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Contents
1 CLINICAL MEDICINE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Haematology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 cardiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
1.3 gastroenterology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
1.4 endocrinology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30
1.5 neurology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
1.6 oncology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
1.7 radiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 55
1.8 nephrology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78
1.9 respiratory medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82
1.10 infectious diseases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 88
1.11 medical statistics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126
1. CLINICAL MEDICINE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Haematology
1. Cytotoxic T cells Attach to Which receptor C. fraction of blood volume that consists
prior to Initiating Apoptosis? intact RBC
A. MHC Class 1 D. fraction of haemoglobin count in intact
RBC
B. Viral Receptor
C. MHC Class 2 5. CD marker TdT is associated with what
type of Malignancy?
D. Nucleolar Receptor
A. Lymphoblastic Cells
2. What does blood transport? B. Mature Cells
A. Nutrients C. Normal Cells
B. Oxygen D. none of above
C. Carbon Dioxide
6. Which of the following WBC is associated
D. All of the above with allergy?
3. Discovery of Chemotherapy has Some- A. Neutrophils
thing to do with? B. Lymphocytes
A. War C. Eosinophils
B. Peace D. Monocytes
C. Human Good Nature 7. How many blood groups exist?
D. Donation from Caring People A. 4
4. Define haematocrit. B. 3
A. fraction of MCV that consist of intact C. 2
RBC D. 6
B. fraction of plasma left in intact RBC E. 8
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. E 8. A
1.1 Haematology 3
8. Define mean cell volume (MCV). 13. Which of the following is the reference
A. The average volume per red cell range for MCV?

B. The coefficient of variation of red cell A. 33-37pg
volume B. 82-92fL
C. The average conentration of ahe- C. 27-33fL
moglobin in given volume of packed
D. 11.5-14.5pg
D. The average mass of haemoglobin per
red cell 14. Which of the following is the reference
9. What organ pumps blood throughout the range for RDW?
body? A. 33-37gm/dL
A. eyes B. 82-96fL
B. skin C. 27-33pg
C. liver
D. 11.5-14.5pg
D. heart
15. WBC’s are composed of granulocytes
10. Red blood cells are (neutrophils, , and ) and non-
A. thrombocytes granulocytes ( and monocytes).
B. neutrophils A. Eosinophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes
C. monocytes B. Eosinophils, Lymphocytes, Basophils
D. erthryocytes C. Basophils, Lymphocytes, Eosinophils
11. Who am I? I am the largest (in size) blood D. none of above
component and have a nucleus.
16. When performing a manual differential
A. white blood cell
count, the MT should count a minimum of
B. red blood cell cells?
C. platelet A. 50
D. hemoglobin
B. 100
12. Agglutination occurs when blood type an- C. 200
tibodies come into contact with blood type
antigens to which they correspond. What D. 400
is agglutination?
17. Define haematology
A. Red blood cells burst and die
A. Study of disease based on laboratory
B. Red blood cells are clumped together analysis of body fluid
and become non-functional
B. Study of diseases of blood and bone
C. Antibodies bind to the antigens and
marrow
then render the red blood cell non-
functional C. Study of disease
D. A system in which transfusions can oc- D. Study of disease based on tissue sam-
cur ple
9. D 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. C

1.1 Haematology 4
18. Which blood type contains only Anti-A an- 24. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia which shows
tibodies? t ( 9:22) is an example of what genetic
A. AB problem?
B. A A. Inversion
C. B B. Translocation
D. O C. Substitution
19. Which of the following is not a function of D. Deletion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
blood? 25. Which of the following correctly illustrates
A. help fight disease the maturation phases of a neutrophil?
B. transports nutrients, oxygen, wastes, A. Blast > Promyelocyte > Metamyelo-
and hormones cyte > Myelocyte > Band Neutrophil >
C. to distribute neorotransmitters Segmented Neutrophil
D. distributes heat B. Blast > Promyelocyte > Segmented
Neutrophil > Myelocyte > Band Neu-
20. Which component of blood is responsible trophil > Metamyelocyte
for helping to stop bleeding?
C. Promyelocyte > Blast > Myelocyte
A. platelets > Metamyelocyte > Band Neutrophil >
B. red blood cells Segmented Neutrophil
C. white blood cells D. Blast > Promyelocyte > Myelocyte
D. plasma > Metamyelocyte > Band Neutrophil >
Segmented Neutrophil
21. A decrease in WBC is termed as
whereas an increase is termed 26. What blood type is the “universal donor”
because it can be donated to anyone?
A. Leucocytosis, Leucocytopenia
A. A
B. Thrombocytopenia, Thrombocytosis
C. Lymphocytopenia, Lymphocytosis B. B
D. Leucocytopenia, Leucocytosis C. AB
D. O
22. Plasma Cells Produce what?
A. Lymphokines 27. Which one of the following is a cause of
pancytopenia
B. Cytokines
C. Antigens A. thalassemia.
D. Antibodies B. aplastic anemia.

C. iron deficiency anemia.
23. Which of the following is not a blood com-
ponent? D. hereditary spherocytosis.
A. Red blood cell 28. What antigens are present in a person
B. White blood cell with type AB blood?
C. Serum A. B
D. Cerebrospinal fluid B. A and B
19. C 20. A 21. D 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. B 29. A
1.2 cardiology 5
C. A 34. Define mean cell haemoglobin concentra-

D. none tion (MCHC).

A. The average volume per red cell
29. Another name for hematocrit is
B. The coefficient of variation of red cell
A. packed cell volume volume
B. mean corpuscular hemoglobin C. The average conentration of ahe-
C. mean cell volume moglobin in given volume of packed
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. The average mass of haemoglobin per
red cell
30. Define mean cell haemoglobin (MCH).
A. The average volume per red cell 35. The most active site of iron absorption is
B. The coefficient of variation of red cell A. duodenum.

volume B. stomach.
C. The average conentration of ahe- C. jejunum.
moglobin in given volume of packed D. ileum.
D. The average mass of haemoglobin per
red cell 36. Bonus QuestionWhat is a neutrophil with
6 or more lobes called?
31. The process of stopping bleeding A. Hyposegmented Neutrophil
A. homeostasis B. Hypergranular Neutrophil
B. hemostasis C. Hypersegmented Neutrophil
C. phagocytosis D. Hypogranular Neutrophil
D. dermatographia
37. Low mean cell volume (MCV), high iron
32. Which blood type can receive any other binding capacity and low serum ferritin
blood type? level are most consistent with
A. Type-A A. iron deficiency anaemia.
B. Type-B B. B12 deficiency anaemia.
C. Type-O C. Folate deficiency anaemia.
D. Type-AB D. autoimmune hemolytic anaemia.
33. The lack of sufficient red blood cells in the 38. What part of blood is responsible for clot-
blood system is called ting blood?
A. cyanosis A. Red Blood Cells
B. anemia B. White Blood Cells
C. hemochromatosis C. Platelets
D. hypoxia D. Plasma
1.2 cardiology
30. D 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. C

1.2 cardiology 6
1. The area of the chest wall anterior to the B. stanford type A dissection defines as
heart and lower thorax is involvement of the ascending aorta
A. epicardium C. stanford type B dissection defines as
B. pericardium involvement distal to the left subclavian
artery
C. precordium
D. branch vessels involvement may in-
D. endocardium
crease mortality and morbidity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2. The structure that prevents the backflow
7. Almost all veins carry deoxygenated
of blood in the heart is known as the
blood, with the exception of
A. septum
A. aorta
B. mediastinum
B. vena cava
C. valve
C. pulmonary arteries
D. none of above
D. pulmonary veins
3. About the CXR findings of congestive
heart failure (CHF), which of the following 8. Which of the following medications is a
statement is correct? class III antiarrhythmic?
A. Redistribution or cephalization of pul- A. Diltiazem
monary blood flow in early stage (stage
B. Adenosine
I).
C. Amiodarone
B. May show widening of vascular pedicle
and abnormal cardiothoracic ratio. D. Procainamide
C. Alveolar edema and pleural effusion 9. A 33-year-old male presents with chest
found in late stage (stage III). pain that is alleviated when he sits for-
D. all of the above ward. The 12-lead ECG shows ST eleva-
tion of 2 to 3 mm in multiple leads. What
4. The root word ven/o means? should you suspect?
A. vein
A. Unstable angina
B. artery
B. Aortic aneurysm
C. capillary
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. none of above
D. Pericarditis
5. Upper chamber of the heart
10. A patient in cardiogenic shock without car-
A. antrum
diac arrhythmias will benefit MOST from:
B. atrium
A. supplemental oxygen.
C. septum
B. a high-dose vasopressor infusion.
D. ventricles
C. a 250-mL bolus of a crystalloid solu-
6. Which statement about aortic dissection is tion.
not correct? D. rapid transport to an appropriate hos-
A. it is separation of the aortic intima pital.
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. D
1.2 cardiology 7
11. Blood flow from left ventricle to left 16. A classic sign of atrial flutter is:
atrium at systolic phase during echocardio- A. a constant 2:1 conduction ratio.
graphy study indicate which of the follow-

ing condition? B. the presence of sawtooth F waves.
A. aortic regurgitation C. a ventricular rate less than 100

beats/min.
B. aortic stenosis
D. an irregular but consistent R-R inter-
C. tricuspid regurgitation val.
D. mitral regurgitation
17. When taking blood pressure, the bottom
12. Which of the under medicines could im- number in the reading is the
prove heart failure patient’s survival? A. Systolic
A. Beta-blockers B. Diastolic
B. ACE-I C. Pulse Pressure
C. ARB D. Pulse
D. all of the above
18. Which vessel is not a common one for cen-
13. Atrioventricular bundle = tral venous catheter insertion?
A. AV bundle A. Subclavian vein.
B. Purkinje fibers B. hemiazygos vein
C. sinoatrial node C. Internal jugular vein.
D. bundle of His D. femoral vein
14. The jugular venous pressure is measured 19. A 10-year-old boy comes to your office
as for an initial visit. He has been in fos-
A. the vertical distance between the top ter care for several years, but is reunited
of the venous pulsation and the angle of with his mother. He had heart surgery
Louis at 2 years of age, but the patient does
not have any records from that procedure.
B. the vertical distance between the top
As far as his mother knows, he has never
of the venous pulsation and jugular notch
been hospitalized for respiratory illnesses
of sternum.
such as asthma or pneumonia. He does not
C. the horizontal distance between the take any medications. He has decreased
top of the venous pulsation and the angle exercise tolerance. On PE, he is a slen-
of Louis. der boy is no acute distress. His weight
D. the horizontal distance between the is at the 10th percentile for his age, and
top of the venous pulsation and jugular height is at the 50th percentile. His heart
notch of sternum rate is 100 bpm and respiratory rate is
28 breaths/min. Oxygen saturation on
15. Cardiology is the study of the room air is 89%. His blood pressure is
A. The heart 96/65 mmHg in the right arm, and his
B. The lungs blood pressure is 115/90 mmHg in the
right leg. His neck veins are not distended.
C. The blood vessels His chest shows clear and equal breath
D. none of above sounds. There is a well-healed sternotomy
11. D 12. D 13. A 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. B

1.2 cardiology 8
scar. His heart examination shows a nor- 22. Janet is scheduled for an angioplasty next
mal S1 with a very loud P2 component to week. Which structure does this procedure
S2. There is a 2/6 soft systolic murmur directly affect?
at the right midsternal border that does
A. The heart
not radiate to either axilla. There is no
organomegaly on abdominal examination. B. The blood vessel
The femoral pulses are 2+. His Hg level is C. The atrium
17 g/dL. Diagnosis:
D. The muscle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Coarctation of the aorta with poor sys-
temic circulation 23. In a patient with left ventricular failure
B. Large residual ventricular septal de- and pulmonary edema:
fect with pulmonary over circulation A. the right atrium and ventricle pump
C. Moderate-sized patent duct arteriosus against lower pressures, resulting in the
with left to right shunt systemic pooling of venous blood.
D. Pulmonary hypertension with Eisen- B. diffusely collapsed alveoli cause blood
menger syndrome from the right side of the heart to bypass
the alveoli and return to the left side of the
E. Pulmonic stenosis with decreased pul-
heart.
monary blood flow
C. increased pressure in the left atrium
20. week-old FT newborn. SOB with feeds. and pulmonary veins forces serum out
Mom had no prenatal care. Physical ex- of the pulmonary capillaries and into the
amination is remarkable for a blood pres- alveoli.
sure of 100/60 mmHg in the right arm,
redundant skin overlying the posterior D. an acute myocardial infarction or
neck, and edema of the lower extremi- chronic hypertension causes the left ven-
ties. MURMUR:Gallop rhythm and a re- tricle to pump against decreased after-
gurgitant murmur at the mid-precordium. load, resulting in hypoperfusion.
Femoral pulses are diminished. Subcostal
24. The SA node is responsible for which type
retractions. Rales on auscultation of the
of heart rhythm?
lungs. MOST appropriate next step in the
evaluation of this infant is: A. sinus
A. Blood Chromosomal analysis B. atrial
B. Chest Radiograph C. ventricular
C. Complete metabolic profile D. none of above
D. 12 lead EKG
25. What is Hemorrhagic shock?
21. Which is the most common sign in infants A. Shock from an allergic reaction
with right heart failure?
B. Shock from losing bodily fluids
A. leg edema
C. Shock from losing or not having
B. jugular vein engorgement. enough blood
C. hepatomegaly D. Shock from seeing something happen
D. eyelid edema to someone else
19. D 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. C

1.2 cardiology 9
26. The most abundant hemoglobin in the C. Requires SBE prophylaxis because of
adult: the type of dental procedure being per-
formed

A. fetal hemoglobin
D. Requires SBE prophylaxis because she
B. La carboxyhemoglobin
underwent device closure of the atrial sep-
C. Hemoglobina A tal defect
D. All in the same percentage E. Requires SBE prophylaxis only during
E. THAT the 12 months after closure of the defect
27. A 2-month-old bot with tetralogy of Fallot 30. Atrial kick is defined as:
presented with poor activity and severe A. the blood that flows passively into the
cyanosis. His heart rate was 40 beats per ventricles.
minute. The SpO2 was 40%.Which one is
B. pressure on the AV valves during ven-
not correct?
tricular contraction.
A. Give intravenous ketamine to treat this
C. an attempt of the atria to contract
condition.
against closed valves.
B. Sodium bicarbonate infusion is re-
D. the volume of blood that the atria con-
quired if severe metabolic acidosis.
tract to the ventricles.
C. Knee-chest position is beneficial in the
management of hypoxic spell. 31. How many chambers make up the human
heart?
D. the heart murmur usually becomes
louder during the attack of hypoxic spell A. 1
B. 2
28. The thin muscular wall that separates the
right side of the heart from the left side is C. 3
called the D. 4
A. aorta
32. Alteration of the LONG QT interval
B. ventricle (GREATER THAN 0.04 sec. WITH HR
C. septum 75/min). It is given in:
D. ligament A. hypercalcemia
B. digitalis
29. Hi Dr. Zonana, this is Mrs. Girgis. My
son Stephen had his ASD closed 10 months C. Adrenaline
ago. His echo said “residual L→R shunt- D. hypoxia
ing across device.” He has cavities and his
dentist is asking if he’ll need antibiotics be- E. Hypothermia
fore he fills them.
33. yo girl with anorexia nervosa. HR 52
A. Does not require prophylaxis to pre- bpm. BP 95/60.Which of the following
vent subacute bacterial endocarditis is most likely to be identified during addi-
(SBE) tional evaluation?
B. Requires prophylaxis because of the A. Continuous murmur heard in the L
residual shunt infra-clavicular area
27. D 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. C

1.2 cardiology 10
B. Systolic ejection murmur in the region D. All blood cells derive from a pluripo-
of the R ventricular outflow tract and a tent hematopoietic stem cell or stern cell.
fixed split S2 E. Hematopoiesis in the fetal months
C. Apical systolic murmur a/w a midsys- takes place mainly in the bone marrow of
tolic click the axial bones.
D. Low-pitched harsh systolic murmur
37. About the measurement of heart size,
best heard at the mid-to-lower Left ster-
which of the following statement is cor-
nal border
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rect?
34. The structure that divides the right & left A. (A) heart size is expressed as a ratio,
sides of the heart is known as the the cardiothoracic ratio (CTR)
A. septum B. b. Heart size is assessed by absolute
B. mediastinum measurement of the cardiac width.
C. valve C. c. Must projection in Anterior-
Posterior (AP) view.
D. none of above
D. d. a normal CTR is always greater than
35. A 12-year-old boy presents to the clinic 1:2 (50%)
for a preparticipation sports exam. He is
currently asymptomatic and his past his- 38. If the patient is suspected of a myocardial
tory and family history are both unremark- infarction, which part of CGD is suspicious.
able. His review of systems evaluation is A. A P
noncontributory. Which of the following
findings on physical examination would be B. PR segment
of greatest concern for a potential car- C. One Rs
diac complications during athletic participa-
D. Then S
tion?
E. ST segment
A. A resting heart rate of 56 beats per
minute 39. Which type of circulation begins with blood
B. Sinus arrhythmia noted on ausculta- being pumped out of the left side of the
tion heart?
C. A prominent laterally displaced PMI A. systole
D. A vibratory murmur intensified with ex- B. diastole
ercise
C. pulmonary
E. A lower right arm BP than that ob-
D. systemic
tained in the leg
40. The root word aort/o refers to which
36. Mark the FALSE:
structure of the heart?
A. Serum is plasma without fibrinogen
A. aorta
B. The most abundant hemoglobin in
B. atrium
adults is HbA.
C. Carboxyhemoglobin increases in C. arterioles
smokers in CO poisoning D. none of above
34. A 35. C 36. E 37. A 38. E 39. D 40. A

1.2 cardiology 11
41. Receptor in red blood cells with blood C. the first commercialized oxygenator is
group A, its compatible ABO group is: membrane oxygenerator

A. -A D. Cardioplegic fluid is hyperkalemic, oxy-
B. -AB y O genated and full of energy. Its purposes
are to stop the heart from beating and
C. -A y AB therefore prevent myocardium from is-
D. Only O chmia.
E. O and O 46. Which of the following statement is cor-
rect about mitral regurgitation (MR)?
42. Tracers that are only partially extracted by
the myocardium A. the causes of acute MR include infec-
tive endocarditis, papillary muscle rup-
A. Rb 82 chloride ture, trauma, and chordal rupture
B. O15 B. chronic MR usually presents as a car-
C. palmitate diac emergency
D. none of above C. even in people with severe MR, there
may be no signs or symptoms until the left
43. Blood returns from the head, neck and up- atrium fails
per extremities through the
D. mitral valve surgery is indicated in mild
A. aorta symptomatic MR
B. superior vena cava
47. Electrical capture during transcutaneous
C. pulmonary veins cardiac pacing is characterized by:
D. inferior vena cava A. the presence of a strong pulse, despite
a slow rate.
44. Which one of the following is mechanical
support currently available for cardiogenic B. a pacemaker spike followed by a wide
shock? QRS complex.
A. Intra-aortic balloon pump. C. narrow QRS complexes that are pre-

ceded by a pacemaker spike.
B. ECMO
D. low-amplitude QRS complexes pre-
C. Ventricular assist device. ceded by a pacemaker spike.
D. all of the above
48. PET is used to analysis
45. Which of the following descriptions is A. myocardial blood flow regulation
not correct about extracorporeal cardiopul-
B. myocardial substrate metabolism
monary bypass?
C. both
A. Membrane oxygenators, currently
most widely applied in open heart surg- D. none of above
eries, are not available until 1980s.
49. Which one of the following surgery is not
B. The first open heart surgery using total a corrective procedure?
extracorporeal cardio-pulmonary bypass
in history was the repair of atrial septal A. atrial septal defect repair
defect in 1953. B. PA banding
41. E 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. B

1.2 cardiology 12
C. PDA ligation following an unremarkable pregnancy. Vi-

D. Jatene operation (arterial switch) tals signs include a temperature of 36.6◦ C,
heart rate of 180 beats/min, respiratory
50. A prolonged QT interval indicates that the rate of 74 breaths/min, blood pressure of
heart: 50/35 mm Hg (mean blood pressure, 38
mm Hg), and oxygen saturation of 90%
A. has a shorter-than-normal refractory
on room air. The examination is notable
period, increasing the likelihood of severe
for diffuse mottling, a capillary refill of 5
bradycardia.
to 6 seconds, tachycardia with a single S2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. is experiencing an extended refractory and no murmur, liver down 2 centimeters
period, making the ventricles more vulner- below the right costal margin, and weak
able to dysrhythmias. pulses.
C. is depolarizing too quickly, which sig- A. Cardiac Tamponade
nificantly increases the potential for reen-
B. Cardiomyopathy
try in the AV junction.
C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
D. has a shortened refractory period and
may be caused by factors such as hypocal- D. Myocardial infarction
cemia or pericarditis. E. Supraventricular tachycardia
51. Which radiopharmaceutical can NOT be 54. A 67-year-old woman presents with se-
used for myocardia perfusion imaging? vere dyspnea, coarse crackles to all lung
A. Tc-99m sestamibi (Cardiolite) fields, and anxiety. She has a history of
several myocardial infarctions and hyper-
B. Tc-99m tetrofosmin (Myoview)
tension. Which of the following interven-
C. Tl-201 tions will have the MOST immediate and
D. Gallium-67 positive effect?
A. IV or IO access and 20 to 40 mg of
52. Regarding the U wave, point out the false furosemide
statement:
B. 0.4 mg sublingual nitroglycerin, up to
A. It may correspond to a late depolariza- three doses
tion of the conduction system.
C. Positive end-expiratory pressure ven-
B. It may correspond to a mechanical ori- tilation
gin because it coincides with the isovolu-
mic relaxation phase. D. Supplemental oxygen via nonrebreath-
ing mask
C. It may correspond to the repolariza-
tion of the papillary muscles. 55. The largest artery in the body is the
D. It may correspond to the repolariza- A. atrium
tion of the Purkinje system. B. pulmonary artery
53. You walk into a mother’s room to perform C. aorta
a newborn discharge examination at 72 D. vena cava
hours after birth to find a mottled infant
with cool extremities. The term newborn 56. hour old M. Cyanotic. RR 88
is appropriate for gestational age and was breaths/minute . Parasternal heave on
born by scheduled repeat cesarean section cardiac physical exam. Single loud S2.
CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

1.2 cardiology 13
Soft systolic ejection murmur at the mid- 60. Regarding the PR interval
left sternal border. Echo:pulmonary artery A. to. Its normal duration is from 0.12”
arises posteriorly from the left ventricle.

to 0.20”
Aorta arises anteriorly from the right ven-
tricle. Which of the following best de- B. b. Durations greater than 0.20” indi-
scribes expected findings on a radiograph cate atrioventricular block
of the chest in patients with this disor- C. c. Durations less than 0.10” indicate
der? Wolf Parkinson White Syndrome
A. Decreased vascular markings with a D. THAT
boot-shaped heart
61. slow heartbeat
B. Narrow mediastinum associated with
mild cardiomegaly A. bruit
C. Normal heart size with decreased vas- B. bradycardia
cular markings C. tachycardia
D. none of above D. none of above
57. Which following vessels is the suitable 62. which valve is located between the right
graft for coronary bypass surgery? atrium and right ventricle
A. Great saphenous vein. A. mitral
B. Radial artery. B. tricuspid
C. Internal thoracic artery.
C. bicuspid
D. all of the above
D. aortic
58. The consequence of complications of
63. The coronary arteries arise from
atherosclerosis depended on the location
of blocked arteries. Which of the follow- A. sinus valsava of pulmonary artery
ing description is not correct? B. sinus valsava of aortic root
A. Heart:myocardial infarction. C. left ventricle
B. brain:intra-cranial hemorrhage D. left atrium
C. Abdomen aorta:aortic aneurysm.
64. Which of the following is the possible
D. peripheral artery:gangrene of leg cause of sinus tachycardia?
59. Which statement about patent ductus arte- A. Hypoxia
riosus (PDA) is not correct?
B. Fever
A. PDA is a vessel between the descend-
C. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
ing aorta and the pulmonary artery.
D. all of the above
B. PDA in preterm infants may increase
the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis. 65. A 68-year-old male who has COPD
C. Ibuprofen can be used to close the presents with edema to his feet and an-
preterm infants with PDA. kles, jugular venous distention, and an en-
D. acquired right pulmonary artery steno- larged abdomen. What should you sus-
sis is one of the possible complications in pect?
transcatheter PDA closure A. Acute hepatic failure

1.2 cardiology 14
B. Left ventricular failure 71. Which of the arterial pulse may be pre-
C. Acute renal failure sented in the patient with cardiac tampon-
ade?
D. Right ventricular failure
A. Pulsus bisferiens.
66. The most common cause of cardiogenic B. Dicrotic pulse.
shock
C. pulsus paradoxus
A. Sepsis
D. anacrotic pulse
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. PE
C. Heart Attack 72. The heart muscle’s dedicated system of
blood supply
D. Congestive Heart Failure
A. coronary arteries
67. When the R-R interval on an ECG monitor B. pulmonary arteries
is measuring at 0.8 seconds. What is the
heart rate C. pulmonary veins
A. 100 D. circulatory system
B. 75 73. What is Anaphylactic shock?
C. 125 A. Caused by an allergic reaction
D. 40 B. Caused by losing too much blood
68. The rhythmical beating of the heart C. Caused by not having enough oxygen
A. Blood Pressure D. Caused by seeing someone die
B. Pulse 74. A 42-year-old male presented at the emer-
C. Pulse Pressre gency as severe sharp chest pain, dyspnea
and orthopnea. Chest computed tomogra-
D. Heart Contractions
phy revealed type A aortic dissection. BP
69. Which of the following condition is not a 80/55 mmHg. HR 110 bpm. Chest X-ray
timing to perform cardioversion or defib- showed pulmonary edema. What is the
rillation? most probable combined valve disease the
patient will have?
A. Unconscious ventricular fibrillation.
A. Aortic stenosis.
B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
B. aortic regurgitation
C. pulseless electric activity
C. mitral stenosis
D. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycar-
dia D. mitral regurgitation
70. The root word path means: 75. Fainting

A. disease A. edema
B. disorder B. syncope
C. procedure C. thrill
D. none of above D. none of above

1.2 cardiology 15
76. An abnormally rapid heart rate A. arteries

A. bruit B. veins

B. bradycardia C. capillaries
C. tachycardia D. alveoli
D. a thrill
81. Which statement about coronary domi-
77. The carries the oxygen-rich blood from nance is correct?
the lungs to the heart. A. most people are left-dominance
A. vena cava B. the artery that supplies the posterior
B. pulmonary vein descending artery (PDA) and ramus in-
termediate (RI) determines the coronary
C. aorta
dominance
D. pulmonary artery
C. if the right coronary artery supply the
78. Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syn- posterior descending artery (PDA) and
drome: posterolateral branch (PLVB) it is codomi-
nance
A. have a diseased SA node, resulting in
ectopic atrial pacemakers and abnormal D. most people are right-dominance
AV nodal conduction.
82. When the septal wall is not fully devel-
B. are highly susceptible to a variety of oped between the ventricles causing a
bradycardic rhythms due to an abnormal hole, it is referred to as
delay at the AV node.
A. precordium
C. have an accessory pathway that by-
passes the AV node and causes early ven- B. ventricular septal defect (VSD)
tricular depolarization. C. bundle of His
D. experience independent atrial depolar- D. septa
ization due to failure of the Bachmann bun-
dle between the atria. 83. Bluish discoloration of the skin, lips & nail
beds
79. A delta wave is identified on a cardiac
rhythm strip as a(n): A. hypercapnia
A. apparent P wave that occurs at the end B. cyanosis

of the QRS complex. C. pallor
B. acute widening of the QRS complex im- D. SOB
mediately after the R wave.
84. The state of total cessation of electrical ac-
C. slurring of the upstroke of the first part
tivity from the heart (no pulse) is known
of the QRS complex.
as:
D. delay between the end of the P wave
A. Systole
and the beginning of the R wave
B. Diastole
80. The smallest vessels in the body, where
oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide, C. Asystole
are D. none of above

