost per unit
of production C. promoting function
A. decreases D. selling function
B. increases
18. Which agricultural commodity must be im-
C. varies with the operator ported to the United States?
D. remains the same
A. sugar
13. A good which cannot be physically touched; B. rice
usually involving a service, such as going
to the doctor C. wheat
A. Manufactured good D. coffee

B. Intangible good 19. Which of the following operates on dona-
C. Tangible good tions and volunteers rather than income
D. Processed good and profit?
A. Service firms
14. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
budgeting? B. Production firms
A. Setting up emergency funds C. Non-profit organizations
B. Relying on debt D. Producers organizations

20. Which of the following requires applicants 25. An example of an Entrepreneurship SAE
to qualify? would be:
A. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 A. John raises laying hens and sells the
B. Child Law for Agricultural Employment eggs to his neighbors
B. Jill has a lawn mowing business in her
community
C. Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural
Worker Protection Act C. Jeff raises a garden every summer,
then uses the produce to can and feed his
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. H-2A Program
family through the winter
21. What is an SAE? D. All of these are Entrepreneurship SAEs
A. a class project which is always com-
26. About what percentage of your food dol-
pleted at school
lars goes back to the farmer?
B. planned, practical activities conducted A. 20%
outside of class time
B. 35%
C. activities that must only involve raising
and showing livestock C. 15%
D. planned activities that your parents D. 30%

are obligated to help with and pay for 27. The price of beef goes up in the grocery
store due to a shortage of beef production
22. The government agency that regulates
in the country. This represents the eco-
drainage of cattle yards and protects wet-
nomic concept of
lands is the
A. supply and demand
A. FDA
B. inelasticity
B. EPA
C. elasticity
C. USDA
D. inflation
D. FTC
28. A depreciable asset’s book value will equal
23. What are the three main types of cooper- its salvage value
atives?
A. every year of its useful life
A. market, purchase, and service based
B. only at the mid-point of its useful life
B. market, sales, and serviced based
C. only at the end of the useful life
C. sales, purchasing, and service based
D. only on the purchase date
D. market, purchasing, and sales based
29. A local farm lending agency has operat-
24. It refers to the ability of the agribusiness ing loans for 3.5% on up to $25, 000 a
firm to recover all its investments and gen- year with no additional charges. You se-
erate sufficient income. cure your loan for the $25, 000 for a 1
A. Environmental Sustainability year period, but complete the payments in
5 months. Through changing your financial
B. Social Sustainability option how much did you save your farm
C. Economic Sustainability business in interest?
D. none of above A. $510.39

B. $611.27 35. After the Civil War where was cattle de-
C. $574.98 manded the most?

D. $482.16 A. California
B. Canada
30. Which is not a function of managers?
A. actuating C. Europe
B. controlling and evaluating D. Northern States

C. organizing people and resources 36. Whole farm budgets are NOT used for
D. setting policy which of the following?
31. Which of the following compares the A. Comparing profitability of several farm
sources of cash to the uses of the cash over plans
a specific period of time? B. Determining income possibilities
A. Net worth statement C. Totaling the number of acres
B. Net income statement
D. Learning the worth of a ranch
C. Statement of cash flow
D. Statement of ownership equity 37. Which one of the following states is NOT
one of the top states in farm numbers, to-
32. Which of the following moves finished tal sales, crops sales, or livestock sales?
goods from one business to another?
A. California
A. Intermediaries
B. Iowa
B. Manufacturers
C. Oklahoma
C. Service Firms
D. Missouri
D. Producers
33. Which of the following is an example of a 38. Organic farmers aim to sell their product
fixed expense? to health-conscious consumers. The health-
conscious consumers are a
A. Utility bill
A. mass market
B. Insurance
C. Gas B. secondary market
D. Animal health care C. primary market

D. niche market
34. Why should a person know what their
business is worth?
39. Which of the following is the most common
A. To sell the business right away form of business ownership?
B. To evaluate the financial health of the A. Sole Proprietorship
business
B. Partnership
C. To keep others from stealing the pro-
duce C. Corporation
D. To keep business at a consistent level D. Franchise

40. Which of the following is NOT a true state- D. Allows companies to spend as much
ment? money as they want
A. With a budget, there is no disciplined
45. To show ownership of cattle what did
approach to keeping spending in line
ranchers perform?
B. Budgeting helps monitor expenditures
A. Tattooing
C. Budgeting is a building block of setting B. Branding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
up a farm or ranch C. Cutting
D. Spending without budgeting may D. Stamping
cause someone to spend money on less
important items 46. Farm Financial Standards Council promotes
uniformity of farm financial records for the
41. Less workers are needed for farm produc-
purpose of:
tion due to
A. technology A. analyzing farm production characteris-
tics
B. organic farming
B. fair comparisons between all farms
C. specialization
C. fair comparisons between farms in for-
D. education
eign countries
42. A farmer produces most of what his family D. analyzing competitive advantages
needs. This kind of farming is called
A. marginal 47. What do the letters S.A.E. stand for?
B. communal A. Supervised Agricultural Experience
C. corporate B. Supportive Agricultural Education
D. subsistence C. Supervised Animal Experience
43. On what document does a borrower sign D. Supervised Agricultural Entrepreneur-

to indicate the loan will be paid on or be- ship
fore a specified date?
48. What is the owner’s equity?
A. registration form
A. Net worth
B. promissory note
B. Asset
C. installment document
D. reliability voucher C. Liability
D. Current
44. Which of the following is NOT a reason for
budgeting? 49. Which is an example of an asset?
A. Provides company or personal finan- A. Land
cial stability
B. Bank Loan
B. Generates a map of financial practices
C. Note
C. Guides efficient business decisions D. none of above

