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Ardhi Wira Wardaya

Airline Transport Pilot Ground Course

1. Dashboard
2. My courses
3. ATP Ground
4. PREPARATION DGCA TEST
5. CONDUCT OF FLIGHT

Started on Wednesday, 12 April 2017, 8:21 AM

State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, 12 April 2017, 8:34 AM
Time taken 13 mins 29 secs
Marks 80.00/84.00
Grade 95.24 out of 100.00
Question 1
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"Dispatch" for the purpose of the MEL/MMEL means:

Select one:
a. After takeoff commences, no MEL action is required, until the completion of the next landing.
b. Any failure which occurs after takeoff commences shall be dealt with as an in-flight failure, by
reference to the appropriate section of the aircraft flight manual.
c. For the purposes of MEL relief, this applies before the point at which the pilot physically begins to
apply power to initiate the takeoff.

d. All are correct. 

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The correct answer is: All are correct.

Question 2
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When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be
observed from first over heading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is

Select one:
a. 200 knots TAS.
b. 180 knots IAS.

c. 200 knots IAS. 

d. No correct answer.
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 200 knots IAS.

Question 3
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What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti icing fluid?

Select one:
a. 30, 50, or 80 percent depending on the type of precipitation.
b. 50 percent.

c. 80 percent. 

d. 30 percent.
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The correct answer is: 80 percent.

Question 4
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At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a
pressure of 100 PSI?

Select one:
a. At any speed.

b. 90 knots. 
c. 110 knots.
d. 96 knots.
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The correct answer is: 90 knots.

Question 5
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Consider a sign with white text "15 - 33" on a red background. This sign is an example of ...

Select one:

a. a mandatory instruction sign. 

b. runway heading notification signage.
c. an airport directional sign.

d. B or C.
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The correct answer is: a mandatory instruction sign.

Question 6
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Tailplane icing can be detected by

Select one:
a. flaps failing to operate.
b. a sudden change in elevator force or un commanded nose down pitch. 
c. decrease in altitude and flaps failing to operate.

d. a slow and steady decrease in altitude.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: a sudden change in elevator force or un commanded nose down pitch.

Question 7
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According to ICAO:

Select one:
a. the operator (the airline), is responsible for the operational control of its flights.
b. dispatch systems using trained and qualified flight dispatchers/flight operations officers as the
means to control and supervise flights.
c. ICAO Document 9859-SMS, is the standard training resource for member States to develop their
own flight dispatcher/flight operations officer training regulations.

d. A and B are correct. 

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The correct answer is: A and B are correct.

Question 8
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What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin engine
airplane? Accelerate to

Select one:
a. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle of climb airspeed.

b. an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate of climb airspeed. 
c. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at best engine out, rate of climb airspeed.

d. best engine out, rate of climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate of
climb airspeed.

Question 9
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The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include
decreased lift and

Select one:
a. a decreased stall speed.

b. an increased stall speed. 

c. increased of stall speed and thrust.

d. increased thrust.
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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: an increased stall speed.

Question 10
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What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

Select one:

a. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. 

b. Apply nose wheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.
c. Apply full main wheel braking only.

d. Apply aerodynamic braking and main wheel braking alternately.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

Question 11
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Which of the following will decrease the holding time during antiicing using a two-step process?

Select one:
a. Decrease the water content.

b. Apply heated Type 2 fluid. 

c. Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.

d. Decrease the water content and apply heated Type 2 fluid.

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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: Apply heated Type 2 fluid.

Question 12
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A tailplane stall as the result of ice accumulation is most likely to occur during

Select one:
a. An instrument holding pattern.
b. Cruise and holding pattern.

c. Approach and landing. 

d. Cruise flight.
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The correct answer is: Approach and landing.

Question 13
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Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing
on a smooth, wet runway?

Select one:
a. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.

b. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. 

c. At the same speed or higher of the dynamic hydroplaning speed.
d. At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.
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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.