1.2 cardiology 16
85. Another name for the bicuspid the following, the MOST appropriate next
A. pulmonic semilunar step in evaluation of this teenager is to:
B. tricuspid A. Order magnetic resonance imaging of

the brain with contrast
C. mitral
B. Order serum C-reactive protein and
D. aortic semilunar white blood cell count with differential
86. The suffix-ology means: C. Order tilt-table testing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the study of D. Reassure her and her family that are
B. condition no further testing is needed
C. disease E. Restrict her from exercise pending

evaluation by a cardiologist
D. none of above
91. Vessels that carry blood away from the
87. Vessels that carry blood toward the heart heart are called
are called
A. arteries
A. arteries
B. veins
B. veins
C. capillaries
C. capillaries
D. alveoli
D. alveoli
92. Which of the following drugs blocks the
88. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the
Na-K-ATPASA pump?
right side of the heart to the lungs in which
type of circulation? A. norepinephrine
A. systole B. digitalis
B. diastole C. acetylcholine
C. pulmonary D. Salbutamol
D. systemic 93. The point of maximal impulse usually can
be felt on the:
89. Your patient is apenic and pulseless. Your
ECG reveals a mobitz 2 av block at a rate A. medial aspect of the chest, just below
of 40. You should: the third intercostal space.
A. Administer atropine B. left lateral chest, in the midaxillary
line, at the fourth intercostal space.
B. Perform transcutaneous pacing
C. left anterior chest, in the midaxillary
C. Perform defibrillation
line, at the fifth intercostal space.
D. Administer Epinephrine
D. left anterior chest, in the midclavicular
90. yo F, lacrosse player. 2 months of chest line, at the fifth intercostal space.
pain during activity. Episodes of pain
last 3-5 minutes and have been associated 94. is a state when some segments of the
with palpitations and pre-syncope. MUR- myocardium exhibit abnormalities of con-
MUR:Soft 2/6 systolic ejection murmur at tractile function
lower left sternal border. Normal EKG. Of A. hibernating myocardium

1.2 cardiology 17
B. Stunned myocardium 99. Which of the following is not the typical

candidate for infective endocarditis?
C. myocardium

A. IV drug abuser
D. none of above
B. coronary artery disease status post
95. Myocarditis is a condition that affects stenting
which structure of the heart? C. mitral regurgitation status post mitral
A. The aorta replacement
D. atrial septum defect
B. The blood vessel
C. The atrium 100. Which of the following is potentially
life-threatening and warrants immediate
D. The muscle and aggressive evaluation in patients with
chest pain except
96. Breathlessness
A. pericarditis
A. thrill
B. acute myocardial infarction.
B. syncope
C. aortic dissection.
C. pulmonary congestion D. pulmonary embolism.
D. SOB
101. Which of the following study would help
97. Indicate which of the following statements to confirm ischemic heart disease?
about the Rh factor is FALSE: A. Thallium perfusion scan.
A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn oc- B. Treadmill exercise test.
curs in Rh- fetuses and Rh+ mothers C. Multi-slice coronary computed tomog-
B. Anti-D serum contains anti-Rh+ anti- raphy.
bodies. D. all of the above
C. The Rh-group is inherited with a reces- 102. Which of the following conditions would
sive character MOST likely cause the blood pressure to
D. The Rh + factor will be inherited dom- vary between the left arm and right arm?
inantly A. Cor pulmonale
E. The administration of antiD serum pre- B. Aortic aneurysm
vents the Rh-mother from becoming sensi-
C. Left heart failure
tized during labor against Rh+ red blood
cells from the fetus D. Cardiac tamponade
103. A 68-year-old woman, with no cardio-

98. Which following vessel is not often belong
vascular risk factors, is admitted to the
to the ‘left coronary artery system’?
hospital due to acute ischemic heart dis-
A. septal branch ease. In the analysis carried out upon her
B. posterior descending artery arrival, previously unknown anemia (Hb
8gr/dl) was observed. In case, the most
C. diagonal branch appropriate attitude regarding anemia is:
D. obtuse margin branch A. Erythropoietin treatment

1.2 cardiology 18
B. fe intravenous A. adenosine triphosphate

C. transfer whole blood B. 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate
D. transfer red blood cells C. Reduced Nicotinamide Dinucleotide
E. Watchful waiting and monitoring D. Reduced Nicotinamide Mononu-
cleotide
104. If an impulse generated by the AV node
begins moving upward through the atria 108. What is Psychogenic shock?
before the other part of it enters the ven-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Caused by seeing something happen
tricles:
B. Caused by losing your mind
A. the PR intervals will be greater than
0.20 seconds. C. Caused by an allergic reaction
D. Caused by losing too much blood
B. an upright P wave will appear after the
QRS complex. 109. For the calculation of the cardiac axis.
C. an inverted P wave will appear before The leads DI and aVF in the RIGHT quad-
the QRS complex. rant are:
D. a small inverted P wave will be buried A. Negative-Negative
in the QRS complex. B. Positive-Positive
105. These are factors that influence stroke C. Positive negative
volume. Starling’s and Place’s law, respec- D. Negative-Positive
tively regulating the:
E. undetermined-indeterminate
A. Self-excitability-Venous distension
110. A middle-aged man in ventricular fibrilla-
B. Pre load-Post load
tion has been refractory to several bipha-
C. Rhythm-Heart Rate sic defibrillations, well-coordinated CPR,
D. Volumen auricular-Volumen Ventricu- adequately performed ventilations, and
lar two doses of epinephrine. What should
you do next?
E. Bathmotropism-Ionotropism
A. Rapidly infuse 2 liters of normal saline
106. A 32 year old male presents with sudden solution.
onset chest pain and shortness of breath. B. Administer 300 mg of amiodarone via
The patient had knee surgery 4 days ago. rapid IV push.
What should you suspect?
C. Give 40 units of vasopressin followed
A. Myocardial infarction by defibrillation.
B. Pulmonary embolism D. Give amiodarone followed by 1.5
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax mg/kg of lidocaine.
D. Pericarditis 111. Paleness of skin
107. The erythrocyte obtains energy through A. edema
various metabolic pathways that allow B. emesis
the formation of four fundamental sub-
stances for the function of hemoglobin. C. cyanosis
These are: D. pallor

1.2 cardiology 19
112. Unstable angina: B. Loud systolic ejection murmur in the L

A. occurs following periods of strenuous upper sternal border, a/w RVH on EKG

exertion. C. Machine-like continuous murmur
heard throughout systole and diastole
B. often awakens the patient from his or
her sleep. D. none of above
C. indicates that myocardial necrosis has 117. A positive QRS deflection in lead I means
occurred. the vector is heading toward the:
D. is less frequent but is associated with A. left leg.
more pain.
B. left arm.
113. The statement: “MEDIATE PERIOD BE- C. right leg.
TWEEN ISOELECTRICAL VENTRICULAR AC-
D. right arm.
TIVATION AND REPOLARIZATION WITH 2
mm DEVIATION” Corresponds to: 118. What is the correct order for blood flow
A. ST segment in the heart?
B. PQ Segment A. Right ventricle to right atria to lung to
left ventricle to left atria
C. PR interval
B. Right atria to right ventricle to lung to
D. QT Interval
left atria to left ventricle
E. A T
C. Right atria to left atria to lung to right
114. Profuse sweating ventricle to left ventricle
A. anhidrosis D. Left atria to left ventricle to lung to

right atria to right ventricle
B. perspiration
119. The waste product excreted by the lungs
C. cyanosis
A. oxygen
D. diaphoresis
B. calcium
115. In the normal ECG, the T wave:
C. urea
A. It is always positive in DI, DII.V3-V6
D. carbon dioxide
B. It is always negative in AVR
120. Which of the following information about
C. It can be positive or negative in V1-V2, the primary prevention of atherosclerotic
II and AVF vascular disease is not correct?
D. Represents ventricular repolarization A. Exercise
E. about 1/3 of the R wave B. Cessation of cigarette smoking.
116. week old F. Murmur noted at 48 hours C. lowering serum total cholesterol, LDL
of age. Which of the following describes and HDL serum level
the MOST COMMON CONGENITAL HEART D. weight loss
LESION?
A. Harsh holosystolic murmur best heard 121. inner lining of the heart
at the L lower sternal border A. pericardium

1.2 cardiology 20
B. endocardium 127. A regular rhythm with inverted P waves

C. myocardium before each QRS complex, a ventricular
rate of 70 beats/min, narrow QRS com-
D. epicardium plexes, and a PR interval of 0.16 seconds
should be interpreted as a(n):
122. When the ductus arteriosus does not
close soon after birth A. ectopic atrial rhythm.
A. PDA B. junctional escape rhythm.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. tetralogy of Fallot C. supraventricular tachycardia.
C. ASD D. accelerated junctional rhythm.
D. VSD
128. Which of the following statement about
123. In most patients, the SA node is supplied the management of atrial fibrillation is not
with blood from the: correct?
A. left main coronary artery. A. Consider rate control.
B. left circumflex coronary artery. B. Consider rhythm control.
C. left anterior descending coronary C. Prevent tachycardia mediated car-
artery. diomyopathy.
D. right coronary artery. D. not necessary to prevent thromboem-
bolism if good blood pressure
124. Deoxygenated blood travels to the lungs
through the 129. Which of the following is not the criteria
A. aorta of Normal Sinus rhythm?
B. vena cava A. a. heart rate <50BPM
C. pulmonary arteries B. b. normal P wave morphology
D. pulmonary veins C. c. constant PR interval within normal
duration
125. Failure of the circulatory system to pro-
vide enough blood to the body is called D. regular or slight irregular PP interval
A. choking 130. A heart rate of 60-100 bpm represents:

B. hypoperfusion A. Sinus tachycardia
C. cardiac arrest B. Sinus bradycardia
D. respiratory insufficiency C. Normal sinus rhythm
126. If the R-R interval spans large boxes D. none of above
or less, the heart rate is greater than
100/min. 131. visceral pericardium
A. 3 A. endocardium
B. 4 B. myocardium
C. 5 C. precordium
D. 6 D. epicardium

1.2 cardiology 21
132. You are treating a 67 year old male com- 137. In the electrocardiogram they are consid-
plaining of chest pain. He rates the pain ered alterations of the P wave.
at a 10/10 and describes the pain as a

A. to. Sometimes absent in ventricular
tearing sensation that he also feels in his
and mid-junction extrasystoles, in sinus
back and shoulders. Your assessment re-
arrest with leak
veals that the patients blood pressure is
30mmHg lower in his left arm than his B. to. Increased voltage in the right atrial
right arm. You should suspect: growth
A. Left ventricular heart failure C. to. Negative in DI and AVL in dextro-
B. Acute pulmonary embolism cardia, situs inversus, poorly placed elec-
trodes
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Acute aortic dissection D. to. Increase in time in left atrial
growth
133. Unusually fast, strong or irregular heart-
E. All
beat
A. palpation 138. Bombardment of the AV node by more
B. palpebration than one impulse, potentially blocking the
pathway for one impulse and allowing the
C. palpitation
other impulse to stimulate cardiac cells
D. syncope that have already depolarized, is called:
134. Regarding sinus rhythm, mark the incor- A. fusion.
rect
B. reentry.
A. P waves present and normal
C. ectopy.
B. P wave followed by a QRS
D. excitability.
C. The PR interval is constantly less than
0.12 s 139. How long of antibiotics prescription
D. The PR interval measures between should be taken into account as basic rou-
0.12 and 0.20 s tine for infective endocarditis?
135. A fast heartbeat ( >100 bpm) related to A. 7 days
a rapid firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node is B. 10 days
known as:
C. 14 days
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. Sinus bradycardia D. longer than 1 month
C. Normal sinus rhythm 140. What is the contraindications for cardiac
D. none of above rehabilitation?
136. natural pacemaker of the heart A. Unstable angina.
A. bundle branch B. Acute decompensated congestive
B. bundle of His heart failure.
C. sinoatrial node C. Severe pulmonary hypertension.
D. atrioventricular bundle D. all of the above

1.2 cardiology 22
141. How many chambers does the heart C. Fever>37◦ C is one of the minor crite-
have? ria
A. 2 D. immunological phenomena include
B. 3 Osler’s node and Roth’s spots
C. 4 146. What carries the oxygenated blood from
D. 5 the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?
A. vena cava
NARAYAN CHANGDER
142. A “run” of ventricular tachycardia occurs
if at least PVCs occur in a row. B. aorta
A. two C. pulmonary vein
B. three
D. pulmonary artery
C. four
D. five 147. About the difference between serum and
plasma it is TRUE that:
143. “Deoxygenated blood from the right A. Fibrinogen is a component of serum
heart is pumped immediately into the
aorta and circulated to the body, while the B. Serum contains all the enzymes of the
left heart pumps oxygenated blood contin- coagulation cascade.
uously back into the lungs through the pul- C. Plasma does not contain fibrinogen
monary artery.” What is this disease?
D. Neither serum nor plasma contain
A. Tetralogy of Fallot.
platelets
B. transposition of the great arteries
E. Plasma is obtained through serum.
C. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous
Return. 148. relaxation phase of the heartbeat
D. Pulmonary Atresia with Intact Ventric- A. diastole
ular Septum.
B. heart rate
144. The right atrium, right ventricle, and part
C. blood pressure
of the left ventricle are supplied by the:
A. circumflex artery. D. systole
B. left anterior descending artery. 149. Which one of the following is not a proper
C. left main coronary artery. indication for heart transplantation?
D. right coronary artery. A. Advanced stage of dilated cardiomy-
opathy with left ventricular ejection frac-
145. About Duke criteria, which one is not cor- tion below 20%.
rect?
B. Complex congenital heart disease that
A. Positive blood culture for typical infec- have no effective conventional treatment.
tive endocarditis organism is one of major
criteria. C. Malignant arrhythmia with failure of
conventional treatment
B. Evidence of endocardial involvement is
one of the major criteria. D. age over 75 years old

1.2 cardiology 23
150. Which of the following statement bout 154. Mark the correct one:
aortic stenosis (AS) is not correct? A. Hematopoiesis in the adult occurs
mainly in the liver and spleen.

A. Congenital AS is predominantly noted
in patients < 50-year-old. B. Platelets are the most abundant ele-
B. The major symptoms of aortic steno- ments in the blood
sis are chest pain (angina), fainting (syn- C. Platelets and lymphocytes are charac-
cope), and shortness of breath (due to terized by having a segmented nucleus.
heart failure).
D. A, B and C are false
C. patients with stroke have a median
E. A, B and C are true
survival of 1.5-2 years
D. the most common ECG finding is left 155. A narrowing of the largest artery in the
ventricle hypertrophy body
A. PDA
151. A pathologic Q wave:
B. arteriosclerosis
A. generally indicates that an acute my-
ocardial infarction has occurred within the C. DSA
past hour. D. coarction of the aorta
B. is deeper than one-quarter of the 156. Defects in embryogenesis is the main eti-
height of the R wave and indicates injury. ology of developing congenital heart dis-
C. is wider than 0.04 seconds and in- ease. Which trimester is the most impor-
dicates that a myocardial infarction oc- tant period during the pregnancy?
curred in the past. A. 1st trimester
D. can only be substantiated by viewing B. 2nd trimester.
at least two previous 12-lead ECGs.
C. 3rd trimester.
152. Amount of blood expelled from the left D. all trimesters have the same impor-
ventricle compared with the total volume tance
filling the ventricle
157. month-old male. History of moderate-
A. diaphoresis
size ventricular septal defect. Feeding
B. ejection fraction poorly for the last few days. During feed-
C. venous distention ings the infant coughs and SOB. Mild sub-
D. systole costal retractions. Fine bilateral crackles.
Precordium active. Grade 3/6 holosys-
E. stroke volume tolic murmur, maximal at lower left ster-
153. Its low levels indicate a decrease in the nal border. Liver palpable 3 cm below
hemoglobin content per cell and translates right costal margin.The medication MOST
into hypochromia in the peripheral blood likely to provide significant clinical im-
smear. provement is oral:
A. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Con- A. Captopril
centration (MCHC) B. Carvedilol
B. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH) C. Digoxin
C. mean corpuscular volume (MCV) D. Furosemide
D. RBC distribution curve width (RBC) E. Spironolactone

1.2 cardiology 24
158. Pulse taken at the wrist is taken from the 163. It plays a fundamental role in the con-
artery. trol and termination of the coagulation pro-
cess, with a double effect: it binds com-
A. Carotid
plete TF/factor Vlla and directly inhibits
B. Radial factor Xa.
C. Femoral A. Protein S
D. Dorsal Pedal B. Protein C
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. tissue factor pathway inhibitor
159. day old newborn boy. Grade 2/6
medium-pitched systolic ejection murmur, D. Nitric oxide
best heard at L upper sternal border. Mur- E. prostacyclin
mur radiates to the back and axillae.Most
likely etiology? 164. Each upper chamber of the heart is called
a(n)
A. Venous hum
A. ventricle
B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis
B. pulmonary artery
C. Vibratory (Still’s) murmur
C. spleen
D. Pulmonary flow murmur
D. atrium
E. VSD
165. The cytokine known as multipoietin with
160. What is the name of the top chambers of the function of inducing the proliferation of
the heart? multipotential progenitors and stem cells
A. Aorta is:
B. Ventricles A. IL4
C. Vena Cava B. IL14

C. Nitric oxide
D. Atriums
D. p
161. In sinus bradycardia, the: E. gp IX
A. heart rate is less than 70 beats/min.
166. A 39-year-old man in asystole has been
B. pacemaker site is the SA node. unresponsive to high-quality CPR and two
C. QRS complexes are often wide. doses of epinephrine. The patient is intu-
bated and an IO catheter is in place. You
D. P waves are consistently upright. should focus on:
162. Which infectious disease causes an in- A. establishing a peripheral IV line.
flammation of the membrane that lines the B. providing mild hyperventilation.
heart and covers the valves?
C. searching for reversible causes
A. Myocarditis
D. transcutaneous cardiac pacing.
B. Endocarditis
167. You are currently treating a patient who
C. Epicarditis
is unresponsive and apneic. While man-
D. Pericarditis aging the patient’s ventilations you notice

1.2 cardiology 25
the patient converts to ventricular fibrilla- 172. With respect to the Q wave of the QRS
tion. You should: complex, choose the true statement:

A. Adminiter epi 1:10, 000 A. It is considered pathological and pos-
B. Start CPR itive for necrosis when its width is less
C. Defibrillate the patient than 30 msec and its voltage is greater
than 0.1 mV.
D. Administer amiodarone
B. It is never seen in patients with a struc-
168. You are assessing a 68 year old male pa-
turally healthy heart.
tient complaining of dizziness. The patient
has pink, warm, and dry skin. BP 116/76, C. It always represents the scar of a my-
R 24 non-labored, P 184 and SpO2 96% ocardial infarction
on room air. Your ECG reveals a tachy-
cardic rhythm with a QRS duration of 0.18 D. It can be produced by the septal depo-
seconds. Which treatment would be appro- larization vector or by a myocardial infarc-
priate? tion.
A. Administer Amiodarone
173. Which of the following statements re-
B. Attempt vagal maneuvers garding the SA node is correct?
C. Perform cardioversion
A. The SA node is the dominant cardiac
D. Administer diltiazem pacemaker in healthy patients.
169. A cardiothoracic surgeon performs surgi- B. SA nodal ischemia occurs when the left
cal procedures on the heart, lungs and coronary artery is occluded.
A. chest
C. The SA node is located in the superior
B. bladder aspect of the right ventricle.
C. stomach
D. Impulses generated by the SA node
D. kidneys travel through the right atrium only.
170. The isodiphasic complex is in AVR, its
perpendicular is D3 and its complexes are 174. Which following description concerning
NEGATIC, which way is the axis? valve surgery is not correct?
A. 0◦ -NORMAL axis A. Patients with mechanical valve re-
B. 60◦ -axis Left placement need life-long anticoagulation
therapy.
C. 120◦ -EXTREME deviation
D. +60◦ -axis NORMAL B. generally, mechanical valve replace-
ment is suggested for patient above 70
E. -90◦ -RIGHT axis
years old
171. The valve between the left atrium and
ventricle of the heart is the C. If possible, mitral valve repair is pre-
ferred method for good life quality and no
A. pulmonic semilunar need for long-term anti-coagulation ther-
B. tricuspid apy.
C. mitral D. average duration for a tissue valve to
D. aortic semilunar be replaced again is 10-15 years

1.2 cardiology 26
175. The valve between the right atrium and which decreases during assumption of the
ventricle of the heart is the erect position
A. pulmonic semilunar E. A harsh crescendo-decrescendo sys-
tolic murmur heart best at the apex and
B. tricuspid
lower left sternal border, increases in in-
C. bicuspid tensity with the Valsalva maneuver
D. aortic semilunar
178. A regular but unusually slow heart beat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
176. PR interval represents the physiological (less than 60 bpm) is known as:
delay suffered by the stimulus through the A. Sinus tachycardia
atrioventricular node (AV). It is measured
B. Sinus bradycardia
from the beginning of the P wave until the
beginning of the Q or R wave. What is the C. Normal sinus rhythm
normal range of PR interval? D. none of above
A. a. 0.04 0.08 s
179. Which of the following is correct regard-
B. b. 0.09 0.12 s ing coronary artery pathology in a child
C. c. 0.12 0.2s with KAWASAKI?
D. 0.44 0.48s A. Child less than 1 yo have decreased
risk of coronary aneurysm
177. Following the sudden death of his twin
B. Majority of small coronary aneurysms
brother during high school football prac-
regress back to normal coronary vessels
tice, a 16-year-old boys is evaluated with
an echocardiogram. Results include evi- C. Immunoglobulins must be given within
dence of asymmetric left ventricular and first 20 days of fever
septal hypertrophy associated with ante- D. Approx. 20% of untreated kids will de-
rior motion of the anterior leaflet of the velop coronary aneurysms
mitral valve. Which of the following best
describes findings on cardiac auscultation E. If aneurysms are small, aspirin ther-
in this patient apy can be stopped at 8 weeks
A. A harsh early systolic murmur asso- 180. Following evaluation of a 6 year old girl
ciated with a prominent systolic ejection with multiple systemic complaints, a di-
click, which is most evident while the pa- agnosis of acute rheumatic fever is made
tient is squatting based upon both clinical findings and doc-
B. A harsh holosystolic murmur heard umentation of an elevated streptococcal
best at the apex and lower left sternal bor- antibody titer. Which of the following is
der associated with a prominent ejection considered a major manifestation of acute
click rheumatic fever?
C. A harsh holosystolic murmur associ- A. Fever
ated with an early decrescendo diastolic B. Chorea
murmur heard best along the mid-lower
right sternal border C. Elevated ESR
D. A harsh holosystolic murmur heard D. Arthralgia

best at the left lower sternal border, E. Prolonged PR interval on ECG

1.3 gastroenterology 27
181. Leads V1 to V3 allow you to view the A. isotonic, rhythmic and aerobic exer-
wall of the left ventricle. cise

A. septal B. Exercise focused on small muscle
groups.
B. lateral
C. Exercise to involve isometric contrac-
C. anterior
tion.
D. anteroseptal
D. Valsalva maneuver during exercise.
182. A 48-year-old man with a history of
185. The pumps oxygen-rich blood out of
hypertension presents with a severe
the heart to the rest of the body.
headache, tinnitus, and blurred vision. He
is conscious and alert and denies any other A. right ventricle
symptoms. His BP is 204/120 mm Hg, his B. left ventricle
pulse rate is 100 beats/min, and his oxy-
C. right atrium
gen
D. left atrium
A. start an IV line and administer la-
betalol. 186. . Which of the following statement about
B. monitor his cardiac rhythm and trans- the NYHA clinical classification of conges-
port. tive heart failure is not correct?
C. administer high-flow oxygen and trans- A. Class I:No limitation of physical activ-
port. ity.
D. keep him in a supine position and B. Class II:Ordinary physical activity

transport. does not cause symptoms of HF
C. Class III:Marked limitation of physical
183. Irritable and febrile 3 yo M. Morbilliform activity. Comfortable at rest, but less than
rash. Bulbar conjunctival injection. Found ordinary activity causes symptoms of HF.
to have a L coronary aneurysm. Which of
the following is most likely to be identified D. Class IV:Unable to carry on any phys-
during additional evaluation: ical activity without symptoms of HF, or
symptoms of HF at rest.
A. Multiple dilated loops of large bowel
with bubbly linear gas collections in the 187. Acute coronary syndrome is a term used
bowel wall to describe:
B. Dilation of the aortic root A. acute chest pressure or discomfort
that subsides with rest or nitroglycerin.
C. Renal artery thrombosis
B. any group of clinical symptoms consis-
D. Intramural duodenal hematoma
tent with acute myocardial ischemia.
E. Acute distension of the gallbladder
C. a clinical condition in which patients
184. Which type of exercise for cardiovascu- experience chest pain during exertion.
lar conditioning is suitable for cardiac pa- D. a sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance
tients? that causes a decrease in cardiac output.
1.3 gastroenterology

1. Low fat and increased vegetables and C. Renal failure, neurological toxicity and
fruits = shock
A. increased cancer D. All
B. lower blood pressure and decreased E. None
cancer.
7. What are the types of caustics?
C. no effect on cancer rates
A. Acid
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. acid and neutral
2. Bile is MADE in the ?
C. Acid, Neutral and Alkali
A. Pancreas
D. acid and alkali
B. Gallbladder
E. Neutral and Alkali
C. Esophagus
8. Electrolyte BalanceMajor cations? ?
D. Liver
A. Na+
3. Electrolyte BalanceMajor Anions? ?
B. K+
A. Na+
C. Ca2+
B. K+
D. H+
C. PO43-
E. HCO3-
D. Cl-
E. hustle 9. The churns the food and produces acid
that helps in digestion.
4. Which ingestion of caustics is worse ACID A. small intestines
or ALKALI?
B. stomach
A. Acid
C. liver
B. Alkali
D. esophagus
C. both
D. the same 10. The is the muscular tube that leads
from the mouth into the stomach.
5. Carnivores have gastrointestinal
A. trachea
tracts
B. esophagus
A. short
C. salivary gland
B. long
D. intestine
C. medium
D. none of above 11. If you suspect caustic ingestion, what is
the FIRST thing to keep in mind?
6. What serious complications can there be
after ingesting caustics? A. Anything
A. mucosal edema and chemical pneu- B. Notice

monitis C. Do not increase damage already dealt
B. Metabolic acidosis and hypocalcemia D. none of above

12. When should an endoscopic revision be per- B. salivary glands

formed on the patient? C. gall bladders

A. whenever D. kidneys
B. from 6 hours to 24 hours post-
18. Bile is STORED in the ?
ingestion
A. Pancreas
C. Never
B. Liver
D. 6h to 72h post-ingestion and then 3
C. Stomach
weeks later
D. Gallbladder
E. always wait 3 weeks onwards
19. Herbivores have intestinal tracts Over
13. Vitamin A deficiency can manifest with? 200 feet.
A. Night Blindness A. short
B. Beri Beri B. long
C. Anemia C. medium
D. Scurvy D. none of above
E. Rickets 20. Bile is made by the
14. The food we eat passes through the A. stomach
A. liver B. gall bladder
B. gall bladder C. pancreas
C. small intestines D. liver
D. pancreas 21. Bile is stored in the

A. gall bladder
15. The releases enzymes into the small
intestines. B. liver
A. pancreas C. pancreas
D. salivary gland
B. liver
C. gall bladder 22. The function of the digestive system is to
provide the body with
D. stomach
A. oxygen
16. High fat and meat consumption related to B. antibodies
C. protection
A. increased cancer
D. nutrients
B. decreased cancer
23. Tiny food particles pass through the walls
C. no effect on cancer rates of the and enter the blood stream.
D. none of above A. liver
17. The produce the fluid that breaks down B. gall bladder
food while still in the mouth. C. small intestines
A. intestines D. large intestines

1.4 endocrinology 30
24. Five classes of nutrients: 27. Water-soluble fiber ( )-Found in oats,

A. -1. Carbohydrates beans, peas, brown rice, and fruits-
Decreases blood cholesterol and LDL levels
B. -2. Fats
A. Pectin
C. -3. Proteins
B. Cellulose
D. -4. Vitamins and minerals
C. Lignin
E. -5. Water
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. Bile is made by the 28. Carbohydrates are classified as and
A. stomach
B. gall bladder A. refined ; complex
C. pancreas B. Detailed; derailed
D. liver C. complex; noncomplex Carbohydrates
are classified as and
26. The absorbs most of the remaining wa-
D. none of above
ter still in the food before it is released
from the body as waste. 29. Fats are classified as and
A. pancreas A. saturated ; unsaturated
B. liver B. fatty; glyceric
C. large intestine C. fish oils; crisco
D. small intestine D. lard ; crisco
1.4 endocrinology
1. The major constituent of colloid is the large A. Organification
glycoprotein called B. Iodide trapping
A. Thyroglobulin
C. Deiodinization
B. Albumin
D. Iodinizarion
C. Thyroxine binding globulin
D. Thyrpoeroxidase 4. If the environment gets cold, we will often
shiver in order to:
2. The process by which an organism’s inter-
A. keep body temperature the same as
nal environment is kept stable in spite of
the external temperature
changes in the external environment.
B. decrease body temperature
A. Positive Feedback
B. Negative Feedback C. increase body temperature
C. Homeostasis D. regulate blood pressure
D. Targeted Cells 5. Major stimulus of growth hormone secre-
3. Process wherein tyrosine residues are iod- tion
inated by iodine A. Sleep

