All India Test Series (NEET-2023)

Part Test - 07 Dropper

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 09/04/2023 M. MARKS : 720

ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY

1. (2) 51. (2) 101. (2) 151. (3)
2. (3) 52. (1) 102. (3) 152. (2)
3. (4) 53. (2) 103. (3) 153. (1)
4. (1) 54. (2) 104. (1) 154. (4)
5. (1) 55. (1) 105. (2) 155. (1)
6. (3) 56. (4) 106. (3) 156. (3)
7. (4) 57. (4) 107. (2) 157. (4)
8. (2) 58. (3) 108. (3) 158. (3)
9. (1) 59. (4) 109. (1) 159. (1)
10. (1) 60. (2) 110. (1) 160. (4)
11. (3) 61. (4) 111. (3) 161. (2)
12. (2) 62. (4) 112. (1) 162. (3)
13. (1) 63. (3) 113. (1) 163. (1)
14. (3) 64. (4) 114. (1) 164. (4)
15. (3) 65. (4) 115. (2) 165. (3)
16. (2) 66. (2) 116. (3) 166. (1)
17. (3) 67. (4) 117. (3) 167. (2)
18. (3) 68. (3) 118. (3) 168. (3)
19. (1) 69. (3) 119. (1) 169. (4)
20. (1) 70. (2) 120. (4) 170. (3)
21. (4) 71. (3) 121. (2) 171. (2)
22. (3) 72. (4) 122. (2) 172. (4)
23. (2) 73. (1) 123. (1) 173. (4)
24. (3) 74. (4) 124. (4) 174. (1)
25. (1) 75. (4) 125. (1) 175. (4)
26. (4) 76. (4) 126. (2) 176. (4)
27. (1) 77. (4) 127. (2) 177. (3)
28. (1) 78. (1) 128. (3) 178. (3)
29. (2) 79. (3) 129. (1) 179. (4)
30. (3) 80. (2) 130. (3) 180. (1)
31. (2) 81. (2) 131. (2) 181. (2)
32. (2) 82. (3) 132. (4) 182. (3)
33. (3) 83. (1) 133. (2) 183. (3)
34. (4) 84. (4) 134. (2) 184. (4)
35. (2) 85. (3) 135. (1) 185. (4)
36. (2) 86. (1) 136. (1) 186. (4)
37. (2) 87. (1) 137. (4) 187. (3)
38. (1) 88. (4) 138. (2) 188. (3)
39. (3) 89. (3) 139. (4) 189. (4)
40. (4) 90. (3) 140. (2) 190. (2)
41. (3) 91. (2) 141. (3) 191. (1)
42. (1) 92. (2) 142. (3) 192. (4)
43. (2) 93. (3) 143. (2) 193. (4)
44. (1) 94. (1) 144. (2) 194. (2)
45. (3) 95. (2) 145. (1) 195. (3)
46. (3) 96. (1) 146. (1) 196. (1)
47. (3) 97. (4) 147. (2) 197. (2)
48. (4) 98. (2) 148. (3) 198. (2)
49. (2) 99. (2) 149. (3) 199. (4)
50. (3) 100. (1) 150. (3) 200. (4)

[1]
 SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. (2) 7. (4)

2. (3)
When magnet of length l is cut into four equal
parts. Then
m l
m =
and l  =
2 2
m l ml M
 M=  = =
2 2 4 4
New moment of inertia
2 M  = mR
m1
ml 2 4  2  1 ml 2 L=

R
I = = = . 3
12 12 16 12
3L
Here m is the mass of magnet. R=

1
 I = I 3 mL 3M
16 Now, M  = =
 
I
Time period of each part T  = 2
M BH 8. (2)
VAB = 0.5 × 10 = 5 V
I / 16 I T
= 2 = 2 = 5
( M / 4) BH 4 MBH 2  k = = 1.25 V/m
4
 kl = 
3. (4) 2
 l= = 1.6 m
Area under B-H curve = energy lost per cycle. 1.25

9. (1)
4. (1)

1 1 1 32 8
= + R= = 
R 8 4 12 3

10. (1)

5. (1)
BH H0
tan  = tan  =
B H
Ratio of resistor = 20 : 20 : 10
H  =2:2:1
 = tan −1  0 
 H  Ratio of current is = 1 : 1 : 2
2
i = 1
4
6. (3) = 0.5 A
Bnet = B + B = 2B
0 m 11. (3)
=2
4 r 2 R' = n2R = 4R

Bnet = 8  10−7 T 12. (2)

8 , 3  and 24  are in parallel.

