Paper - IV - Set-A

Hall Ticket Number
S-5 Booklet Code

S. No. 24442A
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Booklet Code
SET CODE
S-5 A Signature of the Invigilator

(ù||üsY ` IV)
PAPER - IV
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE (nuÛÑ´]úøÏ dü÷#·q\T)
(Read the Following instructions carefully before Answering)
(»yêãT\T |üP]+#˚ eTT+<äT ~>∑Te dü÷#·q\qT C≤Á>∑‘·Ô>± |ü]o*+#·e˝…qT)
1. Separate Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Answer Sheet is supplied to the candidate along with Question Paper
Booklet. Please read and follow the instructions on the OMR Answer Sheet for marking the correct response.
nuÛÑ´s¡Tú\≈£î Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ‘√ bÕ≥T Ä|æºø£˝Ÿ e÷sYÿ Ø&ÉsY (zm+ÄsY) »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ n+~+#·ã&ÉTqT. nuÛÑ´s¡Tú\T
»yêãT\T Ç#˚Ã eTT+<äT zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ô|’ ñqï dü÷#·q\T C≤Á>∑‘·Ô>± |ü]o*+#·e˝…qT.
2. The Candidate should ensure that the Hall Ticket Number and Name of the Candidate are properly
printed on the OMR Answer Sheet provided to you. The Candidates are further instructed to ensure
that the booklet code printed on OMR Answer Sheet is same as the Question Paper Booklet
code supplied to you.
nuÛ´Ñ ]ú zm+ÄsY »yêãT|üÁ‘·+ô|’ øπ {≤sTT+∫q Á|ü<X˚ +¯ ˝À Vü‰˝Ÿ{¬Ïø{Ÿ q+ãsY eT]j·TT ù|s¡T dü]>± Á|æ+{Ÿ nsTTq<ë ˝Ò<ë
nì dü]#·÷düTø√e˝…qT. nuÛÑ´]ú ‘·q≈£î Ç∫Ãq zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ MT<ä eTTÁ~+∫q ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ ø√&é, Ç∫Ãq Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+
MT<ä eTTÁ~+∫q ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ ø√&é ˇø£fÒ nsTTq<√ ˝Ò<√ dü]#·÷düTø=qe˝…qT.
3. This booklet contains 200 Questions and candidates shall answer all of them in 180 minutes.
á Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝{
… ˝
Ÿ À 200 Á|üXï¯ \T ñHêïsTT eT]j·TT nuÛ´Ñ s¡T\
ú T M≥ìï+{Ïø° 180 ì$TcÕ\˝À »yêãT\T |üP]+#·e˝…qT.
4. One mark will be awarded for every correct answer for post code 11 and half mark for post code 13.
There are no negative marks.
dü¬s’q Á|ür »yêãT≈£î b˛dtº ø√&é 11 ≈£î ˇø£ e÷s¡Tÿ, b˛dtº ø√&é 13 ≈£î ns¡ e÷s¡Tÿ πø{≤sTT+#·&É+ »s¡T>∑T‘·T+~. m≥Te+{Ï
s¡TD≤‘·àø£ e÷s¡Tÿ\T ˝Òe⁄.
5. Immediately on opening the Question Paper Booklet by tearing off the paper seal, please check
for (i) The same booklet code (A/B/C/D) on each page, (ii) Serial Number of the questions (1-200),
(iii) The number of pages and (iv) Correct Printing. In case of any defect, please report to the invigilator
and ask for replacement of booklet with same code within five minutes from the commencement of the test.
ˇø£kÕ] Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ d”˝ŸqT $&ÉBdæq yÓ+≥H˚ nuÛÑ´s¡Tú\T eTTK´+>± (i) ‘·eT≈£î πø{≤sTT+∫q ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ ø√&é
m / _ / dæ / &ç Á|ür ù|Jô|’ ñqï<√ ˝Ò<√ |ü]o*+#·Tø√e˝…qT, (ii) 1 qT+&ç 200 es¡≈î£ Á|üXï¯ \T es¡Tdü Áø£eT+˝À ñqï$
˝Òì$ |ü]o*+#·Tø√e˝…qT, (iii) ù|J\ dü+K´ eT]j·TT (iv) dü¬s’q eTTÁ<äD. ô|’q ù|s=ÿqï $wüj÷· \˝À @<ÓH’ ê ‘·|ü \T <=]¢q
jÓT&É\ nuÛ´Ñ s¡T\
ú T ‘·eT |üs´¡ y˚ø≈å£ î£ ì <äèwæøº Ï rdüT≈£îyÓ[¢ |üØø£å ÁbÕs¡+uÛyÑ TÓ qÆ 5 ì$TcÕ\˝À Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘êìï e÷s¡TÃø√e˝…qT.
6. Answers to the questions must be entered only on OMR Answer Sheet by completely shading the appropriate
circle with Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black) only.
˙\+ ˝Ò<ë q\T|ü⁄ u≤˝ŸbÕsTT+{Ÿ ô|qTï‘√ zm+ÄsY »yêãT|üÁ‘·+ô|’ |üP]Ô>± düs¬ q’ eè‘êÔìï mqTï≈£îì »yêãTqT |üP]+#·e˝…qT.
7. The OMR Answer Sheet will be invalidated if the circle is shaded using Pencil or if more than one circle is
shaded against each question even with a small dot.
zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ô|’ eè‘·Ô+˝À ô|ì‡˝Ÿ‘√ s¡T~›Hê ˝Ò<ë ˇø£ eè‘·ÔeTT˝À ø£Hêï m≈£îÿe eè‘êÔ\˝À ∫qï #·Tø£ÿ ô|{ÏºHê
˝Ò<ë s¡T~›Hê n$ eT÷\´+ø£HêìøÏ |ü]>∑DÏ+#·ã&Ée⁄.
8. Change of answer is NOT Allowed.
»yêãTqT m{Ïº |ü]dæú‘·T\˝ÀqT e÷s¡TÃ≥≈£î nqTeT‹+#·ã&É<äT.
 The Candidates must fully satisfy themselves about the accuracy of the answer before darkening the
appropriate circle of (1), (2), (3) or (4) in the OMR Answer Sheet with Blue /Black Ball Point Pen, as
it is not possible to change or erase once darkened.
ˇø£kÕ] zm+ÄsY »yêãT|üÁ‘·+ô|’ |üP]+∫q »yêãTqT #Ós|¡ &ü +É ≈£î<äs<¡ Tä ø±ã{Ïº nuÛ´Ñ s¡T\ú T ≈£îå Dí+>± Ä˝À∫+∫ »yêãTqT
˙\+ ˝Ò<ë q\T|ü⁄ u≤˝ŸbÕsTT+{Ÿ ô|qTï‘√ (1), (2), (3) ˝Ò<ë (4) eè‘êÔ\˝À ˇø£ eè‘êÔìï mqTï≈£îì |üP]+|üe˝…qT.
*S5-A-1* 1-A PTO
S-5 Booklet Code A
 Use of Eraser or White Fluid on the OMR Answer Sheet is not permitted as the OMR Answer Sheet
is machine gradable and it may lead to wrong evaluation.
eT÷˝≤´+ø£q+ j·T+Á‘·+ Ä<Ûës¡+>± #˚j·TT≥ e\q zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ô|’ yÓ’{Ÿ |òüP¢sTT&é >±ì, s¡ã“s¡T >±ì
yê&ÉT≥≈£î nqTeT‹ ˝Ò<äT.
9. The OMR Answer Sheet will not be valued if the candidate:
nuÛÑ´]ú zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ô|’ á ~>∑Te ù|s=ÿqï$ #˚dæq jÓT&É\ »yêãT|üÁ‘·+ eT÷˝≤´+ø£q+ #˚j·Tã&É<äT:
(a) Writes the Hall Ticket Number on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet except in the space provided
for the purpose,
zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ô|’ dü÷∫+∫q Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À ø±ø£ Vü‰˝Ÿ{Ï¬ø{Ÿ HÓ+ãsYqT y˚πs Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À mø£ÿ&É Áyêdæqf…Ì¢qqT,
(b) Writes any irrelevant matter including religious symbols, words, prayers or any communication what
so ever in any part of the OMR Answer Sheet,
zm+ÄsY »yêãT |üÁ‘·+ô|’ eT‘·|sü y¡ TÓ qÆ ∫Vü‰ï\T, |ü<ë\T, >∑Ts¡T\
Ô T, ÁbÕs¡qú \T eTπs Ç‘·s¡ ndü+ã+<Ûyä TÓ qÆ düe÷#ês¡+
Áyêdæqf…q¢Ì qT,
(c) Adopts any other malpractice.
m≥Te+{Ï <äTÅwüŒes¡Ôq≈£î bÕ\Œ&çqqT.
10. Electronic gadgets like Cell Phone, Pager, Calculator, Electronic watches and Mathematical/Log Tables
are not permitted into the examination hall.
|üØø£å Vü‰\T˝ÀøÏ m≥Te+{Ï m\Åø±ºìø˘ |ü]ø£sê˝…’q nq>± ôd˝Ÿbò˛Hé, ù|»sY, ø±*≈£î´˝Ò≥sY, m\Åø±ºìø˘ yêN\T, >∑DÏ‘·/˝≤>¥
ãTø˘\T nqTeT‹+#·ã&Ée⁄.
11. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Question Paper Booklet.
Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ˝À πø{≤sTT+∫q Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À e÷Á‘·y˚T s¡|òt esYÿ #˚düTø√e˝…qT.
12. Once the candidate enters the Examination Hall, he/she shall not be permitted to leave the Hall till the end
of the examination.
nuÛÑ´]ú ˇø£kÕ] |üØøå± Vü‰\T˝ÀøÏ Á|üy˚•+∫q ‘·sê«‘· |üØøå± düeTj·T+ eTT–ùd es¡≈£î ãj·T≥≈£î |ü+|üã&És¡T.
13. Ensure that the Invigilator puts his/her signature in the space provided on Question Paper Booklet and the
OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
nuÛ´Ñ ]ú ‘·q Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝{
… ôŸ |’ øπ {≤sTT+∫q Á|ü<X˚ +¯ ˝À |üs¡ý˚ø≈å£ î£ ì jÓTTø£ÿ dü+‘·ø+£ rdüTø=qe˝…qT. n˝≤H˚ zm+ÄsY
»yêãT|üÁ‘·+ô|’ nuÛÑ´]ú πø{≤sTT+∫q Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À ‘·q dü+‘·ø£+ #˚j·Te˝…qT.
14. The candidate should write the Question Paper Booklet code and its serial number and sign in the space
provided in the Nominal Rolls.
Hê$Tq˝Ÿ s√˝Ÿ‡ô|’ ìπs›•+∫q Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À nuÛÑ´]ú Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ ø√&é eT]j·TT <ëì Áø£eT dü+K´qT ‘·|üŒìdü]>±
Áyêj·Te˝…qT eT]j·TT ìπs›•+∫q Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À dü+‘·ø£+ #˚j·Te˝…qT.
15. Return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. Failure to return the OMR
Answer Sheet is liable for criminal action and the result will be kept withheld. The Question Paper Booklet shall
be taken away by the candidate and should be preserved till the declaration of results.
|üØøå± Vü‰\T qT+∫ ãj·T≥≈£î yÓ[q¢ |ü⁄&ÉT zm+ÄsY »yêãT|üÁ‘êìï |üs¡ý˚ø≈å£ î£ ìøÏ n+<äCj
Ò T· e˝…qT. zm+ÄsY »yêãT|üÁ‘·+
n+<äCÒj·Tì#√ nuÛÑ´]úô|’ ø£]ƒq #·s¡´\T rdüTø√e&É+ »s¡T>∑T‘·T+~ eT]j·TT n‘·&ç |òü*‘ê\qT ì\Te]+#·ã&ÉTqT
($‘Y ôV≤˝Ÿ¶). nuÛÑ´]ú á Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·eTTqT ‘·q yÓ+≥ rdüT≈£îyÓfi¯¢e#·TÃqT eT]j·TT |òü*‘ê\qT yÓ\¢&ç+#˚ es¡≈£î Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+
ãTø˘˝…{ŸqT ‘·eT e<ä› C≤Á>∑‘·Ô>± uÛÑÁ<ä|üs¡TÃø√e˝…qT.
NOTE: If any ambiguity arises in translations in any question, then the text/matter stated in English
version shall be treated as final, since the Question Paper Booklet is printed in two languages
viz. English / Telugu or English / Urdu.
@<Ó’Hê Á|üX¯ï nqTyê<ë\˝À ndüŒwüº‘· ñ+fÒ, Ç+^¢wt˝À ù|s=ïqï f…ø˘‡º/$wüj·T+ dü]jÓÆTq~>± uÛ≤$+#·e˝…qT.
m+<äTø£+fÒ Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãT¬ø¢{Ÿ ¬s+&ÉT uÛ≤wü\˝À (Ç+^¢wt/‘Ó\T>∑T ˝Ò<ë Ç+^¢wt/ñs¡÷›) eTTÁ~+#·ã&çq~.
This booklet consists of 48 Pages including Cover Page and Pages of Rough Work.
á Á|üXÊï|üÁ‘·+ ãTø˘˝…{Ÿ ø£es¡Tù|J eT]j·TT s¡|òt esYÿ ù|J\‘√ ø£*|æ 48 ù|J\T ø£*– ñqï~.
*S5-A-2* 2-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
Time : 3 Hours Marks : 200/100
Instructions :
(i) One mark will be awarded for every correct answer for post code 11 and half mark for
post code 13. There are no negative marks.
dü¬s’q Á|ür »yêãT≈£î b˛dtº ø√&é 11 ≈£î ˇø£ e÷s¡Tÿ, b˛dtº ø√&é 13 ≈£î ns¡ e÷s¡Tÿ πø{≤sTT+#·&É+
»s¡T>∑T‘·T+~. m≥Te+{Ï s¡TD≤‘·àø£ e÷s¡Tÿ\T ˝Òe⁄.
(ii) Choose the correct or most appropriate answer from the given options to the following
questions and darken, with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen the corresponding digit (1), (2), (3)
or (4) in the circle pertaining to the question number concerned in the OMR Answer Sheet,
separately provided to you.
~>∑Te Ç∫Ãq Á|ü‹ Á|üX¯ï≈£î Çe«ã&çq yê{Ï˝À dü]jÓÆTq düe÷<ÛëqeTTqT mqTïø=ì <ëìì dü÷∫+#˚
n+¬ø (1), (2), (3) ˝Ò<ë (4) y˚s¡T>± Ç∫Ãq OMR düe÷<Ûëq |üÁ‘·eTT˝À Á|üX¯ï≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫q
dü+K´>∑\ eè‘êÔìï ˙\+ ˝Ò<ë q\T|ü⁄ u≤˝Ÿ bÕsTT+{Ÿ ô|qTï ñ|üjÓ÷–+∫ ì+|üe˝…qT.
1. The speed of sound in air is 340 ms–1. The maximum wavelength of the sound wave that the
human ear can hear is
>±*˝À <Ûä«ì e&ç 340 ms–1. e÷qe #Ó$ $q>∑\ <Ûä«ì jÓTTø£ÿ >∑]wü˜ ‘·s¡+>∑<Ó’s¡È´+
(1) 34 m (2) 340 m (3) 17 m (4) 170 m
2. Cryogenics is
(1) the study of the production and applications of low temperatures
(2) the study of the production and measurement of high temperatures
(3) the study of the production and applications of low pressures
(4) the study of the production and measurement of high pressures
Áø£jÓ÷C…ìø˘‡ nH˚~
(1) ‘·≈£îÿe ñc˛íÁ>∑‘·\ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô eT]j·TT nqTes¡ÔHê\ n<Ûä´j·Tq+
(2) n~Ûø£ ñc˛íÁ>∑‘·\ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô eT]j·TT ø=\‘·\ n<Ûä´j·Tq+
(3) ‘·≈£îÿe |”&ÉHê\ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô eT]j·TT nqTes¡ÔHê\ n<Ûä´j·Tq+
(4) n~Ûø£ |”&ÉHê\ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô eT]j·TT ø=\‘·\ n<Ûä´j·Tq+
3. Colours produced by a thin film of oil spread on the surface of water are due to
(1) Diffraction of light (2) Interference of light
(3) Polarization of light (4) Scattering of light
˙{Ï ñ|ü]‘·\+ô|’ #·eTTs¡T jÓTTø£ÿ düqïì bıs¡ e\q s¡+>∑T\T @s¡Œ&ÉT≥≈£î >∑\ ø±s¡D+
(1) ø±+‹ $es¡Ôq+ (2) ø±+‹ e´‹ø£s¡D+
(3) ø±+‹ Á<ÛäTeD+ (4) ø±+‹ |ü]πøå|üD+
4. The instrument used to detect thermal radiations is
(1) Tachometer (2) Photometer (3) Sonometer (4) Bolometer
ñwüí $øÏs¡D≤\qT >∑T]Ô+#·&ÜìøÏ ñ|üjÓ÷–+#˚ |ü]ø£s¡+
(1) {≤ø√MT≥sY (2) bòı{ÀMT≥sY (3) k˛H√MT≥sY (4) uÀ˝ÀMT≥sY
*S5-A-3* 3-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
5. The splitting of a spectral line into various lines under the influence of a magnetic field is
known as
(1) Raman effect (2) Stark effect
(3) Hall effect (4) Zeeman effect
nj·TkÕÿ+‘· πøåÁ‘· Á|üuÛ≤e+ e\q es¡í|ü≥ πsK $$<Ûä πsK\T>± $uÛÑõ+#·ã&É{≤ìï @eT+{≤s¡T?
(1) sêeTHé Á|üuÛ≤e+ (2) kÕºsYÿ Á|üuÛ≤e+
(3) Vü‰˝Ÿ Á|üuÛ≤e+ (4) JeTHé Á|üuÛ≤e+
6. Nucleus of an atom consists of
(1) Electrons and protons (2) Protons and neutrons
(3) Electrons and neutrons (4) Electrons, protons and neutrons
ˇø£ |üs¡e÷DTe⁄ jÓTTø£ÿ πø+Á<äø£+˝À ñ+&˚$
(1) m\Áø±ºqT¢ eT]j·TT Áb˛{≤qT¢ (2) Áb˛{≤qT¢ eT]j·TT q÷´Á{≤qT¢
(3) m\Áø±ºqT¢ eT]j·TT q÷´Á{≤qT¢ (4) m\Áø±ºqT¢, Áb˛{≤qT¢ eT]j·TT q÷´Á{≤qT¢
7. The normal temperature of human body in Kelvin scale is nearly
e÷qe X¯Øs¡+ jÓTTø£ÿ kÕ<Ûës¡D ñc˛íÁ>∑‘· ¬ø*«Hé ùdÿ˝Ÿ˝À düTe÷s¡T>±
(1) 37 K (2) 100 K (3) 98.4 K (4) 310 K
8. The frequency of AC current used in houses in India is about
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À Çfi¯¢˝À¢ ñ|üjÓ÷–+#˚ AC ø£¬s+{Ÿ jÓTTø£ÿ bÂq'|ü⁄q´+ düTe÷s¡T>±
(1) 100 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 220 Hz (4) 110 Hz
9. The substance used for the manufacturing of the electronic device transistor is
(1) Copper (2) Gold (3) Silicon (4) Iron
m\Áø±ºìø˘ |ü]ø£s¡+ Á{≤ì‡wüºsY ‘·j·÷ØøÏ ñ|üjÓ÷–+#˚ |ü<ës¡ú+
(1) sê– (2) ã+>±s¡+ (3) dæ*ø±Hé (4) ÇqTeTT
10. Which quantity represents the reciprocal of the time period of sound waves?
(1) Frequency (2) Amplitude
(3) Velocity (4) Acceleration
X¯ã› ‘·s¡+>±\ Äes¡Ôq ø±\eTT jÓTTø£ÿ $˝Àe÷ìï dü÷∫+#·T sê• @~?
(1) bÂq'|ü⁄q´+ (2) ø£+|üq |ü]$T‹
(3) y˚>∑+ (4) ‘·«s¡D+
11. The number of electrons with l = 2 (l = azimuthal quantum number) in the ground state of
Zn and Zn2+ is respectively
uÛÑ÷dæú‹˝À qTqï Zn eT]j·TT Zn2+ \˝À l = 2 (l = mõeTT‘·˝Ÿ ø±«+≥yéT dü+K´) >∑\ m\Áø±ºHé\
dü+K´\T es¡Tdü>±
(1) 10, 8 (2) 10, 10 (3) 8, 10 (4) 8, 8
*S5-A-4* 4-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
12. In the periodic table on moving across a period from left to right the polarising power of
ions of elements increases but on moving down a group the polarising power decreases.
This makes the following pair of elements to show similar properties though their valencies
are different. Which pair is that?
Äes¡Ôq |ü{Ïºø£˝À |”]j·T&é˝À m&ÉeTqT+∫ ≈£î&çøÏ b˛j˚T ø=\~ eT÷\ø£ nj·÷Hé\ Á<ÛäTeD kÕeTs¡ú´+
ô|s¡T>∑T‘·T+~, ø±ì ˇø£ Á>∑÷|ü⁄˝À ô|’ qT+∫ ÁøÏ+~øÏ e#˚Ã ø=\~ Á<ÛäTeD kÕeTs¡ú´+ ‘·>∑TZ‘·T+~. Bì
e\q Ç∫Ãq eT÷\ø±\ »+≥˝À¢ @ »+≥ <Ûäsêà\T Ä eT÷\ø±\ y˚\˙‡\T y˚¬s’Hê ˇø£{Ï>±
ñ+{≤sTT?