Question 14
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Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the

Select one:

a. automatic runway status light system. 

b. tower operated runway stop light system.
c. ground controller operated ramp status holding light system.

d. B & C are correct.

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The correct answer is: automatic runway status light system.

Question 15
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One of the strategy to prevent ground/runway collision or runway incursions is to maintain the
situational awareness:

Select one:
a. by flight crew and others using the maneuvering area, specifically in respect of their own location

in relation to active runways, and that of other aircraft and vehicles relative to active runways. 
b. by flight crew and others including passenger in the terminal building.
c. it is ATC responsibility.

d. none of the above.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: by flight crew and others using the maneuvering area, specifically in respect
of their own location in relation to active runways, and that of other aircraft and vehicles relative to
active runways.

Question 16
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Challenge-Response, in this method:

Select one:
a. Termed also as “challenge-verification-response”, the checklist is a backup for the initial
configuration of the plane.
b. The pilots use their memory and other techniques to configure the plane.
c. Therefore, after completing the initial configuration, the pilots do not need to use the checklist
to verify that items have been correctly accomplished.

d. A and B are correct. 

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The correct answer is: A and B are correct.

Question 17
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Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or

tailwind?

Select one:
a. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly.
b. Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream.

c. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area. 

d. Change course and increase airspeed.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

Question 18
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What should the deice/anti ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two phase process?

Select one:
a. Warm.
b. Hot.

c. Cold. 

d. Either cold or warm.

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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: Cold.

Question 19
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During an en route descent in a fixed thrust and fixed pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air
input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication
can be expected?

Select one:
a. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.
b. Increase in indicated airspeed.

c. Decrease in indicated airspeed. 

d. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing or decrease in indicated airspeed.
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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Decrease in indicated airspeed.

Question 20
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The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non precipitation conditions is to

Select one:
a. increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).
b. increase the onset of crystallization and the eutectic point.
c. raise the eutectic point.
d. decrease the freeze point. 
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The correct answer is: decrease the freeze point.

Question 21
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Descend if ambient temperature is rising.

Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jet stream turbulence?

Select one:
a. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is falling.
b. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.
c. Descend if ambient temperature is rising.

d. Descend if ambient temperature is falling. 

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The correct answer is: Descend if ambient temperature is falling.

Question 22
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What is considered to be flight crewmember essential conversation?

Select one:

a. Discussing the weather north of the flight route. 

b. Discussing the crew configuration for the following leg of the flight.
c. Confirming airplane logbook entries during climb when clear of the airport traffic area.

d. A and C are correct.

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The correct answer is: Discussing the weather north of the flight route.

Question 23
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During the flight:

Select one:
a. the dispatcher is required to monitor and advise the crew of changes affecting safety of

flight. 
b. ultimate responsibility and operational control of the flight rests only with the Pilot in command.
c. ultimate responsibility and operational control of the flight rests only flight dispatcher/follower.

d. Director of Operation of the airline has the sole responsibility and command.
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The correct answer is: the dispatcher is required to monitor and advise the crew of changes affecting
safety of flight.

Question 24
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In order to achieve the highest level of safety,

Select one:
a. the crewmembers must continually monitor their seat dependent tasks.
b. captain’s judgment must not be questioned and crewmembers must continually monitor their seat
dependent tasks.

c. each flight crewmember must carefully monitor the aircraft’s flight path. 

d. the captain’s judgment must not be questioned.

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The correct answer is: each flight crewmember must carefully monitor the aircraft’s flight path.

Question 25
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The abnormal checklist is intended to aid the pilot during emergencies and/or malfunctions of the
aircraft systems.

Select one:
a. Coordination during high workload not important.
b. Variability between pilots can be disregarded.

c. Ensure that all critical actions are taken. 

d. Variability between pilots and coordination are increased.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Ensure that all critical actions are taken.

Question 26
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What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbo charged reciprocating engine?