[2]
13. (1) 2
i 2
RAD 10 l 10 Thermal power in B = PB =   6R = i 2 R
=  =  3 3
RDB 15 100 − l 15
Thermal power in
l = 40 cm

14. (3)

Net Emf = E + E + E + E – E C PC i 2 R
= 3E  PA : PB : PC
4 2
: :1 4 : 2 : 3
15. (3) 3 3
The given circuit can be redrawn as follows
18. (3)
Magnetic induction at the centre of the coil of
radius r is,
 nI
Bc = 0 ...(i)
2r
Magnetic induction on the axial line of a circular
coil at a distance x from the centre is,
Equivalent resistance between A and B is R and
0 nr 2 I
V Ba =
current i , current through AFCEB. 2(r 2 + x 2 )3 2
R
Given : x = r,
V
i = i/2 = 0 nr 2 I
2R  Ba = ...(ii)
2(2r 2 )3 2
16. (2) Bc 2 2
From equations (i) and (ii), we get, =
10 Ba 1
Req = 5 , Current i = = 2 A and current in each
5
branch = 1A 19. (1)
= r

r= ...(i)

 I  I
B0 = 0 = 0
4r 4

1 2 I
Potential difference between C and A, = 410−7   =  10−7
4
VC − VA = 11 = 1V ...(i)
Potential difference between C and B, 20. (1)
VC − VB = 1 3 = 3V ...(ii) F = qVB sin 
On solving (i) and (ii) VA − VB = 2 volt charge of -particle is 2e.

Short Trick : 21. (4)

i 2 0 I I B
(VA − VB ) = ( R2 − R1 ) = (3 − 1) = 2V B= ; B   B =
2 2 2r r 4

17. (3) 22. (3)

 0 ni
 2i  4
2 Bcentre = 0ni; Bend points =
Thermal power in A = PA =   3R = i 2 R 2
3 3 Bcentre 2
=
Bend points 1

[3]
23. (2)
2m
Time period =
qB
Tcircular = THelix

24. (3)
Magnetic field due to bar magnet at its equatorial
M 20 M
and axial position respectively are 0 3 and Bnet =
4r 4d 3
0 2M
4r 3 30. (3)
0 I    0 I
B=  =
2 R  2  18R

31. (2)
0 2M B = 0, because net current in loop is zero.
B1 =
4r 3
M 32. (2)
B2 = 0 3
4r d=
mv
,B =
mv
5 0 M Bq qd
Bnet = B12 + B22 =
4r 3
33. (3)
25. (1) Inside (d > R)
Wagent = U + K Magnetic field inside conductor
 i
Wagent = U + K B= 0 2 d
2 R
Wagent = U f − Ui Or B = Kd … (i)
Straight line passing through origin
MB
U f = −MB cos120 = At surface (d = R)
2
 i

U i = − MB cos0 = − MB B= 0 …(ii)
2 R
MB
Wagent = − (−MB) Maximum at surface
2 Outside (d > R)
=
3MB  i
Wagent B= 0
2 2 d
1
26. (4) Or B  (Hyperbolic)
d

27. (1) 34. (4)

cot 2  = cot 2 1 + cot 2 2 Force between BC and AB will be same in
magnitude.
28. (1)  I2
FBC = FBA = 0
If charge is stationary then 2d
Using Fm = q(v  B) F = 2FBC
As v = 0, Fm = 0 0 I 2
= 2 =
2 d
29. (2) 0 I 2
Since two equal vectors M are inclined at 120°, F=
2d
their resultant will also be M and along its anglar
bisector. So point P is on axial line of resultant
moment M. 35. (2)
0 I
B= , when made n turns radius becomes r’
2r
[4]
 r 44. (1)
n  2r  = 2r  r  =
n
 nI I
Now, B = 0  = n2 0 = n2 B
2r 2r

V L
36. (2) I= R=
R A
Torque on coil, τ = nIABsin60°
V f − Vi
3 then I =
 = 50  2  (0.12  0.1)  0.2  = 0.20Nm L
2
−20 − 4 V  − 4
=
37. (2) 100 20

−24 V − 4
=
100 20
−4
V = = −0.8 V
5

45. (3)
1
vd  for i = constant
A
Fnet = F1 − F2 = F1  F2
46. (3)
38. (1) For Pmax, Load resistance = internal resistance
R = 2r
39. (3) (2 E ) 2 E 2
Pmax = =
0 i R + 2r R
B= [sin  + sin ]
4 R
4 47. (3)
sin  = and sin  = 1
5 5 1 1
I= = VA − 5  − VB = 0
10 2 2
40. (4) 5
β=α VA = = 2.5volt
2
v1 = v2 ( Fm ⊥ v )
2( − )m 48. (4)
T=
qB

41. (3) VA − VB = (2  2) + 3 + (2 1)

0 /   I  I = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9V
Bp = + 0 − 0
4R 4(3R) 4(2 R)
0 /   1 1  5 0 /  49. (2)
Bp = 1+ − = 1.5R  3R
4R  3 2  6 4R RZY = =R
(1.5 + 3) R
42. (1) R XZ = RZY = R
V  VXZ = VZY
R= T
I  VA = VB = VC