(1) Na, Rb (2) Ca, S (3) Be, Al (4) Ge, Pb
13. The coordination number of Na+ in solid crystalline NaCl is 6. What is the coordination
number of Cl– in the same solid?
|òüTq düŒ{Ïø£ NaCl ˝À Na+ jÓTTø£ÿ düeTq«j·T dü+K´ 6. n<˚ |òüTq|ü<ës¡ú+˝À Cl– jÓTTø£ÿ düeTq«j·T
dü+K´ m+‘·?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 12
14. 25 mL of 0.30 M weak monobasic acid solution is neutralised with 25 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
solution. The pH of the resulting solution is
(Ka of weak acid is 5.0 × 10–5) (log 5 = 0.70, log 2 = 0.30)
25 mL \ 0.30 M ã\V”≤qyÓTÆq @ø£øå±s¡‘· ÄeT¢ Á<ëeD+ 25 mL \ 0.1 M NaOH Á<ëeD+‘√
‘·≥d”Ôø£]+#·ã&ç+~. |òü*‘· Á<ëeD+ pH m+‘·?
(ã\V”≤q ÄeT¢eTT Ka = 5.0 × 10–5) (log 5 = 0.70, log 2 = 0.30)
(1) 2.0 (2) 5.0 (3) 4.0 (4) 3.0
15. Which one of the following processes is not suitable for the purification/extraction of the
given metal?
(1) Purification of Nickel using Carbon monoxide by Mond process.
(2) Purification of Zirconium using Van Arkel-de Boer process.
(3) Cinnabar (HgS) is roasted in air and heated to extract Hg.
(4) Electrolysis of Sodium Chloride aqueous solution to extract Sodium.
ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À @ ˝ÀVü≤ dü+Á>∑Vü≤D #·s¡´ ˝Ò<ë ˝ÀVü≤X¯ó~∆ Á|üÁøÏj·T Ç∫Ãq ˝ÀVü‰ìøÏ M\Tø±<äT?
(1) e÷+&é $<Ûëq+˝À ø±s¡“Hé yÓ÷Hê¬ø’‡&éqT ñ|üjÓ÷–+∫ ì¬ø˝ŸqT X¯ó~∆#˚j·T&É+.
(2) yêHé Ä¬sÿ˝Ÿ &ç uÀsTTsY $<Ûëq+˝À õs√ÿìj·T+qT X¯ó~∆#˚j·T&É+.
(3) dæqïu≤sY (HgS) qT >±*˝À uÛÑs¡®q+ #˚dæ Ä ‘·sê«‘· y˚&ç#˚dæ yÓTs¡Tÿ´] ˝ÀVü‰ìï dü+Á>∑Væ≤+#·&É+.
(4) k˛&çj·T+ ˝ÀVü‰ìï dü+Á>∑Væ≤+#·&ÜìøÏ k˛&çj·T+ ø√¢¬s’&é »\Á<ëeD≤ìï $<äT´~«X‚¢wüD #˚j·T&É+.
16. Which one of the following pairs of monomers form a thermosetting polymer bakelite?
(1) 1, 3-Butadiene, Styrene (2) Urea, Formaldehyde
(3) Phenol, Formaldehyde (4) Melamine, Formaldehyde
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À @ »‘· yÓ÷H√eTsY\T <Ûäs√àôd{Ïº+>¥ bÕ*eTsY uÒø£˝…’{ŸqT @s¡Œs¡TkÕÔsTT?
(1) 1, 3`ã÷´≥&Ó’sT÷Hé, ôdºÌØHé (2) j·T÷]j·÷, bòÕsêà*¶ôV’≤&é
(3) |òæHê˝Ÿ, bòÕsêà*¶ôV’≤&é (4) yÓT\yÓTÆHé, bòÕsêà*¶ôV’≤&é
*S5-A-5* 5-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
17. Which one of the following is not a use of pesticide?
(1) prevention, destroying or control pests
(2) prevention of unwanted species of plants and animals that are harmful
(3) prevention of interference of pests with the production, processing, storage of food
stuffs etc
(4) Allow the premature fall of crops
ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À @~ ø°≥ø£ dü+Vü‰]DÏ (pesticide) ñ|üjÓ÷>∑+ ø±<äT?
(1) ø°≥ø±\ ìj·T+Á‘·D, HêX¯q+ #˚j·T&É+ ˝Ò<ë ìyês¡D #˚j·T&É+
(2) qwüº+ ø£*–+#˚ e´s¡ú yÓTTø£ÿ\qT, »+‘·Te⁄\qT ìyê]+#·&É+
(3) ÄVü‰s¡ |ü<ësêú\ ñ‘·Œ‘·TÔ˝À¢qT, ‘·j·÷Ø $<ÛëHêï˝Àq÷, ì\« #˚dæq|ü&ÉT, ø°≥ø±\ Á|üuÛ≤e+
‘=\–+#·&É+
(4) |ü+≥\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ |üø£«<äX¯≈£î sê≈£î+&ÜH˚ |ü+≥sê*b˛j˚T≥T¢ #˚j·T&É+
18. The standard reduction potentials of the following reactions
a) Fe3  e 
 Fe2  and
b) Fe 2   2e  Fe
are +0.77 V and –0.47 V respectively. Then for the reaction Fe3  3e 
 Fe , the standard
reduction potential (in V) is
ÁøÏ+~ #·s¡´\≈£î
a) Fe3  e 
 Fe2  eT]j·TT
b) Fe 2   2e 
 Fe
Á|üe÷D ø£j å T· ø£sD
¡ X¯øà£ eTT\T es¡Tdü>± +0.77 V eT]j·TT –0.47 V \T. nsTT‘˚ Fe3  3e 
 Fe
#·s¡´≈£î Á|üe÷D ø£åj·Tø£s¡D X¯ø£àeTT (V \˝À) m+‘·?
(1) +0.17 (2) –1.24 (3) –0.057 (4) +0.057
19. What is Y in the following reaction sequence?

ÁøÏ+~ #·sê´ Áø£eTeTT˝À Y @~?
(i) NH 3 P2 O5
C 6 H 5COOH  X  Y
(ii) 
(1) C6H5CN (2) C6H5NC (3) C6H5NH2 (4) C6H5CHO
*S5-A-6* 6-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
20. In the following reactions X and Y respectively are
ÁøÏ+~ #·s¡´\˝À X , Y \T es¡Tdü>±

a) R  COOH  X 
 R  CO  NHR'
(i) LiAlH
b) R  CO  NHR' 
4
Y
(ii) H 2O
(1) R' NH2 and R – CH2NHR'
(2) R – NHR' and R'NH2
(3) NH3 and R – NH – R'
(4) R – NH2 and R – CH2 – CH2 – NH – R'
21. Choose the correct statements.
A) Pili of Gonorrhoea help the bacterium to colonize in the mucus membrane.
B) Plasmids are associated with the chromosomal material of the bacteria.
C) Endospores are extracellular resting spores of bacteria.
D) Transformation technique is useful in studies related to mapping of the bacterial
Chromosome.
dü]jÓÆTq yê´K´\qT >∑T]Ô+#·TeTT.
A) >∑H˚]j·÷ u≤ø°º]j·T+q+<äT>∑\ |æ˝…’ ìsêàD≤\T eT÷´ø£dt bıs¡˝À düeT÷Vü‰\qT @s¡Œs¡#·T≥˝À
düVü‰j·T|ü&ÉT‘êsTT.
B) u≤ø°º]j·÷ Áø√yÓ÷CÀeTT\≈£î düVü‰j·T+>± bÕ¢dæà&é\T yêìì n+{Ïô|≥Tºø=ì ñ+{≤sTT.
C) u≤ø°] º j·÷q+<äT n+‘·d‡æ <ä∆ ;C≤\T nqTq$ $sêeT dæ<∆ä ;C≤\T>± ø£D+ yÓ\T|ü\>± @s¡Œ&É‘êsTT.
D) u≤ø°º]j·÷ Áø√yÓ÷CÀeTT »qT´|ü≥eTT #˚j·TT≥, n<Ûä´j·Tq+˝À »qT´ |ü]es¡Ôq Á|üjÓ÷>∑+
ñ|üjÓ÷>∑|ü&ÉT‘·T+~.
(1) A, B (2) B, C (3) C, D (4) A, D
22. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Taxonomy purely based on the description of morphological characters is called Alpha
Taxonomy.
(2) Carl Linnaeus is hailed as Father of Taxonomy.
(3) Genera Plantarum is written based on the morphological characters of flower.
(4) Based on phytochemical data classification is called cytotaxonomy.
dü]ø±ì yê´K´qT >∑T]Ô+#·TeTT.
(1) dü«s¡÷|ü \ø£åD≤\ es¡íq MT<ä e÷Á‘·y˚T |üP]Ô>± Ä<Ûës¡|ü&˚ eØZø£s¡D XÊÁkÕÔìï Ä˝≤Œ¤eØZø£s¡D
XÊg+ n+{≤s¡T.
(2) ø±sY¢ *H˚ïj·TdtqT eØZø£s¡D |æ‘êeTVüQ&ÉT>± ø°]ÔkÕÔs¡T.
(3) |ü⁄wüŒeTT dü«s¡÷|ü \ø£åD≤\ Ä<Ûës¡+>± C…˙sê bÕ¢+{≤s¡yéT Áyêj·Tã&çq~.
(4) s¡kÕj·Tìø£ |ü<ësêú\ düe÷#êsêìï ñ|üjÓ÷–+∫ eØZø£s¡DqT #˚j·TT≥qT ø£D≤<Ûës¡ eØZø£s¡D
n+{≤s¡T.
*S5-A-7* 7-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
23. Match the following
List - I List - II
a) Histones i) Found in salivary glands of larvae, Malphigian
tubules
b) Lampbrush chromosomes ii) Nucleosome core
c) Giant chromosomes iii) Sister chromatids of each chromosome move
to opposite poles
d) Mitosis iv) Found in oocytes of vertebrates
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ïì »‘·|üs¡T#·TeTT
C≤_‘ê - I C≤_‘ê - II
a) Væ≤k˛ºHé\T i) ˝≤sê«\ ˝≤˝≤»\ Á>∑+<∏äT\˝À,
e÷©Œ¤õj·THé Hê[ø£\˝Àñ+{≤sTT.
b) ˝≤+|tÁãwt Áø√yÓ÷k˛yéT\T ii) q÷´øÏ¢jÓ÷k˛yéT ø√sY
c) C…sTT+{Ÿ Áø√yÓ÷k˛yéT\T iii) Á|ü‹ Áø√yÓ÷k˛yéTq+<ä* k˛<ä] Áø√e÷{Ï&ÉT¢
m<äT¬s<äTs¡T <Ûäèyê\ yÓ’|ü⁄q≈£î #·*kÕÔsTT.
d) düeT $uÛÑ»q iv) düø£X‚s¡Tø±\ Åd”Ô ;» e÷‘·è ø£D≤\T (}ôd’{Ÿ‡) q+<äT
e⁄+{≤sTT.
The correct answer is :
dü]jÓÆTq düe÷<ÛëqeTT :
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
a) In cyclic photophosphorylation NADP+ is not reduced due to which the rate of CO2
assimilation is decreased.
b) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation stops in the presence of inhibitors like DCMU.
c) The PS II is located on the outer surface of the thylakoids.
d) Robert Hill studied the Red drop Phenomenon in Chlorella plant.
a) #·Áø°Ïj·T ø±+‹ bòÕkÕŒ¤]˝ÒwüHé q+<äT NADP+ ø£åj·Tø£s¡D+ #Ó+<äì ø±s¡D+>± CO2 dü+X‚¢wüD
πs≥T ‘·>∑TZ‘·T+~.
b) DCMU e+{Ï ìs√<Ûäø±\ e\q n#·Áø°Ïj·T ø±+‹ bòÕkÕŒ¤]˝ÒwüHé ìs√~Û+#·ã&ÉT‘·T+~.
c) <∏Ó’\ø±sTT&é\ yÓ\T|ü* ‘·\+yÓ’|ü⁄ PS II \T e⁄+{≤sTT.
d) ø√¢¬s˝≤¢ yÓTTø£ÿ˝À ns¡TD |ü‘·q+ nH˚ <äè–«wüj·÷ìï sêãsYº Væ≤˝Ÿ n<Ûä´j·Tq+ #˚kÕs¡T.
(1) (a), (b) (2) (b), (c) (3) (c), (d) (4) (a), (d)
*S5-A-8* 8-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
a) Ethylene and Abscisic acid induce dormancy.
b) Cytokinins can cause morphogenetic changes.
c) Phototropic reaction can determine the growth habit of the plants.
d) The growth rate increases in the presence of excess food materials.
a) m~∏©Hé eT]j·TT nã‡dæø˘ ÄeT¢+ düTbÕÔedüúqT Áù|πs|ækÕÔsTT.
b) ôd’{À¬ø’ìHé\T dü«s¡÷|ü »qT´ e÷s¡TŒ\qT rdüT≈£îì sê>∑\e⁄.
c) yÓTTø£ÿ\ ô|s¡T>∑T<ä\ \ø£åD≤\qT ø±+‹ nqTes¡Ôq #·s¡´\T ìπs›•kÕÔsTT.
d) n~Ûø£ ÄVü‰s¡ |ü<ësêú\ e\q ô|s¡T>∑T<ä\ πs≥T m≈£îÿe>∑TqT.
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (c), (d) (3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (a), (c), (d)
26. Identify the natural pollutants among the following
a) Carbon monoxide b) Lead, Mercury
c) Pesticides d) Cosmetic products
e) Urine
ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À düVü≤» ø±\Twü´ø±\qT >∑T]Ô+#·TeTT.
a) ø±s¡“Hé yÓ÷Hê¬ø’‡&é b) d”dü+, bÕ<äs¡dü+
c) N&ÉHêX¯ø±\T d) kÂ+<äs¡´ b˛wüø£ ñ‘·Œ‘·TÔ\T
e) eT÷Á‘·eTT
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (c), (d), (e) (3) (a), (b), (e) (4) (a), (c), (d)
27. The following microbial infection leads to production of interferons by host cells.
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Protozoans
ÁøÏ+~ dü÷ø£åàJe dü+Áø£eTD+ e\q n‹<Û˚sTT ø£D≤\T Ç+≥sY ô|òsêHé‡ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô #˚kÕÔsTT.
(1) yÓ’s¡dt\T (2) u≤ø°º]j·÷ (3) •©+Á<Ûë\T (4) Áb˛{ÀCÀeqT¢
28. Physical treatment of large and small particles from sewage through filteration and
sedimentation is called
(1) Primary treatment (2) Secondary treatment
(3) Tertiary treatment (4) Quaternary treatment
eTTs¡T>∑T ˙{Ï˝Àì ô|<ä›, ∫qï ø£D≤\qT e&Éb˛‘· eT]j·TT nekÕ<äHê\ <ë«sê #˚ùd uÛÖ‹ø£ X¯ó~∆ì
(1) ÁbÕ<∏ä$Tø£ X¯ó~∆ n+{≤s¡T (2) ~«rj·T X¯ó~∆ n+{≤s¡T
(3) ‘·èrj·T X¯ó~∆ n+{≤s¡T (4) #·‘·T]ú X¯ó~∆ n+{≤s¡T
29. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is
(1) Apogamy (2) Apospory
(3) Panthenocarpy (4) Panthenogenesis
ø£åj·Tø£s¡D $uÛÑ»q »s¡>∑≈£î+&Ü dæ<ä∆ ;»<äeTT qT+∫ H˚s¡T>± dü+jÓ÷>∑ ;»<äeTT @s¡Œ&É≥+.
(1) nb˛>∑$T (2) nb˛k˛Œ]
(3) nìùwø£ |òü\q+ (4) nìùwø£ »qq+
*S5-A-9* 9-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
30. What will be the status in the mitotic cell division, If a cell is treated with a chemical that
prevents DNA synthesis?
(1) No change in the daughter cell DNA over parent DNA.
(2) The daughter cell will have half the chromosome of parent cell.
(3) The parent cell will not divide.
(4) Parent cell will have other mechanism by which the DNA can double.
ˇø£ ø£D≤ìï DNA dü+X‚¢wüDqT ìs√~Û+#·>∑\ s¡kÕj·THêìøÏ >∑T]#˚dæq#√ düeT $uÛÑ»q q+<äT <ëì dæú‹
(1) e÷‘·è DNA ≈£î, |æ\¢ ø£D+ DNA ≈£î @ e÷s¡TŒ ñ+&É<äT.
(2) e÷‘·èø£D+˝Àì Áø√yÓ÷k˛yéT≈£î dü>∑eTT |æ\¢ø£D+˝À e⁄+≥T+~.
(3) e÷‘·èø£D+ $uÛÑ»q #Ó+<ä<äT.
(4) DNA qT ~«>∑TD°ø£è‘·+ #˚düTø=qT≥≈£î e÷‘·è ø£D+ q+<äT eTs=ø£ j·÷+Á‹ø£eTT ñ+≥T+~.
31. Vitamin B12 is chemically called
(1) Cyanocobalamin (2) Pyridoxine (3) Folic acid (4) Riboflavin
$≥$THé B12qT s¡kÕj·Tìø£+>± Ç˝≤ ù|s=ÿ+{≤s¡T
(1) ôd’H√ø√u≤\$THé (2) ô|’]&ÜøÏ‡Hé (3) bò˛*ø˘ ÄeT¢+ (4) ¬s’uÀbòÕ¢$Hé
32. In a nephron this part is impermeable to water
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle (4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
eèø£ÿ Á|üe÷D+˝À á uÛ≤>∑+ ˙{ÏøÏ bÕs¡>∑eT´‘· #·÷|ü<äT.
(1) kÕMT|ü´ dü+e[‘· Hê[ø£ (2) <ä÷s¡düú dü+e[‘· Hê[ø£
(3) ôV≤˙¢ •ø£´|ü⁄ nes√Vü≤ Hê[ø£ (4) ôV≤˙¢ •ø£´|ü⁄ ns√Vü≤ Hê[ø£
33. If blood group of mother is A (homozygous) and that of father is AB, these blood groups
are not expected in their children
‘·*¢ s¡ø£Ô es¡Z+ A (düeT j·TT>∑à») ‘·+Á&ç s¡ø£Ô es¡Z+ AB, nsTT‘˚ yê] |æ\¢\˝À á s¡ø£Ô esêZ\T ñ+&Ée⁄.
(1) A, B (2) A, AB (3) B, O (4) A, O
34. One of the following is Ex-situ conservation.
(1) National Parks (2) Sanctuaries
(3) Biosphere reserves (4) Cryopreservation
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À düú\ u≤Vü≤´ dü+s¡ø£åD≤ $<Ûëq+
(1) C≤rj·T bÕsYÿ\T (2) nuÛÑj·÷s¡D≤´\T
(3) Je>√fi¯ düTs¡øÏå‘· πø+Á<ë\T (4) n‹o‘·©ø£s¡D
35. Digitalin extracted from fox glove plant is useful in the treatment of
(1) Cardiac problems (2) Cancer
(3) Hypertension (4) Kidney problems
bòÕø˘‡>√¢yé yÓTTø£ÿ qT+&ç \_Û+#˚ &çõ{≤*Hé á ∫øÏ‘·‡˝À ñ|üjÓ÷–kÕÔs¡T.
(1) Vü≤è<äj·T dü+ã+<Ûä düeTdü´\T (2) ø±´q‡sY
(3) n~Ûø£ s¡ø£Ôb˛≥T (4) eT÷Á‘·|æ+&É düeTdü´\T
*S5-A-10* 10-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
36. During blood clotting, thrombin converts the fibrinogen into soluble fibrin. Then it becomes
insoluble fibrin threads due to the action of
(1) Factor VII (2) Factor IX (3) Factor XIII (4) Factor XII
s¡ø£Ôdüÿ+<äq Á|üÁøÏj·T˝À ô|ò’Á_H√»HéqT Á‘ê+_Hé ø£]π> ô|ò’Á_Hé>± e÷s¡TdüTÔ+~. nq+‘·s¡+ á ø±s¡ø£+ #·s¡´
e\¢ n~ ø£s¡>∑ì ô|ò’Á_Hé <ësê\T>± e÷s¡T‘·T+~.
(1) ø±s¡ø+ £ VII (2) ø±s¡ø£+ IX (3) ø±s¡ø+ £ XIII (4) ø±s¡ø+
£ XII
37. Pick up the mismatched pair.
(1) Skin patches - Oestrogen, progesterone
(2) Vasectomy - Family planning operation for females
(3) Amniocentesis - Identification of genetic disorders
(4) LNG 20 - Intra uterine device
‘·|ü>± ñqï »‘·qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) #·s¡à |ü{°º\T ` áÁk˛º»Hé, Áb˛C…dæºsêHé
(2) yêôdø£ºMT ` Ád”Ô\≈£î #˚ùd ≈£î≥T+ã ìj·T+Á‘·D Ä|üπswüHé
(3) ñ\“Á<äe |üØø£å ` »qT´|üs¡yÓTÆq ˝ÀbÕ\ >∑T]Ô+|ü⁄
(4) LNG 20 ` >∑sê“¤X¯j·÷+‘·s¡ kÕ<Ûäq+
38. Sinoatrial node is the pacemaker in human heart. It lies in the wall of
(1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium (3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle
e÷qe⁄ì >∑T+&Ó˝À dæsêø£]íø± ø£DT|ü⁄ \j·÷s¡+uÛÑø£+. Ç~ Bì >√&É˝À ñ+≥T+~.
(1) ≈£î&ç ø£]íø£ (2) m&ÉeT ø£]íø£ (3) ≈£î&ç »sƒ¡]ø£ (4) m&ÉeT »sƒ¡]ø£
39. From the following pick up the correct combinations
S.No. Endocrine gland Hormone Abnormality due to over
or under secretion
I Pituitary gland Vasopressin Diabetes mellitus
II Pancreas Insulin Diabetes insipidus
III Thyroid gland Thyroxine Cretinism
IV Parathyroid glands Parathormone Tetany
ÁøÏ+~ yêì qT+&ç dü¬s’q y˚Tfi¯$+|ü⁄\qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç
e.dü+. n+‘·ÁkÕ‡Mj·T Á>∑+~∏ Vü‰s√àHé n~Ûø£ ˝Òø£ n\ŒÁkÕe+
e\¢ ø£*>π nkÕ<Ûës¡D dæ‹ú
I |”j·T÷wü Á>∑+~∏Û yêk˛Áô|dæHé &Éj·÷u…{Ïdt yÓT*¢≥dt
II ø√¢eT+ ÇqT‡*Hé &Éj·÷u…{Ïdt ÇHédæ|æ&Édt
III ne≥T Á>∑+~∏ <∏Ó’sêøÏ‡Hé Á¬ø{Ïì»+
IV bÕsê<∏Ó’sêsTT&é Á>∑+<∏äT\T bÕsê<∏ës√àHé <ÛäqTsê«‘·+ (Tetany)
(1) I, II (2) II, III (3) III, IV (4) II, IV
*S5-A-11* 11-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
40. Arrange the following in sequential order from the production of sperms to out side in
human male reproductive system.