Select one:
a. Throttle opening.
b. Supercharger gear ratio.

c. Exhaust gas discharge. 

d. B and C are correct.

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The correct answer is: Exhaust gas discharge.

Question 27
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What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?

Select one:
a. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the

taxiway holding lines. 

b. Continue taxiing in the landing direction and switch to ground control frequency.
c. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed
otherwise.
d. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control
frequency.
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Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower
frequency until instructed otherwise.

Question 28
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Ground Operations involves all aspects of aircraft handling at airports as well as aircraft movement
around the aerodrome:

Select one:
a. Therefore, provision of adequate signage, markings and lighting is important so that aircraft are
able to follow their taxi clearances properly.
b. The safety actions needed for ground operations are, for example ensuring that aircraft are not
involved in collisions and that the jet blast from large aircraft does not hazard small ones.
c. Runway Incursion may arise during or as a result of ground operations.

d. All are correct. 

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The correct answer is: All are correct.

Question 29
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The higher glide slope of the three bar VASI is intended for use by

Select one:
a. high performance aircraft.
b. helicopters.
c. high cockpit aircraft and helicopters.

d. high cockpit aircraft. 

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The correct answer is: high cockpit aircraft.

Question 30
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Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,

Select one:
a. ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD.
b. ice absorbs it very fast and also melts very fast.
c. ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it.

d. ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it. 
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The correct answer is: ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.

Question 31
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Under what situations are faster/larger helicopters integrated with fixed wing aircraft?

Select one:
a. Use of taxiways, sequencing for takeoff and landing, and use of the same loading ramps.
b. Use of taxiways, sequencing for takeoff and landing, and use of the same traffic patterns.

c. IFR flights, noise avoidance routes, and use of runways or taxiways. 

d. use of the same loading ramps and use of the same traffic patterns, sequencing for takeoff and
landing.
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The correct answer is: IFR flights, noise avoidance routes, and use of runways or taxiways.

Question 32
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How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?

Select one:
a. After applying maximum wheel braking.

b. Immediately after ground contact. 

c. Immediately prior to touchdown.

d. A and C are correct.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Immediately after ground contact.

Question 33
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In addition to the normal checklist, other checklists are also used on the flight-deck:

Select one:
a. The expanded checklists
b. The abnormal and emergency checklists
c. Random checklist

d. A and B are correct 

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The correct answer is: A and B are correct

Question 34
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Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?

Select one:
a. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.

b. In turn, on a first come, first serve basis. 

c. When cleared for an IFR approach.

d. In turn, on a first come, first serve basis for heavy aircraft.

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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: In turn, on a first come, first serve basis.

Question 35
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MMEL, a system dispatch with inoperative equipment(s) with an acceptable level of safety (ALOS)
by appropriate conditions and limitations:

Select one:
a. Includes those items of equipment related to airworthiness, operating requirements and other

items of equipment which may be inoperative. 

b. MMEL contains obviously required items such as wings, flaps, and rudders. Landing gear.
c. Is the basis for development of a MEL which is applicable for all aircraft fleet in particular operator.

d. All correct.
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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Includes those items of equipment related to airworthiness, operating
requirements and other items of equipment which may be inoperative.

Question 36
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When both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication
can be expected?

Select one:

a. Increase of indicated airspeed during a climb. 

b. Increase of indicated airspeed during any change in altitude.
c. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.

d. Constant indicated airspeed during any change in altitude.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Increase of indicated airspeed during a climb.

Question 37
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How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the
drain hole and static port are not?

Select one:
a. Indication will rise to the top of the scale.
b. Indication will drop to zero but will increase in a climb.

c. Indication will drop to zero. 

d. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

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The correct answer is: Indication will drop to zero.

Question 38
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Question text

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?

Select one:
a. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.

b. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. 

c. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.

d. B and C are correct.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.