43. (2)
50. (3)
Q f − Qi 8−0
I= = = 4A
t1 − ti 2−0

[5]
 SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
51. (2) 58. (3)
Specific conductance = Conductance × Cell Critical Micelle Concentration (CMC) is defined
constant as the concentration of surfactants above which
 K = C × Cell constant micelles form, For surfactants with hydrophilic
if K = C head groups (like – COONa, – COOK etc), if the
K carbon chain length increases, CMC value
 =1
C decreases.
So, Cell Constant = 1
59. (4)
52. (1) Atomic radius of Iron = 150 pm
V(CO)6 can be easily reduced to [V(CO)6]–. 150  15
V(CO)6 has a total of 17 bonding electrons, hence So, 15% of atomic radii = = 22.5pm
100
it is very reactive and unstable. [V(CO)6]– on the
So, range will be (150 – 22.5) to (150 + 22.5)
other hand has complete set of 18 bonding
So, range = 127.5 to 172.5
electrons as an electron is added into the bonding
orbital, when V(CO)6 gets reduced to [V(CO)6]–.
All others have 18 bonding electrons. 60. (2)
E = 0.76V, E = −0.34V
Zn/Zn 2+ Cu/Cu 2+
53. (2)
E = −0.80V, E = 0.55V
Cu is the weakest reducing agent as it comes after Ag/Ag + Ni/ Ni 2 +
H in electrochemical series. It has positive
E = 0.0V
standard reduction potential thus does not provide H 2 /H +
electrons for reduction. Zn + Cu 2+ → Cu + Zn 2+
Ecell = E − E
54. (2) Cu 2+ /Cu Zn 2+ /Zn
Smaller the value of gold number, greater will be = 0.34 – (–0.76)
the protecting power of the protective colloid.
Ecell = 0.34 + 0.76 = 1.10V
Hence, protective power of A, B and C is as
Colloidal solution: A > B > C Zn + 2Ag+ → 2Ag + Zn 2+
Gold number: 0.01 < 2.5 < 20
Ecell = E − E
Ag + /Ag Zn/Zn 2 +
55. (1) = 0.80 − ( 0.76)
E 3+  E 3+ 2+ (Reduction potential)
Mn /Mn 2+ Fe /Fe = 1.56 V
For spontaneous reaction, G° = –ve, so Ecell H 2 + Cu 2+ → Cu + 2H +
should be positive.
Ecell = E − E
So, reaction will take place as, Cu 2 + /Cu H + /H 2

Mn 3+ + Fe2+ → Fe3+ + Mn 2+ = 0.34 – 0 = 0.34 V

Ecell = E − E H2 + Ni2+ → 2H+ + Ni
Mn3+ /Mn 2+ Fe3+ /Fe2+

Ecell = + ve Ecell = E − E
Ni 2 + / Ni H + /H 2
= −0.55 − 0 = −0.55V
56. (4)
61. (4)
57. (4) The increasing order for the wavelengths of
m ( NaCl ) = 126.45 ohm cm mol
 −1 2 −1 absorption in the visible region for the complexes
of Co3+ is [Co(en)3]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ <
Λ −1
m (HCl) = 426.16 ohm cm mol
2 −1
[Co(H2O)6]3+.
m ( CH3COONa ) = 91 ohm cm mol
Λ −1 2 −1 The decreasing order of ligands strength is
en > NH3 > H2O. Stronger ligand causes greater
Λ 
m (CH3COOH) = Λm (CH3COONa) splitting between two energy levels.

+Λ
m (HCl) −Λm (NaCl)
The energy of light absorbed is more and the
wavelength of light absorbed is less for the
= 91 + 426.16 − 126.45
stronger ligand.
Λ∞ −1 2
m (CH3 COOH) = 390.71ohm cm mol
−1

[6]
62. (4)
The colloidal particles in ferric hydroxide carry a
positive charge and hence ferric hydroxide sol is
positively charged.
Applying Hardy Schulze rule:
The active ion for the coagulation of the ferric
hydroxide solution must be negatively charged
and highest the negative charge of the active ion,
most effective coagulating active ion.
Here, K3[Fe(CN)6] → 3K+ + [Fe(CN)6]3– and this
coordination species has highest negative charge.
63. (3)
We need to follow the alphabetical order while
naming the compound. The oxidation number of
metal is +4.
Hence the IUPAC name is-
Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV)
chloride.
69. (3)
River water is a colloidal solution of clay and sea
water contains a number of electrolytes. When
river water meets the sea water, the electrolytes
present in the sea water coagulate the colloidal
solution of clay resulting in its deposition with the
formation of delta.
70. (2)
In the presence of water, which is a weak field
ligand, the configurations of metal ions in
hydrated compounds reflects those in isolated
gaseous ions i.e., no pairing of electrons is
possible as the interaction with water molecules is
weak.