A) Rete testis B) Vasa efferentia
C) Vas deferens D) Seminiferous tubules
E) Urethra F) Ejaculatory duct
G) Epididymis
e÷qe |ü⁄s¡Twü Á|ü‘·T´‘·Œ‹Ô eédüú˝Àì ÁøÏ+~ uÛ≤>±\qT X¯óÁø£ø£D≤\ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô qT+&ç ãj·T≥≈£î s¡yêD≤
#˚ùd uÛ≤>±\qT es¡Tdü˝À neTs¡Ã+&ç.
A) ØfÒ… f…dæºdt B) X¯óÁø£Hê[ø£\T
C) X¯óÁø£yêVæ≤ø£ D) X¯óÁø√‘êŒ<äø£ Hê[ø£\T
E) Á|üùdø£+ F) düÿ\q Hêfi¯+
G) m|æ&ç&Ó’$Tdt
(1) D-B-A-G-F-C-E (2) A-B-C-D-E-F-G
(3) E-D-A-C-F-B-G (4) D-A-B-G-C-F-E
41. According to the UNCTAD’s World Investment Report 2023, released in July 2023 the
global foreign direct investment declined in 2022 by
UNCTAD p˝…’ 2023 ˝À $&ÉT<ä\ #˚dæq es¡˝Ÿ¶ ÇHÓ«dtºyÓT+{Ÿ ]b˛sYº 2023 Á|üø±s¡+ 2022 ˝À
Á|ü|ü+#· $<˚o Á|ü‘·´ø£å ô|≥Tºã&ÉT\ ‘·>∑TZ<ä\
(1) 12% (2) 13% (3) 14% (4) 15%
42. As per the statement given by the Union Minister of Law and Justice on 6th March 2023, in
last 8 years the Union Government has undertaken a big exercise to repeal obsolete and
archaic laws and X number of such laws have been removed from statute book. In the coming
Parliament session, Union Ministry of law and justice is set to bring a bill to repeal
Y number of more obsolete laws and other such provisions. Here X and Y are respectively
πø+Á<ä Hê´j·TXÊU≤ eT+Á‹ e÷]Ã 6, 2023q ‘Ó*|æq Á|üø±s¡+ >∑‘· 8 dü+e‘·‡sê\˝À uÛ≤s¡‘· Á|üuÛÑT‘·«+
yê&ÉTø£˝À˝Òì eT]j·TT |ü⁄sê‘·qyÓTÆq X dü+K´˝À #·{≤º\qT XÊdüq |ü⁄düÔø£+ qT+&ç ‘=\–+∫+~.
n˝≤+{Ï eTs√ Y dü+K´˝À #·{≤º\qT ‘=\–+#·&ÜìøÏ sêuÀj˚T bÕs¡¢yÓT+{Ÿ düe÷y˚XÊ\˝À πø+Á<ä
Hê´j·T eT+Á‹‘·« XÊK _\T¢ Á|üy˚X¯ô|≥ºqT+~. Çø£ÿ&É X eT]j·TT Y\T es¡Tdü>±
(1) 1846, 65 (2) 1486, 46 (3) 1846, 46 (4) 1486, 65
43. National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal has produced the country’s first cloned female
calf. Identify its breed and name respectively.
(1) Gir and Ganga (2) Ongole and Godavari
(3) Sahiwal and Narmada (4) Red Sindhi and Yamuna
H˚wüq˝Ÿ &ÓsTTØ ØôdsYÃ ÇHédæº≥÷´{Ÿ, ø£sêï˝Ÿ uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯|ü⁄ yÓTT<ä{Ï ø√¢Hé #˚j·Tã&çq Ä&É <ä÷&ÉqT
ñ‘·Œ‹Ô #˚dæ+~. <ëì C≤‹ eT]j·TT ù|s¡TqT es¡Tdü>± m+|æø£ #˚j·T+&ç.
(1) –sY eT]j·TT >∑+>± (2) ˇ+>√˝Ÿ eT]j·TT >√<ëe]
(3) düVæ≤yê˝Ÿ eT]j·TT qs¡à<ä (4) ¬s&é dæ+~Û eT]j·TT j·TeTTq
*S5-A-12* 12-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
44. Estimated procurement of Rice for the Kharif Marketing Season (KMS) 2023-2024 is
(in Lakh Metric Tonnes)
KØ|òt e÷¬sÿ{Ï+>¥ d”»Hé (KMS) 2023-2024 øÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ _j·T´+ ùdø£s¡D n+#·Hê (\ø£å\
yÓTÁ{Ïø˘ ≥qTï\˝À)
(1) 372.42 (2) 421.72 (3) 321.27 (4) 521.27
45. Identify the following satellites which were separated from the SSLV-D2 launch vehicle at
an altitude of 450 km at the time of 785.1 sec, 880.1 sec and 900.1 sec respectively.
(1) EOS-07, Azaadi SAT-2 & Janus-1 (2) Azaadi SAT-2, Janus-1 & EOS-07
(3) EOS-07, Janus-1 & Azaadi SAT-2 (4) Janus-1, Azadi SAT-2 & EOS-07
450 øÏ˝ÀMT≥s¡¢ m‘·TÔ˝À 785.1 ôdø£qT, 880.1 ôdø£qT, 900.1 ôdø£qT\ düeTj·T+˝À SSLV-D2
Á|üjÓ÷>∑ yêVü≤q+ qT+&ç y˚s¡T #˚j·Tã&çq ÁøÏ+~ ñ|üÁ>∑Vü‰\qT es¡Tdü>± >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) EOS-07, ÄC≤BXÊ{Ÿ-2 & C≤qdt-1 (2) ÄC≤BXÊ{Ÿ-2, C≤qdt-1 & EOS-07
(3) EOS-07, C≤qdt-1 & ÄC≤BXÊ{Ÿ-2 (4) C≤qdt-1, ÄC≤BXÊ{Ÿ-2 & EOS-07
46. The 7th edition of joint military exercise “Ajeya Warrior-2023” was conducted between
India and the following country
(1) Bangladesh (2) Indonesia
(3) France (4) United Kingdom
7e m&çwüHé ñeTà&ç ôd’ìø£ $Hê´dü+ ªªnCÒj·T yê]j·TsY-2023μμ uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ eT]j·TT á ÁøÏ+~ <˚XÊ\
eT<Ûä´ ìs¡«Væ≤+#·ã&ç+~.
(1) ã+>±¢<X˚ Ÿ (2) Ç+&√H˚wæj·÷
(3) ÁbòÕHé‡ (4) j·TTHÓf
’ &… é øÏ+>¥&yÉ Té
47. On 19th May 2023, the President of India promulgated an ordinance and nullified the
judgement of Supreme Court given on 11th May 2023 is related to
(1) NCT of Delhi
(2) Data Protection
(3) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage)
(4) The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes
düTÁ|”+ø√s¡Tº 11 y˚T 2023 q Ç∫Ãq rs¡TŒqT ø±<äì 19 y˚T 2023 q uÛ≤s¡‘· sêh|ü‹ C≤Ø #˚dæq
Ä]¶HÓHé‡ BìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫q~
(1) NCT Ä|òt &Ûç©¢
(2) &˚{≤ Ábı≥ø£åHé
(3) <ä eTTdæ¢+ ñeTHé (Ábıf…ø£åHé Ä|òt ¬s’{Ÿ‡ ÄHé e÷´ππsCŸ)
(4) <ä u≤ì+>¥ Ä|òt nHé¬s>∑T´˝Òf…&é &çbÕõ{Ÿ d”ÿyéT‡
*S5-A-13* 13-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
48. Choose the incorrect sentence regarding the recommendations of 50th meeting of GST
Council.
(1) Casino, Horse racing and Online gaming to be taxed at the uniform rate of 28% on
full face value.
(2) Recommends to down the tax rates from 18% to 5% on 14 items.
(3) Notification of GST Appellate Tribunal by Central Government with effect from
01.08.2023.
(4) IGST exemption for Dinutuximab medicine, when imported for personal use.
GST øöì‡˝Ÿ 50e düe÷y˚X¯+ dæbòÕs¡T‡\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì yêø£éTT m+|æø£ #˚j·T+&ç
(1) ø±dæH√, >∑Ti¿|ü⁄ πsdüT\T eT]j·TT ÄHé˝…’Hé π>yéT\≈£î |üP]Ô eTTK $\Teô|’ 28% @ø£Ø‹ πs≥T‘√
|üqTï $~Û+|ü⁄.
(2) 14 edüTÔe⁄\ô|’ |üqTïπs≥TqT 18% qT+&ç 5% ‘·–Z+#·e\dæ+<äì dæbòÕs¡T‡ #˚dæ+~.
(3) 01.08.2023 qT+&ç GST n|æŒ˝Ò{Ÿ Á{ÏãT´q˝Ÿ neT\j˚T´˝≤ H√{Ï|òæπøwüHé Çyê«\ì πø+Á<ëìøÏ
dü÷#·q.
(4) e´øÏ>Ô ‘∑ · $ìjÓ÷>∑+ ø√dü+ ~>∑TeT‹ #˚dTü ø=H˚ &Óq’ T≥øÏ‡e÷uŸ Wwü<ëÛ ìøÏ IGST qT+&ç $TqVü‰sTT+|ü⁄.
49. Match the following instruments arranged on the Lander / Rover of Chandrayan-3 with
their functions.
List-I List-II
a) ChaSTE i) Qualitative and quantitative elemental analysis
b) RAMBHA-LP ii) To measure the thermal properties of lunar
surface near polar region
c) ILSA iii) To measure seismicity around the landing site
d) LIBS iv) To measure the near surface plasma density
#·+Á<äj÷· Hé-3 ˝À >∑\ ˝≤´+&ÉsY / s√esY ô|’ neT]Ãq ÁøÏ+~ |ü]ø£sê\qT n$ #˚ùd |üqT\‘√ »‘·|sü # ¡ +· &ç.
C≤_‘ê - I C≤_‘ê - II
a) ChaSTE i) >∑TD≤‘·àø£ eT]j·TT |ü]e÷D≤‘·àø£ eT÷\ø£ $X‚¢wüD
b) RAMBHA-LP ii) #·+Á<äTì <Ûèä edüMT|ü ñ|ü]‘·\ ñwü<
í säÛ êà\ n<Û´ä j·Tq+
c) ILSA iii) ˝≤´+&ç+>¥ Á|ü<˚X¯+˝À Á|üø£+|üHê\qT ø=\e&É+
d) LIBS iv) ñ|ü]‘·˝≤ìøÏ <ä>∑Zs¡˝À bÕ¢kÕà kÕ+Á<ä‘· ˝…øÏÿ+#·&É+
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
*S5-A-14* 14-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
50. “Understanding Ecosystem for Health and Well-being” is the theme of
(1) Earth Day - 2023 (2) 30th National Children’s Science Congress
(3) World Day of the Sick - 2023 (4) World Wetland Day - 2023
ªªn+&ÉsYkÕº+&ç+>¥ mø√dædüºyéT |òüsY ôV≤˝ŸÔ n+&é yÓ˝Ÿ;sTT+>¥μμ Bì jÓTTø£ÿ Ç‹eè‘·Ô+
(1) msYÔ &˚ - 2023 (2) 30e H˚wüq˝Ÿ ∫Á\¶Hé‡ ôd’Hé‡ ø±+Á¬>dt
(3) es¡˝Ÿ¶ &˚ Ä|òt ~ dæø˘ - 2023 (4) es¡˝Ÿ¶ yÓ{Ÿ˝≤+&é &˚ - 2023
51. According to the Global Liveability Index 2023 which was released by EIU, the top 3
(Rank 1 to 3) cities respectively
(1) Melbourne, Copenhagen, Vienna (2) Vienna, Copenhagen, Melbourne
(3) Vienna, Melbourne, Copenhagen (4) Melbourne, Vienna, Copenhagen
EIU $&ÉT<ä\ #˚dæq ~ >√¢ã˝Ÿ *$_*{° Ç+&Óø˘‡ 2023 Á|üø±s¡+ yÓTT<ä{Ï eT÷&ÉT (sê´+ø˘ 1 qT+&ç 3)
q>∑sê\T es¡Tdü>±
(1) yÓT˝ŸuÀsYï, ø√ô|HéVü‰>∑Hé, $j·THêï (2) $j·THêï, ø√ô|HéVü‰>∑Hé, yÓT˝ŸuÀsYï
(3) $j·THêï, yÓT˝ŸuÀsYï, ø√ô|HéVü‰>∑Hé (4) yÓT˝ŸuÀsYï, $j·THêï, ø√ô|HéVü‰>∑Hé
52. On April 11, 2023 NSE’s index subsidiary, NSE Indices Limited launched the following
new index.
(1) Nifty REITs and InvITs (2) Nifty India Digital
(3) Nifty Transport and Logistics (4) Nifty Energy
á ÁøÏ+~ ø=‘·Ô dü÷NqT @Á|æ˝Ÿ 11, 2023q NSE jÓTTø£ÿ Ç+&Óø˘‡t nqTã+<Ûä dü+düú, NSE Ç+&çd”dt
*$Tf…&é ÁbÕs¡+_Û+∫+~.
(1) ì|òº” REITs & InvITs (2) ì|ò”º Ç+&çj·÷ &çõ≥˝Ÿ
(3) ì|ò”º Á{≤Hé‡b˛sYº & ˝≤õdæºø˘‡ (4) ì|ò”º mq]®
53. “The Elephant Whisperers” won the 95th Academy Award in the category of
(1) Animated Feature Film (2) Documentary Short Film
(3) Documentary Feature Film (4) International Feature Film
ªª<ä m*ô|ò+{Ÿ $düŒs¡sY‡μμ á $uÛ≤>∑+˝À 95e nø±&ÉMT nyês¡T¶qT ¬>\T#·T≈£î+~.
(1) j·÷ìy˚Tf…&é |ò”#·sY |òæ˝Ÿà (2) &Ü≈£îýÓT+≥Ø cÕsYº |òæ˝Ÿà
(3) &Ü≈£îýÓT+≥Ø |ò”#·sY |òæ˝Ÿà (4) Ç+≥πsïwüq˝Ÿ |ò”#·sY |òæ˝Ÿà
54. Choose the incorrect pair with reference to Asian Wrestling Championships 2023, India’s
medal winners.
(1) Aman Sehrawat : Gold medal (57 kg Freestyle) Men
(2) Manisha : Bronze Medal (65 kg Freestyle) Women
(3) Nisha Dahiya : Bronze Medal (68 kg Freestyle) Women
(4) Anshu Malik : Bronze Medal (57 kg Freestyle) Women
Ädæj÷· s¬ õ¢+>¥ #ê+|æjT· Héw|æ ‡t 2023 uÛ≤s¡‘<· X˚ ¯ |ü‘ø· £ $CÒ‘\
· ≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì »‘·qT mqTïø√+&ç.
(1) neTHé ôdÁVü‰e‘Y : ã+>±s¡T |ü‘·ø£+ (57 kg |ü⁄s¡Twüß\ Á|ò” ôd’º˝Ÿ)
(2) eT˙cÕ : ø£+#·T |ü‘·ø£+ (65 kg eTVæ≤fi¯\ Á|ò” ôdº’˝Ÿ)
(3) ìcÕ <äVæ≤j·÷ : ø£+#·T |ü‘·ø£+ (68 kg eTVæ≤fi¯\ Á|ò” ôdº’˝Ÿ)
(4) nqT¸e÷*ø˘ : ø£+#·T |ü‘·ø£+ (57 kg eTVæ≤fi¯\ Á|ò” ôd’º˝Ÿ)
*S5-A-15* 15-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
55. The following institutions released the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index-2023 on
11th July 2023.
a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI)
d) World Health Organization (WHO)
Á|ü|üs#· ãVüQeTTK ù|<ä]ø£ dü÷∫-2023 ìy˚~ø£qT 11 p˝…’ 2023q á ÁøÏ+~ dü+düú\T $&ÉT<ä\
#˚kÕsTT.
a) ◊ø£´sê»´dü$T‹ n_Ûeè~∆ |ü<∏äø£+ (UNDP)
b) n+‘·sê®rj·T Á<äe´ ì~Û (IMF)
c) Äø˘‡|òüsY¶ |üeØº n+&é VüAéTHé &Óe\|tyÓT+{Ÿ Ç˙wæj˚T{Ïyé (OPHI)
d) Á|ü|ü+#· Äs√>∑´ dü+düú (WHO)
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (c)
56. During the Independence day celebrations of 2023, around 1800 people of different
vocations with their spouse have been invited as Special Guests. Which of the category was
not among them
(1) 400 Sarpanches of more than 660 Vibrant villages.
(2) 250 from Farmer Producer Organisations.
(3) 50 Shram Yogis of Central Vista Project.
(4) 50 each University teachers, doctors and Film workers.
2023 kÕ«‘·+Á‘·´ ~H√‘·‡e y˚&ÉTø£\˝À $$<Ûä eè‘·TÔ\≈£î #Ó+~q 1800 eT+~ Á|ü»\T yê] J$‘·
uÛ≤>∑kÕ´$T‘√ ø£*|æ Á|ü‘˚´ø£ n‹<ÛäT\T>± ÄVü‰«ì+#·ã&Ü¶s¡T. yê]˝À ˝Òì es¡Z+ mes¡T
(1) 660 ô|’>± ñ»«\ Á>±e÷\≈£î #Ó+~q 400 eT+~ düs¡Œ+#Y\T.
(2) ¬s’‘·T ñ‘·Œ‹Ô<ës¡T dü+düú\ qT+&ç 250 eT+~.
(3) ôd+Á≥˝Ÿ $kÕº ÁbÕC…≈£îº≈£î #Ó+~q 50 eT+~ ÁX¯eT jÓ÷>∑T\T.
(4) 50 eT+~ #=|üq j·T÷ìe]‡{° {°#·s¡T¢, &Üø£ºs¡T¢ eT]j·TT dæìe÷ ø±]à≈£î\T.
57. During Union Budget 2023-24 presentation, Finance Minister said that to service in three
focus areas, the following four opportunities can be transformative during Amrit Kaal.
a) Economic Empowerment of Women b) PM VIKAS
c) Tourism d) PM AWAS Yojana
e) Green growth
2023-24 πø+Á<ä ã&Ó®{Ÿ Á|üy˚X¯ô|&ÉT‘·÷ πø+Á<ä Ä]∆ø£ eT+Á‹ eT÷&ÉT ì]›wüº s¡+>±\≈£î ùde\+~+#˚˝≤
neTè‘· ø±\+˝À á ÁøÏ+~ Hê\T>∑T |ü]es¡ÔHê‘·àø£ neø±XÊ\T <ë¨<ä+ #˚kÕÔj·Tì ù|s=ÿHêïs¡T. n$
a) eTVæ≤fi¯\ Ä]∆ø£ kÕ~Ûø±s¡‘· b) |æ.myéT ` $ø±dt
c) |üsê´≥ø£+ d) |æ.myéT Äyêdt jÓ÷»q
e) Vü≤]‘·eè~∆
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) & (e)
(3) (a), (b), (d) & (e) (4) (b), (c), (d) & (e)
*S5-A-16* 16-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
58. The aim of the ‘75/25’ initiative, announced by the Union Health Ministry in May 2023 is
(1) 75,000 Primary Health Care Centres to be established by 2025 in Tribal areas.
(2) 75 million people with 25 types of cancers are to be treated through PHCs.
(3) 75,000 Primary Health Care centers to be established to cure 25 noncommunicable
diseases.
(4) 75 million people with hypertension and diabetes to be put on Standard Care by 2025
through PHCs.
y˚T 2023 ˝À πø+Á<ä Á|üuÛÑT‘·«+ Á|üø£{Ï+∫q ‘75/25’ Ç˙wæj˚T{Ïyé jÓTTø£ÿ \ø£å´+
(1) 2025 Hê{ÏøÏ –]»q ÁbÕ+‘ê\˝À 75,000 Åô|’eTØ ôV≤˝ŸÔ πøsY ôd+≥s¡¢ @sêŒ≥T.
(2) 25 s¡ø±\ ø±q‡s¡¢‘√ u≤<Ûä|ü&ÉT‘·Tqï 75 $T*j·Tq¢ Á|ü»\≈£î PHC \ <ë«sê ∫øÏ‘·‡ n+~+#·&É+.
(3) 25 HêHéø£eTT´ìø£ãT˝Ÿ yê´<ÛäT\qT qj·T+#˚j·T&ÜìøÏ 75,000 Åô|’eTØ ôV≤˝ŸÔ πøsY ôd+≥s¡¢qT
kÕú|æ+#·&É+.
(4) 2025 Hê{ÏøÏ ôV’≤|üsYf…q¸Hé eT]j·TT &Éj·÷u…{Ïdt‘√ ñqï 75 $T*j·THé Á|ü»\≈£î PHC \ <ë«sê
ÁbÕe÷DÏø£ dü+s¡ø£åD ø£*Œ+#·T≥.