50. The length of time required at a specific 55. Encourages appropriate standards of con-
temperature to destroy 90% of the mi- servation, restoration management and
croorganisms present is referred to as the the proper use of soil, water and natural

A. F-value resources
B. G-value A. National Cattlemen’s Beef Association
C. C-value
B. Farm Bureaus
D. D-value
C. National Pork Producers Council
51. Marian and Sara borrow $175, 000 on D. The Association of Soil and Water Con-
March 15. They expect to repay $100, servation Districts
000 on October 15 and the remaining bal-
ance on November 15. Calculate the to- 56. What type of business is expensive to set
tal interest obligation if the interest rate up, but has no personal liability?
is 8% and interest is charged on the daily A. sole proprietorship
outstanding principle balance.
B. corporation
A. $6, 904
C. LLC
B. $8, 718
D. partnership
C. $8, 666
D. $7, 500 57. When a good is completed it is moved
from work-in-progress inventory to which
52. Which of the following is a firm or business of the following?
owned and operated by its members? A. Raw goods inventory
A. Cooperative (co-op) B. Finished goods inventory
B. Partnership C. Overhead inventory
C. Corporation D. Overhead cost pool
D. Franchise
58. Which of the following describes strate-
53. Develop products for distribution from raw gies for branding, packaging, advertising
goods, such as forestry, farming & mining and promoting the business and its prod-
A. Producers ucts?
B. Processors A. Executive agend
C. Intermediaries B. Business description
D. Service Firms C. Marketing plan

D. Financial plan
54. Development of a plan to identify ways to
make potential customers aware of a prod- 59. Many business operators must make
uct or service is called the: choices on keeping inventory or liquidat-
A. buying function ing that inventory. Which of the follow-
ing would be a situation when inventory
B. distribution function should be liquidated?
C. promoting function A. Shelves in the back of a storage room
D. selling function that are not utilized any longer to store

records that are now kept electronically. 64. What is the name of formal institution that
gives you financial intermediaries?
B. A computer that is used daily to keep A. Restaurants
records of the business.
B. Banks
C. A tractor that is only used in the spring
for plowing a plot of land. C. School
D. Benches in a greenhouse that are only D. Campus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
used for overflow plants in the spring of
the year. 65. Which is the business function that in-
volves selecting a product or service to be
60. As an agribusiness manager, what is one marketed for profit?
of the best ways to minimize risk? A. selling function
A. fail to pay loans on time
B. buying function
B. maintain a proper debt to income rela-
C. promoting function
tionship
C. increase the amount of loan if given D. financing function
the opportunity
66. What is the number 1 agriculture state in
D. take out multiple lines of credit the US?
through different credit sources
A. Alabama
61. Creating a budget does NOT consist of B. West Virginia
which of the following?
C. California
A. Tracking spending
D. Kansas
B. Throwing away financial records
C. Knowing your net income 67. Rent is an example of which of the follow-
D. Eliminating unnecessary expenses ing?
A. Fixed
62. Which of the following formulas calculates
net amount? B. Variable
A. Revenue - losses C. Net worth
B. Losses - revenues D. Asset
C. Revenues + net worth
68. When evaluating records liquidity is a key
D. Revenues + losses element of determining the true financial
63. Which of the following are temporary agri- picture of an agribusiness. In terms of cash
cultural programs? dollars which liquidity measure gives the
greatest indication of financial efficiency?
A. H-2A Programs
A. Working Capital
B. Fair Labor Standards Programs
B. Current Ratio
C. Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural
Worker Protection C. Leverage Ratio
D. Safe Labor Standards Program D. Return to Assets

69. If a worker is untrained and exposed to 74. The ability of the firm to maintain
chemicals while working on a farm, this is- an environment-friendly operation and
sue would be related to what government healthy business condition at all times is

agency? called
A. OSHA A. Environmental Sustainability
B. USDA B. Social Sustainability
C. EPA C. Economic Sustainability
D. FDA D. none of above
70. What’s we learn from VUCA 75. Agriculture has focused in recent years on
using communication technology to help
A. to prepare/internal response from promote the industry as a whole. In the
changing situation state of Kentucky for example, the in-
B. to prepare from political issues dustry has been helped greatly through
programs such as Kentucky Proud. How
C. to prepare from technical invention
has this form of communication technology
D. to prepare internally helped the perception of agriculture?
A. The promotion of agriculture through
71. Which type of business is inexpensive to
medial sources allow agriculturalists to
set up, but has personal liability?
have the chance to advertise positive at-
A. sole proprietorship tributes in various outlets with state back-
ing with a limited cost.
B. corporation
B. By allowing agriculturalists the chance
C. LLC
to learn more about technology through
D. sub-chapter S corporation low cost programs operated by state and
federal agencies.
72. Which of the following is NOT an advan-
tage of a C corporation? C. By basic training programs in commu-
nication technology to help an aging agri-
A. possible income tax savings for high in- cultural producer sector to learn more
come businesses about promotion within their industry.
B. simplification of estate transfer D. Through providing grants to help ru-
C. limited liability for each shareholder ral America receive technology that then
could be used to help develop a cam-
D. assures a profit due to better manage- paign for communication technology for
ment increased positive perceptions.
73. Which of the following changes raw or pro- 76. What’s sub system 2 in agribusiness refer
cessed goods into finished goods? to Bungaran saragih
A. Producers A. Production or usaha tani
B. Processors B. Manufacturing
C. Manufactureres C. Agricultural facilities
D. Intermediaries D. Distribution and marketing