B. Somatostatin 11. Which of the following produces Calci-

tonin?
C. Fasting and High protein diet

A. Parafollicular cells
D. Levodopa
B. Colloid
6. This part of the brain that links the ner- C. Parathyroid gland
vous system and the endocrine system.
D. Pendrin
A. Pancreas
12. Insulin causes
B. Hypothalamus
A. a decrease in the concentration of
C. Pituitary gland blood glucose
D. Pineal gland B. a decrease in the permeability of cell
membranes to glucose
7. Feedback loops are important because
they allow organisms and the environment C. an increase in the production of glu-
to cose from glycogen
A. change based on new inputs D. a release of adrenaline into the body
B. fall apart 13. Secreted in endocrine cells and remains in

relation to plasma membrane; acts on im-
C. change based on new outputs
mediately adjacent cell by direct cell-to-
D. maintain balance cell contact
A. Juxtacrine
8. What hormone is responsible for the
“fight or flight” response? B. Endocrine
A. Testosterone C. Paracrine
B. Cortisol D. Exocrine
C. Adrenaline 14. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly

D. Parathyroid Hormone A. Glucose Suppression Test
B. Arginine Stimulation Test
9. Screening test for growth hormone defi-
ciency C. Insulin Tolerance Test
D. Serum IGF 1 levels
A. Physical activity test/Exercise
B. Insulin Tolerance Test 15. Transthyretin is also called as
C. Arginine stimulation test A. Pre Albumin

B. Thyroxine binding globulin
D. 24 hour serum GH levels
C. Albumin
10. What does melatonin do? D. Ceruloplasmin
A. Raises our blood sugar
16. Are lipid molecules that have cholesterol
B. Regulates our blood pressure as a common precursor
C. Regulates our metabolism A. Steroids
D. Regulates our sleep cycle B. Amines

C. Peptides and Proteins C. Peptides and Proteins

D. none of above D. None of the above
17. Gold standard for diagnosing Growth Hor-
23. The pituitary gland is most similar to:
mone deficiency
A. Insulin Tolerance Test A. a worker in a factory
B. Arginine Stimulation Test B. a mail carrier
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Physical Activity Test C. the boss of a big office
D. 75 g OGTT D. a security guard
18. Which gland secretes insulin?
24. In what scenario might your body release
A. Pancreas adrenaline?
B. Ovaries A. when you’re waking up from a long
C. Pituitary night’s sleep
D. Thymus B. when there isn’t enough calcium in
your bloodstream
19. Synthesized and stored within the cell in
the form of secretory granules and are C. when you’re threatened by a school-
cleaved as needed yard bully
A. Peptides and Proteins D. when you’ve had too much to eat
B. Amines
C. Steroids 25. What is the main function of the endocrine
system?
D. None of the above
A. it creates chemicals that are sent
20. Amount of T4 the thyroid secrete per day around the body to maintain homeostasis
A. 80 mg B. it creates electrical messages that are
B. 80 mcg sent around the body to maintain home-
C. 5 mg ostasis
D. 5 mcg C. it maintains the correct level of oxygen

in the body to maintain homeostasis
21. The chemical product of an endocrine
gland. D. it releases waste from the body to
maintain homeostasis
A. Homeostasis
B. Hormone 26. The basal membrane of the thyroid cell has
C. Nerve Cell the specific ability to pump the iodide ac-
tively to the interior of the cell
D. Neurotransmitter
A. Iodide trapping
22. They are water insoluble (hydrophobic)
and circulate bound to a carrier protein B. Iodine trapping
A. Steroids C. Iodinization
B. Amines D. Deiodinization

1.5 neurology 33
27. Lack of thyroid hormone during develop- 31. Peripheral monodeiodination of T4 pro-
ment results in short stature and mental duces how much additional T3?
deficits

A. 25 mg
A. Cretinism B. 25 mcg
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis C. 15 mg
C. Thyroid Storm D. 5 mcg
D. Acromegaly
32. The “master gland” of the endocrine sys-
28. Secreted in one location and release into tem, a gland that controls many body ac-
blood circulation; binds to specific receptor tivities.
to elicit physiological response A. hormone
A. Endocrine B. pituitary gland
B. Paracrine C. hypothalamus
C. Exocrine D. adrenal gland
D. Juxtacrine
33. Which of the following inactivates thyroid
29. Conversion of T4 to T3 takes mainly in the hormone?
liver and A. D1
A. Kidneys B. D2
B. Placenta C. D3
C. Peripheral adipose tissues D. D4
D. Gastrointestinal lining
34. Secreted in the neurons and released into
30. Minimum daily requirement of Iodine in the extracellular space; binds to receptor in
diet nearby cell and affects its function.
A. 75 mcg A. Neuroendocrine
B. 15 mg B. Endocrine
C. 15 mcg C. Exocrine
D. 15 g D. Neurocrine
1.5 neurology
1. The receives and relays information 2. Some of the areas that may be signifi-
from the face, ears, eyes, nose, and cantly affected post TBI include:
tongue.
A. Memory difficulties
A. cerebrum B. Organisation problems
B. cerebellum C. Difficulty comprehending language
C. spinal cord D. All of the above
D. brain stem 3. Falling / Collapsed

1.5 neurology 34
A. Collapsed 9. Office staircase

B. Colour A. Tangga bergerak
C. Difficult B. Tangga lipat
D. Calculate C. Tangga batu
D. Tangga pejabat
4. School
10. When needed
A. School
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cecair
B. Restaurant
B. Ruam
C. Morgue
C. Bila perlu
D. Kindergarten
D. Gatal
5. Acute mental illness includes
11. Middle
A. depression
A. Adopted child
B. panic disorder
B. Middle child
C. PTSD C. Only child
D. eating disorders D. The first child
6. In which spinal cord tract is the axon the 12. Which of the following tests has a tract
smallest and deepest? that runs through the cerebellum?
A. Proprioceptive pathway A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Voluntary motor pathway B. Corneal reflex
C. Superficial pain pathway C. Oculocephalic reflex
D. Deep pain pathway D. Swallowing reflex
7. neurons communicate with one another at 13. Decorticate posturing is where the arms
junctions called a make a shape?
A. synapse A. C
B. E
B. ion
C. D
C. molecule
D. T
D. channel
14. Hyperreflexia of knee jerk but hyper-
8. Decerebrate posturing is where the arms reflexia of flexor is the location of the le-
make a shape sion in which spinal segment
A. c A. too much
B. e B. rumble
C. f C. for 4 lt
D. d D. Lhasa

1.5 neurology 35
15. Hot sun C. 9 Hz

A. Midday D. 10 Hz

B. Hot sun 21. Cannot withstand
C. Sunrise A. tak sakit
D. Hot weather B. sakit
16. One or more manic episodes alternating C. tahan
with depressive episodes. D. Tak tahan
A. Schizophrenia
22. The space between two neurons over
B. Bipolar Disorder which chemical messages are passed is
C. Autism called the
D. PTSD A. brain stem
B. dendrite
17. The reduction in the number of words used
and non-fluent speech with errors of gram- C. axon
mar and syntax. Described as D. synapse
A. Motor Aphasis 23. Destruction of the myelin sheath of neu-
B. Sensory Aphasia rons of the CNS
C. Globla Aphasis A. Parkinson’s
D. Conduction Dyspahasia B. Myesthenia Gravis
C. Multiple Sclerosis
18. Which of the following is a tip for employ-
ers when talking to someone with a brain D. Cerebrovascular Accident
injury?
24. The coordinates movement and bal-
A. Speak fast ance.
B. Try to finish their sentences A. cerebrum
C. Ask one question at a time B. atrium
D. Pretend to understand what they are C. cerebellum
saying D. brain stem
19. clinical features of raised ICP include (pick 25. Left /right
which answers apply)?
A. kiri/kanan
A. headache
B. atas/bawah
B. nausea and vomiting
C. depan/belakang
C. seizures
D. Pusing balik
D. sluggish pupil
26. which is a risk factor for dementia? (tick
20. Fast tremor is if more than all that apply)
A. 7 Hz A. Age
B. 8 Hz B. depression

1.5 neurology 36
C. hearing impariment 33. Which word means front?

D. eating blue smarties A. Lateral
27. Which of the following is not a postural B. Medial
reaction? C. Anterior
A. Hopping D. Posterior
B. Placing
34. tremores occurs during relaxation of mu-
C. Perineal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cles called as
D. Proprioception A. Resting Tremor
28. Which of the following is NOT part of the B. Physiological Tremor
brain? C. Astrixix
A. cerebrum D. Intention tremor
B. atrium
35. AAC can be which of the following?
C. cerebellum
A. Aided or unaided
D. brain stem
B. High tech or low tech
29. A false or unreal sense perception.
C. Used to support speech
A. Amnesia
D. All of the above
B. Delusion
36. Which of the following are the membranes
C. Hallucination
that surround and protect the brain and
D. Autism spinal cord?
30. One of the first presenting symptoms of A. Meninges
Alzheimers is? B. Pericardial membranes
A. long term memory loss C. Pleural membranes
B. short term memory loss D. Peritoneal membranes
C. incontinence
37. Which of the following is the medical term
D. shortness of breath for stroke?
31. Resting A. Cerebrovascular Accident
A. Screaming B. Myocardial Infarction
B. Take a rest C. Alzheimer’s
C. years D. Syncipal episode
D. Kill yourself
38. Narrow circle circling is a symptom of a le-
32. Spread sion at which location?
A. Listening A. Cerebrum
B. Spread B. Cerebellum
C. Worried C. Brainstem
D. Get ideas out D. Vestibular

1.5 neurology 37
39. Communication site of CSF with venous C. Pemeriksaan fizikal

blood ( exchange of waste products)
D. Pemeriksaan mata

A. Arachnoid villus
B. Choroid phlexus 45. The parietal lobe is linked to which cogni-
tive functions?
C. Ependimal cells
A. sensory and spatial perception and
D. Arachnoid granullations
comprehension
40. 2-year-old child Chills V/S BT=38.1 C, B. vision and visual perception
PR=60 beats/min, while blood pressure
was measured. Children with spasticity, C. planning, thinking, behaviour and per-
drooling, what is the first nursing care? sonality
A. Have them lie down and suck the D. long term memory, auditory, percep-
phlegm. tion, face and object recognition
B. arrange to lie still and provide oxygen 46. Long cough
C. Watch for seizures. and doctor report
A. Demam
D. Have them lie down on their side and
B. Batuk darah
watch for seizures.
C. Batuk-batuk
41. Walk straight
D. Batuk panjang
A. Jump
B. On foot 47. Autonomic Nervous System controls:
C. Walking straight A. Skeletal muscle, bones, skin
D. Running B. muscles of glands and internal organs
42. Youngest C. Pain detection of internal organs
A. Children with disabilities D. Pain detection of skin and muscles
B. Youngest child
48. What are the three components of tissue
C. Adopted child within the skull
D. Twins A. brain tissue
43. Neurotransmitters are essential for: B. blood
A. The speed of our nervous system C. memories
B. Forming the blood-brain barrier D. cerebrospinal fluid
C. Keeping our nerve tracts in line
49. Cold
D. Carrying a nerve impulse across a
synapse A. Spicy
44. Further examination B. It’s hot

A. Pemeriksaan lanjut C. Cold
B. Pemeriksaan kesihatan D. Sweating

1.5 neurology 38
50. Unusual Movement 55. Counter pain medicine

A. Pergerakan lokomotor A. Pening-pening
B. Konsep pergerakan B. Ubat batuk
C. Pergerakan tak biasa C. Ubat gastrik

D. Ubat tahan sakit
D. Pergerakan gaji tahunan
56. What is circle of willis?
51. Which part of the brain serves as a re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lay station for information entering the A. Blood supply of brain
brain? B. Nerve bundle
A. Thalamus C. Both of the above
B. Hypothalamus D. None of the above
C. Hypocretins 57. Monotonous speech occcurs in

D. Orexins A. Bulbar palsy
B. Parkinsonism
52. There are thoracic vertabrae
C. Cerebellar dysarthria
A. 4
D. Multiple Sclerosis
B. 5
58. A moderate GCS score is
C. 7
A. GCS 14-15
D. 12
B. GCS 9-13
53. Here are the correct options C. GCS 3-8
A. The central nervous system consists of D. GCS 5-10
the brain and spinal cord
59. Chronic psychiatric disorder characterized
B. The CNS consists of the spinal nerves by disturbed thinking and disorganized
and cranial nerves speech.
C. The peripheral nervous system con- A. Alzheimer’s
sists of somatic and autonomic B. Autism
D. The somatic nervous system consists C. Schizophrenia
of afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor)
D. Bipolar Disorder
E. The autonomic system consists of the
sympathetic and parasympathetic 60. Semipermiable endothelial membrane,
wich lines microvasculature of brain, sep-
54. Acute pain is arating blood from cerebrospinal fluid
. Restricts the passage of pathogens
A. had it for a long time
; diffusion of solutes in the blood, hy-
B. a wee cut drophilic molecules into the cerebrospinal
fluid while allowing the diffusion of hy-
C. deep tissue
drophobic molecules (O2, CO2, hormones)
D. at the site of injury and small molecules

1.5 neurology 39
A. CSF 66. A-45-yeras old female presenting with

B. Arachnoid granullations sustained left sided turning of head. She
have H/O of vomiting and GP presccribed

C. Blood brain bareer metoclopramide.
D. none of them A. Athetosis
61. The sensation of pain test measures what B. Dyskinesia
outcome? C. Astrixix
A. severity of lesion D. Physiological Tremor
B. type of lesion
67. A bleed within the brain tissue is?
C. improvement of sing
A. migraine
D. none of above
B. intracerebral haematoma
62. A penetrating brain injury is defined by C. subarachnoid haematoma
A. A depressed skull fracture D. pulmonary embolism
B. Increased intracranial pressure
68. which is NOT a lobe of the brain?
C. Foreign matter disrupting the dura
A. frontal
D. A linear skull fracture
B. parietal
63. Abducens nerve is the cranial nerve that C. temporal
arises from which part of the brainstem?
D. anterior
A. Diencephalon
69. What type of injury often results from
B. Mesencephalon
blunt force trauma?
C. Rostral medulla oblongata
A. Coup or coup-contra-coup
D. Caudal medulla oblongata
B. Epidural haematoma
64. Which word means topside or back? C. Penetrating injury
A. Lateral D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
B. Medial 70. Each neuron contains one long trunk called
C. Ventral a(n)
D. Dorsal A. dendrite
65. *When language areas in the dominant B. synapse

hemisphere are damaged and disturbance C. brain stem
of understanding and/or expression of D. axon
words are affected. this condition known
as 71. How many interneurons is the brain of?
A. Dysarthria. A. 100 interneurons
B. Dysphonia. B. 10 billion interneurons
C. Dysphasias C. 100 billion interneurons
D. dysphagia D. 100 million interneurons

1.5 neurology 40
72. A 6-year-old child with cerebral palsy, in- C. brain stem

ability to walk, and spasticity of both
D. atrium
limbs, which is the correct care?
A. throw the ball 77. Many people with TBI report:
B. play with toys that make sounds
A. Reduced social contact and loneliness
C. Do physical limbs every day.
B. An increase in participation in society
D. Practice daily routines by yourself.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. An increased appetite
73. Patient of 6th month. enlarged skull easy
to distinguish. CT scan reveals expanded D. None of the above
ventricullar system. Your opinion:
78. Somatic motor impulses are responsible
A. There is disbalance between produc-
for:
tion and absorbtion
B. There is blockage caused by A. pain detection of different body parts
hematoma in third ventricle B. voluntary movements of body
C. blockage between two lateral ventri-
C. voluntary movements of viscera
cles
D. Clnical picture reveals normal produc- D. pain detection of viscera
tion of CSF but absorbtion supposed to be
increased 79. Repetitive irreversible movements which
purposeful or semi purposeful are called
74. Symptoms of delirium include (tick all that
apply) A. Dystonia
A. acute behaviour change B. Chorea

B. fluctuating symptoms C. Dyskinesia
C. easily distracted D. Tics
D. unable to speak clearly or follow a con-
versation 80. The body receives information from the en-
vironment through the
75. Dysarthria is characterised by deficits in:
A. sensory nerves
A. The motor planning and programming
of speech B. motor nerves
B. The use of language in context C. spinal cord
C. The execution and control of speech
D. synapse
movements
D. Impairment in language comprehen- 81. Cortical auditory area is localized in the:
sion and/or production
A. temporal gyrus
76. The controls our heartbeat and breath-
ing. B. central sulcus
A. cerebrum C. occipital lobe

B. spinal cord D. frontal gyrus

1.5 neurology 41
82. following statement is true C. expanded fourth and third ventricle

A. N1 is the olfactory nerve for smell sen- D. expanded lateral and third ventricles

sation N2 is the opticus of the eye
B. N3 is oculomotor, N4 is trochlear, N6 87. Which nerve cell forms the Blood-brain
is abducens barrier?
C. N5 is trigeminal, N7 is facial and N8 is A. Astrocyte

auditory B. Ependymal Cells
D. N9 is hypoglosus N10 is vagus and N11 C. Glial cells
is accessory N12 Hypoglosus (can tell cen-
tral or peripheral) D. Oligodendrocytes
83. The brain is very , and because of this, 88. The two main types of delirium are
it needs 2-3 times more oxygen than any A. hypertype and subtype
other part of the human body.
B. too far up and too far down
A. wrinkly
C. hyperactive and hypoactive
B. big
D. hypoglycaemic and hyperglycaemic
C. wet
D. vascular 89. The development of symptoms following
E. gray exposure to a traumatic event.
A. Bipolar Disorder
84. Fixed dilated pupils are a sign of
B. Schizophrenia
A. severe brain injury and imminent
death C. Autism
B. mild brain injury D. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. coma
90. Sensory facial sensation via CN5, how
D. normal reaction much sensation is the concave of the ear
perceived via CN5?
85. Through wich opening CSF can leave the
fourth ventricle and enter subarachnoidal A. 4
space? B. 6
A. Foramen magnum
C. 7
B. Monro foramen
D. 8
C. Central canal
D. Magendie aperture 91. A-60-years old male konwn case of Pakin-
sons Disease presenting with continous
86. years old man admitted to the hospital. purposeless of lips and mouth.
CT scanning revealed Blockage of Sylvian A. Tics
(cerebral) aquaduct . wich changes you are
able to distinguish: B. Athetosis
A. enlarged lateral ventricles C. Dystonia
B. expanded third ventricle D. Dyskinesia

1.5 neurology 42
92. Panniculus (cutaneous trunci) reflex is a 97. Separate the pale septum:
test for T3L3 lesion where cutaneous A. 1st and 2nd ventricle
trunci nerves emerge from which spinal
cord? B. third ventricle from 1st and 2nd
A. as a joke C. third ventricle from fourth
B. C8T1 D. fourth ventricle from lateral apertures
C. T1T 98. Which word means towards the midline?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. cut off A. Lateral
93. The UMN sign of the hind and fore- B. Medial
limbs and four-legged paralysis can iden- C. Ventral
tify which spinal segment the lesion is lo-
D. Posterior
cated.
A. C1C5 99. causes of delirium include
B. too much A. urine infection
C. rumble B. constipation
D. L4S2 C. hypoxia
D. baileys
94. Which part of the brain is responsible for
balance and coordination and is called the 100. Getting ready
“mini brain”?
A. Bengkak
A. Thalamus
B. Bersedia
B. Cerebellum
C. Mengira
C. Hypothalamus
D. Ketawa
D. Hippocampus
101. A 14 yeras old female with H/O
95. which of the following is NOT a red flag sorethroat and joint presenting with jerky
for spinal cord injury? ? ? ? small rapid movements of whole body. CT
A. extreme back pain and MRI brain normal
B. lower back pain A. Athetosis
C. loss of bladder control B. Chorea
D. numbness and tingling in hands or feet C. Hemiballismus
96. The spinal cord consists of (select all that D. Physiological tremor
apply) 102. carotid bruits can be assessed by placing
A. nerves the stethoscope bell gently over ;
B. meninges A. Neck
C. brain stem B. Eye
D. bones (vertebrae) C. Apices of Lungs
E. spongy matter (disks) D. Precorduim

1.5 neurology 43
103. Keep the awake is function of, 109. Knocking onto things
A. Cerebral Cortex A. Penglihatan kabur

B. Thalamus B. Terlanggar-langgar barang
C. Ascending reticular activating system C. Tabiat merokok
D. Cerebellum D. Hilang satu deyutan
110. If someone with TBI has memory diffi-
104. Which word means away from the mid-
culties, which of the following strategies
line?
would NOT be helpful?
A. Lateral A. Teach them to chunk information
B. Medial B. Give oral and written instructions
C. Dorsal C. Put employees in a time-out zone until
D. Posterior they memorise the material
D. Provide visual cues and prompts
105. Came back
111. Which is NOT a type of seizure?
A. Come back
A. tonic
B. Arrive late
B. myoclonic
C. Period
C. abscence
D. Come early
D. cerebral
106. A brain disorder marked by gradual and 112. chronic pain is caused by (chose 2 correct
progressive mental deterioration, person- answers)
ality changes, and impairment of function.
A. chronic tissue inflammation
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. infection
B. Alzheimer’s
C. alteration of properties of the periph-
C. Cerebral Palsy eral nerves
D. Meningitis D. acute injury
107. Which word means underside, belly, or 113. Weather

bottom? A. Cold
A. Lateral B. Gray
B. Medial C. The weather
C. Ventral D. Bitter
D. Dorsal 114. A pateint presenting with motor rest-
lessness with constant semi-purpose full
108. Oldest movements of lower legs called as
A. Salung son A. Astrixix
B. Step child B. Akathisia
C. Children C. Chorea
D. male cousin D. Hemiblassimus

1.5 neurology 44
115. Chinese B. somatic

A. India C. chronic
B. Chinese D. neuropathic
C. Malay
121. The weight of the brain of an average
D. Tomorrow
adult male human is approximately
116. Small, spastic tongue and difficulty pro- A. 2 1/2 pounds.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nouncing consonants and is often accompa-
nied by a positive jaw jerk and emotional B. 3 pounds.
lability. known as C. 2 3/4 pounds.
A. Bulbar Palsy D. 3 3/4 pounds.
B. Psuedobulbar Palsy
122. Getting treatment
C. Bells palsy
D. No Palsy A. Kelmarin
B. Lewat petang
117. Which is NOT a symptom of acute head
injury? C. Dapatkan rawatan
A. racoon eyes D. Dapatan kajian
B. vision problems
123. Lumbar Puncture must be provided at the
C. nausea and vomiting level:
D. rash A. Th10-Th12
118. Degeneration of neurons leading to B. L1-L3
tremors, weakness and slow movement.
C. L2-L4
A. Multiple sclerosis
D. L5-S1
B. Alzheimer’s
C. Parkinson’s Disease 124. Which brain lesions are responsible for
tremor and dysmetria?
D. Cerebral palsy
A. Cerebrum
119. Fortunately
B. Cerebellum
A. School
C. Brainstem
B. Good luck
C. Ready D. Vestibular
D. Take a rest 125. A fixed, false belief that cannot be

changed by reasoning or evidence.
120. Persistent pain that is caused by damage
to nerve fibres, leading to increased spon- A. Anemia
taneous firing or alteration in conduction
B. Delusion
or neurotransmitter properties is (tick all
that apply) C. Hallucination
A. referred D. PTSD

1.5 neurology 45
126. Which type of cells produce Cerebrospinal 131. *Glasgow Coma Scale assess the
Fluid? A. content of consciousness

A. Ependymal Cells B. State of consciousness
B. Astrocytes C. Coma
C. Glial Cells D. Confusion
D. Microglial cells 132. The name given to vascular multi-infarct
dementia that stays still for a while and
127. The controls our thinking and emo- then suddenly gets worse is called?
tions.
A. step over there
A. cerebrum B. step on
B. cerebellum C. stepup
C. brain stem D. stepwise
D. atrium 133. Which two foraminas in the fourth ven-
tricle open into cerebellopontine cistern?
128. When communicating with someone post
TBI, which of the following should you NOT A. Lateral apertures of Luschka
do? B. Magendie
A. Be patient and give the person time to C. sylvian
respond D. none of them
B. Talk to the person in a quiet environ- 134. Which of the following is NOT one of the
ment factors that determine the type of TBI?
C. Repeat back what you think the person A. Genetic variations
has said and ask if this is correct
B. Nature of the external force
D. Talk to them over the phone rather C. Motivation of the client
than face-to-face
D. Strength of the force
129. A cushings triad includes (pick all 3 that 135. Disoriented and dementia is a symptom
apply) of which syndrome?
A. raised BP A. Cerebral syndrome
B. slower heart rate B. Cerebellar syndrome
C. reduced respiratory rate C. Brainstem syndrome
D. lower blood pressure D. Vestibular syndrome
136. Which part of the brain is responsible for
130. Select the functions of the cerebellum.
head tilt and nystagmus?
A. Coordinates voluntary muscle action
A. Cerebrum
B. Hearing B. Cerebellum
C. Balance C. Brainstem
D. Vision D. Vestibular

1.5 neurology 46
137. Rain 143. Select all the functions of the cerebrum.

A. Kaku A. Interprets input from the senses
B. Rain B. Regulates involuntary muscle activity.
C. Numbness C. Carries out complex mental processes,
D. seizures such as learning, remembering, and mak-
ing judgments
138. Which type of fluid is produced in the ven- D. Controls the movement of the skeletal
tricles?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
muscles
A. Aqueous Humor
144. Which of the following is not a lobe of
B. Vitreous Humor the brain?
C. Peritoneal Fluid A. Frontal lobe
D. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Parietal Lobe
139. Which of the following should you as an C. Ventral Lobe
employer do when your employee has had D. Temporal Lobe
a brain injury?
A. Listen 145. Acetylcholine and dopamine are exam-
ples of:
B. Create a return-to-work plan
A. Endorphins
C. Be flexible
B. Androgens
D. All of the above
C. Neurotransmitters
140. UMN sign hind limbs and LMN sign 4 D. Nerve Cells
paretic anterior limbs identify which spinal
segment lesion is involved. 146. Which word means back?
A. C1C5 A. Lateral
B. too much B. Medial
C. rumble C. Anterior
D. For 4 hours D. Posterior
141. an acute confusional state which is com- 147. A carries instructions to the muscles
monly seen in the elderly is? from the spinal cord.
A. delirium A. motor nerve
B. distress B. sensory nerve
C. distemper C. dendrite
D. depression D. cerebellum
142. Gyrus supramarginalis belons to: 148. Nerves are made up of cells called
A. parietal lobe A. axons
B. occipital lobe B. dendrites
C. temporal lobe C. synapses
D. frontal lobe D. neurons

1.6 oncology 47
149. A secondary brain injury is? B. Visual problems

A. direct damage that occurs before the C. Fatigue

primary insult D. All of the above
B. indirect damage to brain tissue that oc-
curs after the primary insult 155. Select the 4 lobes of the cerebrum.
C. direct damage to brain tissue that oc- A. Temporal

curs after the primary insult B. Cortex
D. indirect damage that happens before C. Parietal
the primary insult D. Frontal
150. Help E. Occipital
A. Bantu 156. A group of childhood disorders character-
B. Rain ized by delays in the development of so-
cialization and communication skills.
C. Take a rest
A. Autism
D. Frequent
B. Schizophrenia
151. The cerebrum is divided into lobes.
C. Bipolar Disorder
A. 6 D. ADHD
B. 3
157. What are the two types of traumatic
C. 4 brain injury types?
D. 2 A. blast and concussion
152. Medicine to apply (not to be eaten) B. diffuse and focal
A. Ubat gastrik C. subarachnoid and haematoma
B. Ubat demam D. intracerbral and penetrating
C. Ubat batuk 158. Individual nerve cells are called:
D. Ubat sapu A. Nephrons
153. Getting worse B. Neurons
A. All day C. Basophils
B. Worse D. Alveoli
C. the better 159. Loss of memory is called:
D. Frequent A. Amnesia
154. Which of these are common problems B. Delusion

that people with TBI may face? C. Hallucination
A. Physical limitations D. Autism
1.6 oncology

1.6 oncology 48
1. Tumor marker for small cell lung cancer 6. Intrathoracic signs and symptoms of lung
A. CEA cancer.
B. TIF-1 A. Dyspnea
C. CD56 B. Bloody sputum
D. EGFR C. Generalized weakness
2. What is the screening method of choice for D. A persistent cough
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lung cancer?
A. low dose radiation CT 7. Signs and symptoms of dyspnea include
B. TC normal A. Wheezing and fever
C. chest x-ray
B. Productive cough and fever
D. Ultrasound-guided biopsy
C. Tachypnea, nostril flaring and digital
3. In preventing lung cancer, there are impor- clubbing.
tant things which able to help in lowering
the risk D. Productive cough, digital clubbing and
wheezing.
A. Encourage people to quit smoking
B. Advice community to avoid contact 8. Which of the following mutations is most
with second-hand smoke whenever possi- common in adenocarcinoma-type lung can-
ble. cer?
C. Encourage them to practice a healthy
A. HER2
diet and increase intake of fruits and veg-
etables. B. EGFR
D. Never limit the community to involve C. K-RAS
with people that smoke in the open area.
D. ALK
4. The mechanism of hemoptysis are
E. BRAF
A. Tumour necrosis.
B. Trauma from a cough 9. In thoracic surgery, the following state-
C. Pleural fluid accumulates when its pro- ments is TRUE
duction overwhelms removal-formation
MPE. A. Localization of the tumor must be
achieved before surgery.
D. Growth of new blood vessels (neovas-
cularization) in and around neoplasm. B. Pulmonary toilet is indicated to maxi-
mize ventilatory function.
5. The current treatment of choice for small
cell lung cancer is:- C. Anatomic location and extent tumor is
not important in selection of surgical ap-
A. Radiation alone.
proach.
B. Alpha interferon alone
D. There is a few options which are
C. .Combination of chemotherapy. wedge resection, segmentectomy, lobec-
D. Surgical resection and interleukin 3. tomy and pneumonectomy.