59. According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, Central and State Government’s budgeted
expenditure on health sector in the financial year 2023 (BE) is
(1) 3.1% of the GDP (2) 2.1% of the GDP
(3) 3.4% of the GDP (4) 2.5% of the GDP
mø£Hê$Tø˘ düπs« 2022-23 Á|üø±s¡+ Äs√>∑´s¡+>∑+ô|’ Ä]∆ø£ dü+e‘·‡s¡+ 2023 (BE) ˝À πø+Á<ä eT]j·TT
sêh Á|üuÛÑT‘ê«\ ã&Ó®f…&é e´j·T+
(1) GDP ˝À 3.1% (2) GDP ˝À 2.1%
(3) GDP ˝À 3.4% (4) GDP ˝À 2.5%
60. Supreme Court sets up three-member committee comprising former women High Court
Judges to focus on relief and rehabilitation in violence-affected Manipur. The Committee
is headed by
(1) Justice Shalini Phansalkar Joshi (2) Justice Indira Banerjee
(3) Justice Asha Menon (4) Justice Gita Mittal
Væ≤+dü`Á|üuÛ≤$‘· eTDÏ|üPsY˝À ñ|üX¯eTq+ eT]j·TT |ü⁄qsêyêdü+ô|’ <äèwæº kÕ]+#˚+<äT≈£î düTÁ|”+ø√s¡Tº
e÷J eTVæ≤fi≤ ôV’≤ø√s¡Tº Hê´j·TeT÷s¡TÔ\‘√ ≈£L&çq eTT>∑TZs¡T düuÛÑT´\ ø£$T{°ì @sêŒ≥T #˚dæ+~. á
ø£$T{°øÏ H˚‘·è‘·«+ eVæ≤düTÔqï~.
(1) »dæºdt cÕ*ì |òüq‡\ÿsY CÀwæ (2) »dæºdt Ç+~sê u…qØ®
(3) »dæºdt ÄXÊ MTqHé (4) »dæºdt ^‘ê $T≥º˝Ÿ
*S5-A-17* 17-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
61. Which of the following are associated with ‘Digital Payment Utsav’ held in February 2023.
a) Digi Dhan Awards.
b) Digital Payment Sandesh Yatra.
c) Launched by the Ministry of Commerce.
d) G20 Co-branded QR code.
á ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À |òæÁãe] 2023˝À »]–q ª&çõ≥˝Ÿ ù|yÓT+{Ÿ ñ‘·‡yéμ ‘√ dü+ã+<Ûä+ ø£*–q$ @$?
a) &çõ <ÛäHé nyês¡T¶\T.
b) &çõ≥˝Ÿ ù|yÓT+{Ÿ dü+<˚XŸ j·÷Á‘·.
c) yêDÏ»´ eT+Á‹‘·«XÊK#˚ ÁbÕs¡+_Û+#·ã&ç+~.
d) õ20 ø√`Áu≤+&Ó&é QR ø√&é.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d) (3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
62. On 10th January 2023, the three procurement proposals were approved by the Defence
Acquisition Council (DAC) headed by the Defence Minister Rajnath Singh at a total cost
of Rs. 4,276 crores. Which one of the following was not in the list of procurement.
(1) HELINA - Anti-Tank Guided Missiles
(2) Advanced Heron drones
(3) VSHORAD (IR Homing) missile system
(4) Brahmos Launcher and Fire Control System
»qe] 10, 2023 q s¡ø£åD eT+Á‹ sêCŸHê<∏é dæ+>¥ n<Ûä´ø£å‘·q düe÷y˚X¯yÓTÆq s¡ø£åD ø=qT>√fi¯fl eT+&É*
(DAC) 4,276 ø√≥¢ s¡÷bÕj·T\‘√ eT÷&ÉT ùdø£s¡D Á|ü‹bÕ<äq\qT ÄyÓ÷~+∫+~. ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À
ùdø£s¡D C≤_‘ê˝À ˝Òì~ @~?
(1) ôV≤©Hê - {≤´+≈£î $<Ûä«+düø£ ¬>’&Ó&é øÏå|üDT\T
(2) n<ÛäTHê‘·q ôV≤sêHé Á&√qT¢
(3) VSHORAD (IR ¨$T+>¥) øÏå|üDÏ eédüú
(4) Áã¨àdt ˝≤+#·sY n+&é ô|ò’sY ø£+Á{À˝Ÿ dædüºyéT
63. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the program “Commemoration of
50 years of Project Tiger” in
(1) Guwahati (2) Mysuru (3) Hyderabad (4) Chennai
ÁbÕC…≈£îº f…Æ>∑sY 50 @fi¯ófl |üP]Ô #˚düT≈£îqï dü+<äs¡“¤+>± @sêŒ≥T #˚dæq ø±s¡´Áø£e÷ìï Á|ü<ÛëqeT+Á‹
l qπs+Á<ä yÓ÷B Çø£ÿ&É ÁbÕs¡+_Û+#ês¡T.
(1) >öVü≤‹ (2) yÓTÆdü÷s¡T (3) ôV’≤<äsêu≤<é (4) #ÓHÓ’ï
64. The Indians elected for Advisory Committee of COP-28 (Conference of Parties-28)
Presidency are
a) Mukesh Ambani b) Sunita Narain
c) Nirmala Seetharaman d) Neera Tandon
COP-28 (ø±qŒ¤¬sHé‡ Ä|òt bÕØºdt-28) Áô|dæ&Ó˙‡ dü\Vü‰ ø£$T{°øÏ mìïø£sTTq uÛ≤s¡rj·TT\T
a) eTTUÒwt n+u≤ì b) düT˙‘ê q¬s’Hé
c) ìs¡à˝≤ d”‘êsêeTHé d) ˙sê {≤+&ÉHé
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (a), (b) & (c) (3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)
*S5-A-18* 18-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
65. The Golden lotus award for best feature film in 69th National Film Awards won by the film
and its director respectively
(1) RRR and S.S. Rajamouli
(2) Rocketry : The Nambi Effect and Manish Saini
(3) Meppadiyan and Vishnu Mohan
(4) Rocketry : The Nambi Effect and R. Madhavan
69e C≤rj·T #·\q∫Á‘· nyês¡T¶\˝À ã+>±s¡T ø£eT\+ ¬>\Tbı+~q C≤rj·T ñ‘·ÔeT ∫Á‘·+ eT]j·TT
<ëì <äs¡Ù≈£î&ÉT
(1) RRR eT]j·TT S.S. sê»eTÚ[
(2) sê¬øÁ{Ï : <ä q+_ mô|òø˘º eT]j·TT eT˙wt ôw’˙
(3) yÓTbÕŒ&çj·THé eT]j·TT $wüßí yÓ÷Vü≤Hé
(4) sê¬øÁ{Ï : <ä q+_ mô|òø˘º eT]j·TT R. e÷<ÛäeHé
66. Choose the correct pairs regarding conferences/summits with the respective places which
were being held in August/September 2023.
a) World Coffee Conference - Bengaluru
b) The Business 20 (B20) Summit India 2023 - Varanasi
c) The first WHO Traditional Medicine Global Summit - Gandhi Nagar
d) The Youth 20 (Y20) Summit - New Delhi
Ä>∑wüßº/ôdô|º+ãsY 2023\˝À ÁøÏ+~ ø±qŒ¤¬sHé‡\T/dü<ädüT‡\qT n$ ìs¡«Væ≤+#˚ Á|ü<˚XÊ\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫
dü¬s’q »‘·\qT m+|æø£ #˚j·T+&ç
a) es¡˝Ÿ¶ ø±|ò” ø±qŒ¤¬sHé‡ ` u…+>∑fi¯Ss¡T
b) _õHÓdt 20 (_20) dü<ädüT‡ Ç+&çj·÷ 2023 ` yês¡D≤dæ
c) ~ |òüdtº WHO Áf…&çwüq˝Ÿ yÓT&çdæHé >√¢ã˝Ÿ dü$Tà{Ÿ ` >±+BÛÛq>∑sY
d) ~ j·T÷‘Y 20 (Y20) dü$Tà{Ÿ ` q÷´&Ûç©¢
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (d) (3) (a) & (b) (4) (c) & (d)
67. For the first time, the Scientists of the following country, have created mice with two
biological fathers by generating eggs from male cells.
(1) Germany (2) Sweden (3) Japan (4) Israel
yÓTT≥ºyÓTT<ä{Ï kÕ]>±, á ÁøÏ+~ <˚XÊìøÏ #Ó+~q XÊgy˚‘·Ô\T eT>∑ m\Tø£ ø£D≤\ qT+&ç >∑T&É¢qT ñ‘·Œ‹Ô
#˚j·T&É+ <ë«sê ¬s+&ÉT Je dü+ã+<ÛäyÓTÆq ‘·+Á&ÉT\‘√ m\Tø£\qT düèwæº+#ês¡T.
(1) »s¡à˙ (2) d”«&ÓHé (3) »bÕHé (4) ÇÁC≤sTT˝Ÿ
68. First time in the history of the Upper House, four women members were nominated to the
panel of Vice Chair Persons. Who was not in the list?
(1) Smt. P.T. Usha (2) Smt. S. Phangnon Konyak
(3) Dr. Fauzia Khan (4) Smt. Priyanka Chaturvedi
m>∑TedüuÛÑ #·]Á‘·˝À yÓTT≥ºyÓTT<ä{Ï kÕ]>± q\T>∑Ts¡T eTVæ≤fi≤ düuÛÑT´\qT ñbÕ<Ûä´ø£å bÕ´HÓ˝Ÿ≈£î Hê$TH˚{Ÿ
#˚XÊs¡T. Ä C≤_‘ê˝À ˝Òìyês¡T
(1) leT‹ |æ.{Ï. ñwü (2) leT‹ mdt.bòÕ+>±ïHé ø√Hê´ø˘
(3) &Üø£ºsY bÂõj·÷ U≤Hé (4) leT‹ Á|æj·÷+ø£ #·‘·Tπs«~
*S5-A-19* 19-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
69. Expand PAPA regarding Aditya L1 mission of ISRO.
(1) Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya
(2) Plannet Aditya Plasma for Analysis
(3) Plasma Advanced Portal for Analysis
(4) Plannet Advanced Plasma for Aditya
ISRO $TwüHé Aditya L1 øÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ PAPA qT $düÔ]+#·+&ç.
(1) bÕ¢kÕà nq˝…’»sY bÕ´πøõ |òüsY Ä~‘·´
(2) bÕ¢HÓ{Ÿ Ä~‘·´ bÕ¢kÕà |òüsY nHê\dædt
(3) bÕ¢kÕà n&Ü«Hé‡&é b˛s¡º˝Ÿ |òüsY nHê\dædt
(4) bÕ¢HÓ{Ÿ n&Ü«Hé‡&é bÕ¢kÕà |òüsY Ä~‘·´
70. Choose the correct sentences regarding Central Government Scheme “PM Vishwakarma”.
a) It is for the period of 5 years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28.
b) It aims to strengthen the Guru-Shishya parampara or family based practice of traditional
skills.
c) 21 traditional trades to be covered in the first instance.
d) It provides credit support upto Rs. 1 Lakh (First Tranche) and Rs. 2 Lakh
(Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%.
Áπø+Á<ä Á|üuÛÑT‘·« |ü<∏äø£+ ªªPM $X¯«ø£s¡àμμ ≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü¬s’q yêø£éTT\T m+|æø£ #˚j·T+&ç.
a) Ç~ FY 2023-24 qT+&ç FY 2027-28 es¡≈£L 5 dü+e‘·‡s¡eTT\ ø±\ eé~Û ø=s¡≈£î @s¡Œ&ç+~.
b) Bì \ø£å´+ >∑Ts¡T`•wü´ |üs¡+|üs¡qT <äè&ÛÉ‘·s¡+ #˚j·T&É+ ˝Ò<ë ≈£î≥T+ã Ä<Ûë]‘· HÓ’|ü⁄D≤´\
nuÛ≤´kÕìï <Ûäè&ÛÉ‘·s¡+ #˚j·T&É+.
c) yÓTT<ä{Ï <äX¯˝À 21 kÕ+Á|ü<ëj·T yê´bÕsê\qT Bì˝ÀøÏ rdüT≈£îekÕÔs¡T.
d) Ç~ \ø£så ÷¡ bÕj·T\ es¡≈î£ (yÓTT<ä{Ï <äbÕò ) 2 \ø£\
å s¡÷bÕj·T\ es¡≈î£ (¬s+&Ée <äbÕò ) 5% sêsTTr
e&û¶ πs≥T‘√ s¡TD eT<ä›‘·TqT n+~düTÔ+~.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d) (3) (a), (c) & (d) (4) (a), (b) & (d)
71. Choose the correct answer from the following statements with reference to the French
Open 2023.
a) Miyu Kato and Tim Puetz clinched the mixed double title.
b) Sander Gille and Joran Vliegen clinched the men’s doubles title.
c) It is the 3rd French open title for Djokovic and Iga Swiatek.
d) Hsieh Su-Wei and Wang Xinyu clinched the women’s doubles title.
Áô|ò+#Y zô|Hé 2023 øÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ ÁøÏ+~ yê´K´\ qT+&ç dü¬s’q düe÷<Ûëq+ mqTïø√+&ç.
a) $Tj·TT ø±{À eT]j·TT {ÏyéT |ü⁄{Ÿ® $Tø˘‡&é &ÉãT˝Ÿ‡ f…Æ{Ï˝ŸqT ¬ø’edü+ #˚düT≈£îHêïs¡T.
b) kÕ+&ÓsY –©¢ eT]j·TT CÀsêHé ©CÒHé\T |ü⁄s¡Twüß\ &ÉãT˝Ÿ‡ f…Æ{Ï˝ŸqT ¬ø’edü+ #˚düT≈£îHêïs¡T.
c) CÀø√$#Y eT]j·TT Ç>± dæ«j·÷f…ø˘\≈£î Ç~ 3e Áô|ò+#Y zô|Hé f…Æ{Ï˝Ÿ.
d) ôV≤#Y düTM eT]j·TT yê+>¥ –®q÷´ eTVæ≤fi¯\ &ÉãT˝Ÿ‡ f…Æ{Ï˝ŸqT ¬ø’edü+ #˚düT≈£îHêïs¡T.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (a), (b) & (d) (3) (b), (c) & (d) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
*S5-A-20* 20-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
72. Match the following winners with their awards of 95th Academy Awards.
List-I List-II
a) Brendan Fraser i) Best Actress
b) Michelle Yeoh ii) Best Actress in supporting role
c) Ke Huy Quan iii) Best Actor
d) Jamie Lee Curtis iv) Best Actor in supporting role
95e nø±&ÉMT nyês¡T¶\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ $CÒ‘·\qT yê] nyês¡T¶\‘√ »‘·|üs¡#·+&ç.
C≤_‘ê - I C≤_‘ê - II
a) Áu…+&ÉHé Áù|ò»sY i) ñ‘·ÔeT q{Ï
b) y˚T#ÛÓ©¢ jÓ÷ ii) ñ‘·ÔeT düVü‰j·T q{Ï
c) ¬ø VüA´ ø±«Hé iii) ñ‘·ÔeT q≥T&ÉT
d) C…$T © ø£]ºdt iv) ñ‘·ÔeT düVü‰j·T q≥T&ÉT
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
73. On August 17, 2023 the President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu launched Vindhyagiri.
Vindhyagiri is a
(1) Project to protect the forests on hills
(2) Navy ship of project 17A
(3) Special program to supply pure water in tribal areas
(4) Missile recently developed by DRDO
Ä>∑wüßº 17, 2023 q uÛ≤s¡‘· sêh|ü‹ leT‹ Á<Í|ü~Û eTTs¡Tà ªª$+<Ûä´–]μμ ì ÁbÕs¡+_Û+#ês¡T. $+<Ûä´–]
ˇø£
(1) –s¡T\ô|’ n&Ée⁄\ |ü]s¡ø£åD ÁbÕC…ø˘º
(2) ÁbÕC…ø˘º 17A ˝À uÛ≤>∑yÓTÆq Hê$wæ|t
(3) –]»q ÁbÕ+‘ê\˝À eT+∫˙{Ï kÂø£s¡´+ ø√dü+ ñ<˚›•+∫q Á|ü‘˚´ø£ |ü<∏äø£+
(4) DRDO Ç{°e\ n_Ûeè~∆ #˚dæq $Tôd‡Ì˝Ÿ
74. In March 2023 WHO certified the following countries as malaria-free.
(1) Bahrain and Jordan (2) Armenia and Albania
(3) Kazakhstan and Argentina (4) Azerbaijan and Tajikistan
e÷]Ã 2023˝À WHO á ÁøÏ+~ <˚XÊ\qT eT˝Ò]j·÷ s¡Væ≤‘· <˚XÊ\T>± <ÛäèMø£]+∫+~.
(1) ãÁôV≤sTTHé eT]j·TT CÀsê¶Hé (2) nπsàìj·÷ eT]j·TT n˝Ò“ìj·÷
(3) ø£»øÏkÕÔHé eT]j·TT n¬s®+{ÏHê (4) n»sYu…’C≤Hé eT]j·TT ‘·õøÏkÕÔHé
*S5-A-21* 21-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
75. Identify the correct pairs from the following with reference to IIFA Awards 2023.
a) Best performance in supporting role (Female) : Mouni Roy
b) Best performance in supporting role (Male) : Anil Kapoor
c) Best Playback singer (Female) : Kavita Seth
d) Best Director : Sanjay Leela Bhansali
IIFA nyês¡T¶\T 2023 øÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À dü¬s’q »‘·\qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
a) ñ‘·ÔeT düVü‰j·T q{Ï : eTÚì sêjYT
b) ñ‘·ÔeT düVü‰j·T q≥T&ÉT : nì˝Ÿ ø£|üPsY
c) ñ‘·ÔeT H˚|ü<Ûä´ >±j·Tì : ø£$‘êùd<∏é
d) ñ‘·ÔeT <äs¡Ù≈£î&ÉT : dü+»jYT ©˝≤ ãHê‡©
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a), (b) & (c) (3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (b) & (c)
76. In the 8th National Photography Awards presented in March 2023, “The Lifetime Achievement
Award” was received by
(1) Sasi Kumar Ramachandran (2) Arun Saha
(3) Dipjyoti Banik (4) Sipra Das
e÷]Ã 2023 ˝À Çe«ã&çq 8e H˚wüq˝Ÿ bòı{ÀÁ>∑|ò” nyês¡T¶\˝À ªJeq kÕ|òü\´ nyês¡T¶μ bı+~qyês¡T
(1) X¯• ≈£îe÷sY sêeT#·+Á<äHé (2) ns¡TDY kÕVü≤
(3) B|tCÀ´‹ ãìø˘ (4) dæÁbÕ <ëdt
77. ‘Millets Giveaway’ is a special marketing campaign being undertaken by Small Farmer’s Agri
Business Consortium. It supports three main areas. Which of the following was not among them.
(1) Motivates general public to buy directly from FPO farmers.
(2) Buyers get to experience how easy it is to use ONDC’s My Store platform.
(3) Millets being the focus for the year with #IYM2023, this campaign motivates more
people to adopt #Shree Ann.
(4) Attracting more FDIs in the field of millet farming.
kÕà˝Ÿ bòÕs¡àsY‡ nÁ– _õHÓdt ø£H√‡]ºj·T+ #˚|ü{Ïºq Á|ü‘˚´ø£ e÷¬sÿ{Ï+>¥ Á|ü#ês¡+ ‘$T˝…¢{Ÿ‡ –yény˚’. Ç~
eT÷&ÉT Á|ü<Ûëq n+XÊ\≈£î eT<ä›‘·TìdüTÔ+~. á ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À Ä eT÷&ç+{Ï˝À ˝Òì~.
(1) FPO ¬s’‘·T\ qT+&ç H˚s¡T>± ø=qT>√\T #˚j·Te\dæ+~>± kÕ<Ûës¡D Á|ü»\≈£î Áù|s¡DqT ÇdüTÔ+~.
(2) ONDC≈£î #Ó+~q yÓTk Æ ˛ºsº Y bÕ¢{bŸ Õò +qT ñ|üj÷Ó –+#·&+É düT\Te⁄ nH˚ nqTuÛeÑ + ø=qT>√\T<ës¡T≈£î
edüTÔ+~.
(3) #◊yÓ’m+2023øÏ ∫s¡T<ÛëHê´\T πø+Á<ä+>± ñ+&É&É+‘√, á Á|ü#ês¡+ eT]+‘· eT+~ e´≈£îÔ\T
#l nHêïìï d”«ø£]+#˚+<äT≈£î Áù|s¡D ÇdüTÔ+~.
(4) ∫s¡T<ÛëHê´\ kÕ>∑T s¡+>∑+˝À n~Ûø£ FDI\qT Äø£]¸+#·&É+.
*S5-A-22* 22-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
78. Match the following Prime Ministers/Presidents with their countries as on August 2023.
List-I List-II
a) Prime Minister of Greece i) Kyriakos Mitsotakis
b) Prime Minister of Thailand ii) Bola Ahmed Tinubu
c) President of Turkiye iii) Srettha Thavisin
d) President of Nigeria iv) Recep Tayyip Erdogan
Ä>∑wüßº 2023 Hê{ÏøÏ ÁøÏ+<ä˙j·Tã&çq <˚X¯ Á|ü<Ûëì/n<Ûä´≈£åî\qT yê] yê] <˚XÊ\‘√ »‘·#˚j·T+&ç
C≤_‘ê - I C≤_‘ê - II
a) Á^dt Á|ü<ÛëqeT+Á‹ i) øÏ]j·÷ø√dt $T{≤‡≥øÏdt
b) <∏ëjYT˝≤+&é Á|ü<ÛëqeT+Á‹ ii) uÀ\ nVü≤à<é {ÏqTãT
c) ≥]ÿjÓT n<Ûä´≈£åî&ÉT iii) ÁX‚≥º ‘ê$dæHé
d) HÓ’J]j·÷ n<Ûä´≈£åî&ÉT iv) ¬sôd|t ‘·sTT´|t ms√›>∑Hé
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
79. One of the following was not among the winners of Paramvir Chakra during the Republic
Day Celebrations of 2023.
(1) Bana Singh (2) Yogendra Singh Yadav
(3) Jas Ram Singh (4) Sanjay Kumar
á ÁøÏ+~ yê]˝À 2023 ]|ü_¢ø˘ &˚ y˚&ÉTø£\˝À |üs¡eTMs¡ #·Áø£ nyês¡T¶ bı+<äìyês¡T.