64. (4)
Ferric chloride is used to stop bleeding in cuts
because Fe3+ coagulates blood which is negatively
charged sol. As we know blood is a colloidal sol.
On rubbing the injured part with Fe3+ then
coagulation of blood takes place. Hence, the main
reason is coagulation, which stops bleeding.
65. (4)
66. (2)
Strong electrolytes are completely ionised at all
concentrations. On increasing dilution, the no. of
ions remains the same but the ionic mobility
increases and the equivalent conductance
increases.
All the metal ions in above compounds are
divalent and their outer shell electronic
configurations are shown above.
The paramagnetic nature of a compound is
proportional to the number of unpaired electrons
in it. Mn2+ ion has more number of unpaired
electrons.
Hence MnSO4.4H2O shows greater paramagnetic
nature. In contrast, there is only one unpaired
electron in Cu2+ and hence CuSO4.5H2O shows
lowest degree of paramagnetism.

71. (3)
67. (4)
Oxidation number of K is +1 and CO is 0.
The function of salt bridge in an electrolytic cell is
Let oxidation number of Co is x,
to maintain electrical neutrality in solutions and
+ 1 + (x + 4(0)) = 0
prevent voltage drop. Once the salt bridge is
removed from the cell, the voltage drops to zero. x = –l
Oxidation number of Co is –1.
68. (3)
72. (4)
(magnetic moment  = n ( n + 2 ) where n is no.
We have the relation for equivalent conductance
of unpaired electron). and molar conductance -
Molar conductance ( Λ m ) = ( n − factor ) 
In high spin complex, metal ion has 4 unpaired
electron and in low spin complex it has zero
unpaired electron. Equivalent conductance Λeq( )
+2
So ion is Fe =d 
6
t 42g eg2 high spin, 4 Recall dissociation of Fe2 (SO4 )3
unpaired electron.
Fe 2 ( SO 4 )3 → 2Fe3+ + 3SO 24−
Fe +2 = d 6  t 62g eg0 low spin, zero unpaired
Now, n -factor = total amount of +ve or total
electron.
amount of –ve charge.
So ion is Fe+2.
[7]
 So, for Fe2 (SO4 )3 , n-factor = 2 × 3 = 6 Using formula, Molarity =
No. of moles
 1000
From above relation, Volume
No. of moles
Λm = 6  Λeq 0.01 =  100
100
Λm No. of moles of AgCl = 0.001
 Λeq =
6
80. (2)
73. (1) In mercury cell,
By definition gold number of starch is the amount Zinc - mercury amalgam will act as anode
of starch in mg added to 10 ml standard gold sol Paste of HgO and carbon will act as cathode
which prevents the coagulation of gold on adding Paste of KOH and ZnO will be the electrolyte
1 ml of 10% NaCl solution. So the amount of In mercury cell, there will be a thin polymeric
starch is 0.025g = 25 mg. Hence, the gold number membrane which prevents the mixing of products
is 25. formed at the electrodes. This membrane is called
separator.
74. (4) Reaction at electrodes:
At anode:
The second transition series or 4d series
corresponding to the filling of 4d sublevel consists Zn ( Hg ) + 2OH − → ZnO ( s ) + H 2O + 2e−
of the following 10 elements of the 5th period: Y, At cathode:
Zr, Nb, Mo, Tc, Ru, Rh, Pd, Ag and Cd. HgO + H2O + 2e– → Hg(l) + 2OH–
Overall cell reaction
75. (4) Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
Ammonia preparation - Fe Ecell = 1.35 V
Hydrogenation - Ni The potential of the mercury cell remains constant
Fermentation - Bio catalyzed due to absence of ions in the overall cell reaction.
1 NO
SO2 + O2 ⎯⎯⎯ →SO3 − Homogenous 81. (2)
2
In acidic medium, Cr(VI) in the form of
76. (4) dichromate is a strong oxidizing agent where
Bredig's arc method is suitable for the preparation MoO3 and WO3 are not because:
of colloidal solutions of metals like gold, silver, Mo(VI) and W(VI) are more stable than Cr(VI).
platinum, etc. Higher oxidation states of heavier members of
group- 6 of transition series are more stable.
77. (4)
82. (3)
Due to lanthanide contraction size of lanthanides
Associate colloids decrease surface tension and
ions decreases from La3+ to Lu3+.
increase viscosity.
So order is Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
83. (1)
78. (1) Gold and silver both find use for toning in
The species that has the most positive value of the photography. However Au is not affected by
reduction potential would get reduced the easiest, strong acids and strong alkalies. Au forms AuCl3,
and hence would be the strongest oxidising agent. whereas Ag forms AgCl. Hence, metal is Au.
Here, if we reverse the second reaction, we get
E 3+ 2+ = 0.77V . 84. (4)
Fe /Fe
[Co(ox)3]3– and [Co(H2O)6]3+
This means that Fe3+ can gain an electron easily to
The first compound has chelation which makes it
form Fe2+ making it the strongest oxidising agent. much more stable than the second one. Hence, the
given order is correct.
79. (3) [PtF6]2– and [NiF6]2–
Cr ( H 2O ) (Cl)2  Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
excess AgNO3
→ Pt is a 5d series element and Ni is a 3d series
 4 
+ element. Since 5d elements have a higher CFSE
Cr ( H2O) (Cl)2  + AgCl 
 4  than 3d elements, we can say that the first
compound is more stable than the second one.
Hence, the given order is correct.
[8]
 [Ni(trien)]2+ and [Ni(dmg)2] C.F.S.E = –1.20
Both complexes here have chelation. However, Ni3+ : 3 d7
the first one has more rings and hence it is more C.F.S.E = –1.80
stable than the second one. So, the given order is
By oxidation of Ni 2+ into Ni3+ , the CFSE value
correct.
increase.
[Ni(NH3)6]2+ and [Ni(dmg)2]
2+ − e− 3+
dmg leads to the formation of chelation while the (4)  Co(phen )3  → Co(phen )3 
⎯⎯⎯
same phenomenon is not observed in the first
Co 2+ : 3d 7
complex. Hence, the given order of stability is
incorrect. C.F.S.E = –1.80
Co3+ : 3d 6
85. (3) C.F.S.E = –2.40
Cu 2+ + 2e− → Cu Ecell = 0.34 By oxidation of Co 2+ into Co3+ , the CFSE value
  increase.
0.059 1
E cell = E cell − log  
n  Cu 2+
 ( ) 
 87. (1)
0.059  1  Cr2+ is oxidized to Cr3+ leading to t 32g half-filled
0 = +0.34 − log  2+ 
2  Cu  stable configuration, is the correct statement
0.34  2  1  Mn3+ is reduced to Mn2+ with d5 configuration, is
= log  2+  the correct statement.
0.059  Cu 
 1 
11.525 = log  2+  88. (4)
 Cu  Lyophilic sols are the colloidal sols formed by
1011.525 = 1 / Cu 2+ mixing substances in a suitable dispersion
Cu 2+  = 2.97  10−12 M medium. These are quite stable. These are also
 
