One Dimensional Finite Potential Well

By Dr. Subhabrata Mondal

Let a particle of mass be in motion in a One-Dimensional finite potential well with
spatial extension 2 . We suppose that there is no force acting on the particle inside the well.
Then for such a well,

−∞< <−
( )= 0 − ≤ ≤+
+ < < +∞

Region-1 Region-2 Region-3

=− =+

In this problem, we are more interested for the case in which < (shown in the figure)
than the case in which > . So, let us discuss the case in which < at first.

Case-1 ( < ):

According to the figure, the Schrodinger equation in Region-1 is given by,

ℏ
− + =
2
2 ( − )
, − =0
ℏ

2 ( − )
, − = 0 . . . (1) ℎ =
ℏ

, ( )= + ℎ (1)[ ]

As ( ) is a well behaved function, ( ) = 0 at = −∞ and this claims that = 0.

Therefore, ultimately, ( )= . . . (2).

1
According to the figure, the Schrodinger equation in Region-3 is given by,

ℏ
− + =
2
2 ( − )
, − =0
ℏ

2 ( − )
, − = 0 . . . (3) ℎ =
ℏ

, ( )= + ℎ (3)[ ]

As ( ) is a well behaved function, ( ) = 0 at = +∞ and this claims that = 0.

Therefore, ultimately, ( )= . . . (4).

According to the figure, the Schrodinger equation in Region-2 is given by,

ℏ
− = [ =0 ℎ ]
2

2
, + = 0 . . . (5) ℎ =
ℏ

∴ ( )= + . . . (6) ℎ (5)

Therefore, finally we get,

( )=
( )= +
( )=

Now the boundary conditions of the problem say that,

(− ) = (− ) . . . ( ) & (− ) = (− ) . . . ( )

( )= ( ) . . . ( ) & ( )= ( ) . . . ( )

By ( ) and ( ), we can write,

+ = . . . ( )

2
 & − = ⟹ − =− . . .( )

By adding ( )& ( ), we get,

2 = 1− ⟹ = 1− . . .( )
2

By subtracting ( ) from ( ), we get,

2 = 1+ ⟹ = 1+ . . .( )
2
−
∴ = . . . ( )
+

By ( ) and ( ), we can write,

+ = . . . ( )

& − =− ⟹ − = . . .( )

By adding ( )& ( ), we get,

2 = 1+ ⟹ = 1+ . . . (ℎ)
2

By subtracting ( ) from ( ), we get,

2 = 1− ⟹ = 1− . . . ()
2
+
∴ = . . . ( )
−

Multiplying ( ) with ( ), we get,

=1 ⟹ = ±1

Now, for = , ( )= + = 2 cos

And for =− , ( )= − =2 sin

Now from equation( ) and equation( ), we can say that,

3
 − +
=
+ −

, ( − ) =( + )

, ( − ) = ±( + )

+ , . . , ( − ) =( + )

, − = +

, sin = cos

, tan = [ ℎ ]

, ( − ) = −( + )

, + = −

, cos = − sin

, cot =−

ℎ , = =

∴ , tan = . . . (7)

& , cot = − . . . (8)

Equation (7) & equation (8) are transcendental equations which can be solved graphically.

2 2 ( − )
ℎ , + = ( + )= +
ℏ ℏ

2
, + = . . . (9)
ℏ

Now, we can solve equation (7) and equation (8) graphically with help of equation (9). Equation
(9) represents a family of concentric circles in − plane. So the points of intersection for the
graphs which are represented by equation (7) and equation (8) with the graph represented by
equation (9) are the solutions for this case. Therefore, actually we shall get a set of &
values or in other words, we shall get a set of & values for this case. A set of values
mean a set of values and a set of values mean a set of values (that is energy eigen values).

Here in the next figure we shall use three circles with radii 2, 3 and 4 respectively to explain the
problem. That is we shall use, + =2 , + =4 & + =6 .

4
 tan =

cot = −

+ = ℏ

Solution

0 ⁄2 2 4 3 ⁄2 6 2

( + 1)
ℎ ℎ ℎ < <
2 2

ℎ ℎ ( + 1) ℎ . .

Case-2 ( > ):

Here, due to mathematical interest, we take the well in between = 0 and = . So the
potential well will look like as follows:

Region-1 Region-2 Region-3

= =

According to the figure, the Schrodinger equation in Region-1 is given by,

ℏ
− + =
2
2 ( − )
, + =0
ℏ

5
 2 ( − )
, + = 0 . . . (9) ℎ =
ℏ

, ( )= + ℎ (9)[ ]

So, here we shall consider incident wave as, ( )= and reflected wave in region-1
as, ( ) =

According to the figure, the Schrodinger equation in Region-2 is given by,

ℏ
− = [ =0 ℎ ]
2

2
, + = 0 . . . (10) ℎ =
ℏ

∴ ( )= + . . . (11) ℎ (10)

Here represents the transmitted wave escaping from region-1 to region-2. This is also be
treated as the incident wave in region-2. Whereas, represents the reflected wave in
region-2.

According to the figure, the Schrodinger equation in Region-3 is given by,

ℏ
− + =
2
2 ( − )
, + =0
ℏ

2 ( − )
, + = 0 . . . (12) ℎ =
ℏ

, ( )= + ℎ (12)[ ]

As the wave is propagating from left to right and there is no reflector in region-3 with respect to
the movement of the particle, then = 0 in this case.

∴ ( )= = ( )= −1 −3

6
Therefore, finally we get,

( )= +
( )= +
( )=

Now the boundary conditions of the problem say that,

(0) = (0) . . . ( ) & (0) = (0) . . . ( )

( )= ( ) . . . ( ) & ( )= ( ) . . . ( )

By ( ) and ( ), we can write,

+ = + . . . ( )

& − = ( − ). . . ( )

By ( ) and ( ), we can write,

+ = . . . ( )

& − = . . . ( )

By adding ( )& ( ), we get,

( )
= 1+ . . . (13)
2

By subtracting ( ) ( ), we get,

( )
= 1− . . . (14)
2

By adding ( )& ( ), we get,

= 1+ + 1−
2 2

( ) ( )
, = 1+ 1+ + 1− 1−
4 4

+ +
, = 2+ + 2−
4

7
 +
, = 4 cos −2 sin
4

4
∴ =
+
4 cos −2 sin

Now, probability current density is defined as,

∗
ℏ ∗
= − . . . (15)
2

So, according to formula (15), the probability current density for the incident wave in region-1
is given by,

ℏ ∗ ∗
= | | [ = & = ]

The probability current density for the transmitted wave in region-3 is given by,

ℏ ∗ ∗
= | | = & =

By definition, the reflection coefficient is given by,

| | 16 1
= = = =
| | + +
16 cos +4 sin cos + sin
2

1 1
, = =
( + ) ( − )
1 + sin −1 1+ sin
4 4

2 2 ( − ) 2
, − = − =
ℏ ℏ ℏ

2
& 4 =4 ( − )
ℏ
( − )
, =
4 4 ( − )

1
∴ = . . . (15)
1+
4 ( − ) sin

8
Now, if the width of the potential well is exactly half of the De-Broglie wavelength, i.e.

2
= . . = =
2
1
ℎ , = =1
1+
4 ( − ) sin

That is 100% transmission is possible. This is known as Ramsauer effect.

Due to Ramsauer effect, the heavy inert gases (e.g. Ar, Kr, Xe etc) become transparent to
electrons having critical kinetic energy. This critical kinetic energy can be calculated as follows:

= ⟹ =

2 2
, = = & ℎ . .
ℏ ℏ

ℏ
, =
2