77. What are the 4 types of SAEs? 82. H-2A workers play an important role in
A. Entrepreneurship, Internship, Leader- the agribusiness sector. These migrant
ship, Exploratory workers provide a labor force that helps
in various aspects of the agricultural indus-
B. Production, Livestock, Plants, Technol- try. Which of the following is not a guide-
ogy line related to H-2A workers in the United
C. Entrepreneurship, Placement, Re- States?
search, Exploratory/Foundational A. An employer must provide free hous-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Production, Placement, Agriscience, ing for all laborers including individuals
Internship that live within a close proximity and could
return home each day.
78. A drought in South America will B. An employer must have a labor certifi-
A. increase the chance for rain in the cate from the Department of Labor before
United States employing H-2A workers.
B. decrease the amount of snow that falls C. Transportation from and back to the
in the Rocky Mountains country of origin.
C. increase demand for U.S. grain D. Guaranteed employment for seventy-
five percent of the period specified in the
D. decrease the price of U.S. grain work contract.
79. A major advantage of owning a business 83. Which one of the following can influence
is: the value of crop land?
A. control over your destiny A. interest rate of the mortgage
B. financial responsibility B. national gross farm income
C. the relationship of business income C. a mortgage on the land
and family finances D. what it produced last year
D. a shorter work week
84. Agribusiness is the science and art of mobi-
80. What is the equation for calculating lizing, utilizing and managing economic re-
owner’s equity? sources to produce goods and services to
generate profit.
A. Total Assets-Total Liability
A. Agribusiness as a Field of Study
B. Total Assets + Total Liability
B. Agribusiness as an Investment
C. Total Assets X Total Liability
C. Agribusiness and Agriculture
D. Total Assets/ Total Liability
D. none of above
81. Which of the following bring nonimmigrant 85. If a farmer is deciding whether to sell cat-
foreign workers to the United States? tle this week or next, this would fall under
A. Fair Labor Standards what decision making category?
B. Child Labor Law A. organizational
C. Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural B. operational
Workers Protection Act C. capital outlay
D. H-2A Program D. short-term

86. Assume that the cross-price elasticity of 91. Which of the following is the roadmap of
pork for chicken is 1.2. This cross-price where the business is going?
elasticity indicates that:

A. Business plan
A. pork and chicken are complementary
goods B. Business agenda
B. there is no relationship between the C. Executive plan

demand for pork and the price of chicken D. Executive agenda
C. a 1.2 percent increase in the price of
chicken will lead to a 1 percent increase 92. An identifying symbol for a company or
in the price of pork product is called a
D. a 10 percent increase in the price of A. logo
check should lead to a 12 percent increase B. picture
in the demand for pork
C. symbol
87. If a farmer is deciding whether to rent ad-
ditional land, this would fall under what D. app
decision making category?
93. to be a transformation young leader is my
A. operational aims
B. capital outlay A. vision
C. organizational
B. mission
D. long-term
C. goal
88. Move finished goods from one business to
D. strategic
another, also known as the “middlemen”
A. Processors 94. What is the purpose of a cash flow bud-
B. Manufacturers get?
C. Producers A. To determine if available cash and
D. Intermediaries earnings will be sufficient to meet expen-
ditures
89. Where do food retailers (grocery stores)
B. To only include resources which will be
primarily purchase their food?
changed
A. food stores
C. To summarize expected income, ex-
B. farm outlets pense, and profit for an entire farm
C. food cooperatives
D. To design a general framework for any
D. food wholesalers farmer to evaluate his operation
90. Cattle and ways of ranching were brought
95. LDP stands for:
to Texas and North America by the
A. Loan Deficiency Payment
A. English
B. French B. Leader Development Program
C. Spanish C. Less Demand for products
D. Germans D. Lower Demand for Programs

96. Change raw or processed goods using facil- 101. What type of organization is created,
ities such as boot factories, furniture facto- owned, and controlled by its members?
ries, cotton processing and citrus fruit pro-
A. cooperative
cessing
B. entrepreneurial
A. Producers
B. Processors C. mid-marketing
C. Manufacturers D. small business
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Intermediaries 102. In order to be defined as a “farm”, which
97. A company only updates their inventory at of the following statements is TRUE?
the end of the year and associates the old- A. must have $1, 000 of agriculture prod-
est costs first with the cost of goods sold. uct sold in a year
Which of the following best describes this
B. must have $5, 000 of agriculture prod-
scenario?
uct sold in a year
A. Periodic FIFO
C. must have $12, 000 of agriculture prod-
B. Periodic LIFO uct sold in a year
C. Periodic Average
D. must be able to make a living from
D. Perpetual FIFO what is produced on the farm
98. Goals are important for any agribusi- 103. Land, labor, capital and entrepreneur are
ness. Goals should be written down and called as
recorded with the goal setting format
used for clarity. A. Factors of marketing
A. SMART B. Factors of production
B. Compatible C. Factors of business
C. Financial D. none of above
D. Whole Farm
104. Which of the following budgets is usually
99. The average U.S. farm size has done prepared on a “per unit” basis?
what? A. Whole farm budget
A. increased
B. Enterprise budget
B. decreased
C. Partial budget
C. stayed the same
D. Cash flow budget
D. none of above
105. What does economy mean?
100. Which of the following is NOT a factor
that affects demand? A. The wealth and resources of a nation
A. Desire to purchase and how they are managed.
B. Weather B. A risk-taking business person

