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FST 3 QP
FST 3 QP
Paper - 03
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Latest Full Syllabus Declared by NTA
Chemistry: Latest Full Syllabus Declared by NTA
Mathematics: Latest Full Syllabus Declared by NTA
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt
5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 4. A point object is placed at a distance of 12 cm on
1. In the shown arrangement of ideal pulleys and the axis of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
string if 2 kg block is just about to slide. If On the other side of lens, a convex mirror is
coefficient of friction between 2 kg block and
placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens such
surface is µ = 4/7, then value of m1 is
that the image formed by the combination
coincides with the object itself. Focal length of
convex mirror is
(1) 52 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 32 cm (4) 15 cm
3. A parallel plate capacitor formed by square plates 6. An LC circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and a
of side length l separated by a distance d (d<<l) is 50 µF capacitor with an initial charge 10 mC. The
filled with a material whose dielectric constant resistance of circuit is negligible. At this instant,
varies linearly from K to 2K along x. The
the circuit is closed at t = 0. At what time is the
capacitance of the capacitor with the dielectric
energy stored in the circuit is completely
medium will be
magnetic?
(1) t = 0 (2) t = 1.57 ms
(3) t = 3.14 ms (4) t = 6.28 ms
x d
7. A non-conducting ring of radius R has charge Q,
uniformly distributed over it. If it rotates with an
angular velocity about its axis, the equivalent
0 Kl 2 Kl 2
(1) (2) 0 electric current will be
d 2d
(1) Zero (2) Q
30 Kl 2 20 Kl 2
(3) (4) Q Q
2d 3d (3) (4)
2 4
[2]
8. A particle is projected vertically upwards from the 12. Figure shows a conductor of length l whose radius
earth's surface with escape velocity. The radius of increases linearly from a to b. If the resistivity of
earth is R. Time taken by the particle to reach to
the material is , then the resistance of the
height 3R is [g = acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of earth] conductor is
3 R 2R b
(1) (2) 2 a
2 g g
7 2R 5 R
(3) (4) l
3 g 3 g
2l
(1)
9. A cube made of wires of equal length is connected ab
to a battery as shown in the figure. The magnetic l
field at the centre of the cube due to the wires of (2)
2ab
the cube only, is
I
3l
(3)
I 2ab
L
l
(4)
ab
+ −
20 B
A
V (m3)
1 2
(1) Work done by the gas in process A to B is
negative
(2) Work done by the gas in the process B to C is (1) 1316 N
negative (2) 2700 N
(3) Work done by the gas in the cycle is 20 J (3) 700 N
(4) Work done on the gas in the cycle is 20 J
(4) 2000 N
[3]
15. Two concentric charged conducting spherical L
shells are shown in figure where inner shell 17. In the circuit shown in figure R = , switch S is
C
carries charge Q and outer shell is earthed. The closed at time t = 0. The current through capacitor
correct graph either between electric field (E) or of capacitance C and inductor of inductance L
potential (V) with the distance r from the common would be equal after time t. Then t is equal to
centre is represented by
+Q
O 2R
R
E
(1) 2RC (2) RC ln2
(1) (3) (L/R ln2) (4) LR
O R 2R
r 18. In the shown arrangement of smooth pulleys and
ideal string. If block B falls by a distance 10 cm,
E then total decrease in potential energy of the
system is
(2)
O r
R 2R
(3)
O R 2R r
(4)
O R 2R r
3l 5l
(1) (2)
16v0 6v0
(1) 10 m/s (2) 1000 m/s 5l 3l
(3) (4)
(3) 500 m/s (4) None of these 12v0 8v0
[4]
20. A thin non-conducting ring of radius a has a linear 24. A force F = 4 iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ is acting on a particle at
charge density = 0 sin . A uniform electric
a point with position vector r = 2 iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ . The
field E0iˆ + E0 ˆj is present in the region.
value of for which angular momentum of
Magnitude of torque acting on the ring at the particle is conserved about origin, is____.
instance shown is
Q
29. A particle p is formed when two particles x and y
3 F 6 F
moving in opposite directions with de Broglie
wavelength 20 and 0 combine. de Broglie
wavelength of particle p is n0. Find n.
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 34. Out of the following which is most and least reactive
31. Arrange the following in increasing order of rate towards nucleophilic substitution respectively?
of SN1 reaction.
O O
|| , ||
CH3 COCH2 – CH3 CH3 – C – Cl
O O O
|| , || ||
CH3 – C – NH – CH3 CH3 – C – O – C – CH3
(1) b < d < a < c (2) b < d < c < a (1) CH3CONHCH3, CH3COCl
(3) a < b < c < d (4) a < b < d < c (2) CH3COOCH2 – CH3, (CH3CO)2O
(3) CH3COCl, (CH3CO)2O
32. Which among the following is not essential (4) CH3COCl, CH3CONHCH3
amino acid but optically active?
(1) Valine (2) Asparagine 35. Which among the following is most reactive
(3) Histidine (4) Lysine towards AgNO3?
Cl
33. Which among the following carbocations will
(1) CH3COCl (2)
rearrange?
Cl Cl
(3) (4)
(4) CH2 – CH – NH
2 2
42. Potassium permanganate is an oxidising agent.
CN Which among the following is incorrect
statement?