(1) u≤D≤ dæ+>¥ (2) jÓ÷π>+Á<ä dæ+>¥ j·÷<äyé
(3) »dt sêyéT dæ+>¥ (4) dü+»jYT ≈£îe÷sY
80. The First Women Officer to command front line IAF combat unit.
(1) Rajasri Ramasethu (2) Shaliza Dhami
(3) Arti Sarin (4) Ruchi Sarma
Á|òü+{Ÿ˝…’Hé IAF ø±+u≤{Ÿ j·T÷ì{ŸqT ø£e÷+&é #˚dæq ‘=* eTVæ≤fi≤ Ä|ò”düsY
(1) sê»Áo sêeTùd‘·T (2) cÕ*C≤ <Ûë$T
(3) Ä]Ô düØHé (4) s¡T∫ X¯s¡à
81. “Viksit Bharat - aimed at Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile” is the theme of
(1) Civil Services Day - 2023 (2) Semicon India Conference - 2023
(3) Constitution Day - 2023 (4) Population Day - 2023
ªª$ø£dæ‘Y uÛ≤s¡‘Y ` msTTyéT¶ m{Ÿ m+|üe]+>¥ dæ{ÏC…Hé‡ n+&é Ø∫+>¥ <ä ˝≤dtºyÓTÆ˝Ÿμμ nqTq~ Bì
Ç‹eè‘·Ô+
(1) dæ$˝Ÿ düØ«ôddt &˚ - 2023 (2) ôdMTø±Hé Ç+&çj·÷ düe÷y˚X¯+ - 2023
(3) ø±Hédæº≥÷´wüHé &˚ - 2023 (4) bÕ|ü⁄˝ÒwüHé &˚ - 2023
*S5-A-23* 23-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
82. In the following stadium, the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the year long
celebrations commemorating the 200th birth anniversary of Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati.
(1) Talkatora Stadium, Delhi
(2) Veer Savarkar Indoor Stadium, Gujarat
(3) Swami Vivekananda Indoor Stadium, Gujarat
(4) Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, Delhi
eTVü≤]¸ <äj·÷q+<ä düs¡dü«‹ 200e »j·T+‹ dü+<äs¡“¤+>± @&Ü~ bÕ≥T ìs¡«Væ≤+#˚ y˚&ÉTø£\qT á ÁøÏ+~
ùdº&çj·T+˝À Á|ü<Ûëq eT+Á‹ qπs+Á<äyÓ÷B ÁbÕs¡+_Û+#ês¡T.
(1) ‘·\ÿ‘√sê ùdº&çj·T+, &Ûç©¢
(2) MsY kÕes¡ÿsY Ç+&√sY ùdº&çj·T+, >∑T»sê‘Y
(3) kÕ«$T $y˚ø±q+<ä Ç+&√sY ùdº&çj·T+, >∑T»sê‘Y
(4) Ç+~sê >±+BÛ Ç+&√sY ùdº&çj·T+, &Ûç©¢
83. In May 2023, the QUAD leaders announced the following initiatives.
a) Clean Energy Supply Chain Initiative.
b) The Quad Vaccine Partnership and Global Health Security.
c) Quad Infrastructure Fellowship Programme
d) Partnership for Cable Connectivity and Resilience.
y˚T 2023 ˝À QUAD Hêj·T≈£î\T á ÁøÏ+~ ø±s¡´Áø£e÷\qT Á|üø£{Ï+#ês¡T.
a) ø°¢Hé mqØ® düô|¢Ì #Ó’Hé Ç˙wæj˚T{°yé
b) <ä ø±«&é yêøÏ‡Hé bÕs¡ºqsYwæ|t eT]j·TT >√¢ã˝Ÿ ôV≤˝ŸÔ ôd≈£L´]{°
c) ø±«&é ÇHéÁbòÕÅdüºø£ÃsY ô|ò˝Àwæ|t Áb˛Á>±yéT
d) bÕs¡ºqsYwæ|t |òüsY πøãT˝Ÿ ø£HÓ¬øº${° n+&é ¬sdæ*j·THé‡
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (b) & (c) (3) (a), (c) & (d) (4) (b), (c) & (d)
84. RBI has launched a pilot project in retail segment of the Central Bank Digital Currency
(CBDC) on 1st December, 2022. Regarding this which of the following statement is
incorrect.
(1) It is issued in the same denominations as the paper currency and coins.
(2) CBDC will earn interest like on cash.
(3) It is distributed through financial intermediaries i.e. banks.
(4) Transactions can be both Person to Person and Person to Merchant.
RBI &çôd+ãsY 1, 2022q ôd+Á≥˝Ÿ u≤´+ø˘ &çõ≥˝Ÿ ø£¬s˙‡ (CBDC) ]f…Æ˝Ÿ $uÛ≤>∑+˝À ô|’\{Ÿ ÁbÕC…øº̆qT
ÁbÕs¡+_Û+∫+~. <ëìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À dü]ø±ì yê´K´ @~?
(1) Ç~ ù||üsY ø£¬s˙‡ eT]j·TT HêDÒ\ e÷~]>± n<˚ $\Te\‘√ C≤Ø #˚j·Tã&ç+~.
(2) q>∑<äTe˝Ò CBDC ≈£L&Ü e&û¶ bı+<äT‘·T+~.
(3) Ç~ Ä]úø£ eT<Ûäés¡TÔ\ <ë«sê nq>± u≤´+≈£î\ <ë«sê |ü+|æD° #˚j·Tã&ÉT‘·T+~.
(4) ˝≤yê<˚M\T e´øÏÔ qT+&ç e´øÏÔøÏ eT]j·TT e´øÏÔ qT+&ç yê´bÕ]øÏ ¬s+&É÷ ø±e#·TÃ.
*S5-A-24* 24-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
85. The “Mawmluh Cave” has been listed as UNESCO’s one of the “First 100 IUGS (International
Union of Geological Sciences) Geological Sites” in the world. The length of this cave
approximately
(1) 10.2 km (2) 9.2 km (3) 8.2 km (4) 7.2 km
ªªeTÚ\TVt≤ >∑TVü≤μμ Á|ü|ü+#·+˝À yÓTT<ä{Ï 100 IUGS (Ç+≥πsïwüq˝Ÿ j·T÷ìj·THé Ä|òt õjÓ÷˝≤õø£˝Ÿ
ôd’HÓ‡dt) uÛÖ>√[ø£ Á|ü<˚XÊ\˝À ˇø£{Ï>± j·TTHÓk˛ÿ C≤_‘ê˝À #˚s¡Ãã&ç+~. á >∑TVü≤ bı&Ée⁄ <ë<ë|ü⁄>±
(1) 10.2 øÏ.MT (2) 9.2 øÏ.MT (3) 8.2 øÏ.MT (4) 7.2 øÏ.MT
86. “UN High Seas Treaty” framed in March 2023. It is vital for achieving the following goals.
a) 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
b) Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
c) Protect the defence rights on sea waters of the countries.
d) Protection of 30% of planet’s lands and inland waters, as well as of marine and coastal
areas by 2030.
e÷]Ã 2023˝À s¡÷bı+~+#·ã&çq “UN ôV’≤ d”dt Á{Ï{”° á ÁøÏ+~ \øå±´\qT kÕ~Û+#·&+É ˝À ø°\ø£yTÓ qÆ ~.
a) 2030 mC…+&Ü |òüsY düôdºsTTqãT˝Ÿ &ÓyÓ\|tyÓT+{Ÿ.
b) ≈£îHé$T+>¥ ` e÷+Á{Ïj·T˝Ÿ >√¢ã˝Ÿ ãjÓ÷&Ó’eØ‡{° Áù|òyéT esYÿ.
c) düeTTÁ<ä »˝≤\ô|’ <˚XÊ\ s¡ø£åD Vü≤≈£îÿ\ |ü]s¡ø£åD.
d) 2030 Hê{ÏøÏ 30% uÛÑ÷uÛ≤>∑+ eT]j·TT ˝À‘·≥Tº »˝≤\qT, n<˚ $<Ûä+>± düeTTÁ<ä eT]j·TT rs¡
ÁbÕ+‘ê\qT |ü]s¡øÏå+#·&É+.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
87. The Union Cabinet has approved procurement of 70 HTT-40 Basic Trainer Aircrafts from
the following company for the Indian Air Force at a cost of Rs. 6,828.36 Crores.
uÛ≤s¡‘· yÓ’e÷ìø£ <äfi¯+ ø√dü+ s¡÷. 6,828.36 ø√≥¢ e´j·T+‘√ 70 ôV≤#Y{°{°-40 uÒdæø˘ Åf…ÆqsY msTTsY
Áø±|òtº\qT á ÁøÏ+~ dü+düú qT+&ç ø=qT>√\T #˚j·T&ÜìøÏ πø+Á<ä πø_HÓ{Ÿ ÄyÓ÷<ä+ ‘Ó*|æ+~.
(1) HAL (2) BDL (3) L & T Ltd. (4) BEL
88. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the books and authors.
(1) Fit at Any Age - Michelle Obama
(2) War & Woman - M.A. Hasan
(3) ‘Dayanadi’ poetry collection - Gayatribala Panda
(4) Why can’t Elephants be Red - Vani Tripathi
|ü⁄düÔø±\T eT]j·TT s¡#·sTT‘·\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì »‘·qT m+|æø£ #˚j·T+&ç.
(1) |òæ{Ÿ m{Ÿ m˙ @CŸ ` $T#ÛÓ*¢ ˇu≤e÷
(2) yêsY n+&é ñeTHé ` M.A. Vü≤düHé
(3) ª<äj·÷q~μ ø£$‘ê dü+ø£\q+ ` >±j·TÁ‹ u≤˝≤|ü+&Ü
(4) yÓ’ ø±+{Ÿ m*ô|ò+{Ÿ‡ _ ¬s&é ` yêDÏ Á‹bÕ]ƒ
*S5-A-25* 25-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
89. The Titan submersible, operated by OceanGate expedition to explore the wreckage of Titanic
was imploded in Atlantic Ocean with 5 crew members in it. The Co-founder and CEO of
OceanGate is
(1) Paul Henri Nargeolet (2) Dawood Suleman
(3) Hamish Harding (4) Stockton Rush
zwüHéπ>{Ÿ dü+düú Ä<Ûä«s¡´+˝À ◊<äT>∑Ts¡T düuÛÑT´\‘√ f…Æ{≤ìø˘ •~∏˝≤\qT #·÷&É&ÜìøÏ yÓ[flq f…Æ{≤Hé
düuŸyÓT]‡ãT˝Ÿ, n{≤¢+{Ïø˘ düeTTÁ<ä+˝À ù|*b˛sTT+~. á zwüHé π>{Ÿ düVü‰eékÕú|ü≈£î&ÉT eT]j·TT
CEO
(1) bÕ˝Ÿ ôV≤Á˙ Hê]®jÓ÷˝…{Ÿ (2) <ëeP<é düT˝Òe÷Hé
(3) Vü≤MTwt Vü≤]¶+>¥ (4) kÕºø£ºHé s¡wt
90. Expand the Central Sector Scheme ‘RAMP’ programme
(1) Raising and Awakening of Make in India Project
(2) Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance
(3) Revamping and Assisting MSME Programme
(4) Revamping and Accelerating Matru vandanam Project
πø+Á<ä Á|üuÛÑT‘·« d”ÿyéT ‘RAMP’ Áb˛Á>±yéTqT $düÔ]+#·+&ç
(1) ¬s’õ+>¥ n+&é ny˚ø£ì+>¥ Ä|òt y˚Tø˘ ÇHé Ç+&çj·÷ ÁbÕC…ø˘º
(2) ¬s’õ+>¥ n+&é ÄøÏ‡\πs{Ï+>¥ MSME ô|sYbòÕs¡àHé‡
(3) Øyê+|æ+>¥ n+&é ndædæº+>¥ MSME Áb˛Á>±yéT
(4) Øyê+|æ+>¥ n+&é ÄøÏ‡\πs{Ï+>¥ e÷‘·è e+<äq+ ÁbÕC…ø˘º
91. Choose the correct pair in the following.
(1) Tilapisaka - Potter (2) Kularika - Oil Pressors
(3) Kolikas - Black Smith (4) Vadhika - Carpenters
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À dü]nsTTq »‘·qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) ‹\|ædü≈£î\T ` ≈£îeTà] (2) ≈£î˝≤]≈£î\T ` q÷HÓ rj·TTyês¡T
(3) ø√*≈£î\T ` ø£eTà] (4) e~∏ø£\T ` ø£Ás¡|üì #˚j·TTyês¡T (eÁ&É+–)
92. From where did Harappan people obtained copper, which was widely used by them?
(1) Afghanistan (2) Mesopotamia (3) Khetri Mines (4) Karnataka
Vü≤s¡bÕŒ Á|ü»\T $]$>± ñ|üjÓ÷–+∫q sê– ˝ÀVü‰ìï mø£ÿ&É qT+&ç bı+<ës¡T?
(1) Ä|üÈìkÕúHé (2) yÓTdü|ü{À$Tj·÷ (3) UÒÁ‹ >∑qT\T (4) ø£sêí≥ø£
93. Which was the beginning of the financial year of the Mauryas?
(1) Phalguna (March) (2) Ashadha (July)
(3) Jyestha (June) (4) Pushya-Magha (January-February)
eTÚs¡T´\ ø±\+˝À Ä]úø£ dü+e‘·‡s¡+ @ HÓ\˝À ÁbÕs¡+uÛÑeTj˚T´~?
(1) bòÕ\TZDeTT (e÷]Ã) (2) ÄcÕ&ÛÉeTT (E˝…’)
(3) CÒ´wü˜eTT (pHé) (4) |ü⁄wüéTTè÷|òüTeTT (»qe]`|òæÁãe])
*S5-A-26* 26-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
94. The Allahabad Pillar inscription did not contain the details of
(1) Samudra Gupta (2) Ashoka (3) Jahangir (4) Kumara Gupta
n\Vü‰u≤<é düÔ+uÛÑ XÊdüq+ M] $esê\T ø£*– e⁄+&É˝Ò<äT.
(1) düeTTÁ<ä >∑T|ü⁄Ô&ÉT (2) nXÀ≈£î&ÉT (3) »Vü≤+^sY (4) ≈£îe÷s¡>∑T|ü⁄Ô&ÉT
95. Identify the correct statements regarding the social conditions of the Mauryan period.
a) Megasthenese noticed seven castes in the society.
b) Ardhasastra and the Buddhist literature denied the existence of slavery in India.
c) Women were appointed as the bodyguards of the King.
d) Widow remarriages and divorces were permitted.
eTÚs¡T´\ ø±\|ü⁄ kÕ+|òæTø£ |ü]dæú‘·T\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫, ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À dü¬s’q yêø±´*ï m+|æø£ #˚j·TTeTT.
a) yÓT>∑düÔ˙düT düe÷»+˝Àì @&ÉT ≈£î\eTT\qT >∑T]Ô+#ÓqT.
b) ns¡∆XÊÅdüÔeTT eT]j·TT uÖ<ä∆ kÕVæ≤‘·éTT uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝Àì u≤ìdü‘·«|ü⁄ ñìøÏì K+&ç+#êsTT.
c) sêEq≈£î n+>∑ s¡ø£å≈£î\T>± Åd”Ô\T ìj·T$T+|üã&˚yês¡T.
d) $‘·+‘·T |ü⁄q]«yêVü≤eTT\T eT]j·TT $&Ü≈£î\T nqTeT‹+#·ã&Ü¶sTT.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (a), (c) & (d) (3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (b), (c) & (d)
96. Match the following Newspapers with their founders
List - I List - II
a) Bharata Sramajivi i) S. A. Dange
b) The Socialist ii) M. N. Roy
c) Deenabandhu iii) Sasipada Banerji
d) The Masses of India iv) Meghaji Lokhande
á ÁøÏ+~ yêsêÔ |üÁ‹ø£\qT yê{Ï kÕú|ü≈£î\‘√ »‘·|üs¡#·TeTT.
C≤_‘ê - I C≤_‘ê - II
a) uÛ≤s¡‘· ÁX¯eTJ$ i) j·Tdt. m. &Ü+π>
b) ~ k˛wü*düTº ii) j·TyéT. j·THé. sêjYT
c) Bqã+<ÛTä iii) X¯•bÕ<ä u…qØ®
d) ~ e÷ôddt Ä|òt Ç+&çj·÷ iv) y˚T|òü÷õ ˝ÀK+&˚
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
97. Arrange the following administrative units of the Chola period in ascending manner.
i) Valanadu ii) Nadu iii) Mandalam iv) Grama
ÁøÏ+<ä Çe«ã&çq #√fi¯ó\ ø±\+ Hê{Ï |ü]bÕ\Hê $uÛ≤>±\qT Äs√Vü≤D Áø£eT+˝À neTs¡Ã+&ç.
i) e\Hê&ÉT ii) Hê&ÉT iii) eT+&É\+ iv) Á>±eT+
(1) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) (4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
*S5-A-27* 27-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
98. Identify the correct sentences regarding the economic conditions of the Sangam age.
a) Madurai was famous for cotton trade.
b) Sea pearls and Precious stones were the main exports.
c) Tamils traded with Egypt and Arabia.
d) Decline of trade was one of the causes for the decay of the Tamil Kingdoms.
dü+>∑+ j·TT>∑|ü⁄ Ä]∆ø£ |ü]dæú‘·T\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü¬s’q yêø£éTT\qT >∑T]Ô+#·TeTT.
a) eT<äT¬s’ q÷\T yê´bÕs¡eTTq≈£î Á|üdæ~∆ #Ó+~+~.
b) düeTTÁ<ä|ü⁄ eTT‘ê´\T, $\TyÓ’q s¡+>∑Tsêfi¯ófl eTTK´ m>∑TeT‘·T\T.
c) ‘·$Tfi¯ó\T áõ|ü⁄º eT]j·TT nπs_j·÷\‘√ yê´bÕs¡eTT #˚XÊs¡T.
d) ‘·$Tfi¯ sêC≤´\ |ü‘·qeTTq≈£î, yê´bÕs¡ ø°åD‘· ˇø£ ø±s¡DeTT.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) (a), (c) & (d) (4) (a), (b) & (d)
99. Skanda Gupta had not conquered one of the following rulers.
(1) Kalingas (2) Sungas (3) Vakatakas (4) Huns
düÿ+<ä>∑T|ü⁄Ô&ÉT á ÁøÏ+~ yê]˝À @ sêE\qT »sTT+#·˝Ò<äT.
(1) ø£[+>∑T\T (2) X¯ó+>∑T\T (3) yêø±≥≈£î\T (4) VüADT\T
100. Who was the first Delhi Sultan to declare Delhi as the capital of his empire and issued
regular currency?
(1) Balban (2) Iltutmish
(3) Nasiruddin Muhammad (4) Aram Shah
&Ûç©¢ì ‘·q kÕÁe÷C≤´ìøÏ sê»<Ûëì>± Á|üø£{Ï+∫, HêD…eTT\qT Áø£eT|ü<ä∆‹˝À C≤Ø #˚dæq yÓTT<ä{Ï &Ûç©¢
düT˝≤ÔHé mes¡T?
(1) u≤\“Hé (2) Ç˝Ÿ≥T{Ÿ$Twt
(3) qdæs¡TB∆Hé eTVü≤eTà<é (4) Äsê+ cÕ
101. Arrange the following incidents that took place during the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji in the
chronological order.
a) Annexation of Yadava kingdom into Delhi Sultanate.
b) Ulug Khan and Nasrat Khan conquered Gujarat.
c) Malik Kafur plundered the Pandyan Kingdom.
d) The Mongols invaded India under the leadership of Alibeg and Khwaja Tash.
n˝≤¢ñB›Hé K©® ø±\eTT˝À »]–q á ÁøÏ+~ dü+|òüT≥q\qT ø±\Áø£e÷qT>∑‘·+>± neTs¡TÃeTT.
a) j·÷<äe sêC≤´ìï &Ûç©¢ düT˝≤ÔHé kÕÁe÷»´+˝À ø£*|æy˚j·T&ÉeTT.
b) ñ\T|òtTU≤Hé eT]j·TT qÁdü‘YU≤Hé\T >∑T»sê‘·TqT »sTT+#·≥eTT.
c) e÷*ø˘ ø£|òüPsY bÕ+&É´ sêC≤´ìï <√|æ&ç #˚j·TT≥.
d) ªn©uÒ>μ¥ eT]j·TT ªø±«C≤ {≤wtμ\ Hêj·Tø£‘«· +˝À eT+>√\T\T uÛ≤s¡‘<
· X˚ +¯ ô|’ <ä+&Éj÷· Á‘· #˚XÊs¡T.
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (2) (b), (c), (d) & (a)
(3) (b), (d), (c) & (a) (4) (c), (a), (b) & (d)
*S5-A-28* 28-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
102. Which of the following was not related to the architecture of the Gupta Period?
(1) Large number of Buddha images unearthed at Saranath and Banaras.
(2) The images of Siva and Vishnu are sculptured on the walls of Deogarh Temple.
(3) A copper image of Buddha at Nalanda.
(4) The Besnagar Pillar which was dedicated as Garudadhvaja.
ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À @~ >∑T|ü⁄Ô\ ø±\|ü⁄ yêdüTÔ •˝≤ŒìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+#·ì~.
(1) kÕs¡Hê<∏é, u…Hês¡dt\˝À n~Ûø£ dü+K´˝À ãj·T\«&çq ãT<ä∆ $Á>∑Vü‰\T.
(2) ~jÓ÷|òüTsY Ä\j·T >√&É\ô|’ #Óø£ÿã&çq $wüßíe⁄, •e⁄ì •˝≤Œ\T.
(3) q\+<ä e<ä› ø£\ ãT<äT∆ì sê– Á|ü‹eT.