C. Quantity available and price C. Money, wealth, power
D. Population growth D. Country’s power standing.

106. What is an example of a non-current as- 111. Who operates the majority of all farms in
set? the U.S.?

A. Fertilizer A. families or individuals
B. Land B. partnerships
C. Bill for Lumber C. LLCs
D. Feed D. factory farmers
107. When seeking a production loan, what in- 112. What is an example of a liability?
formation must you provide to a potential A. Charge account
credit source? B. Land
A. personal resume C. Market Steer
B. letters of recommendation D. Pickup
C. list of items you will purchase with the 113. What type of organization is licensed to
borrowed money manage the buying and selling of goods us-
D. personal financial statement and cash ing a licensed broker?
flow projections A. direct sales agency
108. What does a market-basis balance sheet B. trade exchange
measure? C. commodity exchange
A. Measures the liquidation value of a D. wholesale market
business
114. What should a proper debt-to-net worth
B. measures business’ performance over ratio not exceed?
time
A. 1:1
C. Only measures business’ failures
B. 2:1
D. Only measures business’ success
C. 3:1
109. Which of the following is NOT an exam- D. 4:1
ple of an asset?
115. Which of the following is the first step in
A. Cash the product flow chart?
B. Equipment A. Processor
C. Credit cards B. Producer
D. Livestock C. Manufacturer
110. Specialization in the production of crops D. Raw Goods

and/or livestock generally results in 116. Which of the following develops products
A. increased returns and decreased risk for distribution from raw goods?
B. increased returns and increased risk A. Producers
C. decreased returns and decreased risk B. Processors
C. Manufactureres
D. decreased returns and increased risk D. Intermediaries

117. The regulatory authority for grain eleva- 122. When an agribusiness enterprise produce
tors in Kentucky is: beyond family consumption to have mar-
A. Kentucky Department of Agriculture ketable surplus, it is called as
A. Consumer oriented
B. Commodity Futures Trading Commis-
sion B. Profit oriented
C. Farm Bureau Federation C. Market oriented
D. USDA D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
118. If you estimate your local cash price will 123. What is our chapter number on the AET
be $.15 under the future price at the time website?
you deliver your corn, the approximate net A. WV0023
selling price you can lock in by selling a fu-
B. WV0051
tures contract at $8.50 is
C. WV0076
A. $8.60
D. WV0125
B. $8.35
C. $8.50 124. Which type of cooperative receives prod-
ucts from its members and then re-
D. $8.65 sells those products for the best possible
119. Which management style is when the price?
leader dictates and controls all decisions A. market based
in the job? B. purchasing based
A. Authoritative style C. service based
B. Pacesetting style D. sales based
C. Coaching style
125. Special interest groups exist throughout
D. Affiliate style the agricultural sector on the state and fed-
eral level. These groups represent food
120. Production, Marketing, Finance, Corpo- processors, agricultural insurance compa-
rate Planning are called as nies, animal rights, labor groups, etc.
A. Tools of trade These special interest groups employee
B. Economic resources to represent them through making con-
tact with legislators.
C. Business types
A. Lobbyists
D. none of above
B. Producers
121. When the U.S. dollar is considered to C. Economists
be weak, the demand for agricultural im-
D. Regulators
ports:
A. none are correct 126. Which of the following should serve as
a detailed outline of the company and con-
B. have no change
vince the audience to read the rest of the
C. increase business plan?
D. decrease A. Executive summary

B. Business description A. 12
C. Marketing plan B. 14

D. Financial plan C. 16
127. The first major discovery of oil was lo- D. 18

cated at 132. Which of the following is NOT a disadvan-
A. Spindletop tage of a sole proprietorship?
B. Houston A. Owner has limited skills
C. Texas City B. Harder to raise money
D. Dallas C. High start-up costs
128. Which of the following accounts is cre- D. Higher governmental regulations
ated when production labor costs are
133. For which of the following does the
recorded?
parent company share experiences and
A. Overhead cost pool proven techniques?
B. Wages expense A. Sole proprietorship
C. Raw materials inventory B. Partnership
D. Merchandise inventory C. Corporation
129. In the long run, a farm business manager D. Franchise
should try to cover:
134. An occupational cluster, which focuses in
A. fixed costs creating and going into business in agricul-
B. total costs ture is known as
C. all costs A. Agriculture
D. variable costs B. Agribusiness
C. Investment
130. Which would be the most effective
way that a farmer could keep accurate D. none of above
records?
135. One strategy to manage financial risk is
A. Utilizing electronic records and back-
A. maintaining a low debt/asset ratio
ing them up to another source.
B. hedging the market
B. Having a master paper and pencil copy
of all records. C. playing the futures market
C. Keeping all records on their smart D. borrowing money
phone with no back up.
136. What is the top state for Beef Cattle pro-
D. Creating a public website for all duction?
records where they can be accessed by
anyone. A. Oklahoma
B. Nebraska
131. Which of the following is the minimum
age of employment during school hours for C. Colorado
children working in agriculture? D. Texas