known as reversible sols. They do not need a
stabilizing agent.
86. (1)
89. (3)
K3[FeF6] is a coordination compound, so it will
give K+ and [FeF6]3– in aqueous solution.
Symmetrical bidentate ligand
2+ − 3+
−e
Fe ( phen )  ⎯⎯⎯ → Fe ( phen )3  90. (3)
 3
We know that w = Z  I  t
where w = Amount substance of deposited
Equivalent weight
Z= = Electrochemical equi.
96500

I = Amount of current
By oxidation of Fe2+ into Fe3+ , the CFSE value t = Amount of time taken
M/3
decrease.  0.55 g =  0.55  100  60
− 3−
96500
(2)  Zn(phen)3 2 ⎯⎯⎯
−e
→  Zn(phen)3   M = 48.25 g / mol
Zn 2+ : 3d10
C.F.S.E = 0 91. (2)
Zn 3+ : 3d 9
92. (2)
C.F.S.E = –0.60
The Electronic configuration of Ce is
By oxidation of Zn 2+ into Zn 3+ , the CFSE value [Xe]4f 1 5d1 6s2 .
increase. Lanthanides are very less electronegative. Their
2+ − e− 3+
(3)  Ni( phen )3  → Ni( phen )3 
⎯⎯⎯ electronegative value is nearly equal to s block
elements. So, they can lose electrons to form
Ni 2+ : 3d8
[9]
 cation. 96. (1)
When cerium loses 4e– it acquires electronic Spin only magnetic moment = n ( n + 2 )B.M.
configuration of Noble gas xenon. As
Where, n = no. of unpaired electrons.
fully filled or half-filled electronic configuration
possesses extra stability. By attaining +4 oxidation Given, n ( n + 2 ) = 2.84