(4) >∑s¡T&É <Ûä«»+>± düeT]Œ+#·ã&çq ;dtq>∑sY düÔ+uÛÑeTT.
103. Who among the following criticised the policies of Akbar.
(1) Badauni (2) Nizamuddin Ahamad
(3) Abbas Khan Sarwani (4) Niamtullah
á ÁøÏ+~ yê]˝À mes¡T nø£“sY $<ÛëHê\qT $eT]Ù+#ês¡T.
(1) ã<Íì (2) ìC≤eTTB›Hé nVü≤eTà<é
(3) nu≤“dtU≤Hé X¯sê«ì (4) ìj·T+‘·T˝≤¢
104. The Peshwaship was abolished by the English during the period of the following
(1) Narayana Rao (2) Raghunatha Rao (3) Madhava Rao (4) Bajirao-II
Ä+π>¢j·TT\T |”cÕ« |ü<ä$ì me] ø±\+˝À s¡<äT› #˚XÊs¡T?
(1) Hêsêj·TDsêe⁄ (2) s¡|òüTTHê<∏äsêe⁄ (3) e÷<Ûäesêe⁄ (4) ¬s+&Ée u≤Jsêe⁄
105. Select the correct sentences from the following regarding the conquest of Alexander.
a) In token of his conquests, Alexander constructed the cities Bokepala and Nikhiya on
the banks of the river Jhelum.
b) He divided the areas he occupied in India into 6 satrapis.
c) Came into alliance with Ashtaka Raja of Pushkalavathi.
d) He appointed Purushothama as the ruler of Satrapi.
n˝…>±®+&ÉÉs¡T <ä+&Éj·÷Á‘·≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü¬s’q yêø£éTT\qT m+|æø£ #˚j·T+&ç.
a) ‘·q $»j·÷\≈£î ∫Vü≤ï+>± n˝…>±®+&És¡T J\+ q~ ˇ&ÉT¶q u§¬øbÕ\ eT]j·TT ìœj·T q>∑sê\qT
ì]à+#ê&ÉT.
b) uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À ‘êqT ÄÁø£$T+∫q ÁbÕ+‘ê\qT 6 düÁ‘·|”\T>± $uÛÑõ+#ê&ÉT.
c) |ü⁄wüÿ˝≤e‹ bÕ\≈£î&ÉT nwüºø£ sêE‘√ dü+~Û #˚düT≈£îHêï&ÉT.
d) |ü⁄s¡Tc˛‘·ÔeTT&çì düÁ‘·|æ bÕ\≈£î&ç>± ìj·T$T+#ê&ÉT.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d) (3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
106. Who was the Delhi Sultan at the time of Timur’s’ invasion?
(1) Daulat Khan Lodi (2) Abubakar
(3) Nasiruddin Mohammad Tughlaq (4) Tughlaq Shah
‘Ó’eT÷sY <ä+&Éj·÷Á‘· düeTj·T+˝À &Ûç©¢ì |ü]bÕ*düTÔqï düT˝≤ÔHé mes¡T?
(1) <Í\‘YU≤Hé ˝À&ç (2) nã÷ãø£sY
(3) qd”s¡TB›Hé eTVü≤eTà<é ‘·T>∑¢ø˘ (4) ‘·T>∑¢ø˘cÕ
*S5-A-29* 29-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
107. Select the correct statements regarding the coins issued by Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
a) He introduced copper and silver mixed coins described as “Adha” and “Bikh”.
b) He issued a new gold coin “Dinar”.
c) He revived “Adali”, a silver coin.
d) He introduced copper coin named Jital.
eTVü≤eTà<é ;Hé ‘·T|òüT¢ø˘ Á|üy˚X¯ô|{Ïºq HêDÒ\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü¬s’q yêø£éTT\T m+|æø£ #˚j·TTeTT.
a) Ç‘·&ÉT ªªÄ<Ûëμμ eT]j·TT ªª_UŸμμ nH˚ sê– eT]j·TT yÓ+&ç\ $TÁX¯eT HêD…eTT\qT Á|üy˚X¯ô|{≤º&ÉT.
b) Ç‘·&ÉT ªªBHêsYμμ nH˚ ø=‘·Ô ã+>±s¡T HêD…+ $&ÉT<ä\ #˚XÊ&ÉT.
c) Ç‘·&ÉT ªªn<ë*μμ nH˚ yÓ+&ç HêDÒìï |ü⁄qs¡T<ä∆]+#ê&ÉT.
d) Ç‘·&ÉT ªªõ{≤˝Ÿμμ ù|s¡T>∑\ sê– HêDÒìï Á|üy˚X¯ô|{≤º&ÉT.
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a) & (c) (3) (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d)
108. In the Vijayanagara history which dynasty came to the throne after the ‘First usurpation’?
(1) Tuluva (2) Saluva (3) Aravidu (4) Sangama
$»j·Tq>∑s¡ #·]Á‘·˝À yÓTT<ä{Ï <äTsêÁø£eTD ‘·s¡Tyê‘· dæ+Vü‰düHêìøÏ e∫Ãq e+X¯eTT @~?
(1) ‘·Tfi¯óe (2) kÕfi¯óe (3) ns¡M&ÉT (4) dü+>∑eT
109. Identify the incorrect pair of the comments made by the historians on Mughal Period.
(1) “Fathepur Sikri was a great reflux of the mind of a greatman” - Ferguson.
(2) “Mughal Administration was a Perso-Arabic system in Indian setting” - J. N. Sarkar
(3) “The Deccan Policy was the grave of his (Aurangazeb) reputation as well as of his
body” - V. A. Smith.
(4) “Taj Mahal is the product of a combination of European and Asiatic genius” - Percy
Brown.
yÓTT|òüT\T\ ø±\eTTô|’ #·]Á‘· ø±s¡T\T #˚dæq yê´K´\˝À dü]ø±ì <ëìì >∑T]Ô+|ü⁄eTT.
(1) ªª|òü‘˚ |üPsY dæÁø° ˇø£ eT¨qï‘· e´øÏÔ jÓTTø£ÿ eTH√uÛ≤yê\ >=|üŒ Á|ü‹_+ã+μμ ` ô|òs¡TZdüHé
(2) ªªyÓTT|òüT˝Ÿ |ü]bÕ\Hê eédüú, uÛ≤s¡rj·T |ü<ä∆‹˝À Ç$T&çb˛sTTq |ü]¸j·÷ ` ns¡;“ $<Ûëq+μμ `
C….j·THé.düsêÿsY.
(3) ªª<äø£ÿqT $<Ûëq+, n‘·ì (Ws¡+>∑CÒuŸ) ø°]ÔøÏ eT]j·TT n‘·ì X¯ØsêìøÏ düe÷~Ûμμ ` $.m.dæà‘Y.
(4) ªª‘êCŸeTVü≤˝Ÿ ◊s√bÕ eT]j·TT Ädæj·÷ y˚T<ÛädüT‡ jÓTTø£ÿ düy˚Tàfi¯q+μμ ` ô|Ø‡ÁuÖHé.
110. Choose the incorrect pair in the following.
(1) Fernao Nuniz - Achyutha Devaraya
(2) Abdul Razzak - Devaraya II
(3) Caesar Frederick - Venkatapathiraya II
(4) Domingo Paes - Krishna Deva Raya
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À dü]ø±ì »‘·qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) ô|òsêïy√ q÷´ìCŸ ` n#·T´‘· <˚esêj·T\T
(2) nãT›˝Ÿ s¡C≤ø˘ ` ¬s+&Ée <˚esêj·T\T
(3) d”»sY Áô|ò&]
É ø˘ ` s¬ +&Ée yÓ+ø£≥|ü‹sêj·T\T
(4) &Ü$T+>√ ù|dt ` ø£èwüí <˚esêj·T\T
*S5-A-30* 30-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
111. Albuquerque captured Goa from the following Deccan Sultanates
(1) Golkonda (2) Berar (3) Bijapur (4) Ahamad Nagar
n\T“ø£sYÿ á ÁøÏ+~ <äø£ÿHé düT˝≤ÔqT\˝À me] qT+∫ >√yêqT kÕ«BÛq+ #˚düTø=Hêï&ÉT
(1) >√˝§ÿ+&É (2) ;sêsY (3) ;»|üPsY (4) nVü≤à<éq>∑sY
112. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the 10 stages that had to pass by the sufis
(1) Namaz - Daily prayer (2) Sabr - Patience
(3) Faqr - Poverty (4) Tauba - Repentance
dü÷|ò”\T <ë≥e\dæq 10 <äX¯\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì »‘·qT m+#·Tø√+&ç.
(1) qe÷CŸ ` s√E yê] ÁbÕs¡∆q (2) düãsY ` zs¡TŒ
(3) |òæø£sY ` ù|<ä]ø£+ (4) ‘Íu≤ ` |üXÊÃ‘êÔ|ü+
113. The Imperial Institute of Agriculture was started at Pusa in Bihar and it was later shifted to
(1) Lahore (2) Delhi (3) Agra (4) Multan
~ Ç+|”]j·T˝Ÿ ÇHédæº≥÷´{Ÿ Ä|òt nÁ–ø£\ÃsYqT ;Vü‰sY˝Àì |üPkÕ˝À ÁbÕs¡+_Û+∫, Ä ‘·s¡Tyê‘· <ëìì
mø£ÿ&É≈£î e÷sêÃs¡T?
(1) ˝≤¨s¡T (2) &Ûç©¢ (3) ÄÁ>± (4) eTT˝≤ÔHé
114. The Chola monarch who conquered the northern part of Sri Lanka and made it a province of
his empire was
(1) Rajaraja (2) Rajendra (3) Adhirajendra (4) Paranthaka-I
l\+ø£ ñ‘·sÔ ¡ uÛ≤>±ìï »sTT+∫, ‘·q kÕÁe÷»´+˝À ˇø£ sêh $uÛ≤>∑+>± #˚dTü ø=qï #√fi¯ #·Áø£e]Ô
(1) sê»sê» (2) sêCÒ+Á<ä
(3) n~ÛsêCÒ+Á<ä (4) yÓTT<ä{Ï |üsê+‘·≈£î&ÉT
115. Chronologically arrange the following important Acts introduced by the British India
Government.
a) First Factory Act b) Indian Civil Service Act
c) Royal Titles Act d) Vernacular Press Act
Á_{Ïwt Ç+&çj÷· Á|üuTÑÛ ‘·«eTT#˚ Á|üyX˚ ô¯ |≥ºã&çq á ÁøÏ+~ #·≥eº TT\qT ø±\Áø£e÷qT>∑‘+· >± neTs¡TÃeTT.
a) yÓTT<ä{Ï bòÕ´ø£º] #·≥ºeTT b) Ç+&çj·THé dæ$˝Ÿ düØ«dt #·≥ºeTT
c) sêj·T˝Ÿ f…Æ{Ï˝Ÿ‡ #·≥ºeTT d) ÁbÕ+rj·T uÛ≤cÕ|üÁ‹ø£\ #·≥ºeTT
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (2) (b), (d), (c) & (a)
(3) (c), (a), (b) & (d) (4) (b), (c), (d) & (a)
116. Who among the following had not attended the Founding Session of the Indian National
Congress?
(1) Surendra Nath Banerjee (2) Dadabai Naoroji
(3) Subramania Iyer (4) Feroz Shah Mehta
ÁøÏ+~ yê]˝À uÛ≤s¡‘· C≤rj·T ø±+Á¬>dt Ä$sê“¤e düe÷y˚XÊìøÏ Vü‰»s¡Tø±ì yês¡T mes¡T?
(1) düTπs+Á<äHê<∏é u…qØ® (2) <ë<ëu≤jYT HÍs√õ
(3) düTÁãeTD´ nj·T´sY (4) |òæs√CŸ cÕ yÓTVü≤‘ê
*S5-A-31* 31-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
117. The first lawful Hindu widow remarriage in our country was held in Calcutta on which date
(1) 9 January 1854 (2) 12 March 1850
(3) 6 December 1852 (4) 7 December 1856
eTq<˚X¯+˝À yÓTT≥ºyÓTT<ä{Ï #·≥ºã<ä∆ Væ≤+<ä÷ $‘·+‘·T |ü⁄q]«yêVü≤eTT ø£\ø£‘êÔ˝À @ ‘˚Bq »]–+~?
(1) 9 »qe] 1854 (2) 12 e÷]Ã 1850
(3) 6 &çôd+ãs¡T 1852 (4) 7 &çôd+ãs¡T 1856
118. Identify the correct statements about the Brahmo Samaj.
a) It accepted the theory of “God is One”.
b) It accepted to incorporate the best aspects of Western Philosophical thought.
c) It repudiated the doctrine of the infallibility of Vedas.
d) It accepted the need of priestly class for interpreting religious texts.
ÁãVü≤à düe÷»eTTq≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ á ÁøÏ+~ yêø£éTT\˝À @$ dü]nsTTq$.
a) Ç~ ªªuÛÑ>∑e+‘·T&ÉT ˇø£ÿ&˚μμ nqT dæ<ë∆+‘·eTTqT ÄyÓ÷~+#ÓqT.
b) Ç~ bÕXÊÃ‘·´ ‘ê‹«ø£ uÛ≤eq\˝Àì >=|üŒ yê{Ïì d”«ø£]+#ÓqT.
c) Ç~ y˚<ä ÁbÕe÷DÏø£‘· dæ<ë∆+‘·eTTqT ‹s¡düÿ]+#ÓqT.
d) Ç~ eT‘·Á>∑+<ÛäeTT\ yêU≤´HêìøÏ |ü⁄s√Væ≤‘· es¡ZeTT nedüs¡eTTqT n+^ø£]+#ÓqT.
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
119. When was Dr. Ambedkar started an organization in Bombay called ‘Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha’
&Üˆˆ n+uÒ<äÿsY u§+u≤sTT˝À ªªãVæ≤wüÿè‘· Væ≤‘·ø±]DÏ düuÛÑμμqT m|ü&ÉT kÕú|æ+#ÓqT.
(1) 1924 (2) 1935 (3) 1928 (4) 1932
120. Who presided over the historic Lucknow Congress Session in 1916?
(1) Madan Mohan Malaviya (2) R.N. Madhukar
(3) Ambika Charan Majumdar (4) Annie Besant
1916 #ê]Á‘ê‘·àø£ \ø√ï ø±+Á¬>dt düe÷y˚XÊìøÏ n<Ûä´ø£å‘· eVæ≤+∫qyês¡T mes¡T?
(1) eT<äHéyÓ÷Vü≤Hé e÷\yê´ (2) R.N. eT<ÛäTø£sY
(3) n+_ø± #·s¡DY eTE+<ësY (4) nì_ôd+{Ÿ
121. Which of the following is the only riverine port in India?
(1) Mumbai (2) Visakhapatnam (3) Chennai (4) Kolkata
ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝Àì @¬ø’ø£ qBrs¡ HÍø±ÁX¯j·T+ @~?
(1) eTT+u…’ (2) $XÊK|ü≥ï+ (3) #ÓHÓ’ï (4) ø√˝Ÿø£‘ê
122. Arrange the following planets in order of their nearness to the Sun
I) Mars II) Mercury III) Venus IV) Earth
dü÷s¡T´ì düMT|üeTT qT+&ç es¡Tdü Áø£eTeTT˝À ÁøÏ+~ Á>∑Vü‰\qT neTs¡Ã+&ç.
I) n+>±s¡≈£î&ÉT II) ãT<ÛäT&ÉT III) X¯óÁ≈£î&ÉT IV) uÛÑ÷$T
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, IV, III, I (3) I, III, II, IV (4) II, III, IV, I
*S5-A-32* 32-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
123. The following State is not the producer of Mica
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Jharkhand (3) Goa (4) Rajasthan
ÁøÏ+~ sêh+ nÁuÛÑø£+qT ñ‘·Œ‹Ô #Ój·T´<äT.
(1) Ä+Á<ÛäÁ|ü<˚XŸ (2) s¡a≤s¡+
â &é (3) >√yê (4) sê»kÕúHé
124. The father of Geomorphology is
(1) Wegener (2) Dutton
(3) John W. Alexander (4) W.M. Davis
uÛÑ÷ dü«s¡÷|üXÊg |æ‘êeTVüQ&ÉT
(1) yÓõqsY (2) &É≥ºHé
(3) C≤Hé &ÉãT¢´. n˝…>±®+&ÉsY (4) &ÉãT¢´. j·T+. &˚$dt
125. The highway connecting Kolkata and Chennai is
(1) NH-1 (2) NH-44 (3) NH-16 (4) NH-3
ø√˝Ÿø£‘ê eT]j·TT #ÓHÓ’ï q>∑sê\qT ø£*ù| C≤rj·T s¡Vü≤<ë]
(1) C≤rj·T s¡Vü≤<ë]-1 (2) C≤rj·T s¡Vü≤<ë] -44
(3) C≤rj·T s¡Vü≤<ë]-16 (4) C≤rj·T s¡Vü≤<ë]-3
126. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) Sahyadris are located in West Coast of India
(2) Anaimudi is the highest peak in Nallamala Hills
(3) Neelgiris are located in Tamil Nadu
(4) Cardamom Hills are located in Kerala
á ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À dü]ø±ì yêø±´ìï >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) düVü‰´Á~ |üs¡«‘ê\T uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯ |ü•ÃeTrs¡+˝À ñHêïsTT
(2) q\¢eT\ ø=+&É\˝À m‘ÓÔÌq •Ks¡+ nHÓ’eTT&ç
(3) ˙\–] ø=+&É\T ‘·$Tfi¯Hê&ÉT˝À ñHêïsTT
(4) ø±s¡¶eTyéT ø=+&É\T πøs¡fi¯˝À ñHêïsTT
127. Which of the following rocks consist of large grained crystals
(1) Extrusive rocks (2) Shale
(3) Plutonic rocks (4) Loess
á ÁøÏ+~ •\\˝À ô|<ä›ô|<ä› düŒ¤{Ïø±\T ø£*– ñ+&˚ •\\T
(1) ñ<äZ‘· •\\T (2) ùw˝Ÿ (3) bÕ‘êfi¯ •\\T (4) ˝Àj·Tdt
128. ‘Jet streams’ is associated with
(1) Local winds (2) Monsoons (3) Cyclones (4) Trade winds
ªC…{Ÿ yêj·TT Á|üyêVü‰\Tμ BìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫q~.
(1) kÕúìø£ |üeHê\T (2) ãTT‘·T|üeHê\T (3) #·Áø£yê‘ê\T (4) yê´bÕs¡ |üeHê\T
129. Which of the following is not an Erosional Land form of Wind?
(1) Yardangs (2) Inselberg (3) Ventifact (4) Barchans
á ÁøÏ+~ ˙j·Tã&çq uÛÑ÷dü«s¡÷bÕ\˝À |üeq Áø£eTø£åj·T uÛÑ÷dü«s¡÷|ü+ ø±ì<˚~?
(1) j·÷sê›+>¥‡ (2) Çì‡˝ŸãsYZ (3) ø√D°j·T •\\T (4) u≤s¡ÿqT¢
*S5-A-33* 33-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
130. The rubber plantation is significant in
(1) Maharashtra (2) Odisha (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Kerala
s¡ã“s¡T ‘√≥\≈£î Á|üdæ~∆ bı+~q sêh+
(1) eTVü‰sêh (2) ˇ&çcÕ (3) Ä+Á<ÛäÁ|ü<˚XŸ (4) πøs¡fi¯
131. Vir Savarkar International Airport is located at
(1) Indore (2) Port Blair (3) Patna (4) Lucknow
MsY kÕyês¡ÿsY n+‘·sê®rj·T $e÷HêÁX¯j·T+ Çø£ÿ&É ñ+~.
(1) Ç+&√sY (2) b˛sYº u…¢sTTsY (3) bÕ{≤ï (4) \ø√ï
132. The biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world is extracted from the following tree.
(1) Himalayan Oak (2) Himalayan Yew (3) Chir Pine (4) Screw Pine
Á|ü|+ü #·+˝À n‘·´~Ûø+£ >± neTTà&ÉjT˚ ´ ø±´q‡sY ìyês¡D Wwü<+äÛ ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À @ #Ó≥Tº qT+&ç ùdø£]kÕÔsT¡ .
(1) Væ≤e÷\j·T zø˘ (2) Væ≤e÷\j·T j·T÷ (3) ∫sY ô|’Hé (4) Ádü÷ÿô|’Hé
133. Which of the following Crop is not a Millet?
(1) Jowar (2) Bajra (3) Wheat (4) Ragi
ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À ∫s¡T<ÛëHê´\ |ü+≥ ø±ì~ @~?
(1) C§qï (2) dü»® (3) >√<ÛäTeT (4) sê–
134. The following river is famous for ‘Gorges’
(1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra (3) Indus (4) Yamuna
á q~ ª>±]®μ \≈£î Á|üdæ~∆ bı+~q~.
(1) >∑+>± (2) ÁãVü≤à|ü⁄Á‘· (3) dæ+<ÛäT (4) j·TeTTq
135. Match the following
List-I (Raw Material) List-II (Product)
a) Bauxite i) Ceramics
b) Chromium ii) Barium
c) Barytes iii) Stainless Steel
d) Felspar iv) Aluminium
á ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ïì »‘·|üs¡T#·TeTT
C≤_‘ê - I (eTT&ç |ü<ës¡∆+) C≤_‘ê - II (ñ‘êŒ<äø£+)
a) u≤¬ø’‡{Ÿ i) |æ+>±DÏ
b) Áø√$Tj·T+ ii) uÒ]j·T+
c) u…¬s’{Ïdt iii) ôdºsTTHé˝…dt d”º˝Ÿ
d) ô|ò˝ŸkÕŒsY iv) n\÷´$Tìj·T+
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
*S5-A-34* 34-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
136. According to 2011 census, the State having the lowest female literacy rate is
(1) Kerala (2) Odisha (3) Bihar (4) Rajasthan
2011 »HêuÛ≤ ˝…ø£ÿ\ Á|üø±s¡+ Ád”Ô nø£åsêdü´‘· πs≥T ‘·≈£îÿe>± ñqï sêh+.