137. Provides goods and services to individu- 142. When analyzing competing products or
als and operates on donations, volunteers, services, which is not a function?
and philanthropists A. price
A. Non-Profit Organizations B. quality
B. Service Firms C. service
C. Agricultural Co-ops D. supply
D. Ag businesses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
143. The quantity of a product that is available
to buyers at a given time
138. Defined as the quantity of a product that
buyers will purchase at a specific given A. Supply
price at a given time B. Credit
A. Supply C. Demand
B. Demand D. Economics
C. Quantity 144. What is the top agricultural commodity in
D. Service the US?
A. Beef
139. What is the length of time current cov-
B. Dairy Products
ers?
C. Poultry
A. 0-12 months
D. Corn
B. 12+ months
C. 36+ months 145. How does a business/sender know that
their message/promotion was success-
D. 24+ months ful?
140. Change raw goods into a more finished A. feedback (attendance, contributions,
form using facilities such as cotton mils, oil purchases)
refineries, textile mills B. shares on social media
A. Processors C. cash sales only
B. Producers D. advertisements
C. Manufacturers 146. Which of the following is true about net

income?
D. Intermediaries
A. It is the amount of income after cost of
141. In the early 1900s many towns devel- goods are deducted
oped around the discovery of oil, this is B. It is also known as “pre tax”
called a
C. It raises fees on interest rates
A. boomtown
D. It improves credit scores
B. bust town
147. It is occupational cluster, which focuses
C. ghost town
in creating and going into business in agri-
D. progressive town culture.

A. Agriculture 153. consists of real estate (land), build-

B. Agribusiness ings, house, and various types of improve-
ments to real estate

C. Economics
A. suburban property
D. none of above
B. personal property
148. Which of the following is NOT a true
C. agricultural property
statement about partial budgets?
A. Allows for hiring custom work D. real property
B. Modifies production practice 154. Capital is defined by

C. Adopts new technologies A. equipment, factories, or money used
D. Includes resources which cannot to produce goods or services
change B. equipment, people, and banks used to
produce goods or services
149. What is an asset?
A. What you own C. Not sure
B. What you owe D. Factories and money only

C. Prize possession 155. How many GMO approved crops are
D. none of above there currently?
A. 10
150. An example of a Placement SAE is:
B. 25
A. working for Tractor Supply daily after
school and on weekends C. 75
B. raising and showing market lambs at D. 120
the county fair
156. SWOT analysis involves considering all of
C. conducting a research project on the the following elements EXCEPT
best type of fertilizer for tomatoes
A. weakness
D. planning a community service event
for your FFA chapter B. strength
C. training
151. The country who consumes the greatest
amount of pork per capita is D. opportunities
A. Denmark 157. The use of a net worth statement can al-
B. Hong Kong low a person to determine such financial
C. United States factors as liquidity and solvency. The over-
all equity of a farm firm can be determined
D. Argentina through what calculation from the balance
152. In the agricultural market, is deter- sheet?
mined by either supply or demand. A. Total Assets- Total Liabilities
A. products B. Total Current Assets- Total Current Li-
B. beef abilities
C. price C. Net Worth- Total Liabilities
D. surplus D. Total Farm Liabilities + Net Worth

158. What is the top state for Dairy Produc- 163. agribusiness challenges covered in land
tion? A. expertise of agribusiness worker in ev-
A. New York ery sub system
B. Pennsylvania B. there are conversin in productive land
C. California
C. in terms of invention in advanced tech-
D. Wisconson nology in manfacturing or cultivation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
159. Who famously predicted that the earth D. agribusiness 4.0 and all aspects above
would not be able to support its growing 164. What does a cost-basis balance sheet
population, but technologies such as the measure?
Green Revolution have allowed the world
to produce a surplus of food A. Measures business’ performance over
time
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Measures liquidation value of a busi-
B. John Stuart Mill ness
C. Thomas Robert Malthus C. Only measures business’ failures
D. David Ricardo D. Only measures business’ success
160. How is net worth calculated? 165. Which of the following defines budget-
ing?
A. Net worth = assets - liabilities
A. The amount of income received before
B. Net worth = liabilities - assets the cost of goods and taxes
C. Net worth = net Income - gross In- B. The allocation of monetary funds
come based on a determined structure
D. Net worth = liabilities + assets C. The amount of income after cost of
goods and taxes are deducted
161. What is the definition of a boom/bust D. Assets minus liabilities
economy?
A. Equipment, factories, or money used 166. In what state did irrigation increase the
to produce goods or services corn yield by 400 to 500% from 1940 to
1997?
B. A business cycle of highs and lows
A. Florida
C. farm related business such as crops B. California
and livestock
C. Misssouri
D. Don’t know
D. Colorado
162. What is the top corn producing state?
167. What is a non-current liability?
A. Iowa A. Long-term debt due in 12+ months
B. Illinois B. Debt due within 12 months
C. Indiana C. Debt due within 2 months
D. Minnesota D. Debt due within 1 week