Question 39
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Do-list, this method can be better termed “call-do-response.”:

Select one:
a. is used to “lead” and direct the pilot in configuring the aircraft using a step-by-step,

approach. 
b. no coordination from the other crew member is required.
c. only used in cruise flight phase only.

d. Configuration redundancy employed in the challenge-response method is also used here.

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The correct answer is: is used to “lead” and direct the pilot in configuring the aircraft using a step-by-
step, approach.

Question 40
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An operator’s Minimum Equipment List (MEL) may differ in format from the Master Minimum
Equipment List (MMEL) but cannot be less restrictive than the MMEL, and:

Select one:
a. The individual operator’s MEL, need not to be approved, to operate of the aircraft with inoperative
equipment.
b. It is important to remember that all equipment related to the airworthiness and the operating

requirements of the aircraft not listed in the MMEL must be operative. 

c. Equipment not required by the operation being conducted and equipment in excess of operational
requirements are included in the MEL without appropriate conditions and limitations.

d. Equipment not required by the operation being conducted and not listed in MMEL may be
inoperative.
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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: It is important to remember that all equipment related to the airworthiness and
the operating requirements of the aircraft not listed in the MMEL must be operative.

Question 41
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If you detect icing accumulation in flight, especially if the aircraft is not equipped with a deicing
system, you should

Select one:
a. Move to a higher altitude.
b. Fly to an area with liquid precipitation.
c. Leave the area of precipitation, if able, or fly to an altitude where the temperature is above

freezing. 

d. Leave the area of precipitation, if able and fly to a higher altitude.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Leave the area of precipitation, if able, or fly to an altitude where the
temperature is above freezing.

Question 42
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The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is

Select one:
a. limiting compressor speed.

b. limiting exhaust gas temperature. 

c. limiting torque.

d. all of the above.

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The correct answer is: limiting exhaust gas temperature.

Question 43
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Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from
left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

Select one:
a. Slow your airspeed to VA and make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet.
b. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
c. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.

d. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. 
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The correct answer is: Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

Question 44
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Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL):

Select one:
a. Developed by the Type Certificate holder (Manufacturer), Approved by the governing

authority. 
b. Adopted by an Aircraft Operator in a customized Minimum Equipment List (MEL) in order to
provide flexibility to continue operation of an aircraft even when certain items or systems are
inoperative.
c. Developed by the governing authority and Aircraft Operator which selected according to the
Operator’s need.

d. A and B correct.
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The correct answer is: A and B correct.

Question 45
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Which is a disadvantage of the one step over the two step process when deicing/anti icing an
airplane?

Select one:
a. It is more complicated.
b. The holding time is increased.
c. More fluid is used with the one step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed

off airplane surfaces. 

d. none of the above.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: More fluid is used with the one step method when large deposits of ice and
snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

Question 46
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Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA)is
expected to:

Select one:

a. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable. 

b. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
c. request ATC clearance for the deviation.

d. request ATC clearance to maintain the course.

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

Question 47
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Under what condition does a pilot receive a "void time" specified in the clearance?

Select one:

a. On an uncontrolled airport. 
b. When "gate hold" procedures are in effect.
c. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

d. "gate hold" procedures are in effect and clearance is received prior to starting engines.
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The correct answer is: On an uncontrolled airport.

Question 48
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In an aircraft equipped with a pneumatic deicing system, the appropriate technique for removing ice
is to

Select one:

a. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times. 

b. operate the pneumatic deicing system once.
c. confirm that ice has accumulated prior to engaging the pneumatic boots.

d. all of the above.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: operate the pneumatic deicing system several times.

Question 49
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What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?

Select one:
a. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from

ground control. 
b. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive
IFR clearance while taxiing or on run up.
c. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with
clearance.

d. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction
with clearance.
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The correct answer is: Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi
clearance from ground control.

Question 50
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Question text

As part of your GPS preflight planning, RAIM prediction should be verified. This means that

Select one:
a. RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your

destination. 
b. if RAIM is predicted to be available, you must still have ILS capability to use a GPS approach.
c. RAIM availability is assured for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your
destination.

d. RAIM availability is assured for your entire route of flight including the ILS capability to use a GPS
approach.
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The correct answer is: RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the
GPS approach at your destination.