(1) πøs¡fi¯ (2) ˇ&çcÕ (3) ;Vü‰sY (4) sê»kÕúHé
137. “Sericulture” is related to the production of
(1) Silk (2) Rubber (3) Honey (4) Coffee
ªªôd]ø£\ÃsYμμ nH˚~ <˚ì ñ‘·Œ‹ÔøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫q~?
(1) |ü≥Tº (2) s¡ã“s¡T (3) ‘˚HÓ (4) ø±|ò”
138. The ‘Moplahs’ are
(1) Christians of Tamil Nadu (2) Tribals of Bihar
(3) Muslims of Kerala (4) Tribals of Telangana
ªyÓTTbÕ¢\Tμ nqTyês¡T
(1) ‘·$Tfi¯Hê&ÉT Å¬ø’düÔe⁄\T (2) ;Vü‰sY ôw&É÷´˝Ÿ C≤‘·T\T
(3) πøs¡fi¯ eTTdæ¢eTT\T (4) ‘Ó\+>±D≤ ôw&É÷´˝Ÿ C≤‘·T\T
139. Which of the following is not a tributary of Krishna?
(1) Musi (2) Tungabhadra (3) Bhima (4) Gomati
á ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À ø£ècÕíq~ jÓTTø£ÿ ñ|üq~ ø±ì~ @~?
(1) eT÷dæ (2) ‘·T+>∑uÛÑÁ<ä (3) ;ÛeT (4) >√eT‹
140. According to 2011 census, the state with highest population density in India is
(1) Arunachal Pradesh (2) Sikkim
(3) Bihar (4) Mizoram
2011 »HêuÛ≤ ˝…ø£ÿ\ Á|üø±s¡+ uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯eTT˝À n~Ûø£ »qkÕ+Á<ä‘· >∑\ sêheTT
(1) ns¡TD≤#·˝ŸÁ|ü<˚XŸ (2) dæøÏÿ+
(3) ;Vü‰sY (4) $TCÀsê+
141. Equinoxes occurs on which of the following days?
(1) June 21 - March 21 (2) June 21 - December 22
(3) January 4 - July 5 (4) March 21 - September 22
$wüße‘·TÔ\T á ÁøÏ+~ @ ‘˚B\˝À @s¡Œ&ÉT‘êsTT?
(1) pHé 21 - e÷]Ã 21 (2) pHé 21 - &çôd+ãsY 22
(3) »qe] 4 - E˝…’ 5 (4) e÷]Ã 21 - ôdô|º+ãsY 22
142. In India, the Atal tunnel connects the following places.
(1) Srinagar and Muzaffarabad (2) Simla and Khardung La Pass
(3) Chandigarh and Leh (4) Manali and Lahaul - spiti valley
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À n≥˝Ÿ kıs¡+>∑eTT ø£*ù| Á|ü<˚XÊ\T
(1) lq>∑sY eT]j·TT eTT»|òüsêu≤<é (2) dæe÷¢ eT]j·TT ø±s¡¶+>¥ ˝≤ bÕdt
(3) #·+&û|òüTsY eT]j·TT ˝ÒVt≤ (4) eTHê* eT]j·TT ˝≤¨˝Ÿ ` dæŒ{Ï ˝Àj·T
*S5-A-35* 35-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
143. The largest slum area in India
(1) Dharavi slum (2) Bhalswa slum
(3) Rajendhranagar slum (4) Basanti slum
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯eTT˝À n‘·´~Ûø£ yÓ’XÊ\´+‘√qTqï eTT]øÏyê&É
(1) <Ûës¡$ eTT]øÏyê&É (2) uÛÑ˝≤‡« eTT]øÏyê&É
(3) sêCÒ+Á<äq>∑sY eTT]øÏyê&É (4) ãdü+‹ eTT]øÏyê&É
144. Which of the following factor doesn’t influence the insolation?
(1) Longitude (2) Atmospheric Transparency
(3) Nearness to Sea (4) Latitude
á ~>∑Te˙j·Tã&çq n+XÊ\˝À dü÷s¡´|ü⁄≥eTTqT Á|üuÛ≤$‘·+ #˚j·Tì n+X¯eTT @~?
(1) πsU≤+X¯eTT (2) yê‘êes¡D bÕs¡<äs¡Ùø£‘·
(3) düeTTÁ<ä kÕMT|üéTT (4) nøå±+X¯eTT
145. The ‘Richter scale’ is associated with
(1) Earthquake (2) Volcano (3) Pressure (4) Rainfall
ª]ø£ºsY ùdÿ\Tμ BìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫q~.
(1) uÛÑ÷ø£+|ü+ (2) n–ï|üs¡«‘·+ (3) |”&Éq+ (4) es¡¸bÕ‘·+
146. The ‘Baratang’ volcano is located at
(1) Gujarat (2) Haryana (3) Andaman (4) Lakshadweep
ªu≤s¡‘ê+>¥μ n–ï|üs¡«‘·+ ñqï #√≥T
(1) >∑T»sê‘Y (2) Vü≤sê´Hê (3) n+&Ée÷Hé (4) \ø£åB«|t
147. Giridhi is famous for
(1) Copper (2) Coal (3) Bauxite (4) Silver
–]~Û BìøÏ Á|üdæ~∆
(1) sê– (2) u§>∑TZ (3) u≤¬ø‡Ì{Ÿ (4) yÓ+&ç
148. The Forest Research Institute is located at
(1) Hyderabad (2) Bangalore (3) Dehradun (4) Bhopal
n≥M |ü]XÀ<ÛäHê dü+düú ñqï #√≥T
(1) ôV’≤<äsêu≤<é (2) u…+>∑fi¯Ss¡T (3) &ÓÁVü‰&É÷Hé (4) uÛÀbÕ˝Ÿ
149. If the population of a city is between one million and 10 millions, then the city comes
under the category
(1) Mega city (2) Mega Metropolitan city
(3) Class-I city (4) Metropolitan city
ˇø£ q>∑s¡ »HêuÛ≤ ˇø£ $T*j·THé eT]j·TT |ü~ $T*j·Tq¢ eT<Û´ä ñ+fÒ, Ä q>∑s+¡ @ ø√e≈£î #Ó+~q q>∑s+¡ ?
(1) eTVü‰q>∑s¡+ (2) eTVü‰ yÓTÁ{ÀbÕ*≥Hé q>∑s¡+
(3) ø±¢dtÌ q>∑s¡+ (4) yÓTÁ{ÀbÕ*≥Hé q>∑s¡+
*S5-A-36* 36-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
150. The ‘Blue revolution’ is associated with
(1) Fisheries (2) Milk production
(3) Poultry (4) Meat production
‘˙* $|ü¢e+μ BìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫q~.
(1) eT‘·‡´|ü]ÁX¯eT (2) bÕ\ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô
(3) ø√fi¯fl|ü]ÁX¯eT (4) e÷+dü+ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô
151. The Constitutional Amendment Act by which the words ‘Armed Rebellion’ have been
substituted for ‘Internal Disturbance’ in Article 352.
(1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (2) 38th Constitutional Amendment Act
(3) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (4) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑+˝Àì 352 Á|üø£s¡DeTT˝À ªn+‘·s¡Z‘· ø£˝À¢˝≤\Tμ nqï |ü<ë\ kÕúq+˝À ªkÕj·TT<Ûä
‹s¡T>∑Tu≤≥Tμ nqï |ü<ë\qT bı+<äT|üs¡∫q sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D #·≥º+.
(1) 42e sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D #·≥º+ (2) 38e sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D #·≥º+
152. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Vice President of India.
(1) Vice President cannot act as Chairperson of Rajya Sabha while he is officiating as
President of India.
(2) Vice President of India can be removed by a 2/3rd majority in Rajya Sabha and simple
majority in Lok Sabha.
(3) As Chairperson of Rajya Sabha, he has a Casting Vote.
(4) The election disputes of Vice President of India are decided by the Supreme Court.
uÛ≤s¡‘· ñ|üsêÅwüº|ü‹øÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì yê´K´qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) ñ|üsêÅwüº|ü‹ uÛ≤s¡‘· sêÅwüº|ü‹>± eéVü≤]düTÔqï|ü&ÉT n‘·qT sê»´düuÛÑ n<Ûä´≈£åîì>± ñ+&É{≤ìøÏ
M\T˝Ò<äT.
(2) ˝Àø˘düuÛÑ˝À kÕ<Ûës¡D yÓTC≤]{° eT]j·TT sê»´düuÛÑ˝À 2/3e e+‘·T yÓTC≤]{°‘√ ñ|üsêÅwüº|ü‹ì
‘=\–+#·e#·TÃ.
(3) sê»´düuÛÑ n<Ûä´≈£åî&ç>± n‘·ìøÏ ìsêíj·Tø£|ü⁄ z≥T ø£\<äT.
(4) ñ|üsêÅwüº|ü‹ mìïø£≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫q $yê<ë\qT düTÁ|”+ø√s¡Tº ìs¡ísTTdüTÔ+~.
153. The President of India has no authority
(1) to summon a joint sitting of Parliament
(2) to return advice given by the Union Cabinet
(3) to prorogue Lok Sabha
(4) to dissolve Parliament
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêÅwüº|ü‹øÏ á n~Ûø±s¡eTT ˝Ò<äT
(1) bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T dü+j·TTø£Ô düe÷y˚XÊìï @sêŒ≥T #˚ùd n~Ûø±s¡eTT
(2) πø+Á<ä πø_H˚{Ÿ Ç∫Ãq dü\Vü‰qT yÓq≈£îÿ ‹|æŒ |ü+|æ+#˚ n~Ûø±s¡+
(3) ˝Àø˘düuÛÑqT Bs¡Èø±*ø£+>± yêsTT<ë y˚ùd n~Ûø±s¡+
(4) bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥TqT s¡<äT›|üπsÃ n~Ûø±s¡+
*S5-A-37* 37-A
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154. The fine imposed per day on an ineligible person who sits or votes in any House of the
Parliament
(1) Rupees 500 (2) Rupees 1,000
(3) Rupees 5,000 (4) Rupees 10,000
ˇø£ nqs¡Ω‘· ø£*–q e´øÏÔ bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T˝Àì @<Ó’Hê düuÛÑ˝À ≈£Ls¡TÃHêï ˝Òø£ z≥T y˚dæHê, n‘·ìô|’ ˇø£
s√E≈£î $~Û+#·ã&˚ n|üsê<Ûä s¡TdüTeTT.
(1) 500 s¡÷bÕj·T\T (2) 1,000 s¡÷bÕj·T\T
(3) 5,000 s¡÷bÕj·T\T (4) 10,000 s¡÷bÕj·T\T
155. A joint sitting of the Parliament can be convened for resolving a deadlock with regard to
the following bill (s)
(1) Money Bills
(2) Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368
(3) Ordinary Bills only
(4) Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills
ÁøÏ+<ä ù|s=ÿqï á _\T¢\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ ñ‘·ŒqïyÓTÆq $yê<ë\qT |ü]wüÿ]+#·&ÜìøÏ bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T
dü+j·TTø£Ô düe÷y˚XÊìï @sêŒ≥T #˚j·Te#·TÃ.
(1) eT˙ _\T¢\T
(2) 368e Á|üø£s¡D≤ìï nqTdü]+∫ ñqï sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D _\T¢\T
(3) kÕ<Ûës¡D _\T¢\T e÷Á‘·y˚T
(4) kÕ<Ûës¡D _\T¢\T eT]j·TT Ä]úø£ _\T¢\T
156. Judges Inquiry Act was enacted in the year
Hê´j·÷BÛX¯ó\ $#ês¡D≤ #·≥º+ s¡÷bı+~+#·ã&çq dü+e‘·‡s¡eTT
(1) 1968 (2) 1961 (3) 1969 (4) 1972
157. The Governor of a State enjoys discretionary power under this article of the Indian
Constitution
(1) 162 clause (1) (2) 163 clause (2)
(3) 161 clause (2) (4) 161 clause (1)
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝Àì á Á|üø£s¡DeTTqT nqTdü]+∫ ˇø£ sêÅwüº >∑es¡ïsY≈£î $#·ø£åD≤~Ûø±s¡+ ø£\<äT
(1) 162 ø±¢CŸ (1) (2) 163 ø±¢CŸ (2)
(3) 161 ø±¢CŸ (2) (4) 161 ø±¢CŸ (1)
158. Under this article of Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to
communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(1) Article 76 (2) Article 79
(3) Article 78 (4) Article 81
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝Àì á Á|üø£s¡D≤ìï nqTdü]+∫ uÛ≤s¡‘· Á|ü<ÛëqeT+Á‹ πø+Á<äeT+Á‹ es¡Z ìs¡íj·÷\qT
sêÅwüº|ü‹øÏ ‘Ó*j·TCÒùd u≤<Ûä´‘·qT ø£*– ñHêïs¡T.
(1) 76e Á|üø£s¡D+ (2) 79e Á|üø£s¡D+
(3) 78e Á|üø£s¡D+ (4) 81e Á|üø£s¡D+
*S5-A-38* 38-A
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159. The Constitutional Amendment Act that restricted the size of Council of Ministers including
Chief Minister to 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of the State is
(1) 90th Amendment Act (2) 91st Amendment Act
(3) 92nd Amendment Act (4) 93rd Amendment Act
ˇø£ sêheT+Á‹ eT+&É* dü+K´qT eTTKéT+Á‹‘√ ø£\T|ü⁄≈£îì Ä sêh $<Ûëq düuÛÑ˝À 15% ìøÏ
$T+#·sê<äì ìπs›•düTÔqï sê»´+>∑ dües¡D #·≥º+.
160. The article of the Indian Constitution under which a State Legislative Council can be abolished
or created
(1) Article 162 (2) Article 167 (3) Article 164 (4) Article 169
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝Àì á Á|üø£s¡D≤ìï nqTdü]+∫ ˇø£ sêÅwüº $<Ûëq |ü]wü‘YqT s¡<äT› ˝Ò<ë @sêŒ≥T
#˚j·Te#·TÃ.
(1) 162e Á|üø£s¡DeTT (2) 167e Á|üø£s¡DeTT
161. Under the Article 243 M of Indian Constitution, the following State is exempted from the
reservation of seats in Panchayats for the Scheduled Castes.
(1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Goa (4) Sikkim
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑+˝Àì 243 M n~Ûøs£ D
¡ Á|üø±s¡+ kÕúìø£ dü+dü\
ú ˝À ôw&ÉT´\T¶≈î£ ˝≤\ kÕúHê\ ]»πs«wüH≈é î£
$TqVü‰sTT+|ü⁄ ø£*– ñqï sêÅwüº+
(1) Væ≤e÷#·˝ŸÁ|ü<˚XŸ (2) ns¡TD≤#·˝ŸÁ|ü<˚XŸ
(3) >√yê (4) dæøÏÿ+
162. The Parliament has enacted Army and Air Force Acts of 1950 to restrict the application of
Fundamental Rights of Defence Personnel. This Power of Parliament lies under this Article
of the Constitution.
(1) Article 31 (2) Article 33 (3) Article 34 (4) Article 35
s¡ø£åD<äfi≤\ ÁbÕ<∏ä$Tø£ Vü≤≈£îÿ\qT |ü]$T‘·+ #˚dü÷Ô uÛ≤s¡‘· bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T 1950 ˝À ôd’ìø£ eT]j·TT
yêj·TTùdq #·{≤º\qT s¡÷bı+~+∫+~. sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝Àì á ÁøÏ+~ Á|üø£s¡DeTT <ë«sê bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T≈£î
á n~Ûø±s¡+ dü+Áø£$T+∫q~.
163. The date mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
(1) 24th January, 1950 (2) 26th January, 1950
th
(3) 26 November, 1949 (4) 13th December, 1946
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑ Á|üy˚•ø£˝À Á|ükÕÔ$+#·ã&çq ‘˚~
(1) »qe] 24, 1950 (2) »qe] 26, 1950
(3) qe+ãs¡T 26, 1949 (4) &çôd+ãs¡T 13, 1946
*S5-A-39* 39-A
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164. The number of items enlisted in the Concurrent List formulated by Government of India
Act, 1935.
uÛ≤s¡‘· Á|üuÛÑT‘·«#·≥º+, 1935 s¡÷bı+~+∫q ñeTà&ç C≤_‘ê˝À >∑\ n+XÊ\ dü+K´
(1) 36 (2) 54 (3) 66 (4) 42
165. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution says
(1) India shall be a Federation (2) India shall be a Quasi-Federal State
(3) India shall be a Quasi-Unitary State (4) India shall be a Union of States
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝Àì ˇø£≥e Á|üø£s¡D+ á $<Ûä+>± ù|s=ÿ+≥T+~.
(1) uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ ˇø£ düe÷K´ (2) uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ ˇø£ ns¡ú düe÷K´ sê»éTT
(3) uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ ˇø£ ns¡ú @ø£ πø+Á<ä sê»éTT (4) uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ ˇø£ sêÅcÕº\ j·T÷ìj·THé
166. The following is not correct with regard to a bill meant for creating a new State in the
Indian Union
(1) The bill requires previous consent of the President of India.
(2) The bill is to be first introduced in the Rajya Sabha where States are represented.
(3) The bill requires simple majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(4) The bill is referred by the President to the Legislature of the concerned State.
uÛ≤s¡‘· j·T÷ìj·THé˝À ˇø£ Áø=‘·Ô sêÅwüºeTT @sêŒ≥T _\T¢≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì n+X¯eTT
(1) _\T¢≈£î sêÅwüº|ü‹ eTT+<ädüTÔ nqTeT‹ nedüs¡+.
(2) sêÅcÕº\≈£î ÁbÕ‹ì<Ûä´+ eVæ≤+#˚ sê»´düuÛÑ˝À _\T¢qT yÓTT<ä≥>± Á|üy˚X¯ô|{≤º*.
(3) bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T ñuÛÑj·T düuÛÑ\˝À _\T¢≈£î kÕ<Ûës¡D yÓTC≤]{° nedüs¡eTT.
(4) _\T¢qT sêÅwüº|ü‹ dü+ã+~Û‘· sêÅwüº XÊdüqdüuÛÑ≈£î |ü+|üe˝…qT.
167. The provision of Preventive Detention is found in the
(1) Union List (2) Union List and Concurrent List
(3) Only Concurrent List (4) Union List and State List
Á|æyÓ+{Ïyé &çf…q¸Hé nqT n+X¯eTT á ÁøÏ+~ yêì˝À bı+<äT|üs¡Ãã&çq~
(1) πø+Á<ä C≤_‘ê (2) πø+Á<ä C≤_‘ê eT]j·TT ñeTà&ç C≤_‘ê
(3) ñeTà&ç C≤_‘ê˝À e÷Á‘·y˚T (4) πø+Á<ä C≤_‘ê eT]j·TT sêÅwüº C≤_‘ê
168. “The Directive Principles are like moral precepts for the authorities of the State”. This
comment is made by
(1) K.M. Panikkar (2) K.T. Shah
(3) K.C. Wheare (4) B.N. Rao
ªªÄ<˚X¯ dü÷Á‘ê\T sêC≤´~Ûø±sê\≈£î HÓ’‹ø£ dü÷Á‘ê\ e+{Ï$μμ. á yêÚ≤´q+ #˚dæqyês¡T
(1) K.M. |òüDÏø£ÿsY (2) K.T. cÕ
(3) K.C. y˚sY (4) B.N. sêyé
*S5-A-40* 40-A
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169. Identify the wrong statement with regard to a Constitutional Amendment Bill under
Article 368 of Indian Constitution
(1) The bill requires no previous consent of the President
(2) The bill must be first introduced in the Lok Sabha
(3) The bill requires 2/3rd majority in both the Houses of Parliament
(4) No joint session of Parliament can be convened for passing the bill
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝Àì 368e Á|üø£s¡D≤ìï nqTdü]+∫e⁄qï sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D _\T¢≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫
dü]ø±ì n+XÊìï >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) _\T¢≈£î sêÅwüº|ü‹ eTT+<ädüTÔ nqTeT‹ nedüs¡+ ˝Ò<äT
(2) _\T¢qT yÓTT≥ºyÓTT<ä≥ ˝Àø˘düuÛÑ˝ÀH˚ Á|üy˚X¯ô|{≤º*
(3) _\T¢≈£î bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T ñuÛÑj·T düuÛÑ\˝À 2/3e e+‘·T yÓTC≤]{° nedüs¡+
(4) _\T¢qT ÄyÓ÷~+#·T≥≈£î bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T ñeTà&ç düe÷y˚XÊìï @sêŒ≥T #˚j·T&ÜìøÏ M\T˝Ò<äT
170. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Veto Power of the President of India.
(1) He cannot return a Money Bill passed by the Parliament.
(2) He has no Veto Power over Constitutional Amendment Bills under Article 368.
(3) He has no Veto Power over an Ordinary Bill passed for second time by the Parliament.
(4) He cannot Veto a Money Bill passed by the State Legislature duly forwarded by the
Governor of a State.
uÛ≤s¡‘· sêÅwüº|ü‹ M{À n~Ûø±sêìøÏ dü+ã+~Û+∫ dü]ø±ì yê´K´qT >∑T]Ô+#·+&ç.
(1) bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T ÄyÓ÷~+∫q eT˙ _\T¢qT yÓqøÏÿ ‹|æŒ |ü+|ü&ÜìøÏ M\T ˝Ò<äT.
(2) 368 Á|üø£s¡DqT nqTdü]+∫ ñqï sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D _\T¢\ô|’ n‘·ìøÏ M{À n~Ûø±s¡+ ˝Ò<äT.
(3) bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T ¬s+&ÉekÕ] ÄyÓ÷~+∫q kÕ<Ûës¡D _\T¢ô|’ n‘·ìøÏ M{À n~Ûø±s¡+ ˝Ò<äT.
(4) sêÅwüº XÊdüqdüuÛÑ#˚ ÄyÓ÷~+#·ã&ç Ä sêÅwüº >∑es¡ïsY |ü+|æ+∫q eT˙ _\T¢qT M{À #˚ùd n~Ûø±s¡+
n‘·ìøÏ ˝Ò<äT.