168. What government agencies oversees the B. distribution

collection of federal taxation? C. promoting

A. Internal Revenue Service D. selling
B. Tax Collection Administration
172. What are the five basic ways American
C. Tax Service Administration business is organized?
D. National Taxation Service A. buy, sell, profit, distribution, finance
169. Recent trends have seen the rise of a B. buy, sell revenue, marketing, finance
growing interest in contract farming and C. buy, sell, promote, distribution, financ-
what? ing
A. Albertsons D. buy, sell, marketing, profit, financing
B. food 173. Liquidity is the same as what financial
C. supermarkets term?
D. Costco A. Current
B. Non-current
170. Farmers and agribusiness organizations
C. Asset
such as Farm Bureau will often take a pro-
tective stance when it comes to important D. Liability
issues related to agriculture. For exam- 174. What is the government lending agency
ple each time the Federal Farm Bill is reau- called that is operating under the author-
thorized agricultural groups try to take a ity of the U.S. Department of Agriculture
proactive approach to impacting the leg-
islation. Why do groups take this ap- A. Agriculture Lending Agency
proach? B. Farm and Ranch Agency
A. By being proactive this allows for C. Farm Systems Agency
groups to protect their interests and im- D. Farm Services Agency
pact the policies that would shape their in-
dustry. 175. If you are examining a change in a farm
business that affects only a few items in
B. A proactive approach primarily fo-
the total farm budget, the change could
cuses on working with legislators after
most easily be evaluated through the use
the approval of a bill.
of a:
C. By being proactive a farm organization A. Partial Budget
only focuses on events that would be mi-
croeconomic to the overall industry. B. Enterprise Budget
D. Agricultural groups try to influence leg- C. Cash Flow Statement

islation to be felt if prices for commodities D. Total Farm Budget
are over regulated.
176. Increases opportunities for the success
171. Which business function includes study- of US pork producers and other industry
ing the product or service to determine the stakeholders
reasons that customers will want and need A. National Cattlemen’s Beef Association
the product or service?
A. buying B. Farm Bureaus

C. National Pork Producers Council 182. Which of the following is NOT a factor
D. The Association of Soil and Water Con- that price is determined by?
servation Districts A. Supply of the item
177. What causes change in demand? B. Demand of the item
A. income C. Time the item has been manufactured
B. tastes
D. General price level
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. competing products
D. all of these can cause change in de- 183. Respect someone whatever their duties
mand so that he feels his presence in the group
or organization becomes important.
178. What is the major reason agribusinesses A. organizing
fail?
B. planning
A. poor management
C. leading
B. death of the manager
D. controlling
C. labor problems
D. lack of capital 184. Which of the following is subject to more
governmental regulations?
179. Where is Indonesia’s capital city A. Cooperative (co-op)
A. Medan B. Partnership
B. Surabaya C. Corporation
C. Jakarta D. Franchise
D. Yogyakarta
185. Which of the following is NOT a type of
180. Organization in which agriculturalists farming budget?
bring together their resources in a specific A. Enterprise
area of activity
B. Whole farm
A. Non-Profit Organizations
C. Partial
B. Service Firms
D. Liability
C. Agricultural Co-ops
D. Ag businesses 186. Which of the following is the least com-
mon form of business organization?
181. Which of the following is NOT a true A. Sole proprietorship
statement concerning budgets?
B. Parternship
A. Are a specific plan on how to spend
and save money C. Corporation
B. Are numerical records which do not D. Franchise

express spending results over a specific 187. Into what lending agency was the Pro-
time period duction Credit Agency and the Federal Land
C. Are a blueprint Bank merged?
D. Are used as a planning guide A. Commodity Credit Corporation

B. Farmers Home Administration B. increase the amount of employee re-

C. Fannie Mae/Fannie Mac sentment

D. Farm Credit Services C. increase the number of sick leave days
taken by employees
188. Which of the following is a subsidiary D. increase the price of health insurance
ledger for specific inventory?
A. Liability record 193. At one time, New York state raised
sheep. Today those farms produce milk
B. Expense report because the popularity of milk and the po-
C. Stock record tential profit that can be generated from
milk products is greater than that of sheep
D. Stock entry
production. This scenario is an example of
189. Which of the following is an example of what economic law?
partial budgeting? A. Law of Comparative Advantage
A. Totaling acres B. Law of Diminishing Returns
B. Crop enterprise budget C. Law of Opportunity Costs
C. Helping the operator analyze impor- D. Law of Supply and Demand
tant adjustments in the farm operation
194. The federal government subsidizes the
D. Deciding what crop to plant on a small
cost of insurance that covers the loss of
plot
revenue to a farmer as a result of:
190. Which of the following is an inventory A. Damage to a crop due to severe
method which requires a business to iden- drought.
tify each good with the good’s cost of
B. Higher costs for distributing and mar-
goods sold?
keting a product.
A. LIFO
C. A drop in prices due to oversupply of a
B. FIFO commodity.
C. Average D. Lower prices due to competition with
D. Specific Identification foreign producers.
191. When an economy is not doing well, this 195. What is West Virginia’s top agricultural
is called a product?
A. boom A. corn
B. bust B. eggs
C. good day C. beef
D. bear D. apples
192. Companies that are serious about health 196. Which of the following is NOT a factor
initiatives who implement exercises and that influences the supply of products?
weight reduction programs for employees A. Weather
A. decrease the price of health insurance B. Ability to buy items needed to produce
that product