1.6 oncology 49
10. Based on the TNM classification for lung 14. Appropriate treatment for non small cell
cancer, what does N2 mean? lung cancer associated with stage of the
disease.

A. Peribronchial or hilar node(s)
A. Stage IIab-surgery and radiation
B. Contralateral and/or extrathoracic
mediastinal node(s) B. Stage Ia-surgery
C. Ipsilateral and contralateral mediasti- C. Stage IV-chemotherapy and palliative
nal node(s) D. Stage IIIb-combination of chemother-
D. Ganglion(is) a novel mediastinal ipsi- apy and radiation
lateral 15. The correct smoker’s pathway
11. Treatment for patient with Mesothelioma A. Nonsmoker
A. Radiation B. Brief advice on smoking.

C. Smoker attends the clinic for any prob-
B. Concurrent chemotherapy and radia-
lem.
tion.
D. Quit attempt involve support and med-
C. Pleurectomy.
ications.
D. Chemotherapy with combination Cis-
platin/ Gemzar or Carboplatin. 16. An important nursing intervention for the
patient with SIADH
12. Arisa with lung adenocarcinoma cancer A. Bed rest.
with pleural effusion having a dyspnea,
B. Restrict of fluids.
what the nursing management that need
to be implement to the patient C. A low sodium diet.
A. Assess patient’s whether cyanosed. D. Safety and seizure precautions.
B. Positioning patient in fowler’s posi- 17. Study design consists of
tion. A. primary end point
C. Put patient with appropriate oxygen B. Controlled studies
support.
C. secondary end Point
D. Check patient’s breathing pattern, res-
D. Uncontrolled studies
piratory rate and oxygen saturation.
18. What is the most common type of lung can-
13. The classification by histologic types for cer in non-smokers?
non small cell lung cancer
A. small cell carcinoma
A. .Large cell includes undifferentiated
and neuroendocrine. B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
B. Small cell carcinoma
D. large cell carcinoma
C. Squamous carcinoma includes well or
poorly differentiated. 19. Ahmad has been diagnosed with lung can-
D. Adenocarcinoma is the most common cer and requires a wedge resection. How
type and its increasing and includes aci- much of the lung is removed?
nar, papilary and bronchoalveolar. A. One entire lung.

1.6 oncology 50
B. A lobe of the lung. 24. Iridocycletomy is

C. A segment of the lung including a bron- A. Surgical removal of the whole eye
chiole and its alveoli B. Surgical removal of part of the choroid
D. A small localized area near the surface C. Surgical removal of part of the iris
of the lung.
D. Surgical removal of iris and ciliary
body
20. The extensive stage for small cell lung can-
cer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. Leng has the chest tube in the left lung. On
A. It describe cancers that spread widely making rounds, note an absence of fluctu-
throughout the lung. ation in the water-seal chamber and a lack
of fluid drainage in the collection chamber.
B. It also consider into the fluid around. The signs indicate
C. It spread also to the lymph node on the A. Obstruction
other side of the chest.
B. Air leak
D. It localized at the organ
C. Positive occlusive seal at the insertion
21. Lung cancer that most commonly associ- site
ated with smoking. D. Accumulation of some debris in the col-
lection chamber
A. Large cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma 26. hyper-
C. Small cell carcinoma A. change

B. above, excessive
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. below, incomplete, deficient, under
22. Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) D. before
A. It used to perform a lobectomy.
27. Nursing assessment that needs to be per-
B. Removal entire lung formed after thoracic surgery with the
C. This procedure involved inserted long, chest drain.
thin tube with the camera. A. Vital signs 4 hourly.
D. It used to get a biopsy of the lung tis- B. Post operative pain score
sues and to confirm a lung cancer diagno- C. Monitor the signs of respiratory dis-
sis. tress.
23. When planning and delivering EBRT for D. Monitor the nature and amount of
cancer of the middle ear, it is important drainage
to consider which of the following critical
28. A removal of entire lung is the thoracic
structures
surgery called as
A. Optic nerve A. Lobectomy.
B. Lens B. Wedge resection
C. Tongue C. Pneumonectomy.
D. Parotid gland D. Rigid bronchoscopy

1.6 oncology 51
29. Non adjuvant therapy is 34. In minimizing the sensation of dyspnea, a

A. after the therapy patient should be advised to

A. Maintain bedrest.
B. before the therapy
B. Practise relaxation techniques
C. concurrent with the therapy
C. Perform low impact exercises.
D. all of the above
D. Breath using a rapid and shallow pat-
30. What is the most common histopathologic tern.
type of lung cancer?
35. what is cancer?
A. Adenocarcinoma A. normal cells
B. Squamous cell carcinoma B. abnormal cells
C. Tumor neuroendocrino C. small cells
D. large cell carcinoma D. large cells
31. Adjuvant therapy can be given 36. hypo-

A. before therapy A. above, excessive
B. after therapy B. below incomplete, deficient, under

C. new
C. during therapy
D. before
D. none of the above.
37. The uses of tumor marker in small cell lung
32. Based on the stage of lung cancer, in which cancer
of the following is surgical treatment not
A. Screening.
the therapy of choice?
B. Confirmation of diagnosis.
A. IB
C. Monitoring of cancer survivors.
B. IIA
D. Diagnosis of specific tumor types.
C. IIB
38. What G.P.A do you have to have to get
D. IIIA (T3N1M0)
into nursing school?
E. IIIA (T3N2M0) A. 2.4
33. Based on data presented by the Global B. 2.6
Cancer Observatory, please mark the cor- C. 3.0
rect answer.
D. 4.0
A. In Peru, lung cancer is the 4th with the
highest incidence 39. What is the most common area of extra-
pulmonary metastasis?
B. In Peru, mortality from lung cancer in
A. Bone
men is the highest
B. Brain
C. In Peru, lung cancer is the 6th with the
highest incidence in women C. Liver
D. In Peru, mortality from lung cancer in D. Bladder
women is the 6th highest E. Stomach

1.6 oncology 52
40. Immediately after thoracentesis is com- 45. pro-

pleted, it is important for the nurse to as- A. after
sess the patient for:
B. before
A. Expectoration of blood
C. through, complete
B. Increased breath sound D. painful
C. Decreased respiratory rate
46. What are some benefits of an Oncology
D. Increased blood pressure Nurse?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Help make hard things a little less dif-
41. Indications of procedure bronchoscopy
ficult
A. Haemoptysis B. Get a better perspective about what’s
B. Unexplained cough. important
C. Excessive bronchiol secretions. C. Get offered standard office hours
D. Abnormal chest X-ray D. In high demand
47. The nurse evaluating discharge education

42. A patient with lung cancer is presented in for a patient with dyspnea. The nurse
whom there is a suspicion of non-localized knows the patient has an understanding
metastasis. What would not be a useful of discharge instructions when the patient
imaging test to locate the metastasis? states:
A. CT/MRI of brain A. “ I will contact my doctor if I sudden
B. Bone scan pain.”
C. PET-CT B. “ Oxygen therapy has no side effects

and it will always help mybreathing.”
D. CT/MRI of areas according to symp-
C. “ I won’t worry if I have skin changes,
toms
since this does not haveanything to do
with my breathing.”
43. ICE is a combination of the following
chemotherapy drugs D. “ I will make sure to continue my
schedule at home, sinceactivity is good for
A. ifosfamide, carboplatin, etoposide my breathing.”
B. irinotecan, cisplatin, epirubicin
48. meta-
C. ifosfamide, cisplatin, etoposide
A. after
D. irinotecan, cisplatin, epirubicin B. before
44. different types of therapies are C. change
D. new
A. concurrent
B. combination 49. Muthu developed fatigue post chemother-
apy. The management of fatigue that need
C. consolidation to be implemented to him
D. induction A. Exercise.
E. palliative. B. Sleep Aids.

1.6 oncology 53
C. Activity planning. D. Thoracic epidural for large thoraco-

D. Anaemia management with the iron tomy wound.

supplement
54. An important nursing intervention to pre-
50. Based on lung cancer treatment, at what vent laryngeal edema immediately after a
stage is palliative therapy recommended? bronchoscopy is to
A. IB A. Administer lidocaine spray
B. IIB B. Provide ice chips to suck on.
C. IIIA C. Apply a cool mist oxygen face tent
D. IV D. Provide adequate pain control.
51. According to the symptoms in early or low 55. THE FOLLOWING ARE TREATMENTS USED
stages, which is(are) the most frequent TO TREAT CANCER PATIENTS USING
manifestation(s)? DRUGS
A. They usually present with cough and A. CHEMOTHERAPY
dyspnea.
B. RADIOTHERAPY
B. They are usually asymptomatic
C. PHYSIOTHERAPY
C. They are usually asymptomatic and
have pleuritic pain. D. REFLUXTERAPI
D. They usually present cough c/s blood 56. clinical trials are the type of research study
52. Which of the following statements is uses volunteers for
true? A. Treatment
A. More man than female is active smok- B. screening
ers.
C. diagnosis
B. Regular use of cigarettes causes be-
D. prevebntion
havioral and pharmacologic dependence
on TAR a powerfully psychoactive drug. 57. Cell differentiation is
C. 30% of smokers who quit are still
A. Young, immature cells reach to their
not smoking one year after quitting, al-
Mature form & function
though an individual’s success increases
with each attempt. B. Cell growth & multiplication
D. Legislative approaches to preventing C. Cell Death
lung cancer have included taxation on D. Decrease in cell number
cigaretes, warning labels and eliminating
smoking in the public areas. 58. According to the TNM classification for
lung cancer, invasion of the visceral pleura
53. The followings are the analgesic that given can be seen in which of the following?
post-thoracotomy
A. T1
A. SC Heparin
B. knock
B. Morphine infusion.
C. Patient control analgesia (PCA) with C. Come on
morphine D. Item

1.6 oncology 54
59. Lung cancer metastasizes to the brain, B. mutagenic

bone or liver. The signs or symptoms C. Teratogenic
would indicate possible liver metastasis
D. Genotoxic
A. Changes in personality
B. Bone pain 64. The pulmonary sign and symptom that
might be seen in patients who have small
C. Jaundice. cell lung cancer
D. Kussmaul breathing pattern. A. Fever
NARAYAN CHANGDER
60. Raju is plan for a left pneumonectomy .The B. Cough
preoperativeteaching should include that C. Dyspnea
after surgery, the client may not lie in
what position D. Shoulder pain
A. On the left side. 65. In management of chest tube, the nursing

management of care are
B. Flat on the back.
A. No need to do pain scoring and wound
C. On the right side.
dressing.
D. There is no restriction on how to lie.
B. Assure the underwater seal in a flat
61. On preparation patient for bronchoscopy, surface area.
the followings are the responsibility of the C. Put the 2 artery forceps next to patient
respiratory oncology nurse for emergency use.
A. Consent was taken at least 8 hours be- D. Record whether the underwater seal
fore the procedure. is fluctuating or bubbling.
B. No need to NBM patient by midnight be-
66. Which of the following pulmonary tests
fore the procedure to be done.
are done to localize and perform a biopsy
C. Do a skin test 1 day before procedure on a lesion in the lung?
by using intradermal injection lignocaine
A. Bronchoscopy.
2 % (0.1 ml).
B. Thoracentesis.
D. All investigation such as FBC, PT/APTT,
LFT and renal profile and chest x-ray took C. Mediastinoscopy.
before bronchoscopy. D. Computed tomography (CT) scan.
62. The common problems that occur in Lym- 67. The common cause of lung cancer
phoma cases
A. Smoking pipe.
A. Cough.
B. Smoking cigars.
B. Neutropenia C. Second smoker.
C. Hemoptysis. D. Smoking Cigarettes.
D. Superior vena cava obstruction.
68. According to the types of cancer and its as-
63. Cytotoxic substances that have the ability sociated clinic, mark the correct answer.
to cause DNA damage that can eventually A. Adenocarcinoma is the least frequent
lead to the development of cancer. and is associated with hypertrophic oste-
A. carcinogenic orathropathies.

1.7 radiology 55
B. Epidermoid is associated with the Pan- C. They are 2, small cell cancer and very
coast tumor, located at the base of the large cells.
lungs, and may present with Horner’s syn-

D. They are 2, small cell and non-small
drome.
cell cancer.
C. Small cell cancer is the deadliest and
may be associated with superior vena 71. The bronchoscopic intervention in other
cava syndrome thoracic malignancy
D. Anaplastic is not associated with gy-
A. Chemotherapy.
necomastia or cavitations
B. Brachytherapy.
69. Excessive cell divisions are
C. Cryotherapy.
A. Hyperplasia
B. dysplasia D. Electrocauterization.
C. metaplasia
72. The management on hemoptysis
D. Carcinoma in situ
A. Monitor for respiratory distress.
70. Lung cancer is divided into major groups,
B. Put patient complete rest in bed with
based on this, please tick the correct an-
supine position
swer.
A. They are 2, small cell cancer and non- C. .Positioning so that the bleeding lung
macrocytic cell cancer. independent.
B. There are 3, small cell, non-small cell D. Monitored for increased blood loss
and sarcomatoid cancer. changes in blood pressure and pulse.
1.7 radiology
1. Which of the following exposure variables A. release photons.
means the strength/power of the radia- B. release electrons.
tion beam at peak
C. convert electrons into photons
A. mA
D. convert photons into electrons.
B. mAs
E. None of the above answers is correct
C. KV
D. KVP 4. Waste that consists of blood, blood prod-
ucts, contaminated sharps, and other mi-
2. An early clinical sign of excessive expo- crobiologic products.
sure to radiation is: A. Antiseptic
A. jaundice B. Asepsis
B. erythema C. Pathogen
C. bleeding D. Infectious Waste
D. hair loss
5. Identify the false statement concerning
3. The filament functions to: protective clothing:

1.7 radiology 56
A. It must be worn by all dental profes- 9. When is the international day of radiology
sionals (IDOR)?
B. It must be worn to prevent contact A. 15 November 2019
with infectious materials B. 8 November 2019
C. It must be changed weekly C. 17 February 2019
D. It must be removed before leaving the
D. 1 November 2019
dental office.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
10. correctly exposing intra oral receptors in-
6. This test is used to assess nerve damage
clude four basic steps
and dysfunction. It measures how quickly
electrical signals move through your pe- A. receptor placement, vertical PID
ripheral nerves. It may be used to diag- (cone) angulation alignment, horizontal
nose herniated disc disease and other neu- PID (cone) angulation alignment, and cen-
romuscular disorders. tral ray centering.
A. EMG B. receptor removal, vertical PID (cone)
angulation alignment, horizontal PID
B. MRI
(cone) angulation alignment, and central
C. NCS ray centering
D. Discogram C. receptor placement, vertical PID
7. the majority of technique and exposure er- (cone) angulation alignment, horizontal
rors can be produced with digital receptors PID (cone) angulation alignment, and lat-
as with conventional film with a few ex- eral ray centering
ceptions. The greatest advantage of digi- D. receptor placement, vertical PID
tal imaging is elimination of which are (cone) angulation alignment, horizontal
the most common causes of retakes in film- PID (cone) angulation alignment, and pa-
based radiography tient cooperation
A. handling errors 11. All of the following are characteristics of
B. processing errors X-rays EXCEPT one. Which is the excep-
C. holding errors tion?
D. periapical errors A. X-rays have a wavelength.
B. X-rays can cause ionization.
8. What is not correct about MRI principle of
function C. X-rays travel at the speed of sound.
A. a high intensity magnetic field is cre- D. X-rays can produce an image on photo-
ated around body to align the protons graphic ftlm.
B. external radio-frequency of the same 12. The imaginary line that passes from the
frequency as the spinning protons is ap- top of the ear canal to the bottom of the
plied eye isthe:
C. a gauntry revolves around the body at A. occlusal plane.
a high spinning rate
B. vertebral plane.
D. released energy is then received as a
radio wave and converted by computer to C. Frankfort plane.
create image D. midsagittal plane.

1.7 radiology 57
13. when considering the use of standard du- B. Lingual Foramen

plicating film, which of the following is cor-
C. Mental Ridge
rect?

A. the process of film duplication must oc- D. Mental Fossa
cur in the darkroom E. Nutrient Canal
B. duplicated images may only be given
to the patients because their quality is too 18. Exposure to radiation:
poor to send on to a specialist A. no matter how small, has the potential
C. only a small amount of additional ra- to cause harmful biological changes
diation is needed to produce a duplicated B. has a threshold, below which exposure
image is entirely safe
D. the duplicating film is covered with
C. is safer when there is a single, large
emulsion on both sides, which decreases
dose rather than a series of smaller doses
the amount of time needed to complete
the duplication process D. from a dental x ray machine does not
involve particulate radiation and is com-
14. What makes something radioactive? pletely safe
A. an unstable nucleus
B. contaminated sewage 19. Identify the source of electrons used for
the production ofx-rays:
C. elements with an atomic number
above 81 A. tungsten filament
D. it decays over time B. molybdenum cup
15. What size receptor is recommended for C. tungsten target

use with the occlusal Technique in the adult D. copper stem
patient?
A. size 3 20. Which are not included in the Particle, are:
B. Size 4 A. Electronic
C. Size 5 B. Infrared Ray
D. Size 2.5 C. Proton
16. Provides cross-sectional images of the D. Sinr α
bones, blood vessels and soft tissues in-
E. Dendron
side the body.
A. X-rays 21. in an automatic processor, which solu-
B. MRI tion(s) must be kept at a temperature be-
tween 80 to 95 degrees?
C. CT Scan
A. the developer solution
D. Discogram
B. the fixer solution
17. In the Mandibular Anterior images which
anatomical landmarks would be seen? C. the water bath
A. Genial Tubercle D. the fixer and developer solutions

1.7 radiology 58
22. Which of the following could be done to 27. The image is used to examine the in-
correct a radiograph that is too dark after terproximal surfaces of the teeth and is
proper development particularly useful for the detection of den-
A. Increase milliamperage tal caries and the evaluation of alveolar
come levels. The receptor is placed into the
B. Decrease exposure time mouth parallel to the crowns of the maxil-
C. Place it back in the fixer lary and mandibular teeth
D. Decrease development time e. Place it A. Periapical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
back in the developer B. paralleling technique
23. What is not included in Electromagnetic C. bisecting angle technique
Rays are: D. bitewing technique
A. Shinar X
28. What type of cells does radiation affect
B. Gamma rays the most?
C. Ultraviolet rays A. Rapidly dividing cells
D. Radio Wave B. New Cells
E. Sinr α C. Slowly dividing cells
D. Old cells
24. results when the receptors is exposed
twice, and two images appear superim- 29. which of the following is a correct charac-
posed onto each other teristic of the developing solution
A. miscellaneous errors A. the developer removes any non-
B. over exposed image energized silver bromide crystals from
the image receptor
C. double exposure
B. the developer solution causes the ra-
D. under exposed image
diopaque areas on the image receptor to
25. What is Medical Imaging appear
A. Diagnosis using computer technology C. the developer solution redo es the sil-
ver bromide crystals to black metallic sil-
B. Visual representation of the interior of ver
a body
D. the developer solution hardens the
C. Virtual representation of symptoms protective layer of there image receipt
D. Simulating a surgery covering the emulsion
26. the major disadvantage of the bisecting an- 30. The technique is accomplished by plac-
gle technique is that ing the receptor as close to the tooth as
possible. The central ray of the x-ray
A. all exposure time is significantly
beam should be directed perpendicular to
longer
an imaginary line that divides the angle
B. image distortion is less likely formed by the long axis of the tooth and
C. image distortion is more likely the plane of the image receptor
D. the amount of radiation absorbed by A. Bitewing technique

the patient is increased B. Bisecting Angle Technique

1.7 radiology 59
C. paralleling technique 35. What are the uses of the occlusal image?
D. none of above A. To locate foreign bodies in the maxilla

or the mandible
31. What is meant by radiomics?
B. To located retained roots of extracted
A. Characteristics of cells that become an teeth
objective assessment in determining the
response of cells to medical interventions C. To evaluate fractures of the maxilla or
the mandible
B. A technique for stratifying the degree
D. All of the above
of malignancy from the ability to adapt to
exposure to microenvironment from the E. None of the above
molecular characteristics of cells
36. Which of the following cells is least ra-
C. Integration of knowledge from clini- diosensitive?
cal imaging characteristics with molecular
characteristics in supporting clinical deci- A. Red blood cells
sion making B. Reproductive cells
D. Qualitative and quantitative data ex- C. Immature bone
traction with machine learning technology D. White blood cells
in determining clinical decisions
E. Skeletal muscle cells
32. This creates the negatively charged elec-
trons 37. a dental x-ray that has the appearance of
the black lines that look like a tree branch
A. cathode is caused by
B. anode A. air bubbles
C. glass envelope B. overexposure
D. collimator C. overlapped films
33. Which of the following landmarks are go- D. static electricity
ing to be seen in the Maxillary Anterior
38. A gentlemen was referred for a CT ab-
Images
domen, he has chronic renal disease not
A. Nasal Septum requiring dialysis. Which of the following
B. Incisive Foramen action need to be done
C. Inverted Y A. Prescribe/continue diuretics before
contrast study
D. Mid-Palatine Suture
B. Prescribe/continue metformin before
E. Nasal Fossae
contrast study
34. Which is an example of a critical instru- C. Dialysis after contrast study
ment? D. Hydration prior and after contrast
A. Beam alignment device study
B. scaler 39. how will fixer spots appear on a processed
C. amalgam condenser radiographs
D. x-ray receptor A. white spots

1.7 radiology 60
B. dark spots C. combines with molecules to form tox-

C. yellow spots ins
D. brown spots D. all of the above
45. Large kVp portable units

40. As you go from “D” speed film to “E”
speed film, the exposure time should beap- A. 6-20 kvp 30 ma
proximately: B. 150 kvp 30 ma
A. doubled
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 90-100 kvp 30 ma
B. halved D. 90-100 kvp 2000 ma
C. remain the same
46. All of the following are methods used to
D. cut to one-fourth of the original time obtain the most geometrically accurate im-
age EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?
41. Who is the head of radiology department
in Hospital Sungai Buloh? A. The film should be parallel to the ob-
ject.
A. Dr Zulkifli Zaki Bin Abdul Ghani
B. The target-to-fllm distance should be
B. Datuk Dr Noor Hisham Bin Abdullah long.
C. Dr Yun Sii Ing C. The object-to-fllm distance should be
D. Dr Rofiah Binti Ali short.
D. The central ray should be parallel to
42. The truth about epigenetics is
the object
A. changes are irreversible
E. The central ray should be perpendicu-
B. the study of how habits and environ- lar to the film.
ment can cause changes in the way genes
work. 47. State the vertical angulation used for the
maxillary lateral occlusal projection.
C. change the DNA sequence
A. +65
D. does not change the “on” and “off’ sys-
tems in the GEN What is true about epige- B. -30
netics is C. +60
43. which of the following is a main disadvan- D. +55
tage of using digital imaging in dentistry?
48. x-ray exposure time should be increased
A. the speed of viewing images if the patient is
B. the sensor size and thickness A. a large adult
C. the amount of radiation that a patient B. very old
is exposed to
C. very young
D. the gray-scale resolution
D. edentulous
44. A free radical: 49. Which of the following is used to reduce
A. is an uncharged molecule the size and shape of the x-ray beam:
B. is reactive and unstable A. fast film

1.7 radiology 61
B. film-holding device 55. Occlusal radiographs are useful for all of

C. lead diaphragm the following EXCEPT one. Which is the-
exception?

D. aluminum filtration
A. For images of the TMJ
50. which of the following will appear the B. When the patient has trismus
most radiopaque on a dental radiograph?
C. When floor of the mouth sialoliths are
A. composite restorations present
B. gutta percha D. For displaying large segments of the
C. amalgam restorations mandibular arch
D. porcelain crowns E. When there is buccal-lingual expan-
sion of the mandible
51. When the receptor Is not placed perpendic-
ular to the occlusal plane, the occlusal will 56. What transducer will you use for echocar-
appear slanted or diagonal on the recorded diography?
image. This is an example of A. sector
A. tilted occlusal plane B. linear
B. bending C. Konweksowa
C. backward placement D. None of the above
D. film receptor creasing
57. What are cell biomarkers?
52. What device acts as the source and the de-
A. Qualitative and quantitative data ex-
tector of ultrasound waves
traction with machine learning technology
A. A Transducer in determining clinical decisions
B. A Solenoid B. Integration of knowledge from clini-
C. A Megaphone cal imaging characteristics with molecular
characteristics in supporting clinical deci-
D. Computerized Tomograph sion making
53. The diameter of the useful beam at the end C. A technique for stratifying the degree
of the PID should not exceed: of malignancy from the ability to adapt to
A. 1.5 inches exposure to microenvironment from the
molecular characteristics of cells
B. 2.0 inches
D. Characteristics of cells that become an
C. 2.75 inches objective assessment in determining the
D. 3.5 inches response of cells to medical interventions
54. Exposure to infectious materials that re- 58. Which of the following means the sharp in-
sult from piercing or puncturing the skin: terface between tissues and organs
A. Disinfect A. Detail
B. Antiseptic B. Contrast
C. Parenteral Exposure C. Density
D. Infectious Waste D. Distortion

1.7 radiology 62
59. Which of the following means foreshorten- D. dispose of saliva-contaminated film

ing on a radiograph packets carefully
A. Detail E. cover control unit tube head with plas-
tic barrier
B. Contrast
C. Density 64. which statement best described the ef-
fects of long-term low-dose radiation ex-
D. Distortion
posure?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
60. What is the image of bones in computed A. the effect of long-term low-dose radi-
tomography? ation exposure can cause changes at the
A. Hypodense cellular level in the human body that would
not be observed for many years
B. isodense
B. the effect of long-term low-dose radi-
C. hyperintense ation exposure can cause changes at the
D. Hiperdensyjny cellular level in the human body that would
be observed within 2 years
61. The traditional unit for measuring x-ray C. the effect of long-term low-dose radia-
exposure in air is termed: tion exposure will cause cancer
A. the rad. D. the effect of long-term low-dose radia-
B. the rem. tion exposure will cause genetic defects
for both men and women in their child-
C. the gray.
bearing years
D. the roentgen
65. Our insured, Dawson was riding his bike
E. coulombs per kilogram. when he was struck by a vehicle which
62. During panoramic positioning of the pa- ran a stop sign. Dawson immediately com-
tient, if the patient’s chin is positioned too plained of shoulder pain and was rushed
low, the following will be seen on the pro- to the ER where he was diagnosed with
cessed radiograph a rotator cuff tear. Which diagnostic test
was likely performed on his shoulder?
A. the absence of the patients condyles in
A. CT Scan
the correct anatomical position
B. MRI
B. open contact on the posterior teeth
C. X-ray
C. detail in the anterior apical regions
D. Discogram
D. a smile line curved downward
66. which of the following is an accurate de-
63. the reduce cross contamination during ra- scription of ionization?
diographs, the CDC and ADA recommend
A. the process of connecting stable
that the operator do all of the following
atoms into ions
expect
B. the creation of stable atoms due to ra-
A. take complete medical histories
diation striking the nucleus of an ion
B. wear gloves C. the process of particulate radiation
C. use sterilizable or disposable film hold- striking a cell and destroying the DNA of
ers that cell

1.7 radiology 63
D. the pairing of electrons and protons to A. filament cup

create ions
B. tungsten target of the anode

67. Which of the following reduces the number C. tungsten target of the cathode
of low energy x-rays (longwavelengths)
in the beam: D. none of the above
A. collimation
72. Which of the following would show as Ra-
B. aluminum filtration diopaque
C. milliamperage
A. Air
D. kilovoltage
B. Fat
68. It is acceptable for the operator to hold the
fllm in a patient’s mouth if: C. Bone
A. the patient is a child. D. Soft Tissue