state it attains f configuration too. or, n(n + 2) = 8.0656

Ce4+ → [Xe]4f 0 5d0 6s0 . or, n = 2
In an octahedral complex, for a d4 configuration in
93. (3) a strong filed ligand, number of unpaired
W=Z×I×t electrons = 2
Q = It
W=Z×Q 97. (4)
M Misch metal contains Lanthanide metals
Z = Electrochemical Equivalence = n ×F
f (94-95)% + Iron (5)% + Traces of S, C, Si, Ca and
nf = n-factor Al.
F = 96500 C/mol
M = molar mass 98. (2)
M
W= Q
nf  F 99. (2)
W  nf Q According to Nernst equations,
=
M F 0.0591
E=E − logQ
w A  ( n f )A Q w B  ( n f )B Q n
= , = , 2
MA F MB F H+  P
0.059   RHE 1
w C  ( n f )C E=E + log 2
Q 2 H+ 
= P
  LHE 2
MC F
4.5  ( n f )A Q 2.7  ( n f )B Q 0.059 10−2  10−2
= , = , = log −1
So,
15 F 27 F 2 10  10−1
9.6  ( n f )C = −0.059 V
Q
= As emf value is negative so reaction is
48 F
non-spontaneous in forward direction.
0.3  ( n f )A = ( 0.1)  ( n f )B ,
0.1 ( n f )B = 0.2  ( n f )C 100. (1)
Blood is a colloidal solution and the impurities
( n f )B ( n f )B
= 3, =2 present in the blood are in the form of crystalloids.
( n f )A ( n f )A They are removed by diffusing the mixture, here
So, ( n f )A = 2, ( n f )B = 6, ( n f )C = 3 blood, through an animal membrane or a
parchment. Dialysis uses the same process and can
thus be used for the purification of blood in
94. (1)
artificial kidneys. The membrane in the dialysis
The micelles are formed by the association of
machine allows the small waste product and the
dispersed particles above a certain concentration
small ionic particles through it. The relatively
which is known as critical micelle concentration.
bigger colloidal sized particles like Haemoglobin
are not permitted to pass the membrane. The waste
95. (2)
products now separated from the necessary blood
Freshly prepared ferric hydroxide on treatment
particles are then flushed out hence purifying
with a small amount of ferric chloride in presence
blood.
of dil hydrochloric acid solution forms a dark
reddish-brown solution where Ferric chloride acts
as a peptizing agent and the process is known as
peptization.