Question 51
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What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?

Select one:
a. Type of ice.
b. Thickness of ice.

c. Rate of accumulation. 

d. All are correct.

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Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Rate of accumulation.
Question 52
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What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?

Select one:
a. Type of ice.
b. Thickness of ice.
c. Type and rate of accumulation.

d. Rate of accumulation. 
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The correct answer is: Rate of accumulation.

Question 53
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What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?

Select one:
a. Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed.
b. Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack.

c. Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. 

d. None of the above.

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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

Question 54
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Repair category:

Select one:
a. There are four category repair in MEL
b. category B, repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days (72 hour) the day the malfunction was
recorded in the aircraft maintenance record/logbook is excluded
c. All interval category includes the day the malfunction was recorded in the maintenance logbook

d. A and B are correct 

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The correct answer is: A and B are correct

Question 55
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What happens to residual ice that remains after deice boots are inflated and shed ice?

Select one:
a. Residual ice decreases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.
b. Residual ice remains the same with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.

c. Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature. 

d. Residual ice remains the same until the aircraft exits icing conditions.
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The correct answer is: Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.

Question 56
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During icing conditions, a pilot response to tail plane stall symptoms should be to

Select one:
a. retard power settings to increase the control margins.
b. apply as much power as the engine(s) can produce under those conditions.
c. apply as much power to increase the control margins.

d. retract the flaps to the previous setting. 

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The correct answer is: retract the flaps to the previous setting.

Question 57
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REL is the acronym for

Select one:
a. Runway exit lights.
b. Runway entrance lights. 
c. Ramp entry lights.

d. Any of the above.

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The correct answer is: Runway entrance lights.

Question 58
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Runway Incursion:

Select one:
a. 'incorrect presence' has nothing to do with a consequence of a failure of a pilot to comply with a
valid ATC clearance or their compliance with an inappropriate ATC clearance
b. Is that the jet blast from large aircraft does not hazard small ones
c. is defined as “Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft,
vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take off of

aircraft”. (ICAO Doc 4444) 

d. a failure of a pilot to comply with a valid ATC clearance or their compliance with an inappropriate
ATC clearance that may cause jet blast from large aircraft does not hazard small ones
Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: is defined as “Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect
presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the
landing and take off of aircraft”. (ICAO Doc 4444)

Question 59
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When a collision occurs on the runway, at least one of the aircraft involved will often be travelling at
considerable speed which increases the risk of:

Select one:
a. Operational disruption on the particular runway/airport.
b. significant aircraft damage if not covered by insurance.
c. Insurance premium of airline.

d. significant aircraft damage, and the severity of the consequences therefrom, including serious or

fatal injury. 
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The correct answer is: significant aircraft damage, and the severity of the consequences therefrom,
including serious or fatal injury.

Question 60
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When encountering severe turbulence, you should?

Select one:
a. Slow to turbulent speed and maintain a constant altitude.
b. 

Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

c. Maintain a constant altitude.

d. Slow to turbulent air penetration speed. 

Feedback

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The correct answer is: Slow to turbulent air penetration speed.

Question 61
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Which is true regarding the contamination of a wing?

Select one:
a. Small patches of ice or frost can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing, which can

result in roll control problems during takeoff. 

b. Fine particles of snow or ice over the wing's upper surface will have no serious effect on
takeoff performance if the particles are distributed evenly.
c. A thin layer of ice or frost on the wing's upper surface generally is less serious than a large
accumulation of ice on the wing's leading edge.

d. None of the above.

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The correct answer is: Small patches of ice or frost can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the
wing, which can result in roll control problems during takeoff.

Question 62
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When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop

Select one:
a. with the nose gear or the flight deck area of the aircraft on the hold line.
b. so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

c. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. 

d. with the nose gear on the hold line.