B. the patient has a handicap.
73. If an unwrapped, nonprocessed X-ray film
C. no film holder is available is exposed to normal light for one second
D. the patient or parent grants permis- and then processed, it:
sion
A. will be completely clear.
E. It is never acceptable for the operator
to hold the film during exposure. B. will be completely black.
C. may still be used but will have a brown
69. ukuran manual processing kamar gelap
tint.
A. memanjang 2 x 1.5 x 2.8 m2
D. may still be used but will show a de-
B. square 7 m2 crease in density.
C. memanjang 7 x 2 x 8 m2
E. may still be used but will show an in-
D. square 2.8 m2 crease in density.
70. State the vertical angulations used for
the maxillary and mandibular pediatric oc- 74. . The “inverted Y” represents the inter-
clusal projections. section of the nasal cavity and the:
A. maxillary =-55 degrees; mandibular A. canine fossa
= +55 degrees B. maxillary sinus
B. maxillary = +45 degrees; mandibular
=-50 degrees C. zygomatic process
C. maxillary = +40 degrees; mandibular D. zygoma

=-35 degrees
75. What does ALARA stand for?
D. maxillary = +60 degrees; mandibular
=-55 degrees A. As Low As Requirement Allowed
71. X-rays are generated when a stream of B. As Long As Reasonably Allowed
electrons traveling from one side of an x-
C. As Low as Required Annually
ray tube is suddenly stopped by its impact
on the: D. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

1.7 radiology 64
76. mAs:the number of x-ray photons pro- 81. if a dental X-ray tube head has a faulty
duced by the X-ray tube at the setting se- seal the following will result
lected (quantity of x-rays) A. the x-ray unit will not turn on
A. how long the exposure lasts B. the electrical system of the dental ra-
B. distant:how far the radiation travels diography unit will sound an alarm
C. leakage of radiation
C. decrease:usage of lower voltage
D. the x-ray unit will not emit radia-
D. increase:average photon energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion/energy to successfully expose a film
77. the patient is injected with a specific ra- 82. After manual processing a radiograph, you
dioactive nuclear tracer which will collect notice light, whiter spots on the film.This
in the organ of interest. After some time error is due to contamination with:
the images are taken by
A. fixer solution
A. MRI scan B. water
B. CT Scan C. developer solution
C. Gamma Camera D. a orb
D. X-Ray 83. Increasing the rnA will cause:
78. How is the patient’s head positioned be- A. an increase in density; the film ap-
fore exposing a maxillary occlusal recep- pears darker
tor? B. an increase in density; the film ap-
pears lighter
A. Mandibular parallel to the floor
C. a decrease in density; the film appears
B. Maxilla parallel to the floor darker
C. Posterior Parallel to the floor D. a decrease in density; the film appears
D. None of the above lighter
84. This invasive diagnostic test is used to
79. big kcp stationary unit
locate precisely which discs are damaged
A. 150 kvp 30 ma and are causing back or neck pain. It uses
x-rays to examine the intervertebral discs
B. 90-100 kvp 30 ma
of your spine.
C. 150 kvp 2000 ma A. MRI
D. 90-100 kvp 30 ma B. CT Scan
80. when mounting processed radiographs, C. NCS

which anatomical landmark can assist you D. Discogram
in mounting the molar bitewing?
85. Absence of pathogens
A. the external oblique
A. Antiseptic
B. the mandibular canal B. Pathogen
C. the mental foramen C. Asepsis
D. the maxillary sinus D. Disinfect

1.7 radiology 65
86. before exposing a panoramic radiograph D. the long axis of the tooth divides it into
on a patient, the operator should request equal sections, one section contains only
the removal of all of the following EXCEPT the crown of the tooth, and the other sec-

A. removable bridgework/dentures tion contains only the root pf the tooth
B. eyeglasses 90. Use of chemical or physical procedure to

C. earring destroy all pathogens, except spores:
D. a watch A. Asepsis
B. Disinfect
87. What is radiogenomics?
C. Sterilize
A. Qualitative and quantitative data ex-
traction with machine learning technology D. Antiseptic
in determining clinical decisions
91. What does the term occlusal refer to?
B. Integration of knowledge from imag-
A. The Buccal surfaces of posterior teeth
ing characteristics with molecular char-
acteristics in supporting clinical decision B. The chewing surfaces of posterior
making teeth
C. A technique for stratifying the degree C. The incisal surface of anterior teeth
of malignancy from the ability to adapt to D. The Labial surface of anterior teeth
exposure to microenvironment from the
molecular characteristics of cells 92. In manual film processing, the optimal time
D. Characteristics of cells that become an and temperature for the developer solutio-
objective assessment in determining the nIS:
response of cells to medical interventions A. 3 minutes at 5 5◦ F
88. Which of the following exposure variables B. 5 minutes at 55◦ F
means the quantity of electrons over time C. 5 minutes at 68◦ F
(mA x exposure time)
D. 10 minutes at 68◦ F
A. mA
B. mAs 93. Image magnification results from de-
creased:
C. KV
A. target size
D. KVP
B. target-to-film distance
89. when describing the long axis of a tooth C. object-to-film distance
when referring to the paralleling tech-
nique, which of the following statements D. none of the above
is TRUE?
94. The term epigenetics was first coined by?
A. the long axis of the tooth divides it into
A. Albrecht Kossel
equal halves
B. Melanie Ehrlich
B. the long axis of the oath divides it into
equal thirds C. Andy Feinberg
C. the long axis can be seen on each tooth D. Conrad Waddington

1.7 radiology 66
95. Highlights tumors that are ACTIVELY B. the type of contrast preferred for the
growing. diagnosis of interproximal caries
A. MRI C. also known as low contrast, seeing
B. X-Ray many shades of gray
D. produced with low kVp settings
C. CT
D. PET 100. The correct statement about Radiology
is:
E. Ultrasonography
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Radiology is a branch of medicine that
96. Which of the following would likely NOT is used only for diagnostic purposes
be necessary in the case of an accidental
B. Wilheim Conrad Roentgen in 1895 in
radiation exposure?
Germany discovered “a new kind of light”
A. evaluate the building called α rays
B. turn the power to the system off imme- C. Radiology is a branch of medicine that
diately uses ionizing or non-ionizing rays
C. advise exposed individuals to obtain D. Radiology is a branch of medicine that
medical care if needed only uses X-rays as its medium
D. report the exposure to the Radiation E. The X-rays used do not cause biologi-
Protection Office (RPO) cal effects from the radiation generated
97. teeth are the smallest teeth of the per- 101. Produces images of structures in the body
manent dentition and the most symmetric. especially bones using high energy electro-
magnetic waves.
A. Mandibular Lateral Incisors
A. MRI
B. Mandibular Canine
B. X-rays
C. Mandibular Central Incisors
C. Discogram
D. Maxillary Lateral Incisors
D. CT Scan
E. None of the above
102. the optimum storage temperature of den-
98. Uses powerful magnets, radio waves, tal film is:
and a computer to produce three dimen-
sional images of the brain, spinal cord and A. 50 to 70 F
nerves, as well as muscles, ligaments and B. 20 to 40 F
tendons. C. 30 to 60 F
A. Discogram D. 80 to 90 F
B. MRI
103. which of the following is the device the
C. CT Scan restricts the size and shape of the x-ray
D. X-rays beam?
A. film badge
99. Choose the answer that best describes
long scale contrast: B. barrier
A. also known as high contrast, seeing C. filter
many blacks and whites D. collimator

1.7 radiology 67
104. If after development, a radiograph is too 109. a parent refused to have radiographs
light, it may be an indication that: taken on his/her child. The dental assis-
tant should

A. the exposure time was too long.
B. the fixer solution needs changing. A. explain that the radiographs are nec-
essary for insurance reimbursement
C. the developer solution was too hot.
B. exposure the necessary radiographs
D. the film was not sufficiently washed without the parents knowledge
E. the developer solution needs chang-
C. inform the dentist and document par-
ing.
ent’s refusal
105. standard film storage temperature D. refer the parent to another dentist
A. 50-70 Celsius
110. What is used in the contrast medium used
B. 10-21 Celsius in MRI?
C. 10-21 F A. Gadolinium
D. 30-70 F
B. Gallium
106. a reversed smile line observed on a C. Germanium
panoramic image is likely due to
D. Iodine
A. the patient’s spine is not straight
B. position of the patients chin is too low 111. A bite-wing radiograph is exposed prop-
erly using a time of 1.0 second and a PID
C. the patient’s lips were not closed dur- of 8 inches. What time would be needed
ing imaging if the PID was changed to 16 inches:
D. position of the patients chin is too high
A. Y2 second
107. The uses of dental images include the de- B. second
tection of:
C. 2 seconds
A. incipient occlusal lesions
D. 4 seconds
B. periodontal probing depths
C. bone loss in its early stages 112. which of the following choice is TRUE re-
garding chronic radiation exposure?
D. percussion sensitvity as part of the en-
dodontic evaluation A. exposure to radiation from a nuclear
power plant leak is an example of chronic
108. Radiographs of the pregnant patient: radiation exposure
A. a. cause fetal injury. B. chronic radiation exposure will not be
B. b. should never be made passed on the future generations
C. . c. should be made when there is a C. this type of exposure can be easily
specific need. linked to the source
D. d. should only be made with certain D. this type of radiation exposure is a risk
precautions such as placing triple leaded to dental staff that process dental radio-
aprons on the mother’s lap. graphs

1.7 radiology 68
113. The erupt 6 months to 1 year be- 117. The incorrect statement about the proper-
fore the corresponding permanent maxil- ties of X Rays and Gamma Rays, is:
lary molars erupt. The crown of a includes
A. Has penetrating power because it has
four or five major cusps, of which two lin-
a very long wavelength
gual cusps are always of about the same
width. All these teeth are wider mesiodis- B. Experiencing attenuation (weakening)
tally than buccolingually. Each mandibular when touching the material
molar has two well-developed roots:one
mesial and one distal. As was mentioned C. Has a scatter (scatter rays)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
earlier, a tooth with two roots is bifur- D. Has a fluorescent effect
cated, which means divided into two. Each
root has its own root canal. E. Has a phosphorescence effect
A. Mandibular Canines
118. What is not a challenge in radiogenomics
B. Mandibular Premolar studies?
C. Mandibular Molar A. Relatively small sample in radio-
D. Wisdom Teeth genomics research
114. It is generally desirable that X-ray films B. Differences in facilities and protocols
be all of the following except: between institutions cause study bias
A. high speed. C. There is no equipment to perform
B. fine grain size whole genome sequencing that ensures
accuracy in examining samples
C. sensitive to visible light
D. There are many confounding factors in
D. coated with emulsion on both sides.
performing radiogenomics sequencing
115. Instruments used to penetrate soft tissue
or bone: 119. Use of a chemical or physical procedure
A. Critical Instruments to destroy all pathogens, including spores
is:
B. Semi-Critical Instruments
A. Asepsis
C. Non-Critical Intruments
D. Asepsis B. Infection Control
C. Sterilize
116. what is the most likely reason for a
dental radiographer to receive a reading D. Antiseptic
on their personal radiation monitoring de-
vice? 120. What size receptor is recommended for
A. failure of the dental radiographer in use with the occlusal technique in the pedi-
following the rules of working with radia- atric patient with primary dentition?
tion, to include not wearing the badge out- A. Size 5
side of the clinic/practice
B. expired film B. Size 0
C. uncooperative patients C. Size 2

D. faulty radiation-monitoring device D. Size 4

1.7 radiology 69
121. If a dental hygienist received a dose of major cusps, with two cusps on the buc-
3 rads standing 6 feet from the source of cal portion of the occlusal table and two
radiation, how much radiation would they on the lingual portion. Each maxillary

receive during the same exposurestanding molar has three well-separated and well-
3 feet away: developed roots. A tooth with three roots
A. I rad is said to be trifurcated, which means di-
vided into thirds.
B. 3 rads
A. Maxillary Central Incisor
C. 9 rads
B. Maxillary Premolar
D. 12 rads
C. Maxillary Canine
122. The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influ- D. Maxillary Molar
ences radiographic (choose the two correct
answers): 126. Causes of epigenetics changes except?
A. density. A. Mutation
B. contrast. B. Age
C. resolution. C. Environment
D. magnification. D. Nutrition
123. The lead foil sheet in a film packet acts 127. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered x-
to: rays in
A. protect the film from saliva. A. 1859
B. protect the film from scatter radiation. B. 1857
C. protect the film from primary radia- C. 1995
tion.
D. 1895
D. distinguish between the patient’s right
and left sides. 128. New with COVID, what PPE must be
worn while exposing the dental patient to
124. Rectangular collimation is recommended x-radiation?
because it:
A. mask, level 3 or n95
A. a. increases film density.
B. eye protection
B. b. increases film contrast.
C. face sheild
C. c. decreases patient dose
D. all of the answers are correct
D. . deflects scatter radiation.
129. Which of the following exposure vari-
125. The assist the mandibular molars in
ables means the Speed of the electrons, in-
performing the major portion of the work
creased by changing charge difference
of mastication. These are usually the first
permanent teeth to erupt into the maxil- A. mA
lary arch. Because of their size and their B. mAs
“anchorage” in the jaws, the molars are
the largest and strongest maxillary teeth. C. KV
Each maxillary molar usually includes four D. KVP

1.7 radiology 70
130. due to the teeth and surrounding 135. Which imaging method gives the best
structures results from underangulation of temporal resolution?
the x-ray beam A. RTG
A. beam centering errors B. USG
B. horizontal alignment errors C. MRI
C. foreshortening D. TK
D. elongation 136. Below is how epigenetics works, ex-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cept?
131. the dentist who is credited with the first
practical use of radiographs in dentistry in A. DNA Methylation
1896 is: B. Histone Methylation
A. wilhelm conrad roentgen C. Histone Modification
B. gv black D. Non Coding RNA
C. edmund kells 137. Which of the following most greatly re-
D. john greenwood duces patient dose to radiation?
E. v black A. film speed
B. good operator technique
132. Increasing the time and rnA settings on
the exposure panel will: C. proper filtration
D. use of the lead apron
A. increase the quality of radiation pro-
duced 138. Which of the following means the dis-
B. increase the quantity of radiation pro- tance from the anode target to the film
duced A. SID
C. decrease the quality of radiation pro- B. DAF
duced C. ATF
D. decrease the quantity of radiation pro- D. none of above
duced
139. Excessive vertical angulation causes:
133. Is ultrasound safe to use? A. elongation.
A. YES B. overlapping
B. NO C. cone-cutting.
C. MAYBE D. foreshortening.
D. none of above 140. As previously discussed, the is the
134. Uses a very strong magnetic field most accurate intraoral radiographic tech-
nique, meeting four of the five principles
A. MRI of accurate image projection
B. X-Ray A. periapical
C. CT B. bitewing technique
D. PET C. bisecting angle technique
E. Ultrasonography D. paralleling technique

1.7 radiology 71
141. Which one of the following factors would 146. incorrect horizontal angulation of the pri-
result in a dark radiograph? mary beam produces

A. The exposure time was too long. A. shortening of the image of the tooth
B. The developing solution was too cold. B. overlapping of proximal surfaces
C. The developing time was not long C. lengthening of the image of the tooth
enough. D. overlapping of proximal surfaces
D. The films used were beyond the expi-
147. Instruments that contacts but does not
ration date.
penetrate soft tissue or bone is:
142. Which of the following reduces operator A. Critical Instruments
exposure to excess radiation:
B. Semi-Critical Instruments
A. fast film C. Non-Critical Instruments
B. distance D. Infectious Waste
C. film-holding devices
148. The length of the position-indicating de-
D. proper filtration vice is changed from 16 inches to 8 inches.
Thischange will result in the intensity of
143. Which anatomical Landmarks are going to the X-ray beam to be:
be seen in the Maxillary Posterior Images
A. half as intense.
A. Maxillary Sinus
B. twice as intense.
B. Coronoid Process
C. four times as intense.
C. Zygomatic Process & Zygomatic Bone
D. one-fourth as intense.
D. Maxillary Tuberosity
149. What is the order of the stages of the
E. Hamulus
process that is passed in radiogenomics?
144. A radiograph was exposed using too A. Acquisition-Selection-Association-
much vertical angulation. The resultantim- Analysis-Endpoint
age will be: B. Analysis-Acquisition-Association-
A. foreshortened Selection-Endpoint
B. elongated C. Selection-Acquisition-Analysis-
Association-Endpoint
C. overlapped
D. Association-Acquisition-Selection-
D. very dark Analysis-Endpoint
145. The radiosensitivity of cells is dependent 150. Identify the most radiation-sensitive por-
on: tion of the cell:
A. mitotic activity. A. cell membrane
B. cell metabolism. B. cytoplasm
C. degree of cell differentiation. C. nucleus
D. All of the above answers are correct D. organelles

1.7 radiology 72
151. identify the density and contrast of an im- C. a plastic base coated with silver halide
age receptor produced using a high kilovolt crystals suspended in gelatin.
or kV setting D. silver halide crystals suspended in
A. decreased density, high contrast plastic and coated on a gelatin base.
B. decreased density, low contrast 156. The term ALARA stands for:
C. increased density, high contrast A. optimizing image quality.
D. increased density, low contrast B. an algorithm for limiting patient expo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. underexposed receptors result in images sure.
that are C. reducing the costs of radiographic ex-
A. too light or low density aminations.
B. too dark or high in density D. reducing patient exposure to as low as

is reasonably achievable.
C. too dark or low in density
E. a legal requirement to optimize occu-
D. too light or high in density pational exposure in dental radiology.
153. The primary function of the developer is 157. Which of the following is NOT a type of
to: medical imaging?
A. remove exposed silver halide crystals. A. BMI
B. remove unexposed silver halide crys- B. MRI
tals
C. CAT Scan
C. reduce solid silver grains to specks of
D. Ultrasound
silver halide.
D. reduce crystals of silver halide to solid 158. Metal showing up as bright on the xray
silver grains. will be called
A. Radiopaque
154. the difference between acute radiation
exposure and chronic radiation exposure B. Radiolucent
is C. Over exposed
A. the amount of radiation received and D. under exposed
the time frame in which it is absorbed
B. the type of shattered radiation re- 159. Which one includes the axiale skeleton?
ceived A. The upper extremities, the lower ex-
C. the type of radiation received tremities, the vertebral column, the hips
D. the type of wavelengths creating the B. upper limbs, skull, sternum, collar-
exposure bones
C. hips, shoulders, collarbones, ribs
155. X-ray film is composed of:
D. ribs, vertebrae, sternum, sacrum
A. fluorescent particles that react to X-
radiation. 160. Which of the following errors would con-
B. sodium thiosulphate crystals sus- tribute to a light film:
pended within a plastic base. A. film was exposed to light

1.7 radiology 73
B. film was exposed backwards 166. Increasing killivoltage peak (kVp) will
C. film was contaminated with developer cause:

D. all of the above A. a decrease in density; the film appears
darker.
161. anything that occupies space and has a
form or shape is: B. a decrease in density; the film appears
lighter.
A. energy
B. solid C. an increase in density; the film ap-
pears darker.
C. matter
D. an increase in density; the film ap-
D. photon
pears lighter.
162. Your patient’s mandibular first molar has E. None of the above is correct, as kVp
been treated by the endodontist. Thepulp affects contrast.
canal is filled with a slightly radiopaque
material. Identify this restorativemate- 167. The latent period in radiation biology is
rial: the time between:
A. silver points
A. exposure and cell mitosis.
B. gutta percha
B. subsequent doses of radiation.
C. composite
D. silicates C. exposure of film and development.
D. exposure to X-radiation and clinical
163. the maximum permissible dose of radia-
symptoms.
tion of exposure allowed to a dental aux-
iliary in a 13-week consecutive period is E. None of the above answers is correct.
A. 3 roentgens
168. Exposure to infectious materials resulting
B. 100 mrem from procedures performed by the dental
C. 5 rem professional
D. 6 rad A. Semi-Critical Instrument
164. Which of the following means the degree B. Critical Instrument
of blackness on a radiograph
C. Infectious Waste
A. Detail
D. Occupational Exposure
B. Contrast
C. Density 169. Identify the cause of white spots on a
D. Distortion processed radiograph.
165. This is the positive charge area that A. Processing solutions are too warm.
catches electrons and creates an x-ray. B. Fixer contacts film prior to processing.
A. cathode
C. Developer contacts film prior to pro-
B. anode cessing.
C. glass envelope D. Static electricity created with opening
D. lead housing of film packet.

1.7 radiology 74
170. Instrument that does not contact mucous 175. Choose the two items that influence the
membranes is: mean energy of an X-ray beam.
A. Critical Instrument A. Kilovoltage
B. Semi-Critical Instrument B. Milliamperage
C. Non-Critical Instrument C. Amount of filtration
D. Disinfect D. Rectangular collimation
E. Quantity of electrons in the tube cur-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. The generation ofx-radiation occurs: rent
A. in the copper stem
176. the x ray machine was discovered on
B. in the focusing cup november 8, 1895 by:
C. at the tungsten target A. John greenwood
D. at the cathode B. wilhelm conrad roentgen
172. False statements regarding the basic im- C. edmund kells
age of radiography are: D. gv black
A. Radiolucent, eg bone E. v black
B. Hyperradiolucent, eg free air 177. Which of the following is included in the
C. Intermediate, for example soft tissue, superior extremity?
heart, liver A. Zygomatic bone
D. Hyperradiopaque, for example metal B. Glenohumeral joint
density
C. Hip joint
E. Radiopaque, for example calcium den-
sity D. Ship your mouth
178. Parker was involved in a side-swipe ac-

173. All of the following are types of electro-
cident in which his driver side door was
magnetic radiation EXCEPT one. Which is
severely impacted. He was taken to the
theexception?
ER to determine if he sustained any inter-
A. X-rays nal injuries. Which diagnostic test was
B. Electrons likely performed on Parker?
C. Radar waves A. X-ray
D. Microwaves B. CT Scan
C. Discogram
174. Increasing the distance from the x-ray
D. MRI
source gives increased protection because
x-radiation: 179. If a Mr. Bob has a new growth in his
A. weakens easily body over the leg, attending surgeon is
suspecting a soft tissue tumor. What is
B. is absorbed by air
appropriate imaging modality should be re-
C. loses speed with distance quested for Mr. Bob
D. loses intensity with distance A. CT

1.7 radiology 75
B. MRI 185. A microorganism capable of causing dis-

C. Ultrasound ease is:

D. none of above A. Pathogen
180. all of the following statements regarding B. Parenteral exposure

the somatic effect of radiation are TRUE, C. Asepsis
EXCEPT
D. none of above
A. x-rays can damage somatic tissues
B. damage caused radiation from so- 186. How many vertebral bodies are there in
matic effects is passed on to future gen- the lumbar region?
erations A. 4
C. one possible somatic effect of radia- B. 12
tion is cancer
C. 7
D. x-rays affect somatic cells
D. 5
181. Refers to energy that travels through
space. 187. for intraoral x-rays, what film speed is
A. radiation the fastest and reduces the amount of pa-
B. ionizing radiation tient exposure to radiation
C. radioactivity A. D-speed
D. roentgen B. F-speed
182. Which of the following scans does not use C. A-speed

radiation? D. H-speed
A. MRI
188. A long cone is used in the paralleling or
B. CT scan
right-angle radiographic technique to:
C. PET scan
A. reduce secondary radiation.
D. X-ray
B. avoid distortion of image shape.
183. In what year was the term epigenetics
C. reduce magnification of the image
coined?
A. 1895 D. avoid superimposition of anatomic
structures.
B. 1942
E. facilitate correct vertical angulation of
C. 1961
the cone.
D. 1982
189. Which of the following means the number
184. From the following, choose the cell that
of shades of gray on the radiograph
is most sensitive to radiation:
A. bone marrow A. Detail
B. heart tissue B. Contrast

C. lung tissue C. Density
D. skeletal muscle D. Distortion

1.7 radiology 76
190. A variation in the true size and shape of 195. Small, focused doses of high energy radi-
the object being radiographed is termed: ation passes through the subject, casting a
“shadow” on the machine’s sensors
A. sharpness.
A. MRI
B. distortion.
B. X-Ray
C. resolution.
C. CT
D. magnification.
D. PET
NARAYAN CHANGDER
191. Requires the subject to drink radioac- E. Ultrasonography
tive sugars that get absorbed into tissues
which give off radiation to the sensors. 196. Dental professionals should always ex-
A. MRI plain the radiographic procedure to the pa-
tient and provide instructions as to what
B. X-Ray the patient can do to help ensure a quality
C. CT image, avoid retakes, and reduce radiation
exposure. the most common error in this
D. PET category is movement. Factors causing a
E. Ultrasonography patient to move include:
A. discomfort
192. Dental radiographic machines using set-
tings of 70 kVp or greater are required B. patient disability
tooperate with a minimum of: C. all of the above
A. 1.0 mm aluminum filtration D. gagging and/or swallowing
B. 1.5 mm aluminum filtration E. unsupported head position
C. 2.0 mm aluminum filtration
197. This diagnostic test may be ordered
D. 2.5 mm aluminum filtration if a patient complains of tingling,
numbness, muscle weakness or muscle
193. State the vertical angulation used for the pain/cramping.
maxillary topo-graphic occlusal projection.
A. MRI
A. +65 degrees
B. EMG
B. -65 degrees
C. CT Scan
C. +75 degrees
D. NCS
D. +45 degrees
198. which of the following is a true state-
194. All of the following are indirect effects of ment regarding the use of lead aprons and
radiation except: thyroid collars?
A. direct alteration of molecules A. the thyroid collar is optional for older
adults past childbearing years
B. production of free radicals
B. lead aprons should be cleaned thor-
C. ionization
oughly and folded in thirds between pa-
D. radio lysis of water tients use

1.7 radiology 77
C. the use of lead aprons and thyroid col- B. decrease the effects of radiation
lars will prevent cancer from developing
C. to protect the film
in the thyroid gland

D. the apron should cover from the neck D. decrease the exposure time
to just about the patients knees
204. When taking extraoral radiographs, dou-
199. Identify the true statement concerning ble intensifying screens and screen films
hand hygiene:Hands must be washed: are usedto reduce:
A. before and after gloving A. density.
B. before and after each patient
B. contrast.
C. after touching contaminated surfaces
C. exposure time.
D. all of the answers are correct
D. secondary radiation.
200. tomography can be best described as
E. target-to-skin distance.
A. a second name for the production of
periapical images
205. Which of the following exposure vari-
B. the production of a blurred image ables means the number of electrons or the
C. the production of a clear, crisp image amount of radiation used
D. the process of imaging a desired struc- A. mA
ture while blurring of other areas
B. mAs
201. State the vertical angulation used for the
mandibular cross-sectional occlusal projec- C. KV
tion. D. KVP
A. +90 degrees
206. which of the following statements is true
B. -90 degrees
concerning the structure of the atom>
C. 90 degrees
A. the nucleus protons and electrons
D. 95 degrees
B. electrons have no weight or mass
202. teeth are efficient as grinding teeth,
and they function similarly to molars and C. the orbtital path of an electron around
are succedaneous and replace the primary the nucleus is called an electron shell
first and second molars D. electrons are unstable in their orbits
A. Primary Premolars and shift freely
B. Primary Molars
207. Radiographs left in fresh fixer solution
C. Permanent Precanine
for a long period of time:
D. Permanent Premolar
A. become discolored
E. None of the above
B. decrease in density
203. why do extraoral cassettes contain an in-
tensifying screen? C. increase in density
A. filter out soft rays D. display streaked images

1.8 nephrology 78
208. You are unsure of the location of an C. high

opaque mass superimposed over the root D. immediate
of a mandibular premolar. A second view
of the same region, made with the tube- 212. Identify the false statement concerning
head oriented more from the mesial, re- gloves:
veals that the object has moved mesially
A. Gloves must be worn be all dental pro-
with respect to the premolar root as com-
fessionals
pared to the first radiograph. The object
is located: B. Gloves must be washed before use.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. buccal to the premolar root. C. Gloves must be worn for each patient.
B. lingual to the premolar root D. Gloves must be sterile for surgical pro-
C. in the same buccal-lingual orientation cedures.
as the premolar root.
213. Which is not an advantage of Ultrasound
D. There is insufficient information to an- examination
swer the question.
A. -must have a trained operator to be ef-
209. Silvia has been treating with a chiro- fective
practor for 4 weeks and is not show- B. -non ionising
ing any great improvement in her range
of motion and her pain levels remain the C. -no/or little discomfort whilst proce-
same. Would an MRI be appropriate at dure is taking place
this time? D. -equipment is relatively cheap
A. Yes
214. You notice a horizontal, radiopacity su-
B. No perior to the maxillary teeth on yourpa-
C. Unsure tient’s panoramic radiograph. This ra-
diopaque structure is the:
D. none of above
A. tongue
210. What is the IDOR theme for 2019?
B. palatoglossal air space
A. Oncology imaging
C. hard palate
B. Sport Imaging
D. coronoid process
C. Cardiac imaging
D. Neuro imaging 215. is used to light up the vessels or joint
cavities for CTs and MRIs
211. if the kilovolt peak (kVp) setting is low-
A. Radioactive substance
ered, a longer exposure time will be neces-
sary to produce an image with contrast B. Radiotracer
A. minimal C. IV Contrast medium
B. low D. Barium
1.8 nephrology