[10]
 SECTION – III (BOTANY)
101. (2)
The phenotype of the following fruit fly is
Yellow body with Red eye.
102. (3)
Henking (1891) could trace a specific nuclear
structure all through spermatogenesis in a few
insects, and it was also observed by him that 50
per cent of the sperm received this structure after
spermatogenesis, whereas the other 50 per cent
sperm did not receive it. Henking gave a name to
this structure as the X body but he could not
explain its significance.
103. (3)
TT plant is heterozygous for genes controlling
one character (height) & it is a monohybrid is
incorrect statement as TT is homozygous.
104. (1)
ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.
The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has
sugar polymers that protrude from its surface and
the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene.
105. (2)
In Garden pea, if starch grain size is considered
as the phenotype, then from this angle, the alleles
show incomplete dominance.
106. (3)
The F2 ratio for the dihybrid cross between a
heterozygous round and yellow pea plants is
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 which is as follows: Round-Yellow :
Round-Green : Wrinkled-Yellow : Wrinkled-
Green (9 : 3 : 3 : 1). The first dominant and
second recessive traits mean round-green
seeds.Since out of 16 seeds 3 are round-green,
therefore out of 400 seeds, the ratio of round-
green plants seeds is 75.
107. (2)
Allosomic monosomy is seen in turner's
syndrome. Such a disorder is caused due to the
absence of one of the X chromosomes, i.e., 45
with X0.
108. (3)
Affected male is shown incorrectly. The given
pedigree symbol in option 3 is a representation of
affected individual whose sex is unspecified.
109. (1)
Probability of a son to a couple is ½.
110. (1)
Terminal flower of pea plant cannot express itself
in heterozygous condition as it is a recessive trait
while all others are dominant traits.
111. (3)
Both colourblind Parents will have colourblind
sons and colourblind daughters. A marriage
between colourblind female and normal male can
not produce all normal children, as they will
produce carrier daughters and colourblind sons.
So, both the starements are incorrect.
112. (1)
The probability of obtaining a zygote with
genotype AabbCcDd if a cross is made between
individuals whose genotypes are Aabbccdd and
AAbbCCDD respectively is ½ i.e, 50%.
113. (1)
Constricted pod shape trait in pea plant can
express only in homozygous condition as it is a
recessive trait.
114. (1)
In thalassaemia the affected chromosomes may
be 16th and 11th. α Thalassemia is controlled by
two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
chromosome 16 of each parent. While β
Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB
on chromosome 11 of each parent.
115. (2)
Incomplete dominance is exemplified by flower
colour in Antirrhinum.
116. (3)
A pink flowered plant of snapdragon was crossed
with red flowered plant. The progeny will have
1:1 ratio of red and pink flowered plants.
117. (3)
Option 3 is incorrectly matched because I B I B
genotype of offspring is possible only when B
and AB blood group of parents are present.
118. (3)
Skin colour in humans could not be an example
of qualitative inheritance.
[11]
119. (1)
Thomas Hunt Morgan (1866-1945), an American
genetics and Nobel Prize winner of 1933, is
considered as Father of Experimental Genetics
for his work on and discovery of linkage, crossing
over, sex linkage, criss cross inheritance, linkage
maps, mutability of genes, etc.
120. (4)
Two types of gametes can be produced by a plant
with genotype PPQQRrSS i.e, PQRS and PQrS.
121. (2)
It do not produces single type of gamete as it is
heterogametic.
122. (2)
Henking's X body is a chromosome which was
later named X Chromosome.
123. (1)
Haemophilia follows criss cross pattern of
transmission. It is a sex linked recessive disorder.
124. (4)
45 + XY chromosome complement represents
trisomy of autosomes in human being.
125. (1)
When a pyrimidine base is substituted by another
pyrimidine base the type of mutation is called
transition.
126. (2)
Blue light is not a mutagen.
127. (2)
Offspring with blood group 'O' can not be
produced in cross A × AB.
128. (3)
A male grasshopper produces two types of
gametes which differ in chromosome number.
The X0 sex-determination system is a system that
determines the sex of offspring among
grasshoppers, crickets, cockroaches, and some
other insects. In this system, there is only one sex
chromosome, referred to as X. Males only have
one X chromosome (X0), while females have two
(XX). In XO sex type found in males, there are
two different gamete that is with X and without
X chromosome. The O signifies the lack of an X
chromosome.
129. (1)
The pedigree chart is a method of study of the
human genetic disorder. The pattern of
inheritance such Mendelian disorders can be
traced in a family by the pedigree chart.
Mendelian disorders are phenylketonuria, sickle-
cell anemia, haemophilia, cystic fibrosis, and
myotonic dystrophy.
Turner's syndrome, Down's syndrome, and
Klinefelter's syndrome are chromosomal
disorders and cannot be studied by a pedigree
chart.
130. (3)
A colourblind female can be born in the cross
between carrier female and colourblind male.
131. (2)
According to pedigree, offspring of normal
parents show the trait which means that the trait
is recessively present in the normal parents; the
trait is recessive. In first filial generation, both
son and daughter show the trait. As we know that
a sex-linked recessive trait can be expressed in
either sex, not in both; the X-linked trait is
expressed in male progeny while the female
progeny serves as a carrier and the Y-linked trait
is expressed in sons only.The presence of trait in
both son and daughter in F1 generation confirms
that it is an autosomal trait. The second parent
generation must have a carrier parent and a
recessive homozygous parent to pass it to 1/3rd
of progeny and phenylketonuria is autosomal
recessive trait.
132. (4)
Mutational breeding is induced in plants
commomnly by gamma rays.
133. (2)
Okra - Pusa A-4 - Shoot and fruit borer is
correctly matched.
134. (2)
Sonalika is variety of wheat. In 1963, several
varieties such as Sonalika and Kalyan Sona,
which were high yielding and disease resistant,
were introduced all over the wheat-growing belt
of India.
135. (1)
Refer class 12 NCERT ch 9.
[12]
136. (1)
Morgan worked with Drosophila melanogaster.
They could be grown on simple synthetic
medium in the laboratory. They complete their
life cycle in about two weeks, and a single mating
could produce a large number of progeny flies.
Also, there was a clear differentiation of the sexes
– the male and female flies are easily
distinguishable. Also, it has many types of
hereditary variations that can be seen with low
power microscopes.
137. (1)
There are X and Y sex chromosomes in
Drosophila. The sex of the Drosophila is decided
by the ratio of the X chromosome to the
autosomes (X/A). The females have the ratio
value equal to 1 and the males have a ratio of 0.5.
When the ratio value is more than 1, the insect is
metafemale. When the value is less than 0.5 the
insect is metamale.
138. (2)
When one purine is replaced by one pyrimidine
base or vice versa, the point mutation happening
is referred to as transversion mutation. In sickle
cell anemia, one Adenine (Purine) is changed by
one Thymine (Pyrimidine) base. This leads to the
formation of Valine instead of Glutamine.
139. (4)
Genetic map is one that establishes sites of the
genes on a chromosome.
140. (2)
If the cross over value (COV) of gene A and D is
5%, A and B is 30%, C and D is 20% while B and
C is 5%, the arrangement of all four genes on the
chromosomal map will be BCDA.
141. (3)
Gene I shows multiple allelism and I A is
dominant while IO is recessive, these two
statements are correct.
142. (3)
According to concept of dominance, the modified
allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele, when
it produces the normal enzyme.
143. (2)
10 types of genotype will be represented
respectively if gene S shows four alternate forms-
S1, S2, S3 and S4 and the order of dominance
among them is S1 > S2 > S3 > S4.
144. (2)
International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) is
situated at Philippines.
145. (1)
Micropropagation is a technique used to produce
plants asexually from vegetative plant parts under
artificial conditions. Somatic embryogenesis is a
process where a somatic cell is dedifferentiated to
an embryonic stem cell. This stem cell has the
ability to give rise to an embryo and thereby a
whole plant. This process is carried out under
controlled conditions.
146. (1)
The ability of a plant cell to give rise to a
complete plant is called totipotency.
147. (2)
3-10 kg of grain can produce 1 kg of meat by
animal farming.
148. (3)
In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue
culture the best method is meristem culture. If the
plant is infected with a virus, the meristem (apical
and axillary) is free of virus. Hence, one can
remove the meristem and grow it in vitro to
obtain virus-free plants. Scientists have
succeeded in culturing meristems of banana,
sugarcane, potato, etc.
149. (3)
Whole plants could be regenerated from explants,
i.e., any part of a plant taken out and grown in a
test tube, under sterile conditions in special
nutrient media.
150. (3)
The technique of obtaining larger number of
plantlets by tissue culture method is called
micropropagation.
[13]
 SECTION – IV (ZOOLOGY)
151. (3) 165. (3)
The given symptoms are of ringworms which is MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)
caused by many fungi belonging to the genera contributes about 50% of total lymphoid tissue in
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. human body.