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The correct answer is: so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line.

Question 63
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Some factors that may contribute runway incursions:

Select one:
a. Low visibility may increase the chance of flight crew becoming disorientated and unsure of their
position whilst taxying. also likely to restrict a controller’s ability to identify and follow aircraft visually
so that cross-checking a reported aircraft position with its actual location may become impossible
unless Surface Movement Radar is available.
b. Aerodrome design. If, such as: aircraft have to cross active runways to move between their take
off or landing runway and their parking position, the likelihood of runway incursions is increased.
c. Pilot workload, controller workload, and distraction does not have potential contribution to runway
incursions.

d. A and B are correct. 

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The correct answer is: A and B are correct.

Question 64
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Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?

Select one:
a. Transient "backfire" stall.

b. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. 

c. Intermittent "backfire" stall.

d. A and C are correct.

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The correct answer is: Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

Question 65
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Tailplane icing can be detected by a(n)

Select one:
a. Gradual uncommanded nose up pitch andiIncrease in elevator effectiveness.
b. Increase in elevator effectiveness.
c. Gradual uncommanded nose up pitch.

d. Sudden uncommanded nose down pitch. 

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The correct answer is: Sudden uncommanded nose down pitch.
Question 66
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Expect clear ice to form on the leading edge of airfoils when

Select one:
a. the precipitation is small droplets and the aircraft is at low airspeeds.
b. liquid water and snow combine with ice.
c. temperatures are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the

aircraft is at high airspeeds. 

d. there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation and the aircraft is at low airspeeds.
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The correct answer is: temperatures are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water
precipitation, and the aircraft is at high airspeeds.

Question 67
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The ILS Critical Area Boundary sign identifies

Select one:
a. the exit boundary for the Runway Protected Area.
b. the edge of the ILS Critical area the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
c. the edge of the ILS Critical area. 

d. the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.

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The correct answer is: the edge of the ILS Critical area.

Question 68
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Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine?

Select one:
a. The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
b. Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.

c. The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. 

d. all of the above.

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The correct answer is: The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.

Question 69
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The major function of the checklist is:

Select one:
a. To ensure that the crew will properly configure the plane for flight and maintain this level of quality
throughout the flight, and in every flight.
b. The process of conducting a checklist occurs during all flight segments and, in particular, prior to
the critical segments (TAKEOFF, APPROACH, LANDING).
c. Allow mutual supervision (cross checking) among crew members.

d. All are correct. 

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The correct answer is: All are correct.

Question 70
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Suitable conditions and limitations in the form of placards, maintenance procedures, crew operating
procedures and other restrictions as necessary are specified in the MEL to ensure that an
acceptable level of safety is maintained

Select one:
a. placards, maintenance procedures, crew operating procedures and other restrictions are not
necessary to be specified in MEL.The MEL must not deviate from Airworthiness Directives or any
other Mandatory Requirement.
b. all equipment related of the aircraft not listed in the MMEL must be operative.
c. Airworthiness Directives or any other Mandatory Requirement may be disregarded from MEL
provided placards, maintenance procedures, crew operating procedures and other restrictions are
specified in MEL.

d. placards, maintenance procedures, crew operating procedures and other restrictions are not

necessary to be specified in MEL. 

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The correct answer is: placards, maintenance procedures, crew operating procedures and other
restrictions are not necessary to be specified in MEL.The MEL must not deviate from Airworthiness
Directives or any other Mandatory Requirement.
Question 71
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An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

Select one:
a. the airport has only AWOS3 weather reporting and is next to a restricted or prohibited area.
b. the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.

c. the only standard approach procedure is GPS. 

d. the airport has only AWOS3 weather reporting.

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The correct answer is: the only standard approach procedure is GPS.