C. Cost & availability of credit 202. An enterprise which derives a significant

D. Quantity of delivery trucks portion of its revenue.
197. Farm Bureaus are considered which of the A. Agribusiness

following? B. Business Mangement
A. Non-profit agricultural organization C. Business
B. Producer
D. Agricultural Services
C. Manufacturer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Processor 203. Four sections of land are how many
square miles?
198. Materials derived from natural resources
clearly defines which of the following? A. 1 square mile
A. Processed Goods B. 2 square miles
B. Raw Goods C. 3 square miles
C. Finished Goods
D. 4 square miles
D. Intangible Goods
199. When a market moves up & down adjust- 204. What is an example of a current asset?
ing the quantity of supply & the quantity A. Bank account balance
of demand until they are equal is called the
price B. Credit card bill
A. market C. Land
B. equilibrium D. Tractor
C. demand
205. Enhances profit opportunities for cattle &
D. value
beef producers by increasing business and
200. Which economic factors determine the creating consumer demand
price a producer receives for his or her A. National Cattlemen’s Beef Association
products?
A. supply and demand
B. Farm Bureaus
B. amount invested in the crop
C. National Pork Producers Council
C. futures market
D. breakeven prices D. The Association of Soil and Water Con-
servation Districts
201. agribusiness means business based on
agricultural and it’s covered 206. Who is Indonesia’s cooperative
A. all commodity in fishery founder?
B. food crops, holticulture and plantation A. Moh Hatta
B. Soekarno
C. all commodity and product in forestry
C. Soesilo Bambang Yudhoyono
D. all forestry, fishery, livestock, food
crops and plantation products D. Sudirman

207. The most important reason for complete D. farmers will not change planing inten-
farm financial records should be tions

A. for income tax reporting and to meet
212. Which of the following types of business
the requirement for reporting hired labor
ownership includes contract farming?
A. Corporations
B. to settle insurance claims
C. to inform the bank of the success of B. Sole proprietorship
the farm business C. Partnership
D. to combine with production records to D. Cooperatives
provide information for management deci-
sion making 213. evaluating worker performance and
coaching for development is part of
208. Nationally, what has the Census of Agri-
culture shown is happening to the total A. controlling
number of farms in the U.S.? B. leading
A. increasing C. planning
B. decreasing D. organizing
C. staying the same
214. It refers to the ability of the firm to
D. none of above maintain its employees, serve customers
209. The term for “additional pay for a job and sustain community relationships in the
done” is long run.
A. collateral A. Environmental Sustainability
B. commission B. Social Sustainability

C. finance charge C. Economic Sustainability
D. gross income D. none of above
210. Assets may include which of the follow- 215. To achieve domestic market leader in fish-
ing? ery product
A. Feed store bill A. planning
B. Equipment B. organizing
C. Equipment loans C. leading
D. Borrowed cash D. controlling
211. If the price of wheat goes up relative to 216. Inventory is recorded as which of the fol-
the price of corn lowing on the company’s balnce sheet?
A. farmers will plant more corn and less
A. Asset
wheat
B. Expense
B. farmers will use less corn
C. Liability
C. farmers will plant more wheat and less
corn D. Cost

217. Compare implementation or results with C. Production orientation

standards
D. none of above
A. planning
B. organizing 222. Agriculture accounts for what percentage
C. leading of child labor worldwide?
D. controlling A. 50%
218. Which of the following would not be an B. 60%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
advantage of using cash accounting in agri- C. 70%
cultural business?
D. 80%
A. Revenue is often recorded in a year
where the production did not actually take
place such as selling corn harvested in 223. What is a disadvantage of being an em-
2016 in 2017 after storage. ployee instead of an owner?
B. Simplicity in record keeping through- A. receiving overtime pay

out the process. B. working regular hours
C. The cost of an item is deductible within
C. getting fringe benefits
the year the transaction occurred for tax
purposes. D. having little or no control over our fu-
D. The cash method does not use an in- ture
ventory to keep track of unsold products
or unused supplies. 224. A well-known restaurant chain has an
outbreak of salmonella poisoning from
219. Approximately 75% of the milk sold in tomatoes. Business has declined for the
the US is sold through farmer-owned, milk- restaurant chain since the report of the
marketing organizations known as what? salmonella. The customer response to this
A. direct sellers situation represents economic
B. terminal marketers A. elasticity
C. cooperatives B. inelasticity
D. vertical integrators
C. downturn
220. A disadvantage of being an employee is: D. instability
A. overtime pay
B. regular hours 225. The Food, Conservation, and Energy Act
passed by the U.S. Congress in 2008 also
C. little or no control over future job
is called
D. fringe benefits
A. the Patient Protection and Affordable
221. This connotes that agribusiness should Care Act
not focus only on production of goods and
B. the Green Energy Initiative
services for self-subsistence.
A. Profit orientation C. the Farm Bill
B. Consumer orientation D. the Farmers Full Employment Act