152. (2) 166. (1)

Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like 12th NCERT Pg 162
histamine and serotonin from mast cells.
167. (2)
153. (1) A – Opium poppy
Inbreeding increases homozygosity, thus B – Leaves of cannabis sativa
inbreeding is necessary if we want to evolve a C – Flowering branch of Datura
pureline in any animal.
168. (3)
154. (4) T-lymphocytes are responsible for the rejection of
Gametocytes of the malaria parasites develop in red transplanted organ.
blood cells of human beings.
169. (4)
155. (1) 12th NCERT Pg 148 Fig 8.1
Skin and mucus coating of the epithelium lining the
respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts 170. (3)
are the example of physical barrier. 12th NCERT Pg 169

156. (3) 171. (2)

Bacterial disease – Dysentery, diphtheria, plague AIDS was first reported in 1981
Viral disease – Common cold
Protozoan disease – Amoebiasis 172. (4)
Worm disease – Ascariasis, filariasis Each antibody is consist of four polypeptide chains
two heavy and two light chains.
157. (4)
HIV – attacks T-lymphocytes 173. (4)
Benign tumor – remain confined to their original In common cold, nose and respiratory passage are
location. affected not the lungs.
Leghorn – breed of chicken.
174. (1)
158. (3) 12th NCERT Pg 147
12th NCERT Pg 155
175. (4)
159. (1) Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines,
12th NCERT Pg 154 benzodiazepines, and other similar drugs, that are
normally used as medicines to help patients cope
160. (4) with mental illnesses like depression and insomnia,
Antivenom injections have preformed antibodies so are often abused.
they provide passive immunity.
176. (4)
161. (2) 12th NCERT Pg 150
Hashish, marijuana, charas and ganja are included
in cannabinoids. 177. (3)
Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsil, peyer’s patches and
162. (3) MALT are secondary lymphoid organs.
Given diagram is the chemical structure of
morphine. 178. (3)
Skin and mucus coating of the epithelium lining the
163. (1) respiratory, gastro-intestinal and urogenital tracts
12th NCERT Pg 169 are included in physical barrier.

164. (4) 179. (4)

12th NCERT Pg 147, 149 12th NCERT Pg 154

[14]
180. (1) 191. (1)
12th NCERT Pg 159 12th NCERT Pg 169

181. (2) 192. (4)

A mule is a hybrid of male donkey and female Anti-retroviral drug are only partially effective.
horse.
193. (4)
182. (3) 12th NCERT Pg 165, 166
Well known plants with hallucinogenic properties
are Atropa belladonna and Datura 194. (2)
Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for
183. (3) interaction of lymphocytes with antigen…
12th NCERT Pg 155, 157, 158 Spleen acts as a filter of blood by trapping blood
borne micro-organisms.
184. (4)
12th NCERT Pg 151 195. (3)
12th NCERT Pg 157
185. (4)
Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding, 196. (1)
usually reduces fertility and even productivity. E. histolytica is a protozoan parasite in the large
intestine of human.
186. (4)
12th NCERT Pg 169 197. (2)
12th NCERT Pg 157
187. (3)
12th NCERT Pg 165 198. (2)
Interferon is secreted from virus infected cells which
188. (3) protects non-infected cells from further viral
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in infection.
Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
199. (4)
189. (4) Cancer cells appear to have lost contact inhibition
12th NCERT Pg 167 Fig 9.1 property.

190. (2) 200. (4)

Typhoid is caused by bacterium Salmonella typhi. It 12th NCERT Pg 158
could be confirmed by widal test.

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[15]