1.8 nephrology 79
1. A 40-year-old woman was brought to the temperature 382C and respiratory rate 32
ER because she suddenly fainted 20 min- x/minute. On laboratory examination of
utes ago. From the results of the physical blood glucose when obtained 450 mg/dL,

examination, hyperpigmented skin, grow- leukocytosis. What is the most appropri-
ing mustache, and thin body were found. ate anti-diabetic drug given?
TD 80/60 mmhg, HR 100x/minute RR A. Sulfonylureas
20x/minute Tax 37C. From the results of
laboratory tests obtained GDS 40 mg/dl, B. Biguanid
hyponatremia, and hypocortisol. There C. Acarbose
was no history of trauma, or previous drug
D. Thiazolidinedione
use. What is the patient’s current likely di-
agnosis? E. Insulin
A. Cushing syndrome 4. A 40 year old man came with complaints
B. Cushing disease of getting fatter since 1 month. From the
C. Secondary adrenal insufficiency physical examination, there was a moon
face, buffalo hump and strie in the stom-
D. Addison disease ach. TTV results obtained BP 160/90
E. Crisis gateway mmHg, HR 90x/minute, RR 20x/minute.
History of steroid consumption was de-
2. A 20-year-old man came to the doctor nied. From the results of the dexametha-
with complaints of swelling in both legs sone 8 mg suppression test, ACTH and cor-
since 3 days ago and cloudy urine. From tisol suppression were found. What inves-
the results of physical examination found tigations should be carried out to find out
peritibial edema. TTV within normal lim- the etiology of the case above?
its. From the UL results found proteinuria
(++++) and oval fat bodies (+). Lab re- A. CT scan abdomen
sults found LDL levels of 230 mg/dl and B. Head MRI
TG 450 mg/dl. What is the most appro-
C. Check CEA biomarkers
priate patient management?
D. Check up TSH
A. Penicillin
E. Check blood sugar profile
B. Prednisone
C. Methotrexate 5. A 35 year old woman came to the doc-
D. Cyclophosphamide tor with complaints of palpitations since
1 week ago. The weight seems to drop
E. ACE inhibitor dramatically even though you eat a lot.
3. A 50 year old man was brought by his fam- From the results of the physical exam-
ily to the hospital emergency room with ination TTV BP 120/80 mmHg, pulse
complaints of unconsciousness. Previously 120x/minute, RR 20x/minute afebrile
the patient complained of fever and cough temperature. There is a diffuse lump in
with green phlegm. From the results of the neck that moves with swallowing. The
PF, fine wet crackles in both lung fields. lump is painful. From the results of the DL
His previous medical history was type 2 examination, it was found that leukocyto-
DM and he did not take regular medica- sis with dominant lymphocytes. What is
tion. On TTV examination, blood pressure the patient’s current likely diagnosis?
was 80/60 mmHg, pulse 110 x/minute, A. Graves disease

1.8 nephrology 80
B. Chiro Ijichi s Hashimoto D. GNAPS

C. Suppurative acute thyroiditis E. Pyelonephritis
D. de quervain’s thyroiditis 8. A 30 year old woman came to the hospital
E. Endemic goiter with palpitations and tremors. The patient
also had complaints of weight loss. Com-
6. A 27 year old woman, G1POAO, 20 plaints occurred since 1 month ago. Then
weeks pregnant was brought to the hospi- the doctor ordered the patient to operate.
tal with complaints of fever since 1 week After the operation, the patient experi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ago. Complaints accompanied by palpita- enced complaints of stiffness in his body.
tions and often restless. On physical ex- When examined, the possible laboratory
amination found blood pressure 140/80 results obtained at this time were
mmHg, pulse 140 x/minute, temperature
A. Hyperphosphatemia, hypercalcemia,
39◦ C. On physical examination of the neck,
hypermagnesemia
a palpable thyroid was found to be the size
of a thumb, fine tremors were also found B. Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, hy-
in the palms. The doctor gives methima- permagnesemia
zole to the patient, the mechanism of the C. Hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia,
drug is? hypomagnesemia
A. Inhibits iodine trapping/uptake by thy- D. Hypermagnesemia, hyperphos-
roid cells phatemia, hypocalcemia
B. Inhibits synthesis of T3 and T4 hor- E. Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, hy-
mones pomagnesemia
C. Inhibits the secretion of T3 and T4 hor- 9. A man came to the doctor to control
mones by thyroid gland cells DM which he had suffered for 10 years.
D. Reduces the vascularity of the thyroid From the results of laboratory examina-
gland tions, it was found that GDP was 150
mg/dl GD2PP 210 mg/dl. The patient
E. Inhibits the secretion of the hormone
has been taking metformin 3x500 mg.
TSH
from the TTV examination results found
7. A 9-year-old female patient brought by BP 160/90 mmHg, RR 20x/minute HR
her mother came to the hospital with com- 80x/minute afebrile temperature. BB 70
plaints of fever since the previous day. kg TB 175 cm. the doctor decided to add
History of lower abdominal pain 2 weeks one class of anti-diabetic drugs. What
ago. At this time the patient also com- drug should be avoided in this patient?
plained of pain in both hips. Physical ex- A. Glimepiride
amination found knocking costovertebral
B. Pioglitazone
pain, others within normal limits. The uri-
nalysis lab found leukocytes 40/lpb, ery- C. Linagliptin
throcytes 3/lpb. The diagnosis in this pa- D. Dapagliflozin
tient is?
E. acarbosa
A. Cystitis
10. A 35 year old woman came to the poly-
B. Urethritis clinic with complaints of her face getting
C. Ureteritis rounder and getting fatter since the last 3

1.8 nephrology 81
months. The patient also complains that increase in TSH. What is the patient’s cur-
the body feels weak and red streaks ap- rent likely diagnosis?
pear on the abdomen and thighs. On phys-

A. Autoimmune primary hyperthyroidism
ical examination, BMI: 30, BP: 180/100
mmHg, N: 70x/minute, RR: 20 x/minute, B. Secondary hyperthyroidism e.c pitu-
S: 36, 0, striae(+). At the time dexam- itary tumor
ethasone was given, ACTH suppression C. Autoimmune primary hypothyroidism
was found. The correct diagnosis is
D. Primary hyperthyroid e.c inflammation
A. Cushing disease
E. Primary hypothyroid e.c iodine defi-
B. Cushing syndrome ciency
C. Addison disease
13. A 50 year old woman came to the health
D. Adrenal crisis center with complaints of frequent thirst
E. Hypercortisolism and urination since one month ago. The
patient is known to eat a lot but does not
11. A 45-year-old man was admitted to the gain weight. On physical examination, the
hospital with complaints of ulcers on his general condition was good, TB 155 cm,
legs for the past 1 month and had a history weight 78 kg, and other vital signs were
of type 2 DM. From the examination of within normal limits. The results of labo-
vital signs, he found TD110/70, temper- ratory tests showed fasting blood sugar
ature 37.4C. The patient was then given levels of 130 mg/dL and HbA1C of 7.2
prandial insulin, kanamycin injection and
metronidazole drip. After that, the patient 14. A 45-year-old man comes to the health
suddenly complained that he had no urina- center by submitting the results of labo-
tion for 1 day. Lab examination found Hb ratory tests at the office. Obtained a GDP
11mg/dL, leukocytes 12, 000, platelets value of 130 mg/dl. The patient did not
160, 000, urea 100, creatinine 3.3, elec- complain about anything. The doctor de-
trolytes within normal limits. What is the cided to check the sugar profile again and
cause of the patient’s complaint? found a GDP of 120 mg/dl and a GD2PP
A. DM + diabetic ulcer of 135 mg/dl. What is the most appropri-
ate current patient diagnosis?
B. Insulin prandial
A. Normal
C. Drip metronidazole
B. Prediabetes
D. Kanamycin injection
E. Idiopathic C. Impaired glucose tolerance
D. Interrupted fasting blood sugar
12. A 35 year old woman came to the doc-
tor with complaints of palpitations since E. Diabetes mellitus
1 week ago. Weight loss and tremors.
15. What is the functioning unit of the kid-
From the results of the physical exam-
neys?
ination TTV BP 120/80 mmHg, pulse
120x/minute, RR 20x/minute afebrile A. Bowman’s capsule
temperature. There is a moving neck B. glomerulus
struma with swallowing. From the re-
sults of laboratory tests, it was found that C. nephrons
there was an increase in T3 and T4 and an D. renal tubules

1.9 respiratory medicine 82
16. A 35 year old woman came with com- D. Diet, exercise, metformin, captopril,
plaints of getting fatter since 1 month. fenofibrate
From the physical examination, there was E. Diet, exercise, metformin, amlodipine,
a moon face, buffalo hump and strie gemfibrozil
in the stomach. TTV results obtained
BP 160/90 mmHg, HR 90x/minute, RR 19. A 50 year old woman came to the poly-
20x/minute. History of consumption of clinic with complaints of less and less uri-
rheumatic herbal medicine since 3 months nation. Currently, the patient has not
ago. What are the possible lab results for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
urinated for more than 12 hours. Dur-
this patient? ing physical examination, anemia (-), leg
A. hypoglycemia edema (+) was found. BP: 120/70 mmHg,
N: 90x/minute, S: 37.5, RR: 30x/minute.
B. Hyponatremia The correct diagnosis is
C. Hyperglycemia A. Acute Kidney Injury
D. Hipofosfatemia
B. Acute Kidney Risk
E. hypocalcemia
C. Chronic Kidney Disease
17. A 2-month-old baby was brought by his D. Acute Tubular Necrosis
mother to the emergency room with com-
E. Acute Kidney Failure
plaints of fever since 4 days ago and
started not wanting to breastfeed since 20. A 63 year old female patient came to the
1 day today. The patient complained of polyclinic for control. The patient has a his-
smelly and thick BAK since the last 1 week. tory of DM since 5 years ago. On blood ex-
Physical examination of the child looked amination, LDL levels were 130 mg/dl and
seriously ill and weak, pulse 120x/m, RR triglycerides 350 mg/dl. The right treat-
40x/m, temperature 39C. Lab examina- ment is
tion: Hb 10 g/dl, Hct 36
A. Statin
18. A man, 46 years old, came with com- B. Assam fibrate
plaints of an upset stomach. CHAPTER nor-
mal. Father was diagnosed with DM & C. Niasin
died of a stroke. BP 140/90, BMI 30, D. Statins and fibric acid
hepatomegaly, OT/PT within normal lim- E. Niacin and statins
its, total cholesterol 209 mg/dl, LDL 170
mg/dl, TG 600 mg/dl, Hba1C 9, 2. Ap- 21. A 56-year-old man comes to the prac-
propriate management: tice of a general practitioner to submit
A. Diet, exercise, glibenclamide, valsar- the results of a routine lab examination.
tan From the lab results it was known that to-
tal cholesterol was 250 mg/dl LDL 190
B. Diet, exercise, metformin, amlodipine, mg/dl HDL 60 mg/dl TG 350 mg/dl. The
simvastatin patient has a history of DM since 5 years
C. Diet, exercise, metformin, valsartan under control with Hba1C 6.8
1.9 respiratory medicine

1. During cellular respiration, what happens 6. What does the pleura allow the lungs to
to the carbon dioxide? do?
A. Expand during breathing

A. It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled
from the lungs B. Trap dust and other particles
B. It leaves the bloodstream and enters C. Keep the alveoli distended
the alveoli D. Cough
C. It leaves the cells and enters the blood-
7. What diagnostic test provides physicians
stream
with a direct look at the lining of the res-
D. It leaves the alveoli and enters the piratory tract?
bloodstream
A. CPAP
2. I wasn’t feeling very well yesterday so I B. Bronchoscopy
didn’t go to work. C. Pulmonary function tests
A. the D. Chest x-ray
B. a 8. hour
C. an A. a
D. - B. an
3. What statement is true about lung can- C. the
cer? D. -
A. The prognosis is good. 9. Where are the sinuses located?
B. Treatment includes hormone therapy A. In the front lobe of the brain
and blood transfusions. B. In the skull surrounding the nasal cav-
C. It is the leading cause of cancer death ity
in med and women. C. Inside the nares
D. Second hand smoke rarely contributes D. Under the cheek bones in the subcuta-
to the development of lung cancer. neous tissue
4. umbrella 10. This is a cat cat is black with white
ears.
A. a
A. a
B. an
B. an
C. the
C. the
D. -
D. -
5. Emily needs desk in her room. The 11. Terry and Charlotte are going away
desk must be brown. next weekend.
A. a A. the
B. an B. a
C. the C. an
D. - D. -

12. What structure is a passageway for both B. an, the, a

food and air? C. a, the, the
A. Pharynx
D. -, a, an
B. Bronchus
18. If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop
C. Trachea
working, what activity could be life threat-
D. Larynx ening?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a A. Breathing
chronic cough, bluish tint to his skin, and B. Walking
a barrel chest. He MOST LIKLEY suffers
from: C. Coughing
A. emphysema D. Eating
B. Epistaxis. 19. Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler
C. Tuberculosis. when she starts to wheeze. The purpose
of the device is to:
D. Pleurisy
A. Dissolve mucus.
14. What is the best treatment for mild epis-
taxis caused by a bump in the nose? B. Contract blood vessels.
A. Pack the nose with gauze C. Liquefy secretions in the lungs.
B. Compress nostrils, tilt head slightly D. Enlarge the brochioles

forward.
20. I think piano itself needs to be tuned.
C. Cauterize the bleeder
A. The
D. Lay flat on the back, head back, and
pack the nose with tissue B. -
C. A
15. He always sings in shower.
D. An
A. -
B. A 21. It looks as if it’s going to rain. Take
umbrella!
C. The
A. the
D. An
B. a
16. What is the primary function of mucus and
cilia in the nostrils? C. an
A. Sound production D. -
B. Filtration 22. Can you turn on air conditioning? It’s
C. Temperature control boiling here!
D. Respiration A. the
B. a
17. We live in big house. It has huge
swimming pool and lovely garden. C. an
A. a, a, a D. -

23. In the process of breathing, during what 29. What’s your favourite meal of the day?
stage does the movement of the di- breakfast or lunch?
aphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?

A. The / the
A. Internal respiration B. the/-
B. External respiration C. -/the
C. Inspiration D. -/-
D. Expiration
30. Jane is allergic to cats. She starts
24. people we met in North of England sneezing when one comes near her.
came from US. A. the
A. the /-/ an B. a
B. -/-/ the C. an
C. the / the / the D. -
D. -/ a / the
31. There was incredibly powerful tornado
25. Luckily people who work in my office the last year.
don’t talk about sport all the time. A. -
A. the /- B. The
B. the/ the C. A
C. -/the D. An
D. -/-
32. MOST respiratory disorders are caused
26. Your lungs are divided into lobes. How by:
many lobes do you have? A. Infection
A. Two B. Lack of exercise.
B. Three C. Heredity.
C. Four D. Poor circulation
D. Five
33. Audrey has two children, boy and
27. I need to make appointment with Dr. girl boy’s ten years old.
Jones, please. A. a/a/a
A. An B. a/a/the
B. - C. -/a/the
C. A D. -/-/a
D. The
34. good health is more important than
28. university money.
A. a A. The /the
B. an B. The /-
C. the C. -/ the
D. - D. -/-

35. Do you still live in Bristol? 41. Columbus was one of first people to
A. a cross Atlantic.
B. an A. a/an
B. an/the
C. the
C. the/the
D. -
D. x / the
36. My sister works in restaurant. She
42. unicorn
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gets home from work late every
evening. A. a
A. a/- B. an
B. the/- C. the
C. a/the D. -
D. the /- 43. Which does Boyles law state?
A. Volume is proportional to pressure
37. Which of these is a PASSIVE process
B. Volume is inversely proportional to
A. Quiet inspiration
pressure
B. Quiet expiration
C. Volume is proportional to the square of
C. Forced inspiration the pressure
D. Forced expiration D. Volume is inversely proportional to the
square of the pressure
38. That’s easy question. I think know
answer. 44. What structure connects the larynx to the
A. an/an bronchi?
A. Pleura
B. an/the
B. Oropharynx
C. the / an
C. Trachea
D. -/the
D. Bronchioles
39. What respiratory disorders are highly con-
tagious? 45. Where in the respiratory tract does the ex-
change of oxygen and carbon dioxide take
A. Laryngitis and pleurisy place?
B. Infleunza and URI A. Larynx
C. Sinusitis and epistaxis B. Bronchi
D. Emphysema and asthma C. Trachea
40. The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all D. Alveoli
made primarily of:. 46. bicycle
A. Cartilage A. a
B. Bone. B. an
C. Muscle C. the
D. Tendons D. -

47. Did you remember to lock kitchen door 53. I’m seeing Kate tomorrow. We haven’t
before we left? seen each other since last year.

A. the A. the
B. a B. a
C. an C. an
D. - D. -
48. I don’t like people who talk about 54. Are these keys belong you were look-
football all the time. ing for?
A. the /- A. the
B. the / the B. a
C. -/the C. an
D. -/- D. -
49. I shouldn’t drink coffee. It keeps me 55. Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she
awake at night. has tubercles in her lungs. What does that
A. the mean?
B. a A. She had tuberculosis in the past but

has recovered.
C. an
B. She has a dormant form of TB that
D. - could become active if her resistance is
50. Do you speak English? lowered.
A. an C. She has an active case of tuberculosis

and is being treated with antibiotics.
B. a
D. She has a history of an infection that
C. the is similar to tuberculosis and therefore is
D. - immune to TB.
51. There is statue of unicorn in front 56. Hurry up! You are going to be late for
of the building. school!
A. a, a A. the
B. a, an B. a
C. the, a C. an
D. none of above D. -
52. It’s cheaper to buy books online than 57. I have a freind who is electrician. Do
in a shop. you want his phone number?
A. the A. the
B. a B. a
C. an C. an
D. - D. -

1.10 infectious diseases 88
58. Martin received email from penpal. C. Vocal cords would not vibrate.
A. an, a D. Epiglottis would close.
B. a, an
60. river which runs through Paris is called
C. a, the
the Seine.
D. none of above
A. The
59. If a person could not produce surfactant,
his/her: B. A
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Alveoli would collapse. C. An
B. Bronchi would collapse. D. -
1.10 infectious diseases

1. Sharee had been ill for three days. When 4. The bacteria that causes bubonic plague is
her mother took hter to the doctor, the doc- transmitted to humans by fleas. Which
tor decided not to prescribe an antibiotic. term best describes the role of the fleas
He said Sharee had a virus. Why are an- in transmitting bubonic plague?
tibiotics not able to cure viral infections? A. decomposer
A. Antibiotics kill bacteria, not viruses. B. parasite
B. Antibiotics target only white blood C. pathogen
cells.
D. vector
C. Antibiotics are not used to fight any in-
fections. 5. How does Ebola spread?
A. Through blood
D. Antibiotics cause fevers that make
viruses stronger. B. Through fecal matter
C. Sharing drinks
2. is the disease that can be transmitted
from one individual to other individual. D. All listed above are true
A. Non-infectious disease 6. Which statement explains why people suf-

fering from malaria and people suffering
B. Infectious disease
from tuberculosis can both live in noth-
C. Genetic disease ern Europe, but only tuberculosis can be
passed onto the other people there
D. Sporadic disease
A. anopheles mosquitoes only breed in
3. Which is the most effective defense tropical and sub-tropical areas
against the chicken pox virus? B. antibiotics can be used to cure people
A. antibiotics with tuberculosis
B. diet C. migrant workers can carry the disease

with them
C. exercise
D. tuberculosis bacteria cannot survive in
D. vaccine sub-tropical and tropical areas

7. Violet has been consumed with the task 10. organism (usually refers to humans) that
of collecting protozoan samples around her harbors pathogens and transmits them to
property. However, she wonders what others-they are typically asymptomatic

the difference is between protozoa and A. envelopes
protists. “I am no longer sure I know the
difference between protozoa and protists! B. craters
In fact, I don’t really understand their def- C. carriers
initions. I need to understand these things
D. vortexes
before the next MicroDiscovery Conven-
tion!!” E. vectors
A. Protists are prokaryotic microorgan- 11. A disease that is found in small amounts,
isms that are not categorized as plants, consistently within a population
animals, or fungi. Protozoa are animal like
protists. A. pandemic
B. I think you should complete those B. endemic

chores before you get to collecting. Your C. epidemic
room reeks! D. outbreak
C. Find the nearest Merriam-Webster
Dictionary or Encyclopedia and get to 12. What is the scientific name for elephantia-
reading! sis
D. Protists are eukaryotic microorgan- A. paragonimus westermani
isms that are not categorized as plants, B. taenia solium
animals, or fungi. Protozoa are animal like
C. enterobius vermicularis
protists. Ex:archaea, bacteria
E. Protists are eukaryotic microorgan- D. wuchereria bancrofti
isms that are not categorized as plants, 13. What words signify an infection, or an in-
animals, or fungi. Protozoa are animal like vasion of the body by a pathogenic organ-
protists. Ex:E. coli, amoeba ism?
8. Ticks are an example of this way of trans- A. Want a break from the ads? by Spotify
mitting (spreading) disease B. healing, medicine, cure, health, ease
A. Air-borne
C. intrusion, break-in, security breach,
B. Vector thief, poison
C. Touching a surface D. bruise, wound, pain, blood, scrape,
D. Contaminated food or water germs
9. This organism is the most common cause 14. Our contains mucus and ciliated cells
of pyogenic infection of the skin and soft to trap and remove invaders, as a passive
tissues defense.
A. Staphylococcus aureus A. Digestive System
B. Streptococcus epidermidis B. Respiratory Tract
C. Group A Streptococcus C. Reproductive Tract
D. Group B Streptococcus D. Eyes

15. What organism causes blight in tomatoes B. Eliminating most of polio

and potatoes? C. Creating a vaccine for the common
A. Bacteria cold
B. Virus D. Developing a vaccine for Ebola
C. Fungus 21. What is the scientific name of Lung Fluke?
D. Protoctistan A. taenia saginata
E. Parasite B. necator americanus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. Which is the pathogen for tuberculosis? C. wuchereria bancrofti
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. paragonimus westermani
B. Vibrio tuberculosis 22. Bacteria help break down food in our

C. Plasmodium tuberculosis A. Lungs
D. Pathogenous tuberculosis B. Brain
C. Guts
17. he French scientist Louis Pasteur concluded
that were the cause of most infectious D. Bladders
diseases. 23. A disease that has a large outbreak in an
A. microorganisms area and affects many people
B. flies A. pandemic
C. cells B. endemic
D. none of above C. epidemic
D. outbreak
18. What is thought of as the primary de-
fenses against pathogens in the human 24. An animal that transmit pathogen from
body? one host to another is called a
A. Lymphocytes and phagocytes A. species
B. Antibodies and lymphocytes B. vector
C. The skin and mucous membranes C. predator
D. The circulatory system D. prey
19. Which pathogen is non-living? 25. define fungi

A. Zayn from One Direction
A. Virus
B. “Kingdom composed of heterotrophs;
B. Bacteria
many obtain energy and nutrients from
C. Fungi dead organic matter”
D. Parasite/Protist C. “any of a group of spore-producing or-
E. They are all alive ganisms feeding on organic matter, in-
cluding molds, yeast, mushrooms, and
20. Which is not an accomplishment of the toadstools”
WHO? D. a process that occurs after food ex-
A. Eradicating Smallpox pires

26. Which of the following are noninfectious 32. Malaria is a common disease in many coun-
diseases? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY!! tries. What is the cause of this disease?

A. cancer A. a virus
B. diabetes B. a bacterium
C. Lyme disease C. a fungus
D. allergies D. a parasite
27. Doctors recommend people practice to 33. Do Allergies spread?

prevent spreading diseases. A. I don’t know
A. Vector B. True
B. Antibiotic Resistance C. False
C. Zoonosis D. Maybe
D. Respiratory Etiquette
34. Which of the following is classified as di-
28. Painkillers rect transmission of infectious disease?
A. Kill bacteria A. Droplet Spread
B. Kill viruses B. Vector
C. Reduce symptoms C. Zoonosis
D. Prevent reinfection D. Contaminated Food
29. Which is correct for the malaria 35. A village has improved its supply of
pathogen? clean water, sewage treatment, insect
contol and milk pasteurisation.Which dis-
A. It is a prokaryote
ease, present in the village will not be re-
B. It is a protoctist duced by these measures?
C. It is a prototype A. HIV/AIDS
D. It is a protein B. cholera
30. Agents that cause infectious diseases can C. malaria
be transmitted in many ways like D. tuberculosis
A. through the air
36. Your body’s ability to destroy pathogens
B. through contaminated water that is has previously encountered before
C. through body fluids A. Killer T Cells
D. all of the above B. Immune System
31. The four major types of human pathogens C. Immunity
are bacteria, fungi, protists, and D. none of above
A. viruses 37. The best way to reduce your chances of
B. pathogens getting sick is to
C. microbes A. WASH YOUR HANDS!!
D. none of above B. share towels

C. use drugs or alcohol 43. Which organ in the body does this corona
D. internalize stress virus primarily attack?
A. Lung
38. What is an infectious disease?
B. Liver
A. A disease that cannot be spread to oth-
ers. C. Brain
B. A disease that can be spread to others. D. stomach
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A disease that can only be spread by 44. Some health care professionals recom-
mosquitoes. mend that children use insect repellent be-
D. A disease that can be caused by disin- fore going outside. Using insect repellent
fectants. is a good way to keep the insects from
A. reproducing.
39. What is the main symptom of cholera?
A. Muscle ache B. laying eggs.
B. Diarrhea C. spreading disease.
C. Fever D. dying.
D. Appetite loss 45. What could cause an outbreak of malaria

in a country after it had been eliminated?
40. If the skin is broken then a blood clot forms 1 mosquitoes become resistant to insec-
to seal this cut.What is the first step in the ticides2 migration of population due to
process of blood clotting? war3 malarial parasites become resistant
A. Fibrinogen turns into fibrin to quinine (the medicine for malaria)
B. Platelets release clotting factors A. 1, 2 and 3
C. Fibrinogen is converted into thrombin B. 1 and 3 only
D. Thrombin is converted into prothrom- C. 2 and 3 only
bin
D. 1 and 2 only
41. Which best describes how athlete’s foot is
spread to other individuals? 46. Diarrhea and cholera are examples of dis-
eases that spread
A. inhaling fungal spores in the air
A. through food and water
B. eating food contaminated with fungus
B. through the air
C. having contact with fungus on a
shower floor C. by animals
D. swimming in a lake that has a large D. by physical contact
amount of algae
47. which disease is not likely to be passed di-
42. Which of these is not a viral disease? rectly from parents to child
A. measles A. cholera
B. common cold B. malaria
C. salmonellosis C. sickle cell anaemia
D. mononucleosis D. tuberculosis

48. Which is the pathogen for cholera B. HIV reduces the number of active lym-
A. Vibrio cholerae phocytes limiting the body’s ability to pro-
duce antibodies.

B. Plasmodium cholerae
C. HIV reduces the number of active ery-
C. Pathogenous cholerae throcytes limiting the production of anti-
D. Anopheles mosquito bodies.
D. HIV reduces the number of phagocytes
49. An example of direct contact:
which in turn limits the production of anti-
A. A sneeze bodies.
B. A classroom desk
54. Which word describes a network of ves-
C. Cleaning up someone’s blood off their sels that carry a clear fluid called lymph
arm through the body?
D. Eating food that has been spit in A. lymphatic system
50. What is one way a pathogen can enter the B. white blood cell
body? C. amebic dysentery
A. Nose D. pathogen
B. Mouth
55. Which illness is always caused by an infec-
C. Broken Skin
tion?
D. All of the Aove
A. a heart attack
51. Erick wants to avoid exposure to infec- B. a broken bone
tious disease as much as possible. Which
C. influenza
strategy can best help him do this?
A. eat a balanced diet D. cancer
B. wash his hands regularly 56. Which disease can be cured by just oral re-
C. wear sunscreen outside hydration?
D. exercise several days a week A. Malaria

B. Cholera
52. The #1 YouTuber with more than 59 million
subscribers. C. TB
A. PewDiePie D. AIDS
B. DanTDM 57. How did Dr. Edward Jenner prove that
C. Markiplier cowpox virus inoculation was efficient in
protecting against smallpox virus infec-
D. JennaMarbles
tion?
53. Which of the following best describes the A. He guessed.
effect of HIV on the immune system.
B. He wrote a good article.
A. HIV infection causes a reduction in the
number of active blood cells resulting in a C. He infected himself.
high fever. D. He tested it and proved it.