171. “Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the most important officer under the
Constitution of India”. This comment is made by
(1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (2) Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad
(3) Pandit Nehru (4) Paul Appleby
ªªuÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑eTT˝À ø£+Åb˛º\sY eT]j·TT Ä&ç≥sY »qs¡˝Ÿ n‹ eTTKýÓTÆq n~Ûø±]μμ. á yêÚ≤´q+
#˚dæq~
(1) &Üˆˆ _.ÄsY.n+uÒ<äÿsY (2) &Üˆˆ u≤ãT sêCÒ+Á<äÁ|ükÕ<é
(3) |ü+&ç{Ÿ HÓÁVüQ (4) bÕ˝Ÿ Ä|æ˝Ÿ;
172. The following Act introduced the principle of elections in India.
(1) Indian Councils Act of 1892 (2) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(3) Indian Councils Act of 1909 (4) Indian Councils Act of 1919
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À á #·≥º+ uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À mìïø£\ $<Ûëq+ >∑T]+∫ |ü]#·j·T+ #˚dæ+~.
(1) Ç+&çj·THé øöì‡˝Ÿ‡ #·≥º+`1892 (2) Ç+&çj·THé øöì‡˝Ÿ‡ #·≥º+`1861
(3) Ç+&çj·THé øöì‡˝Ÿ‡ #·≥º+`1909 (4) Ç+&çj·THé øöì‡˝Ÿ‡ #·≥º+`1919
*S5-A-41* 41-A
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173. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislature only on the recommendation of
(1) Speaker of Legislative Assembly (2) Governor of the State
(3) State Finance Minister (4) Chief Minister of the State
sêÅwüº XÊdüqdüuÛÑ˝À eT˙ _\T¢qT M] dæbòÕs¡T‡‘√ Á|üy˚X¯ô|&É‘ês¡T
(1) sêÅwüº $<ÛëqdüuÛÑ d”Œø£sY (2) sêÅwüº >∑es¡ïsY
(3) sêÅwüº Ä]úø£eT+Á‹ (4) sêÅwüº eTTKéT+Á‹
174. ‘Public Interest Litigation’ (PIL) evolved in India on the basis of
(1) Constitutional Amendment Act (2) Judicial Activism
(3) Presidential Order (4) Act of Parliament
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À ªÁ|üC≤Á|üjÓ÷»q yê´»´+μ Bì Ä<Ûës¡+>± Ä$s¡“¤$+∫+~.
(1) sêC≤´+>∑ dües¡D #·≥º+ (2) Hê´j·TXÊK ÁøÏj·÷o\‘·
(3) sêÅwüº|ü‹ Ä<˚X¯+ (4) bÕs¡¢yÓT+{Ÿ #·≥º+
175. The following State has a Joint Cadre of All India Service along with Arunachal Pradesh,
Goa and Union Territories.
(1) Sikkim (2) Mizoram (3) Nagaland (4) Jharkhand
ns¡TD≤#·˝ŸÁ|ü<˚XŸ, >√yê eT]j·TT πø+Á<äbÕ*‘· ÁbÕ+‘ê\‘√ bÕ≥T>± á ÁøÏ+~ sêÅwüº+ C≤sTT+{Ÿ πø&ÉsY
Ä|òt Ä˝Ÿ Ç+&çj·÷ düØ«düT\qT ø£*– ñqï~.
(1) dæøÏÿ+ (2) $TCÀs¡yéT (3) Hê>±˝≤+&é (4) s¡a≤s¡+ â &é
176. The conditions of service of the Chairman and Members of Union Public Service
Commission are determined by
(1) Parliament
(2) Constitution of India
(3) President
(4) President in consultation with Chief Justice of India
j·T÷ìj·THé |ü_¢ø˘ düØ«dt ø£MTwüHé #ÛÓ’s¡àHé eT]j·TT düuÛÑT´\≈£î düØ«dt ìã+<Ûäq\qT ìs¡ísTT+#˚~
mes¡T?
(1) bÕs¡¢yÓT+{Ÿ
(2) uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑+
(3) sêÅwüº|ü‹
(4) düTÁ|”+ø√s¡Tº Á|ü<Ûëq Hê´j·TeT÷]Ô dü\Vü‰ y˚Ts¡≈£î sêÅwüº|ü‹
177. The ultimate responsibility of taking action on the report of the CAG vests with
(1) President of India (2) Parliament
(3) Supreme Court (4) NITI-Aayog
ø±>¥ (CAG) ìy˚~ø£˝À yÓ\¢&ç+∫q n+XÊ\ô|’ #·s¡´\T rdüT≈£îH˚ n+‹eT n~Ûø±s¡+ me]øÏ ñ+≥T+~?
(1) uÛ≤s¡‘· sêÅwüº|ü‹ (2) bÕs¡¢yÓT+{Ÿ
(3) düTÁ|”+ø√s¡Tº (4) ˙‹-ÄjÓ÷>¥
*S5-A-42* 42-A
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178. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because
(1) Rajya Sabha can’t be dissolved
(2) Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislature
(3) Lok Sabha members are elected directly by the people
(4) Parliament can amend the Constitution of India
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥Ø Á|üuÛÑT‘·« $<Ûëq+ ø£\<äì á ÁøÏ+~ ø±s¡D+>± ù|s=ÿqe#·TÃ.
(1) sê»´düuÛÑ s¡<äT› #˚j·Tã&É<äT
(2) eT+Á‹eT+&É* #·≥º düuÛÑ≈£î dü$Twæº u≤<Ûä´‘· eVæ≤+#·&ÉeTT
(3) ˝Àø˘düuÛÑ düuÛÑT´\T Á|ü»\#˚ Á|ü‘·´ø£å+>± mqTïø√ã&É‘ês¡T
(4) sêC≤´+>∑+qT düe]+#˚ n~Ûø±s¡+ uÛ≤s¡‘· bÕs¡¢yÓT+≥T≈£î ñqï~
179. In which of the following case, Supreme Court gave judgement that “Secularism” is the
basic feature of Indian Constitution.
(1) D.S. Nakara Vs Union of India
(2) Common Cause Vs Union of India
(3) Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan
(4) S.R. Bommai Vs Union of India
ªª˝ÖøÏø£yê<ä+μμ uÛ≤s¡‘· sêC≤´+>∑ eTÚ[ø£ \ø£åD+ nì düTÁ|”+ø√s¡Tº @ πødüT˝À rs¡TŒ yÓ\¢&ç+∫+~.
(1) &ç.mdt.qø±sê yÓs¡‡dt j·T÷ìj·THé Ä|òt Ç+&çj·÷
(2) ø±eTHé ø±CŸ yÓs¡‡dt j·T÷ìj·THé Ä|òt Ç+&çj·÷
(3) dü»®Hé dæ+>¥ yÓs¡‡dt ùdº{Ÿ Ä|òt sê»kÕúHé
(4) mdt.ÄsY. u§yÓTÆà yÓs¡‡dt j·T÷ìj·THé Ä|òt Ç+&çj·÷
180. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget?
(1) Dept. of Revenue (2) Dept. of Economic Affairs
(3) Dept. of Financial Services (4) Dept. of Expenditure
πø+Á<äã&Ó®{ŸqT ‘·j·÷s¡T #˚j·Te\dæq u≤<Ûä´‘·qT ø£*– ñqï XÊK?
(1) ¬s$q÷´ $uÛ≤>∑+ (2) Ä]úø£ eéVü‰sê\ $uÛ≤>∑+
(3) Ä]úø£ ùde\ $uÛ≤>∑+ (4) e´j·T $uÛ≤>∑+
181. Which one of the following is the core issue in the Drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji?
(1) Loss of wealth (2) Loss of capital
(3) Loss of Human resources (4) Loss of income
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À <ë<ëuÛ≤jYT HÍs√J |ü]yêVü≤ø£ dæ<ë∆+‘·+˝À Ç$T&ç ñqï Á|ü<Ûëq düeTdü´ @+{Ï?
(1) dü+|ü<ä qwüº+ (2) eT÷\<Ûäq qwüº+
(3) e÷qe eqs¡T\ qwüº+ (4) Ä<ëj·T qwüº+
*S5-A-43* 43-A
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182. Which one of the following statement is true relating to Indian Economy 2020-21?
(1) Economic recovery is V-shaped.
(2) Service sector recorded positive growth.
(3) Reduction in imports is less than reduction in exports.
(4) Increase in imports is greater than increase in exports.
uÛ≤s¡‘· Ä]∆ø£ eédüú 2020-21 dü+ã+~Û+∫q ÁøÏ+~ Á|üø£≥q\˝À ì»yÓTÆq<˚~?
(1) Ä]∆ø£ eédüú V-Äø±s¡+˝À ø√\T≈£îqï~.
(2) ùdyê s¡+>∑+ <ÛäHê‘·àø£ eè~∆ì qyÓ÷<äT #˚dæ+~.
(3) ~>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ‘·s¡T>∑T<ä\, m>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ‘·s¡T>∑T<ä\ ø£Hêï ‘·≈£îÿe>± ñ+~.
(4) ~>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ô|s¡T>∑T<ä\, m>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ô|s¡T>∑T<ä\ ø£Hêï m≈£îÿe>± ñ+~.
183. According to FAOSTAT data for 2020, India’s rank in the world production of eggs and
meat respectively.
(1) 1 and 6 (2) 2 and 7 (3) 3 and 8 (4) 4 and 9
FAOSTAT, 2020 <ä‘êÔ+X¯eTTqT nqTdü]+∫ Á|ü|ü+#·|ü⁄ Á>∑T&ÉT¢ eT]j·TT e÷+dü+ ñ‘·Œ‘·TÔ\˝À
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯ kÕúq+ es¡Tdü>±
(1) 1 eT]j·TT 6 (2) 2 eT]j·TT 7 (3) 3 eT]j·TT 8 (4) 4 eT]j·TT 9
184. The number of districts covered under National Horticulture Mission (NHM) from
18 States and 6 Union Territories are
18 sêÁcÕº\T eT]j·TT 6 øπ +Á<ä bÕ*‘· ÁbÕ+‘ê\ qT+∫ H˚wq
ü ˝Ÿ Vü‰]ºø\
£ ÃsY $TwüHé (National Horticulture
Mission) ≈£î m+|æø£ ø±ã&çq õ˝≤¢\T mìï nq>±?
(1) 384 (2) 175 (3) 109 (4) 275
185. How many components are considered for the development of rural infrastructure under
Bharat Nirman Program?
mìï n+XÊ\qT |ü]>∑Dq˝ÀìøÏ rdüTø=ì Á>±MTD nekÕú|üqqT n_Ûeè~∆ |üs¡T#·T≥≈£î uÛ≤s¡‘· ìsêàD
|ü<Ûäø£+ s¡÷bı+~+#·ã&ç+~.
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 8
186. Which State of India attracted the highest FDI during 2022-23?
(1) Gujarat (2) Maharashtra (3) Karnataka (4) Kerala
2022-23 dü+e‘·‡s¡+˝À uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À @ sêh+ n‘·´~Ûø£ $<˚o Á|ü‘·´ø£å ô|≥Tºã&ÉT\qT Äø£]¸+∫+~?
(1) >∑T»sê‘Y (2) eTVü‰sêh (3) ø£sêí≥ø£ (4) πøs¡fi¯
187. After 2002, India registered a foreign trade surplus during
(1) April 2020 (2) May 2020 (3) June 2020 (4) July 2020
2002 ‘·sê«‘· uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ $<˚o yê´bÕs¡+˝À $T>∑T\TqT m|ü&ÉT qyÓ÷<äT #˚dæ+~ nq>±?
(1) @Á|æ˝Ÿ 2020 (2) y˚T 2020 (3) pHé 2020 (4) E˝…’ 2020
*S5-A-44* 44-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
188. The Antyodaya Anna Yojana Scheme was expanded to cover, how many poor of the poorest
households?
(1) 1 crore (2) 1.5 crore (3) 2 crore (4) 2.5 crore
n+‘√´<äj·T nqï jÓ÷»q |ü<∏äø±ìï $düÔè‘· |üs¡#·T≥ <ë«sê ù|<äyê]˝À mìï n‹ ù|<ä ≈£î≥T+u≤\qT
á |üü<∏äÛø£+ |ü]~Û˝À #˚s¡TÃ≥≈£î ñ<˚›•+∫+~?
(1) ˇø£ ø√{Ï (2) 1.5 ø√≥T¢ (3) 2 ø√≥T¢ (4) 2.5 ø√≥T¢
189. Based on the definition of the term ‘poverty line’, what is the per capita minimum caloric
requirements for rural and urban persons respectively?
(1) 2100 and 2400 (2) 2400 and 2100
(3) 2400 and 2200 (4) 2200 and 2400
ù|<ä]ø£+ ^‘· ìs¡«#·Hêìï nqTdü]+∫ Á>±MTD eT]j·TT |ü≥ºD ÁbÕ+‘ê\˝À e´øÏÔøÏ ‘·\dü] ø£˙dü
bıwüø£ $\Te\ ÄeX¯´ø£‘· es¡Tdü Áø£eT+˝À m+‘·?
(1) 2100 eT]j·TT 2400 (2) 2400 eT]j·TT 2100
(3) 2400 eT]j·TT 2200 (4) 2200 eT]j·TT 2400
190. Treasury bills are issued by
(1) Treasury offices
(2) Banks on treasuries
(3) RBI on treasuries
(4) By RBI to Government for short term borrowing
Áf…»Ø _\T¢\qT C≤Ø #˚j·TTyês¡T mes¡T nq>±?
(1) Áf…»Ø ø±sê´\j·÷\T
(2) Áf…»Ø\ô|’ u≤´+≈£î\T
(3) Áf…»Ø\ô|’ RBI
(4) RBI #˚ Á|üuÛÑT‘ê«ìøÏ dü«\Œø±\ s¡TD≤\ø√dü+
191. Revenue deficit as percentage of Indian GDP during 2021-22 recorded as
(1) Less than 2 (2) Between 2 to 3
(3) Between 3 to 4 (4) Above 4
2021-22 dü+e‘·‡s¡+˝À uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ GDP ˝À ¬s$q÷´˝À≥T m+‘·XÊ‘·+>± qyÓ÷<äT nsTT+<ä+fÒ
(1) 2 ø£Hêï ‘ä≈£îÿe (2) 2 qT+∫ 3 eT<Ûä´˝À
(3) 3 qT+∫ 4 eT<Ûä´˝À (4) 4 ø£Hêï m≈£îÿe
192. Which Indian State stand first in the achievement of ‘Zero hunger’ (Goal 2 of SDG) during
2022?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Goa (3) Gujarat (4) Kerala
2022 dü+e‘·‡s¡+˝À uÛ≤s¡‘<
· X˚ +¯ ˝À ª|üdTü \
Ô T ˝Òøb£ ˛e⁄≥μ (Zero hunger düTdæsú y¡ TÓ qÆ n_Ûeè~∆ \ø£´å +-2) kÕ~Û+∫q
sêÁcÕº\˝À yÓTT<ä{Ï kÕúq+˝À ì*∫q sêhy˚T~?
(1) ‘·$Tfi¯Hê&ÉT (2) >√yê (3) >∑T»sê‘Y (4) πøs¡fi¯
*S5-A-45* 45-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
193. Which one of the following statement is true relating to Indian economy for 2020-21
compared to 2019-20?
(1) Foreign trade deficit of India declined
(2) Foreign trade deficit of India increased
(3) Reduction in imports is less than reduction in exports.
(4) Increase in imports is greater than the increase in exports.
ÁøÏ+~ Á|üø£≥q\˝À uÛ≤s¡‘· Ä]∆ø£ eédüú≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ 2020-21 dü+e‘·‡sêìøÏ 2019-20‘√ bı\Ã>±
ì»yÓTÆq<˚~?
(1) $<˚o yêDÏ»´˝À≥T ‘·–Z+~.
(2) $<˚o yêDÏ»´˝À≥T ô|]–+~.
(3) ~>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ‘·s¡T>∑T<ä\, m>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ‘·s¡T>∑T<ä\ ø£Hêï ‘·≈£îÿe>± ñ+~.
(4) ~>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ô|s¡T>∑T<ä\, m>∑TeT‘·T\˝À ô|s¡T>∑T<ä\ ø£Hêï m≈£îÿe>± ñ+~.
194. As per agricultural census 2015-16, the percentage of small and marginal holdings taken
together constitutes
(1) 70% of total holdings in 2015-16
2015-16 eékÕj·T ôdHÓ‡dtqqTdü]+∫ ∫qï eT]j·TT düqïø±s¡T ø£eT‘ê\ ¬s+&ç+{Ï yÓTT‘·Ô+ XÊ‘·+
m+‘· nq>±
(1) 2015-16 dü+e‘·‡s¡+ yÓTT‘·Ô+ ø£eT‘ê\˝À 70 XÊ‘·+
195. In which one of the Indian sector, the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is prohibited?
(1) Defence (2) Health care
(3) Lottery business (4) Print Media
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À $<˚o Á|ü‘·´ø£å ô|≥Tºã&ÉT\T (FDI) ÁøÏ+~ @ s¡+>∑+˝À ìùw~Û+#·ã&Ü¶sTT?
(1) s¡ø£åD (2) Äs√>∑´ dü+s¡ø£åD
(3) ˝≤≥Ø yê´bÕs¡+ (4) Á|æ+{Ÿ e÷<ÛäéT+
196. The reason for price of electricity in India for domestic use is the lowest, while the same
for industrial use is highest in the world is due to
(1) Higher cost of production (2) Progressive price based on consumption
(3) Cross-subsidisation (4) High equipment costs
Á|ü|ü+#·+˝ÀH˚ uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+˝À >∑è¨|üjÓ÷>∑ $<äT´‘Y <Ûäs¡ #ê˝≤ ‘·≈£îÿe>±qT, bÕ]ÁXÊ$Tø£ ñ|üjÓ÷>∑
$<äT´‘Y <Ûäs¡ #ê˝≤ m≈£îÿe>±qT ñ+&ÉT≥≈£î ø±s¡D+ @eTq>±
(1) ôV≤#·TÃ ñ‘·Œ‹Ô e´j·T+ (2) $ìjÓ÷>∑+ô|’ Ä<Ûës¡|ü&ç |ü⁄s√>±$T <Ûäs¡\T
(3) Áø±dt dü_‡&û\T (4) ôV≤#·TÃ |ü]ø£s¡ e´j·÷\T
*S5-A-46* 46-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
197. The first and second largest export destinations of IT-BPM services of India during
2022-23 in the World are
(1) USA and Australia (2) USA and UK
(3) UK and China (4) USA and Asia-Pacific
uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯ IT-BPM ùde\≈£î dü+ã+~Û+∫ 2022-23e düü+e‘·‡s¡+˝À Á|ü|ü+#·+˝À yÓTT<ä{Ï eT]j·TT
~«rj·T m>∑TeT‹ >∑e÷´\T @eTq>±?
(1) USA eT]j·TT ÄÅùdº*j·÷ (2) USA eT]j·TT UK
(3) UK eT]j·TT #Ó’Hê (4) USA eT]j·TT Ädæj·÷ ` |üdæ|òæø˘
198. Which one of the following sectors has a major share in the National Infrastructure Pipeline
(NIP) project?
(1) Energy (2) Road
(3) Urban Sector (4) Railways
ÁøÏ+~ yê{Ï˝À @ s¡+>∑+ ~ H˚wüq˝Ÿ ÇÅqŒ¤Ådüºø£ÃsY ô|’|ü⁄˝…’qT (NIP) |ü<∏äø£+˝À ôV≤#·TÃ yê{≤ ø£*– ñ+~?
(1) X¯øÏÔ (2) s√&ÉT¶
(3) |ü≥ºD s¡+>∑+ (4) ¬s’˝Ò«\T
199. In respect of which sustainable Goal, India performed well in 2022?
(1) No poverty (Goal -1)
(2) Zero Hunger (Goal - 2)
(3) Clean water and sanitation (Goal - 6)
(4) Affordable and Clean Energy (Goal - 7)
2022 e dü+e‘·‡s¡+˝À uÛ≤s¡‘·<˚X¯+ @ düTdæús¡yÓTÆq n_Ûeè~∆ \ø£åéTT $wüj·T+˝À u≤>± |üì #˚dæq~?
(1) ù|<ä]ø£+ ˝Òø£b˛e⁄≥ (\ø£å´+ - 1)
(2) |üdüTÔ\T ˝Òø£b˛e⁄≥ (Zero Hunger) (\ø£å´+ - 2)
(3) dü«#·Ã¤yÓTÆq ˙s¡T eT]j·TT bÕ]X¯ó<Ûä´+ (\ø£å´+ - 6)
(4) bı+<ä>∑*–q eT]j·TT dü«#·Ã¤yÓTÆq X¯øÏÔ (Affordable and Clean Energy) (\ø£å´+ - 7)
200. Mobilizing the large part of deposits in ‘risk free assets’ such as Government securities is
known as
(1) Narrow Banking (2) Universal Banking
(3) Development Banking (4) Social Banking
qwüº uÛÑj·T+˝Òì Á|üuÛÑT‘·« ôd≈£î´Ø{° ˝≤+{Ï yê{Ï˝À e÷Á‘·y˚T n~Ûø£ yÓTT‘·Ô+˝À &çbÕõ≥T¢ #˚j·T{≤ìï
@eT+{≤s¡T?
(1) dü+≈£î∫‘· u≤´+øÏ+>¥ (2) $ÁdüTÔ‘· u≤´+øÏ+>¥
(3) n_Ûeè~∆ #Ó+<äT‘·Tqï u≤´+øÏ+>¥ (4) kÕe÷õø£ u≤´+øÏ+>¥

*S5-A-47* 47-A
S-5 Booklet Code A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
*S5-A-48* 48-A

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18. The standard reduction potentials of the following reactions

19. What is Y in the following reaction sequence?

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