226. Agricultural marketing is a series of inter- B. availability of funds

connected activities such as planning pro-
C. identify the units of product on hand
duction, growing and harvesting, grading,

packing, transport, storage, agro- and D. verify the business makes a profit each
distribution and sale year
A. food chemistry
232. Compensation after taxes and other de-
B. food microbiology
ductions is called
C. food processing
A. wages
D. nutrition
B. credit
227. What is an example of a current liabil-
ity? C. net income
A. Credit Card Bill D. gross income
B. Property mortgage
233. An example of a Research SAE is:
C. Trailer
D. Tractor A. logging journal hours after rid-
ing/training your family’s horse
228. What are the 2 basic parts of a budget?
B. working for the local florist
A. Income and expenses
C. raising breeding goats
B. Assets and liabilities
C. Cash and loans D. conducting an experiment to see which
type of growing media for plants produces
D. Savings and bills the most flower blooms
229. What government owned credit source
provides loans for specific crops like grain 234. What is a current liability?
and peanuts? A. Long-term debt you owe within 12
A. Commodity Credit Corporation months
B. Fannie Mae B. long-term debt you owe past 12
C. Farmers Home Administration months
D. Freddie Mac C. What you own within 12 months
230. What is Preston County’s top agricultural D. none of above
commodity?
A. beef 235. What is the name of the one page sum-
mary of information about a job appli-
B. corn
cant?
C. hay
A. resume
D. buckwheat
B. interest survey
231. As a financial record, what is the role of
a cash flow statement? C. job application
A. project costs and other expenses D. letter of recommendation

236. Which of the following principles requires B. Farm Bureaus

the amounts recorded in the accounts and C. National Pork Producers Council
on the financial statements to be the ac-
tual cost of an item rather than the current D. The Association of Soil and Water Con-
value of the item? servation Districts
A. Asset principle 241. It means the establishment of standards

for matters such as quality, size, weight,
B. Inventory principle
and color; and once these are set it uses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cost principle the criteria established in the standards
D. Accuracy principle A. standardization and grading
237. In a perfectly competitive market, which B. standardization and size
one of the following is most correct? C. standardization and modification
A. Sellers cannot differentiate their prod- D. standardization and criteria
ucts by advertising.
242. What are the two basic parts of a bud-
B. A firm’s demand curve is perfectly in- get?
elastic.
A. Income and expenses
C. There are many sellers but very few
B. Assets and liabilities
buyers. This means sellers have market
power. C. Cash and loans
D. Sellers can increase their profits by D. Savings and bills
charging a higher price for their goods. 243. Which of the following gives a snapshot
238. How many subsystem on agribusiness of the borrower’s business at a specific
system? time?
A. 2 A. Net income statement

B. Net worth statement
B. 5
C. Statement of ownership equity
C. 4
D. Statement of cash flows
D. 1
244. Loans used to purchase land and buildings
239. Which is a major advantage of owning are classified as what type of loan?
your own agribusiness?
A. short-term
A. shorter work week
B. intermediate-term
B. financial responsibility
C. long-term
C. control over your own destiny
D. non-risk
D. use personal money for business ex-
penses 245. a statement where the company aspires
- appealing to the future as aims, means
240. Supports the members management of
A. vision
the financial risks of everyday life and suc-
cessfully recover from any insured loss B. mission
A. National Cattlemen’s Beef Association C. strategic
D. goal

246. The net income statement is also known C. staying the same
as which of the following? D. none of above

A. Profit and loss statement
249. An Exploratory/Foundational SAE:
B. Personal financial statement
A. requires a small time investment from
C. Statement of cash flows
the student (short-term project)
D. Balance sheet
B. requires little to no monetary ($) in-
247. Provide intangible goods to consumers vestment from the student
and other businesses C. helps students explore the world of
A. Intermediaries agriculture and potential careers
B. Service firms D. all of these are true of Exploratory
SAEs
C. Intangible good
D. Agricultural Co-op 250. What rule that we use as a protection for
farmers in Indonesia?
248. Nationally, what has the Census of Agri-
culture shown is happening to the number A. UU No 20 Year 2012
of acres farmed? B. UU No 21 Year 2011
A. increasing C. UU No 19 Year 2013
B. decreasing D. UU No 34 Year 2014

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JAI SHREE RAM

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It is my deepest gratitude and warmest

To my mother JOYTSNA CHANGDER

who has been a constant source of Knowledge and in-

The aim of this publication is to sup-

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1 Agriculture For Competitive Exams . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2

1.25 Dairy Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 689

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B. phosphorus deficiency 10. What is a horizontal layer of soil, created

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A. contact D. tillage pan

B. systemic 11. What type of flowering plant takes 12-24

B. twisted stems B. chloride

C. pale foliage on older leaves first C. magnesium

D. stem pitting D. sodium

9. What is one job available? 14. Compaction is the reduction of:

5. A 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. D

B. strip till C. The Right source, Right rate, Right

16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A

25. is an eroded material deposited by run- B. 17.2 gallons/ac

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25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. A

A. 5.9 acres B. nonsymbiotic bacteria

A. $5.16 D. $89, 992

B. $5.29 40. 70-80% of soil compaction severity occurs

32. C 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. B

C. last, lightest C. anthocyanin

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1.2 Soil science

41. D 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A

1. Forage crops are used to achieve which of B. soil

D. Topsoil, Organic, Parent Material, Sub- D. none of above

C. Decompose 17. What is humus?

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46. Which property of soil could students de- A. temperature

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D. none of above B. water

57. How do decomposers work hand-in-hand C. air

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D. Provides food and support for plants D. all of the above

71. The inorganic matter content of soil is

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C. clay D. it absorbs into the soil

D. none of above 83. Which of the following is a warm season

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C. Chemical B. Photosynthesis is essentially evapora-

D. grain size D. none of above

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D. Clay B. Availability of NPK

99. Which of the following describes how well C. Porespace

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108. Soil is a precious resource because it C. Dark

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