58. Which of these diseases is caused by a fun- 63. What is ring worm?
gus?
A. Virus
A. athlete’s foot
B. Bacteria
B. pinworms
C. mononucleosis C. Fungi
D. common cold D. Parasite
59. the statements refer to the disease tuber-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
64. When you sneeze, you should cover your
culosis1. the patthogens live inside hu- mouth & nose.Other than that, you could
man cell so is not accessible to the im-
mune system 2.the bacterial pathogen re-
produes slowly 3.the pathogen is not very A. Sneeze to a person’s face
sensitive to antibioticwhich explains why B. Pretend to laugh
antibiotic treament for TB takes a long
time? C. Sing a song
A. 1, 2 & 3 D. Sneeze to your inner elbow & sleeves
B. 1 & 2
65. Which of these types of organisms CAN
C. 1 & 3
cause disease in a human?
D. 2 & 3
A. Protist
60. Millions of people living all over the world
have cancer. Is cancer a pandemic? B. Animal
A. No, because cancer is not contagious. C. Bacteria

B. No, because cancer is not always fatal. D. All of these
C. Yes, because millions of people have
cancer. 66. What did they use in the 1700s to inocu-
late healthy people for variolation?
D. Yes, because people all over the world
have cancer. A. Pus from the utters of a cow
61. A is a microscopic organism that causes B. Pus from a lymphnode of an infected
disease. patient
A. Parachute C. Pus from scabs of an infected patient
B. Pathology D. P us from the fresh sores of an in-
C. Pathogen fected patient
D. Disease
67. Heredity, and environment contribute to
62. What is the most common helminth in the which type of diseases
world?
A. infectious
A. Pinworm
B. flu
B. Tapeworm
C. Ascariasis C. contagious
D. Lung fluke D. noninfectious

68. Which infectious disease/s are caused by B. chickenpox

eating raw or under cooked food? (choose C. skin disease
as many as needed)

D. diarrhea
A. hookworm
B. beef tapeworm 74. Influenza is caused by:
C. pork tapeworm A. virus
D. fish tapeworm B. bacteria
C. parasite
69. What is the name of the fungi that forms
on rotten food? D. fungi
A. infectious diseases 75. Which of the following is not a cause of
B. bacteria emerging diseases?
C. viruses A. contact with infected animals
D. mould B. drug resistance
70. Joseph Lister’s methods dramatically re- C. globalization

duced the percentage of patients who died D. increased immunization
from infection after
76. What is the name of the United Nations or-
A. sickness ganization created to help people around
B. birth the world stay healthy?
C. surgery A. FDA
D. none of above B. CDC
71. A disease that spreads to a new area, but C. WHO
stays in the same continent is called a/an D. UNESCO
disease
77. What does the immune system “memory”
A. epidemic
do?
B. pandemic
A. Remembers encounters with
C. endemic pathogens
D. sporadic B. Can respond quickly to the same
pathogens
72. What is the largest outer defense of the
body? C. Later encounters may be so strong you
do not become ill
A. Stomach Acid
D. All of the above
B. Mucous Membranes
C. Cilia 78. Which disease has an animal vector?
D. Skin A. Malaria
73. The example of diseases that spread B. TB

through the air is .. C. HIV
A. Tuberculosis D. Covid-19

79. Which of the following disease is NOT B. Increased drug abuse.

caused by a virus?
C. Increased pathogen mutation rate.
A. Tetanus
D. Overcrowded accommodation.
B. Flu
C. Common Cold 84. What action (or behavior) is the best way
to prevent infectious disease?
D. Measles
A. don’t leave the house
NARAYAN CHANGDER
80. Tooth decay is an infection that causes B. always wear gloves
deterioration of the protective enamel on
teeth, resulting in damage. Tooth decay is C. wash your hands
MOST likely caused by D. cover your cough
A. bacteria.
85. What are the organs attacked by the small-
B. acidic food. pox virus?
C. allergies.
A. Heart and liver
D. genetic defects.
B. Skin, spleen and lymph nodes
81. What term describes a disease-causing mi- C. Lungs, stomach, and esophagus
croorganism, such as a bacterium or fun-
gus. D. Ovaries and testes
A. antigen 86. Which of these are NOT a physical barrier

B. prion of your body to disease?
C. pathogen A. skin
D. allergen B. mucous membranes
82. Smallpox has been eradicated, but not C. hair

malaria or cholera.Which statements cor- D. chemicals
rectly explain this? 1 Cholera pathogens
in the intestines are not destroyed by 87. Different groups of agents that caused dis-
antibiotics.2 Plasmodium antigens change eases are
during the life cycle.3 Smallpox anti- A. bacteria
gens remain stable.4 Vaccines only work
against viruses. B. viruses
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. protozoans
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. all of these
C. 1, 3 and 4 88. malaria
D. 2, 3 and 4 A. virus
83. In parts of london, there was an increase B. protozoa
in the number of cases of tuberculoisis (TB)
C. fungus
in the 1980sWhich factor is most likely to
have contributed to this? D. bacteria
A. Increased Air Pollution. E. parasite

89. Algae are similar to plants, yet they don’t 94. which of the following increases the risk
have of contracting cholera? 1. drinking un-
pasteurised milk2. eating shellfish which

A. Roots
have fed on raw sewage3. living in over-
B. Flowers and Fruits crowded conditions
C. Stem A. 2 only
D. Leaves B. 1 & 2
C. 1 & 3
90. A tiny, nonliving particle that invades and
then multiplies inside a living cell is called D. 2 &
A. bacteria 95. The name for anything that causes disease
B. a virus is known as:
C. a fungi A. Bacteria
D. ha protist B. Pathogen
C. Virus
91. Infectious is another word for
D. Protozoa
A. contagious
96. Pathogens spread from person to person
B. illness
by objects (chairs, medical equipment, of-
C. disease fice supplies, doorknobs, etc.)
D. non-contagious A. Direct Contact
B. Indirect Contact
92. which future development in vaccine pro-
duction is most importantin the fight to C. Airborne Transmission
eradicate measles in developing countries D. Foodborne Tranmission
A. a combined vaccine to combat it other E. Vector-Borne Transmission
diseases
B. a single vaccine, without the need for 97. Which of these is MOST likely to be spread
boosters when two people drink from the same wa-
ter bottle?
C. a vaccine containing only live measles
A. asthma
viruses
B. malaria
D. a vaccine produced by genetic engi-
neering techniques C. strep throat
D. hay fever
93. Inflammation occurs during which line of
defense? 98. Where does a parasite “nest? ”
A. First Line A. a bird nest
B. Second Line B. On a good host.
C. Third Line C. a pond.
D. Fourth Line D. a bed.

99. How are quarantines used to slow the 104. Read Jeffrey’s statement:”I was talk-
spread of an epidemic? ing to my friend, Uncle Juice Bob, about
A. Quarantines prevent individuals from the difficulties of disease control and he
eating food that is potentially contami- mentioned something about pro-, proper-,
nated. protes-, protists? ! WHAT ON EARTH is a
protist!? !? ” Answer Jeffrey’s question
B. Quarantines allow enough time for an-
tibiotics to take effect in infected individu- A. the Protista kingdom is composed of
als. eukaryotes that are not classified as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plants, laundry mats, or fungi
C. Quarantines keep infected individuals
separate so they cannot pass the disease B. eating a chicken sandwich with no
to others. honey mustard
D. Quarantines keep people inside their C. a protist is a type of prokaryotic organ-
homes so that family members can pro- ism that is not classified as a plant, animal,
vide care for each other. or fungi
D. the Protista kingdom is composed of
100. Bacteria are prokaryotic because eukaryotes that are not classified as
A. they all produce their own food plants, animals, or fungi
B. they move on their own 105. Weslie knows what multicellular means
C. their cells do not have a nucleus but she is struggling to come up with an
D. their cells have defined nucleus example for her science vocabulary home-
work. “I know multicellular means a life
101. Pathogens like to “attack” humans be- form containing more than one cell to per-
cause they seek which of the following: form life processes like the back of my
A. shelter hand! But it is difficult to find an exam-
ple. Could you help me? ”Brainstorm for
B. food source
Weslie
C. place to multiply
A. humans, chimpanzees, seahorses,
D. all of the above rhinoceroses, leopards, mole rats, sala-
manders, Venus flytrap, tulips, cacao
102. Which is the smallest pathogen?
trees
A. a virus
B. Escherichia coli, Diatoms, Protozoa,
B. a fungus Protista, Streptococcus, Pneumococci, Di-
C. a bacterium noflagellates
D. a tapeworm C. DJ on Fuller House
103. In preclinical trials D. none of above
A. Drugs are tested on human cells and 106. smallpox has been eradicaed, but not
tissues only malaria or cholera which satements cor-
B. Drugs are tested on human cells and rectly explains this? 1. cholera bacteria in
tissues then on live animals the intestines are not desroyed by antibi-
otics 2. plasmodium antigens change dur-
C. Drugs are tested on human volunteers ing the lifecycle 3. smallpox antigens re-
only mains stable4. vaccines only work agains
D. All of the above viruses

A. 1, 2 & 3 112. Pathogens known as must get inside

cells to reproduce.
B. 1, 2 & 4

A. viruses
C. 1, 3 & 4
B. bacteria
D. 2, 3 & 4
C. fungi
107. The thick, watery substance that shields D. protist
the body from invading pathogens is called
113. Vanessa is unaware of the three types of
bacteria shapes. She has to research it for
A. Cilia
a science project. Which article is provides
B. Mucus an accurate answer?
C. Antigen A. IncrediblyCorrectFacts.net-“the three
D. Lymphocyte types of bacteria shapes are bacilli, co-
conut, and spirit”
108. helps to wash out any bacteria or B. RealScience.io-“the three types of bac-
viruses that you breath in. terial stages are bacilli, cocci, and spirilla
A. muscus C. MicrobiologyForDummies.org-“bacteria
B. cilia can appear rod-shaped (bacilli), spherical
(cocci), and spiral-shaped (spirilla)”
C. salivia
D. papajohns.com-“Better Ingredients.
D. snot Better Pizza”
109. In what ways can you contract a disease 114. Our white blood cells can fight invaders
from an infected person? by (choose three)
A. Shaking hands A. producing antibodies
B. Coughing B. trapping them in one place
C. Kissing C. consuming them
D. All of the above D. producing anti-toxins

E. physically removing them from the
110. What is a vector? body
A. Pathogen 115. One way to prevent the spread of an in-
B. Organism that carries pathogen fectious disease:
C. Type of infectious disease A. sharing tissues
D. Type of emerging disease B. drinking from your friend’s water bot-
tle
111. Select the non-infectious disease. C. washing your hands
A. Tinea D. eating rotten food
B. Tuberculosis
116. Which cells are the “locator cells” that
C. Dengue fever identify a pathogen then signal for help?
D. Cancer A. Killer T cells

B. Helper B Cells 122. In 1918, an outbreak of influenza in-

C. Helper T cells fected 500, 000 people all over the world.
Tens of millions of those infected died. In
D. Nerve cells 1994, an outbreak of pneumonic plague
spread quickly through the city of Surat in
117. In our immune system experiment, pep-
India, killing 52 people. Which statement
per represented
BEST describes the two events?
A. germs A. Both outbreaks were pandemics.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. t cells B. Both outbreaks were epidemics.
C. b cells C. The influenza outbreak was a pan-
D. immunity demic. The plague outbreak was an epi-
demic.
118. Which of the following is NOT a common D. The influenza outbreak was an epi-
symptom of the coronavirus? demic. The plague outbreak was a pan-
A. lost of smell. demic.
B. shortness of breath. 123. The best way to treat the common cold is
C. rash. to
A. drink plenty of soda and eat junk food
D. Fever and chill.
B. drink plenty of water and get plenty of
119. Athlete’s Foot is caused by: rest
A. fungus C. take over the counter medications that
B. bacteria only treat the symptoms
D. take opioids to ease the discomfort
C. parasite
D. virus 124. of the world’s population live in an area
ehere malaria is threat to health in recentt
120. Which of the following is a substance years there have been many more cases in
usually prepared from killed or weaken africawhat is the social factor letting the
pathogens? spread of malaria get out of control?
A. White blood Cells A. an increase in drug resistant forms of
malaria
B. Antibodies
B. climate change
C. Lymph
C. difficulty in producing a vaccine
D. Vaccines
D. migration of people because of wars
121. What was it called when Europeans ex- 125. An antibody is
plored the world and traded with the na-
tives in the Western Hemisphere? A. a blood protein produced in response
to an antigen
A. American Express
B. not a body
B. American Exchange
C. an immune defense to viruses only
C. Columbian Exchange D. the cells responsible for attacking and
D. Columbian Deals defeating healthy tissue.

126. “Cholera, Typhoid, Amoebic dysen- B. Make sure that toilets and bathrooms
tery”are the common diseases that are are kept dry
transmitted through

C. keep the drain fill with water
A. air D. Empty out or overturn any water con-
B. touch tainers around your home
C. vector 131. Which country is threatening to leave the
D. water WHO?
A. Canada
127. Do nutrition disorders include in Non-
B. Great Britain
Infectious diseases
C. South Korea
A. Maybe
D. USA
B. True
132. Which is MOST likely a direct cause of an
C. False
ear infection?
D. I dont know
A. loud noises
128. What was the last large scale pandemic B. foreign bacteria
to hit the world? C. wearing tight hats
A. German Measles D. none of above
B. Russian Fever
133. Infection of diseases through water can
C. Spanish Flu be prevented by:(you can choose more
D. Welsh Whooping Cough than one answer)
A. add chlorine into swimming pool
129. Dominic is struggling to remember the
B. build toilets with good sanitation
distinction between an epidemic and pan-
demic. “I though these terms were inter- C. boil drinking water properly
changeable but ever since the start of the D. wash hand with soap after using toilet
COVID-19 outbreak it seems they are dif-
ferent. “Explain the difference between 134. .... are evidence of disease sensed by the
these terms. sick person.
A. pandemic:a quick spread of a disease; A. Signs

epidemic:an undetectable, asymptomatic B. Prognosis
disease spread C. Symptoms
B. epidemic:a cured disease; pan- D. Complications
demic:an unconfined disease
135. What term describes any disease that is
C. a Hawaiian luau caused by an agent that has invaded the
D. epidemic:a regional outbreak of a dis- body?
ease; pandemic:a world wide epidemic A. Amebic dysentery
130. What can you do to prevent mosquitoes B. menigitis
from breeding around your home? C. infection disease
A. Change the water in the vase regularly D. antibiotic resistance

136. a disease is a 140. An infectious disease is a disease that is

caused when a pathogen is passed from
A. an abnormal state in which the body is
one organism to another. The nonliving
not functioning normally
pathogen is the
B. a disorder of structure or function in
an organism A. Virus
C. I got beans, greens, potatoes, toma- B. Parasites

toes, lambs, rams, hogs, dogs you C. Protozoa
NARAYAN CHANGDER
name it!
D. none of above
D. the process of infecting or the state of
being infected 141. Transmission of disease may occur
through
E. the action or state of making or being
made impure by polluting or poisoning A. Physical contact with infected individu-
als
137. Why has it proved difficult to develop a
B. Body fluid
vaccine against malaria?
C. Contaminated object
A. Mosquitoes have many stages in thier
life cycle. D. All of the above
B. The parasite are only vulnerable to att-
142. Liz notices that shortly after cutting her
tack when outide the liver and red blood
arm accidentally the area around the cut is
cells.
turning red and feeling hot. Which immune
C. The human immune system doesnot system defense is Liz experiencing?
recognise the antigens of the parasite.
A. inflammation
D. Vaccines are repidly broken down by
B. white blood cell clotting
proteases in stomach.
C. skin
138. Which helminth can you get from eating
D. fever
raw crab or crustaceans?
A. Lung Fluke 143. Which is NOT a function of the skin
B. Schistomiasis A. to keep us waterproof
C. Hookworm B. to keep germs out
D. Elephantiasis C. to help us run faster
139. a substance introduced into the body to D. to keep our internal organs protected
stimulate the production of chemicals that
144. What organism causes tuberculosis?
destroy specific disease-causing viruses
and organisms is called A. Bacteria
A. a vaccine B. Virus
B. an injection C. Fungus
C. a booster D. Protoctistan
D. insulun E. Parasite

145. One way to prevent the spreading of dis- B. contagion

ease is: C. mutagen

A. to cough without covering your mouth. D. vector
B. to wash your hands often.
151. What pathogen causes the common
C. to rub your eyes and nose when sick. cold?
D. none of above A. Virus
146. What animal kills the most people annu- B. Bacteria
ally? C. Fungi
A. Grizzly Bear D. Protista
B. African Elephant
152. Select three ways your immune system
C. Mosquitos can attack pathogens
D. Great White Shark A. Phagocytosis
147. What are germs? B. Mitosis
A. Animals such as cockroaches and rats. C. Producing antibiodies
B. Rotten food. D. Producing antitoxins
C. Harmful micro-organisms. E. Respiration
D. Viruses. 153. What is the effect which thrombin has on
148. Injecting a small amount of inert (’dead’) the process of blood clotting?
viruses or bacteria to help your white A. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin
blood cells recognize them is B. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin
A. Antibiotics C. Platelets are caused to release clot-
B. Lymphocytosis ting factors.
C. Endocytosis D. Clotting factors are taken up by red
D. Immunization blood cells.
149. An example of indirect transfer of an in- 154. Lyme disease is spread by ticks and peo-
fectious disease would be ple affected with Lyme disease often ex-
hibit a rash and symptoms similar to the
A. an animal bites a person flu. Which is the cause of Lyme disease?
B. a mosquito bites a person A. a virus
C. shaking hands with a person B. a toxin
D. grabbing a dirty door handle C. a fungus
150. Humans with HIV can transmit the HIV D. a bacterium
virus to other humans even though they
do not show the symptoms of the disease. 155. In autoimmunity, which attacks the
Which term best describes the unaffected body’s own proteins?
individual? A. antigens
A. carrier B. allergens

C. antibodies 161. Which disease is caused by a bacterium

D. antihistamines and can be spread by drinking contami-
nated water?
156. Which vector is associated with the West A. TB
Nile virus?
B. Cholera
A. birds
C. AIDS
B. mosquitoes
D. Malaria
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. squirrels
162. Which is NOT a good way to help some-
D. ticks
one who is sick?
157. the process through which food is heated A. Make them chicken noodle soup
to a temperature that is high enough to B. Tell them to drink lots of water
kill most harmful bacteria without chang-
ing the taste of food is called C. Take them to a waterpark
A. pasteur D. Spend time with them
B. pasteurization 163. How can you prevent Non-Infectious dis-

C. pastuerology eases?
A. None of the above
D. pasteuritis
B. All of the above
158. When you are sick, which of these should
C. Walking
you do?
D. Exercising
A. drink fluids and rest
B. go to school 164. What sort of pathogen causes influenza
(flu)?
C. push yourself to feel better
A. A bacterium
D. stop taking medicine as soon as you
start to feel a little better B. A virus
C. A fungus
159. Which of these is not a disease that can
be treated with antibiotics? D. A protist
A. flu 165. What is the most serious pathogen

B. strep throat within the genus Staphylococcus?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
C. tetanus
B. Staphylococcus hominis
D. sinus infection
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
160. What age group is more likely to come
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
infected with the virus?
A. Children 166. Leukocytes include a wide range of differ-
ent white blood cells. Which of the follow-
B. Teens ing are responsible for destroying cancer-
C. Adults ous cells?
D. All of the above A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils 172. Under which condition is a person most

likely to contract E. coli poisoning?
C. Natural Killer Cells

D. Macrophages A. eating burned food
B. drinking bottled water
167. What is the job of the immune system?
C. eating undercooked beef
A. To protect your body from drugs and
medicine D. eating undercooked vegetables
B. To protect your body from air and wa- 173. Which would most likely prevent a cold
ter virus from spreading through a class-
C. To protect your body from pathogens room?
D. To protect your body from itself A. Have a large supply of tissues on the
teacher’s desk.
168. Which is the best method for preventing B. Have all students wash their hands
a parasitic disease? regularly with soap.
A. vaccination C. Have all students shake hands regu-
B. wearing a mask larly with all students.
C. limiting physical contact with others D. Have all students wipe desk with dry
paper towel at end of class.
D. avoiding contaminated food and water
169. Viruses 174. The disease that ravaged Europe from

1500-1700’s was know as what?
A. use a host to reproduce
A. The Black Death
B. breath oxygen
B. Cholera
C. grow
C. Malaria
D. eat food
D. Tuberculosis
170. What is asthma
175. types of immunity the body has are:
A. When you have diabetes
A. T cells and B cells
B. A disease where you need a inhaler
B. Antigens and Antibodies
C. A respiratory condition marked by at-
tacks of spasm in the bronchi of the lungs C. Specific and Non Specific
D. When you can’t breathe D. Good and Bad
171. A protein made by white blood cells to 176. Which pathogen is treated with anti-
fight a specific pathogen. fungal cream?
A. Antibody A. fungi
B. Antivirus B. virus
C. Allegra C. parasites
D. Allotment D. bacteria

177. The proteins in your immune system that 182. The blood cells that fight pathogens.
fight disease are called ? A. Leukocytes
A. lymph cells B. Red blood cells
B. white blood cells C. Plasma
C. amino acids D. Hemoglobin
D. antibodies
183. Puccinia causes grass
NARAYAN CHANGDER
178. An infectious disease is a disease that is A. orange stem rust
one organism to another. A pathogen can B. yellow stem rust
be C. Black stem rust
A. Bacteria D. Stripe rust
B. Virus
184. In all living thing, the basic unit of life is
C. Parasites the
D. All the above A. nucleus
179. Which pathogen has spores that are car- B. DNA

ried through the air? C. cell
A. protist/parasite D. Brain
B. fungi 185. Which disease in humans is caused by a
C. bacteria parasite?
D. virus A. HIV/AIDS
180. A disease is B. influenza

C. malaria
A. an illness that cause by toxic chemical
expose by our body. D. yellow fever
B. an abnormal condition on body and 186. The most common infectious disease in
mind that cause discomfort. the U.S.A. is
C. a normal condition by body react to A. flu
certain foreign substance
B. whooping cough
D. none of above
C. common cold
181. In the Lysogenic Cycle, which is true? D. strep throat
A. The virus immediately starts making
copies of itself. 187. a living thing that provides a virus with
a source of energy is called
B. The virus lyses or breaks the cell apart
right away. A. a parasite
C. The virus goes into the cell, but does B. a cell

not make any new copies right away. C. a host
D. none of above D. a bacteriophage

188. Which disease is air-borne? 194. Which disease is infectious?

A. TB A. Measles

B. Malaria B. Scurvy
C. Cholera C. Lung Cancer
D. AIDS D. Color blindness
189. How is cholera transmited? 195. What organism causes Ring rot in
plants?
A. food borne, water borne
A. Bacteria
B. exchange of f;uids
B. Virus
C. insect vecor
C. Fungus
D. airborne droplets
D. Protoctistan
190. What is Muscular dystrophy? E. Parasite
A. a group of muscle diseases that re-
sults in increasing weakening and break- 196. Which of the following cells can become
down of skeletal muscles “memory” cells?
B. One muscle breaks down A. A cells

B. B cells
C. Two muscles break down
C. C cells
D. Your tendons get destroyed
D. D cells
191. Many pathogens are kept out of the body
by the 197. Since we have our immune system to pro-
tect us from disease, why do we still need
A. immune system
a vaccine?
B. skin
A. Because some diseases are too se-
C. inflammation response vere for our immune system.
D. lymphatic system B. Because adaptive immunity takes days
to weeks to initiate a response and some-
192. What is Circulatory system disease? times it is too late.
A. A disease in your liver C. Because some people are immune de-
B. It is an Coronary artery disease ficient or have weak immune systems.
C. A chronic disease D. All of the above
D. A disease in your pancreas 198. An infectious disease is a disease that is
193. How are pathogens spread?
one organism to another. The prokaryotic
A. Infected People pathogen is the
B. Infected Animals A. Bacteria
C. Contaminated Objects B. Virus
D. Contaminated Food, Soil, or Water C. Protozoa
E. All of the Above D. none of above

199. Which best explains why more than 300 C. Provide condoms to prevent transmis-
million people in Asia are infected with sion of parasite during sex
malaria each year? D. Drink plenty of water
A. There is no way to protect people
against the disease. 203. Why do doctors suggest that people get
a flu vaccine each year?
B. The parasites that cause malaria lack
the ability to resist antibiotics. A. Viruses replicate more rapidly over
time.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The house fly contaminates food with
infectious bacteria that cause malaria. B. Viruses can mutate from year to year.
D. Mosquitos are becoming resistant to C. Vaccines are absorbed by the body af-
insecticides and continue to carry the dis- ter a year.
ease. D. Vaccines get stronger over time.
200. Which of the following is the best ex- 204. Which list the symptoms of E-Coli?
planation of the likely consequences of a A. Headache, Sneezing, Fever
blood clot forming in a coronary artery?
B. Cough, Dry skin, Vomiting
A. Part of the heart receives a slower sup-
ply of blood, and contractions of the heart C. Fever, Nausea, Vomiting, Bloody Diar-
become irregular. rhea
B. The blood is prevented from getting to D. Stomach Ache, Headache,

the cardiac muscle and it stops contrac- 205. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its
tion, the heart stops beating. host. Which examplebest describes the re-
C. The blood stops flowing into the heart lationship between the tapeworm and its
and this prevents the flow of blood around host?
the body. A. The tapeworm benefits from its host;
D. The blood clot moves from the coro- however, the host is not affected.
nary artery to the brain causing a stroke. B. The tapeworm does not benefit from
its host, but the host does benefit.
201. A host is:
C. The tapeworm benefits from its host,
A. An organism that harbors a pathogen
and the host is negatively affected.
B. Grant Denyer on Family Feud
D. none of above
C. An animal that transmits a pathogen
206. What pathogen do antibiotics attack?
D. A microorganism that has been trans-
mitted A. Virus
B. Bacteria
202. Which of the following is an effec-
tive method of preventing infection by C. Fungi
Malaria? D. Protista
A. Use pesticides to kill the mosquito 207. When a pathogen is moved from per-
(vector) son to person through physical touch (kiss-
B. Quarantine the mosquitos that carry ing, hugging, close-up sneezing, shaking
the parasite hands).