Question 72
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The Symbol - (O) or (M)

Select one:
a. Symbol (O) and/or (M) indicates a requirement for a specific operations procedure with the listed

item inoperative. 
b. flight crew has nothing to do with symbol (O)
c. symbol (O) or (M) is not important for flight crew or mechanics

d. these procedures are accomplished only by the ground mechanics

Feedback

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The correct answer is: Symbol (O) and/or (M) indicates a requirement for a specific operations
procedure with the listed item inoperative.

Question 73
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The term Operational Control is the exercise of authority over:

Select one:
a. Initiating (preparing & dispatching).
b. Conducting (monitoring, following).
c. Terminating a flight.

d. All are correct. 

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The correct answer is: All are correct.

Question 74
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What special consideration is given for turbine powered aircraft when 'gate hold' procedures are in
effect?

Select one:
a. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft.
b. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to
taxi.
c. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft and will receive takeoff clearance prior
to taxi.

d. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm up block. 
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The correct answer is: They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or
warm up block.

Question 75
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Often (especially in larger airlines a dispatcher will be assisted by a load planner/load master:

Select one:
a. they do not have to visually inspect the loading, making sure it has been done in accordance with
their instructions.
b. Load planners/master does not need to be a trained and qualified personnel.
c. planning, loading and offloading the cargo can be done by any airline personnel.

d. They must carefully plan the loading of the aircraft and do the weight and balance calculations for

the aircraft. 
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The correct answer is: They must carefully plan the loading of the aircraft and do the weight and
balance calculations for the aircraft.

Question 76
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What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?

Select one:
a. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

b. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. 

c. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.

d. A and C are correct.

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The correct answer is: Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.

Question 77
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Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal
forces?

Select one:

a. Turbine wheel(s). 
b. Turbine vanes.
c. Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).

d. A and B are correct.

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The correct answer is: Turbine wheel(s).

Question 78
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When conditions favoring the formation of ice are present, pilots should check for ice accumulation
prior to flight. The best way to do this is by

Select one:
a. Running your hand along all control surfaces.
b. Running your hand along all control surfaces while ice detection light are on.
c. Using ice detection lights.

d. Using a flashlight and watching for light reflection. 

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The correct answer is: Using a flashlight and watching for light reflection.

Question 79
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Pilots should check for ice accumulation prior to flight by

Select one:

a. using a flashlight to reflect off a white wing. 

b. using ice detection lights.
c. feeling the control surface, especially the leading edges.

d. using a flashlight and feeling the control surface.

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The correct answer is: using a flashlight to reflect off a white wing.

Question 80
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If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single engine ceiling, what airspeed should be
maintained?

Select one:
a. VXSE while maintaining VMC.

b. VXSE. 
c. VYSE.

d. VMC.
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The correct answer is: VYSE.

Question 81
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Taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system

Select one:
a. alternate green and yellow lights and warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the
taxiway end environment.
b. warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the runway environment or ILS/MLS critical

area. 
c. alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the
taxiway.

d. warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS/MLS
critical area.
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The correct answer is: warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the runway environment or
ILS/MLS critical area.

Question 82
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When an item of equipment is discovered to be inoperative:

Select one:
a. The item will be differed by the Type Certificate holder (Manufacturer) as it is its responsibility.
b. placards, maintenance procedures, crew operating procedures and other restrictions are not
necessary to be specified in MEL.
c. Airworthiness Directives or any other Mandatory Requirement may be disregarded from MEL.

d. The item is then either rectified or may be deferred per the MEL or other approval means prior to

further operation. 
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The correct answer is: The item is then either rectified or may be deferred per the MEL or other
approval means prior to further operation.

Question 83
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Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?

Select one:

a. When wing lift has been reduced. 

b. At high groundspeeds.
c. When wing lift has been reduced and high groundspeeds.

d. When the wheels are locked and skidding.

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The correct answer is: When wing lift has been reduced.

Question 84
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Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin engine airplane?

Select one:

a. With one engine inoperative. 

b. With climb power on whilst the flaps are full and gear extended.
c. With full flaps and gear extended.

d. With climb power on.

Feedback

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: With one engine inoperative.
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