40. The correct structures of A and B formed in the (1) K2MnO4 is diamagnetic but KMnO4 is
following reactions are paramagnetic
O (2) Presence of HCl in KMnO4 titration causes
C CH3 erroneous results in its titration
(3) Reduction reaction of KMnO4 is affected by
(i) CH3MgBr Ac2 O [H+] ion concentration
A B
(ii) H3O
+
100ºC (4) KMnO4 reduces to Mn+2 in acidic and Mn+4
in slightly basic medium
NH2
OH OH
43. Incorrect combination among the following is
(1) A : H3C C CH3 B : H3C C CH3 (1) Sucrose = α - D - Glucose + β - D - fructose
(2) Maltose = α - D - Glucose + α - D - Glucose
, (3) Lactose = α - D - Galactose + β - D -
Glucose
NH2 NH CH2 CH3
(4) Amylose = C1 - α - D - (+) - Glucose + C4 -
α - D - (+) – glucose
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44. An acid radical (A) when treated with dil. H2SO4,
a colourless gas (B) comes out which is
suffocating with the smell of burning sulphur. (3)
Gas B when treated with K2Cr2O7 acidified with
dil. H2SO4, green colour appeared. A and B are
respectively
(1) S2– and SO2 (2) S2– and H2S
(3) NO–2 and NO2 (4) SO32– and SO2 (4)
[8]
53. If the simplest whole number ratio of energy of 57. How many unpaired electrons are present in
electron in 3rd orbit to that in 2nd orbit for He+ is central atom of [Fe(ox)3]3–?
a : b. What is a × b?
58. Oxidation state of cobalt in the compound
54. What is the sum of van’t Hoff factor for Co2(CO)8 is ______.
Ca(NO3)2 and K4[Fe(CN)6] if they are 60% and
70% dissociated respectively? 59. In the given reaction sequence
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 1 1
(1) (2)
6 11 54 108
61. Matrix A is given by A = , then the
2 4 (3)
53
(4)
107
determinant of A2005 – 6A2004 is 54 108
(1) 22006 (2) (–11)22005
(3) 0 (4) (–9)22004
( x + x ) dx is equal to
x
e
–1 –1 –1
65. The value of x
62. The value of sin [cos{cos (cosx) + sin
(1) 2e x x − x + 1 + c
(sinx)}], where x , is
2
(2) 2e x x − 2 x + 1 + c
(1) (2)
2 4 x x − x + 1 + c
(3) 2e
(3) − (4) −
4 2 (4) 2e x x + x + 1 + c
{x} sin( x – 2)
63. The value of lim is (where {} 66. Consider a square OABC in the argand plane,
+
x →2 ( x – 2)2
where ‘O’ is origin and A A(z0). Then the
represents fractional part function).
equation of the circle that can be inscribed in this
(1) Zero (2) –1
square is (vertices of square are given in
(3) 1 (4) Non-existent
anticlockwise order)
64. In a game of chance a player throws a pair of (1) | z − z0 (1 + i ) | = | z0 |
dice and scores points equal to the difference z0 (1 + i )
(2) 2 z − = | z0 |
between the numbers on the two dice. Winner is 2
the person who scores exactly 5 points more than
z0 (1 + i)
his opponent. If two players are playing this (3) z− = | z0 |
2
game only one time, then the probability that
neither of them wins, is (4) None of these
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67. If , , and are four solutions of the equation 1
73. If f ( x ) = and g(x) = f [f {f (x)}], then the
tan + = 3 tan3, no two of which have
(1 − x )
4 number of points, where g(x) is discontinuous is
equal tangents, then the value of tan + tan + (1) 0 (2) 1
tan + tan is equal to (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) 2
1 x 2 + ax + 1 −1 1
74. If lim
a→ a
1 + x4 tan x dx is equal to
68. If the quadratic equation x2 + ax + 2b = 0 has 0
prime roots only, then a + b (where b I) 2
(1) Is equal to –2 , where k N , then k equals
k
(2) Is equal to 2 (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) Is equal to 1 (3) 16 (4) 32
(4) Non determinable due to insufficient data
[10]
78. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is x2 y 2
(1) Discontinuous for exactly one value of x 84. With one focus of the hyperbola − = 1 as
9 16
(2) Discontinuous for exactly two values of x the centre, a circle is drawn which is tangent to
(3) Non-differentiable for exactly one value of x the hyperbola with no part of the circle being
(4) Non-differentiable for exactly two values of x outside the hyperbola. The radius of the circle is
79. The coefficient of y in the determinant 85. If a1, a2, … an are n distinct odd natural not
(1 + y ) m1n1
(1 + y ) m1n2
(1 + y ) m1n3
divisible by any prime number greater than 5,
(1 + y ) m2n1
(1 + y ) m2n2
(1 + y ) m2n3 is equal to 1 1 1
then lim + + ... = , then λ is
n→ a1 a2 an 8
(1 + y ) m3n1 (1 + y ) m3n2 (1 + y ) m3n3
k, then {k} is equal to (where {·} denotes 86. The solution of the differential equation
fractional part function) x(x2 + 3y2) dx + y(y 2+ 3x2) dy = 0 is x4 + y4 +
(1) 0 (2) 0.2 kx2y2 = c, then k is
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.5
87. Suppose a population A has 100 observations
80. Let ABC be a triangle with vertex B(1, 2). The 201, 202, ......300 and population B has 100
equation of the side BC is y = (2 + 3) x – 3. If observations 301, 302, ......400. If VA and VB
the incentre of the triangle ABC is (2, 3), then represent the variance of two populations
ABC is V
respectively, then A is equal to
(1) 15° (2) 30° VB
(3) 60° (4) 75°
x2 – y 2
If sin–1 2
x + y 2
Integer Type Questions 88. = tan–1 a, then the value of
a b c
81. If A = b c a , abc = 1, AT A = I , then the xdy
is (where x 0, y 0)
c a b ydx
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