A. Transmission 212. Which tool is MOST responsible for pre-

B. Translation venting future pandemics of smallpox?

A. worldwide vaccination for smallpox
C. Emission
B. global education about smallpox
D. Direct Contact
C. better worldwide urban sanitation
E. Indirect Contact
D. improved global quarantine facilities
208. malaria is which type of pathogen?
213. Which makes it possible for a person who
A. virus has recovered from a cold to catch another
B. protozoa cold?
C. fungus A. A cold is a viral infection with many dif-
ferent strains.
D. bacteria
B. A cold is a bacterial infection that re-
E. parasite mains active in the body.
209. How do vaccinations protect you from fu- C. A cold is a bacterial infection present
ture infections? only during the winter months.
A. injecting you with antibodies to cause D. A cold is a viral infection that remains
a small immune response active until treated with antibiotics.
B. injecting you with dead or inactive 214. Several types of infectious agents can
pathogens to cause a small immune re- cause disease in humans. One group of
sponse these infectious agents are classified as
C. injecting you with white blood cells to prokaryotes because all of its members
cause a small immune response have a cell that lacks a nucleus or other
membrane-bound organelles. Which of the
D. preventing bacteria from replicating following infectious agents is classified as
a prokaryote?
210. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of an infectious disease? A. virus
A. West Nile virus B. fungus
B. Strep throat C. Parasite
C. Lyme disease D. Bacterium
D. Scurvy 215. Which is a distinction between an epi-

demic and a pandemic?
211. An infectious disease is a disease that is
A. the symptoms of the disease
one organism to another. The single-celled B. the geographical area affected
eukaryotes pathogen is the C. the species of organisms infected
A. Bacteria D. the season in which the disease
B. Protozoa spreads
C. Virus 216. What is athlete’s foot?
D. none of above A. Virus

B. Bacteria 222. There are several ways to protect the

C. Fungi human body from diseases caused by in-
fectious agents. Which of the following
D. Protist plays the main role in preventing infectious
217. A disease that commonly happens in an agents from entering the body?
area is called a/an disease A. skin
A. endemic B. lungs
B. epidemic C. intenstines
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. pandemic D. digestive system Fungi only reproduce
D. sporadic sexually, while bacteria reproduce asexu-
ally.
218. Pathoges are
223. Which type of noninfectious disease is de-
A. disease causing microorganisms fined as a problem in a biochemical path-
B. agents that caused diseases way in the body?
C. causes of illness A. inflammatory disease
D. all of these B. metabolic disease
C. degenerative disease
219. What does AIDS stand for?
D. cancer
A. Always infectious disease sickness
B. Acquired immunoduplication syn- 224. Which helminth can you get from eating
drome infected pork/bear meat?
C. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome A. ascariasis
D. Always impatient disease syndrome B. hookworm
C. dracontiasis
220. Mosquitoes are responsible for spreading
diseases like D. trichinosis
A. Dengue 225. A pathogen is any organism that causes
B. Malaria a disease. Which of the following is an ex-
ample of a pathogen that infects humans?
C. Zika
A. parasite
D. Yellow Fever
B. plasmid
E. Influenza
C. plant cell
221. What is the function of innate immune re- D. plasma membrane
sponse?
226. The common cold is what type of
A. Act very rapid as a first line of defense
pathogen?
to eliminate the infection
A. virus
B. Trap microbes so they cannot spread
in our body freely B. protozoa
C. Coordinate and support adaptive im- C. fungus
munity D. bacteria
D. All of the above E. parasite

227. Lyme disease, rabies and malaria are 231. Which pathogen needs a host cell to re-
mostly spread by produce?

A. bites from insects / animals A. virus
B. contaminated foods like chicken and B. bacteria
beef C. fungus
C. contaminated objects like door knobs D. parasite/protist
and desks
232. How did cholera arrive in Haiti?
D. indirect contact with an infected per-
son A. Peacekeepers brought it from Nepal
when their feces contaminated a river
228. Which type of blood cells are capable of
B. The earthquake displaced people and
ingesting pathogens?
animals which led to the spread of the dis-
A. Erythrocytes ease
B. Antibodies C. Hospitals had accidental outbreaks af-
C. Lymphocyte cells ter being heavily damaged by the earth-
quake
D. Phagocyte cells
D. It is endemic in Haiti and has always
229. cell theory states been present in consistent numbers
A. 1. organisms are all composed of 233. What was the biggest source of contami-
cells2. atoms are the basic unit of struc- nation of fresh drinking water in early civ-
ture and function in all matter3. cells re- ilizations?
produce using duplication
A. Animals living close to people
B. Earth’s continents have moved over
geologic time relative to each other, thus B. Lack of a water source (desert condi-
appearing to have “drifted” across the tions)
ocean bed C. Wells that are not dug deep enough
C. Special relativity applies to all physi- D. Aqueducts were not built high enough
cal phenomena in the absence of gravity.
234. An disease can also be called a com-
General relativity explains the law of grav-
municable disease
itation and its relation to other forces of
nature. A. infectious
D. 1. all living things are composed of B. noninfectious
cells 2. cells are the basic units of struc- C. asthma
ture and function in living things 3. new
D. deadly
cells are produced from existing cells
235. The first step in the Lytic Cycle is:
230. Which virus kills more people than any
other annually and over time? A. The viruses lyse the cell and break out
of it.
A. Black Plague
B. the virus finds a host cell and attaches
B. Covid to it.
C. Flu C. the virus enters the cell and puts its
D. Malaria genes into the cell.

D. takes over the host cell and turns it 241. What is the immune system’s main pur-
into a virus factory. pose?
236. A disease that moves from one conti- A. Let’s germs into the body.
nent to another new continent is known B. Helps your body fight off illness and
as a/an disease. disease.
A. epidemic C. The immune system produces illness
and bacteria.
B. endemic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The immune system trap germs in an
C. pandemic
organ so they do not spread.
D. sporadic
242. A fomite is a/an
237. Which antibiotic was developed from a A. type of worm
fungus and has been used to cure many ill-
nesses that could have led to epidemics? B. type of parasite
A. aspirin C. inanimate object that harbors a
pathogen
B. ethanol
D. disease
C. penicillin
D. acetaminophen 243. What is it called when virus spreads
across a nation or around the world?
238. Which of the following is NOT one of the A. Epidemic
four major types of human pathogens
B. Pandemic
A. bacteria
C. Epidermis
B. viruses
D. Infrastructure
C. fungi
244. Which of the following lists methods of
D. plants
transmission of HIV?
239. Transmit means to A. Sex without a condom, from breast
A. To power an engine milk, contaminated blood transfusions.
B. A program or signal that is sent out B. From saliva, sharing food and
mosquito bites.
C. Pass from one place or person to an-
other C. From bodily fluids such as sweat, se-
men and saliva.
D. none of above
D. Sex without a condom, mosquito bites
240. What organism causes Black sigatoka in and contaminated blood transfusions.
bananas?
245. Which of these is not a physical barrier
A. Bacteria of your body to disease?
B. Virus A. skin
C. Fungus B. mucous membranes
D. Protoctistan C. chemicals
E. Parasite D. hair

246. athlete’s foot C. a cell

A. virus D. a virus

B. protozoa 252. An example of indirect contact is:
C. fungus A. Drinking out of your friend’s pop
D. bacteria B. Kissing
E. parasite C. Shaking Hands
247. Living things that are too small to see D. When changing a diaper, getting fluids
without a microscope are called on your hands
A. Multi-cellular 253. How intense were the clinical symptoms

of cowpox as compared to smallpox in hu-
B. Macroorganisms
mans?
C. Little Giants
A. More intense
D. Microorganisms
B. Less intense
248. Which of the following is NOT a C. Same intensity
pathogen? D. We cannot compare them as they are
A. Virus caused by two different viruses
B. Bacteria 254. Bioremediation is using bacteria to fight:
C. T Cell A. Lions
D. Fungi B. Plants
249. Which disease is transmitted by C. Viruses
mosquitoes? D. Pollution
A. ascariasis 255. A disease that can be spread from person-
B. trichinosis to-person, animal or objects
C. elephantiasis A. A disease
D. strongyloidiasis B. Infectious
C. Communicable
250. How do protect ourselves and others
from coronavirus? D. Noncommunicable
A. Wear a mask 256. What is a good example or analogy to
B. Avoid crowds use for host cells?
A. a human cell being attacked and in-
C. Stay long in the crowded places
truded by influenza
D. Wash hand often.
B. the COVID-19 vaccine being adminis-
251. An organism that lives on or in a host, tered to patients
and causes it harm while it takes its nutri- C. an infected tick latching itself to and
ents is called feeding off of a praying mantis
A. a host D. Febreze!
B. a parasite E. a wounded dog barking at a bird’s nest

257. What is one the factors of Non-Infectious 262. the body’s response to an infection by
diseases? showing redness, swelling, & pain
A. Age A. immunization
B. Eyes B. mobilization (stage of infection)
C. Bones C. inflammation
D. Cornea
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
258. What can you do to avoid contact with
pathogens? 263. What is a Non-Infectious disease
A. Cook food A. Bacterial disease

B. Wash hands B. Disease
C. Drink well water C. Diseases that are not caused by a virus
D. 1 & 2 or a living organism
D. Non of the above
259. The body’s response to an infection by
showing redness, swelling, & pain is 264. A cholera outbreak in the 1800s was
called? spread by polluted drinking water. Which
A. immunization best describes the cause?
B. mobilization (stage of infection) A. industrial waste
C. inflammation B. pesticides
D. amebic dysentery C. sewage
260. After World War I, an outbreak of the D. raw meat
Spanish Flu killed 50 million to 100 million
people around the world. Which best de- 265. Waterborne diseases are
scribes this occurrence? A. Infection that can be transmitted
A. Epidemic, because it happened within through contact
a relatively short time span.
B. Pathogens-containing droplet sprays
B. Epidemic, because it affected many in- from the mouth and nose of infected per-
dividuals in multiple countries. son
C. Pandemic, because it happened within C. Infection through water usually hap-
a relatively short time span. pens in areas with inadequate water sup-
D. Pandemic, because it affected many in- ply and poor sanitation
dividuals in multiple countries. D. none of above
261. which of the following is false?
266. Infectious diseases are caused by
A. coli NEVER causes diseases
A. cilia
B. coli provides vitamin K for its hosts
B. pathogens
C. coli gets nutrients from intestinal con-
tents C. antibiotics
D. none of above D. immunizations

267. Norman believes that infants are mainly responsible for preventing an in-
prokaryotes because they seem too infectious agent that enters the body from
competent to contain a nucleus. According spreading and causing disease?

to him, “Babies have smaller brains so it A. the nervous system
only makes sense that they don’t have
enclosed nuclei. They become eukaryotes B. the immune system
once they reach 14 months. Who is the C. the circulatory system
genius now!!”
D. the respiratory system
A. You’re wrong Norman! That’s why you
shouldn’t have skipped biology in third pe- 270. what would cause an oubreak of malaria
riod! You’ll be working at a gas station in a country where it had been eliminated?
with that idiocy, that’s all I know! 1.mosquitoes became resisant tp insec-
ticides2.migration of population due to
B. 1 + 1 = 11
war3.malarial parasites became resisant
C. Norman is incorrect because brain de- to quinine
velopment does not impact an organism’s
cellular composition. Prokaryotes are or- A. 1 & 2 only
ganisms whose cells do not have an en- B. 1 & 3
closed nucleus. Bacteria is an example of C. 2 & 3
this. Babies are not.
D. 1, 2 & 3
D. Norman’s belief is correct because
brain development does impact an organ- 271. A virus infects a host in order to:
ism’s cellular composition. Because in-
A. Take in nutrients.
fant brains are still heavily developing,
their brain tissue contains free floating ge- B. Make the host sick.
netic material. When they reach fourteen C. Make copies of itself.
months of age, their brains (although not
fully formed as that occurs in a person’s D. Destroy the host’s cell.
20s) will have formed a nucleus to encase
272. Countries volunatrily donate money to
that material.
the WHO, what is the approximate bud-
E. Norman is incorrect because a cell get for the organization?
is characterized by the presence of a
A. $3.6B
nucleus and other membrane-bound or-
ganelles. B. $5.6B
C. $8.6B
268. How can infectious diseases be spread
from one person to another? D. $5.6 T
A. trough the air 273. fungi use tiny cells able to grow into new
B. by physical contact organisms to reproduce. these tiny cells
are called
C. by animals
A. endospores
D. through food and water
B. spores
269. The human body has a system that re-
sponds whenever an infectious agent en- C. sponges
ters the body. Which body system is D. spones

274. What are noninfectious diseases? C. baby ants

A. Diseases that are not caused by D. t cells
pathogens
280. Viruses are difficult to eliminate because
B. The ability to destroy pathogens be- they can
fore they cause you to be sick
A. kill fast
C. Diseases that are caused by
B. scare people
pathogens
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mutate
D. Diseases that can be transfered from
one person to another D. hide
275. What is Cancer? 281. Florey and Chain shared a Nobel Prize
with Alexander Fleming for their work
A. An uncontrolled growth of abnormal
on penicilin.Which of the following state-
cells in the body
ments best describes their experiment
B. When your cells die which tested penecillin on mice?
C. Lack of red blood cells A. Four mice injected with a bacterial dis-
D. All of the above ease and four injected with penicillin to
test toxicity and effectiveness.
276. A disease caused by a pathogen is a(n) B. Two mice injected with penicillin and a
bacterial disease to test both toxicity and
A. infectious effectiveness against bacteria.
B. childhood C. Toxicity test on two mice, then eight
mice injected with a lethal dose of disease
C. noninfectious
bacteria, four of which were also given
D. none of above penicillin to test its effectiveness against
bacteria.
277. Disease can spread through
D. Hundreds of mice injected with peni-
A. Direct contact with a carrier cillin and their lives monitored to measure
B. Vector transfer how many of the mice developed infec-
C. Indirectly tions during their lives.
D. All of the above 282. How can you avoid getting an infectious
disease from food?
278. Which of these in NOT a disease that can
A. Eat chicken or beef that is under
be treated with antibiotics?
cooked.
A. Flu
B. Eat raw eggs
B. Step throat
C. Keep hot foods hot
C. Tetanus
D. Only use the refrigerator to store left-
D. Sinus infection overs.
279. Antigens are 283. How many stages of diseases are there?
A. cells that help to fight off germs A. 1
B. foreign substances that enter our body B. 2

C. 3 D. treatment of water to control

D. 4 mosquitoes

284. If you want to stay well, which of these 289. The study of the spread of disease is?
should you do? A. Pathology
A. exercise regularly B. Biology
B. eat a balanced diet C. Anatomy
C. get enough sleep D. Epidemiology
D. all of these
290. It is okay to eat meat that is still red and
285. What parasite is most often responsible juicy inside only if
for the spread of Lyme disease? A. it is a cut of meat you like
A. amoeba B. the core of the meat has been elevated
B. crane fly to the proper temperature while cooking
C. dear tick C. it has been seasoned properly
D. mosquito D. only if it has been baked in an oven
286. What is a widespread outbreak of a virus 291. Contagious, disfiguring and often deadly
in a community? disease that has affected humans for thou-
A. Epidemic sands of years. Eradicated worldwide by
1980.
B. Epidermis
A. Smallpox
C. Pandemic
B. Anthrax
D. Panic
C. Plague
287. Quinn notices a rash on his elbow a few
D. Ricin
days after going to his neighborhood’s par-
ticularly dirty lake. What word would de- 292. White blood cells are also called:
scribe his condition
A. Pathogens
A. infection
B. Erythrocytes
B. contamination
C. Lymphocytes
C. poison
D. Disease-fighting cells
D. pollution
293. Twentieth-century research by such scien-
288. cholera is no longer common in many
tists as Jonas Salk on the use of vaccines
countries.what is the reason for this?
has reduced the number of people who are
A. education of the citizens about the infected with
spread of the disease.
A. polio.
B. routine vaccination by local health au-
B. stroke.
thorities
C. treatment of water supplies and seper- C. diabetes.
ate sewage treatment D. tuberculosis.

294. Vaccines are used to prevent diseases by 299. Infectious diseases are
which type of pathogen? A. contagious
A. virus B. always deadly
B. bacteria C. both answers
C. parasite
D. none of the above
D. fungi
300. How long does an infected person with
295. Which of the following two diseases are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
TB, need to take there medications for?
caused by virused?
A. 7-14 Days
A. HIV/AIDS & cholera
B. 6-9 Months
B. malaria & cholera
C. 3-4 Months
C. measles & smallpox
D. 20-30 Days
D. TB & HIV
301. What is the best way of preventing dis-
296. There are limits to the effectiveness of eases?
antibiotics. Why is this?
A. cleaning
A. Viruses are not affected because they
have no metabolism, and some bacteria B. touching your face
have evolved resistance. C. washing your hands
B. Bacteria are not affected by antibi- D. licking your fingers
otics, only viruses.
302. Which has made the most significant dif-
C. Only one species of bacteria is af-
ference to reduce the spread of epidemics
fected by a single antibiotic.
and pandemics worldwide?
D. Only some types of virus and bacteria
A. water treatment
are affected by antibiotics, because of the
evolution of resistance. B. decreased pollution
297. Health care experts who study trends C. increased medical aid
in health issues in populations and de- D. none of above
ploy public announcements, education ini-
tiatives, and protocols to protect the 303. What is ring worm caused by?
health of the nation. A. Virus
A. epidemiologists B. Bacteria
B. dermatologists C. Fungi
C. medical examiners D. Parasite
D. immunologist
304. Bacteria can be circular in shape which is
298. Strep Throat is caused by: known as
A. virus A. Rod
B. bacteria B. Cocci
C. fungi C. Flagellum
D. parasite D. Antibiotics

305. Koch first became famous for his work on 311. During the Columbian Exchange many In-
A. Cholera digenous People died. What was this pe-
riod called?

B. Anthrax
A. Black Death
C. Tuberculosis
D. Measles B. Covid Pandemic
C. The Great Dying
306. Antibodies help our body to fight off
A. yellow snow D. Spanish Flu
B. antigens 312. Bacteria are used to create foods such as

C. t cells
D. immune systems A. Spaghetti
307. How do viruses quickly travel around the B. Pizza
world? C. Hamburgers
A. Airplanes
D. Yogurt
B. Boats
C. Email 313. The main foods in which the salmonella
bacteria live in are
D. Shipping Containers
A. bread, pasta, cereal
308. Which of the following diseases can be
spread by mosquitoes? B. nuts, beans, berries
A. the common cold C. carrots, celery, tomatoes
B. dengue D. poultry, eggs, meat
C. influenza
314. The immune system fights disease by
D. chicken pox
A. Attacking each pathogen it encounters
309. Which disease broke out in Haiti follow- in the same manner
ing the earthquake? Most people died
B. acting as a physical barrier that pre-
from getting this disease from unclean
vents pathogens from entering the body
drinking water.
A. Cholera C. causing blood vessels to shrink which
forces pathogens out of the body
B. The Plague
D. producing a separate set of weapons
C. Ebola
for each kind of pathogen it encounters
D. Zika
315. A disease that is widespread throughout
310. Which part(s) of the body can the tuber-
the globe (world)
culosis infection spread to?
A. pandemic
A. all organs of the body
B. only the bones B. epidemic
C. only the intestines C. endemic
D. only the skin D. outbreak

316. The outer layer of the skin is called the B. Infectious diseases can be prevented
A. germy skin with vaccines; noninfectious diseases
cannot.
B. epidermis
C. Infectious diseases can be spread
C. epi-pen from one organism to another; noninfec-
D. top skin tious diseases cannot.
D. Infectious diseases cannot be trans-
317. An organism that lives on or in a host and
mitted from one organism to another; non-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
causes it harm is called
infectious diseases can.
A. a host
B. a parasite 321. Which disease is correctly linked to its
causative agent and method of infection?
C. a cell
A. a
D. a virus
B. b
318. Airborne disease can be prevented by
C. c
practising the following, except
D. d
A. cover nose and mouth when sneezing
or cough.
322. In Monsters inside me the woman, Brid,
B. wash your hand with water only was first misdiagnosed with
C. avoid being in crowded places A. a rash
D. avoid handshake B. an allergic reaction
319. Why do antibiotics have little or no ef- C. poison oak
fect on human cells, yet they can cause the D. poison ivy
death of bacteria?
A. Antibiotics block prokaryote cell pro- 323. A virus that attacks bacteria cells are
cesses, but not the processes in eukary- known as:
ote cells. A. Antibiotics
B. Antibiotics can only affect cells below B. Antivirals
a certain size.
C. Bacteriophages
C. Human cells have a protective plasma
membrane which prokaryote cells don’t D. Plant Cells
have.
324. A person sneezes and does not cover
D. Antibiotics are made of proteins which their mouth/nose. You are standing
cannot pass through the plasma mem- across the room and breathe in some of
brane. the pathogens. This is
320. Which best distinguishes an infectious A. direct transmission
disease from a noninfectious disease?
B. indirect transmission
A. Infectious diseases can be cured with
C. alternative transmission
antibiotics; noninfectious diseases can-
not. D. none of above

325. What is the most common way conta- 330. Aspirin originally came from
gious infections are spread? A. Foxgloves

A. through the air B. Bread mould
B. through food C. Tobacco
C. touching D. Willow
D. through water 331. How did the smallpox virus infection
spread most frequently?
326. Bacteria have small tails that allow them
to move that are known as A. Through the air
B. Through the soil
A. Cocci
C. Through blood
B. Flagellum
D. Through feces
C. Tails
D. Fungi 332. All the resources necessary to support an
activity to end an epidemic or pandemic is
327. What is one of the ways that antibiotics called what?
work? A. Bureaucracy
A. They can stop bacteria from reproduc- B. Infrastructure
ing C. Superstructure
B. They can stop viruses from reproduc- D. none of above
ing
333. How is malaria spread?
C. They stop toxins from poisoning the tis-
sues of hosts A. Enters body through food, water, or
cuts in skin
D. They engulf the pathogens
B. Carried by animal vector
328. are one-celled organisms that can C. Airborne
cause diseases, such as malaria.
D. none of above
A. fungi
334. What percentage of infected people
B. protists would die after smallpox virus infection?
C. viruses A. 13%
D. bacteria B. 30%
C. 33%
329. The symptoms of strep throat infection
are a red and swollen throat. What is the D. 3%
MOST likely cause of strep throat?
335. Over a two-week period, several stu-
A. eating raw vegetables dents complain of feeling sick. Their symp-
toms include a cough, fever, and a sore
B. drinking lemonade
throat. What describes the MOST likely
C. invading bacteria cause of these symptoms?
D. running in cold weather A. exposure to hot weather

B. decrease in physical exercise 341. is the organisms that cause diseases.

C. consumption of bad food A. Bacteria
D. infection by a virus B. Pathogen
336. Which of these diseases cannot be pre- C. Probiotic

vented through vaccination? D. Mosquito
A. common cold
342. body lice
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. mumps
A. virus
C. flu
B. protozoa
D. measles
C. fungus
337. Which cell create the antibodies?
D. bacteria
A. Killer T cells
E. parasite
B. Helper T cells
C. B cells 343. Which pathogen is treated with antibi-
otics?
D. T cells
A. virus
338. Diseases that are transmitted through
B. bacteria
water include:(you can choose more than
one answer) C. parasite
A. cholera D. fungi
B. typhoid
344. Anitigens on pathogens which have got
C. fever into the human body can lead to the de-
D. flu velopment of specific immunity. That is an
immunity which responds only to this anti-
339. Chicken pox is an extremely contagious gen.Which of the following cells causes the
disease. Which organ is most frequently specific immunity?
affected by chicken pox? A. Erythrocytes
A. brain
B. Macrophages
B. intestines
C. Lymphocytes
C. lungs
D. Phagocytes
D. skin
345. common cold
340. Which is not an example of how infec-
tious diseases can spread? A. virus
A. Sharing a book with a friend. B. protozoa
B. Eating food that has expired. C. fungus
C. Drinking dirty water. D. bacteria
D. Being bitten by a mosquito. E. parasite

346. (MIM) Brid’s rash on her inner thigh was 352. A disease that is caused by a pathogen
actually a sign of
A. Inflammatory Disease

A. trichinosis
B. strongyloidiasis B. Infectious Disease
C. paragonimus westermani C. Immunity Disease
D. schistosomiasis D. Immune Response
347. Bacteria are tiny life forms that are made 353. Pathogens are examples of what type of
up of only cell. lifestyle?
A. One A. Mutualism
B. Two B. commensalism
C. parasitism
C. Three
D. none of above
D. Four
354. Which disease is correctly paired with the
348. A virus is unique in that it cause of the disease?
A. contains DNA A. athlete’s foot-fungi
B. contains RNA B. malaria-viruses
C. reproduces in a short time C. influenza-bacteria
D. cannot reproduce outside a living cell D. pneumonia-protists
349. What is the US agency that fights against 355. Immunizations cause your body to
contagious diseases? A. create antibodies
A. FDA B. shut down
B. CDC C. get sick
C. WHO D. increase your chances of contracting a
D. UNESCO disease
350. The tiny hairs on the inside of your nose 356. Airborne diseases can be prevented by
are called practising:
A. cilia A. Do not wear mask
B. epidermis B. Do not spit everywhere
C. salivia C. do not practising social distancing
D. eyelashes D. none of above

357. Your body’s first line of defense against
351. Tetanus
infectious diseases include
A. virus
A. mucous membranes, saliva, tears
B. protozoa
B. phagocytes, lymphocytes, pus
C. fungus C. T cells, B cells, antibodies
D. bacteria D. Lymphatic system, immune system, in-
E. parasite flammation response

358. why is it necessary for a person with a C. Digestive system

bacterial infection to be told to take antibi- D. Neurological system
otics at evenly spaced time intervals?
363. What organism causes ringworm in cat-
A. to increase the concentration of antibi-
tle?
otic slowly to a level which is lethal to the
bacteria A. Bacteria
B. to maintain concentration of antibiotic B. Virus
in the body which is lethal to the bacteria. C. Fungus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. to prevent the development of resis- D. Protoctistan
tant strains of bacteria E. Parasite
D. to select and kill the resistant strains
364. Health department officials are trying to
of bacteria
identify the source of an outbreak of an
359. Why should you cover food with a food intestinal virus. Which is the most likely
cover? source of the virus?
A. To keep bacteria away from the food. A. polluted air
B. To prevent the spread of diseases B. lack of exercise
through physical contact. C. contaminated water
C. To prevent the spread of diseases by D. poor nutritional habits
animals.
365. What is the condition in which bacteria
D. To prevent the spread of diseases can no longer be killed by a particular an-
through the air. tibiotic?
360. Which of the following precautions are A. antibiotic resistance
recommended to avoid antibiotic resis- B. infectious disease
tance? C. inflammation
A. Use antibiotics only when prescribed D. salmonellosis
B. Take entire dose for length prescribed
366. Sars-Cov2 virus that lead to Covid19 dis-
C. Take antibiotics for viral infections ease is example of disease that trans-
D. Both A & B mitted through droplet transmission.
A. waterborne
361. Which famous billionaire said we are not
B. airborne
ready for the next pandemic?
C. landborne
A. Jeff Bezos
D. none of above
B. Bill Gates
C. Elon Musk 367. What type of pathogen causes athlete’s
foot?
D. Oprah Winfrey
A. Virus
362. The body’s system that fights pathogens. B. Bacteria
A. Cardiovascular system C. Fungi
B. Immune system D. Protist

368. The proper way to sneeze is to sneeze B. opossum-rabies

into
C. mosquito-malaria

A. your cupped hand
D. flea-Lyme disease
B. out into the open
C. inside the front of your shirt or into 374. Disease-causing microorganism, such as
your bent elbow pressed against your a bacterium or fungus.
shirt. A. antigen
D. into the hair of the person sitting in B. prion
front of you.
C. pathogen
369. Which pathogen has mitochondria? D. allergen
A. Plasmodium falciparum
375. Antibiotics affect
B. Vibrio cholera
C. HIV A. Viruses
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Bacteria

C. Bacteria and Viruses
370. Which of the following agents cause
strep throat? D. Bacteria, Viruses, and Fungi
A. Virus 376. What are infectious diseases caused by?
B. Parisite
A. Bacteria
C. Bacteria
B. Pathogens
D. Protozoan
C. Vaccinations
371. Which of the following can be D. Viruses
pathogens?
A. Bacteria only 377. What are the Non-infectious diseases?
B. Viruses only A. Allergy
C. Bacteria and viruses B. Asthma
D. Neither bacteria or viruses C. All of the above
372. Viruses that often attack bacteria cells, D. Alzheimer’s disease
often look like little spacecraft.
378. What best describes the mode of fecal-
A. True oral transmission:
B. False
A. Touching a person infected or a con-
C. Only in New Mexico taminated surface
D. none of above B. Inhaling aerosolized droplets
373. Which pair correctly matches a vector and C. Eating food or drinking contaminated
the infectious disease it carries? fluids
A. human-influenza D. Sharing needles

1.11 medical statistics 126
1.11 medical statistics

1. Physicians who wish to disclose confiden- C. make record maintenance and re-
tial medical record information should trieval more efficient
A. first discuss it with the patient’s family D. all of the above
B. discuss it with the patient first 6. What is the purpose of medical records
C. discuss the risks involved with his or A. to provide a written account of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
her lawyer health care for a patient
D. first discuss the problem with the pa- B. to provide a documentation of medical
tient’s contact person services for insurance purposes
C. to provide conformation of a patients
2. Information usually found on a Statistical appointments
Data Sheet
D. none of above
A. Name, DOB, address, insurance info,
occupation 7. Ownership of the medical record usually
remains with the
B. Name, reason for visit, date, spouses
occupation, parents names A. physician
B. court
C. Name, date of birth, date, health his-
tory, complaint C. patient
D. Name, Insurance info, family history, D. all of the avove
personal history, signature 8. An incomplete medical record may
3. To protect patient confidentiality, medical A. not be a problem, as the remainder
records can be released of the entry could be discussed during a
court hearing
A. to an attorney
B. allow only part of a bill to be paid
B. to the patient’s family members
C. make it impossible for the healthcare
C. to a judge provider to defend allegations in court
D. only with the patient’s written consent D. not be able to be subpoenaed to court
4. When filling out medical forms what writ- 9. Patient information in their medical record
ing utensil should be used? should include
A. red pen A. a record of divoreces
B. blue pen B. the date of birth
C. the date of marriage
C. permanent marker
D. the date of the spouses birth
D. black pen
10. The accepted method of correcting medical
5. Computerized medical records record errors is
A. pose problems of confidentiality A. erase and write the correction
B. should be accessed on a a need-to- B. draw a line through the error and write
know basis the correction underneath

1.11 medical statistics 127
C. draw a line through the error and write 12. What rights do patients have regarding
the correction above with the date and ini- their medical records?
tials of the person making the correction

A. None
D. erase and write the correction, adding
the date and initials of the person making B. Rights to have records destroyed
the correction C. To view and make copies
11. Why should you know your own health his- D. none of above
tory and your family’s health history?
A. to know if you have all your immuniza- 13. Immunization records should be kept
tions A. for 10 years
B. To have a better diet.
B. for 5 years
C. Awareness, Prevention, and Mainte-
nance C. permanently
D. Exercise more D. until the age of maturity

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JAI SHREE RAM

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