Question N° 1

As a commander, if you are notified that a package of dangerous goods appears to be

damaged, you:

A may accept it after a visual inspection.

B mention it on the shipper`s declaration.

C ensure that arrangements are made for its removal.

D mention it on the Notification to Captain.

Question N° 2
Which of the statements below are correct regarding the effects of wind shear on take-
off reference speeds?
1. The take-off should be rejected if unacceptable airspeed variations occur below V1
2. The take-off should be continued after V1 has been reached regardless of wind shear
conditions
3. Wind shear does NOT affect the take-off decision speed
4. In severe wind shear encounters, under NO circumstances should a rotation be
started before VR is reached (for most transport category aircraft types)

A 1 and 2.

B 1, 2 and 3.

C 1, 3 and 4.

D 2 and 4.

Question N° 3
H 2 O extinguishers are fit to fight fires on:

A flammable liquids.

B electrical equipment.
C carbonaceous materials.

D metals, flammable gases, chemical products.

Question N° 4
During take-off preparation, windshear can be predicted by observing:
1. Lenticular clouds close to the airfield which is located in a mountaineous area.
2. Precipitation that is not reaching the surface.
3. The wind sock.
4. Smoke from chimneys which is divided in different directions instead of moving
steadily in one direction.
5. Steady rain.
6. Fog.

A 1, 2 and 4.

B 1, 4 and 5.

C 1, 2, 3 and 4.

D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

Question N° 5
Why are proper procedures required for ground de-icing and anti-icing of an aeroplane?

A To ensure effective removal of the ice and snow deposits by following established methods.

B To make sure that the fuselage is clean, with NO residues of de-icing or anti-icing fluids.

C To make sure that ice and snow deposits are only removed from critical areas.

D To satisfy the requirements of the Competent Authority.

Question N° 6
A de-icing /anti-icing procedure is carried out in two-steps. When does the hold-over
time start?

A At the beginning of the anti-icing step.

B At the beginning of the de-icing step.

C At the end of the anti-icing step.

D At the end of the de-icing step.

Question N° 7
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

A increases

B decreases

C remains constant

D attains its maximum permitted operating limit

Question N° 8
What information can you find in a SNOWTAM?

A Braking action.

B Landing distance required.

C Landing technique.

D Possibility of runway excursion.

Question N° 9
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:

A Heavy and slow.

B Heavy and fast.

C Light and fast.

D Light and slow.

Question N° 10
Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing
include?

A How to work the aircraft radio, emergency transponder squawk, telephone number of the
competent search and rescue (SAR) center

B How to read an emergency checklist, how to cut the engine, telephone number of the home airport

C Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing

D Blood type of the other aircraft occupants, location of the first-aid kit

Question N° 11
The packing of Dangerous Goods must comply with the specifications of which
document?

A IATA Dangerous Goods Document.

B Operator`s Operations Manual.

C ICAO Technical Instructions.

D EASA Dangerous Goods Document.

Question N° 12
Which of the following reasons is most likely to force a twin-jet aeroplane to perform
an emergency landing?

A Multiple bird strikes during the take-off roll that cause an engine failure and erratic operation of the
remaining engine.

B An in-flight fire in the forward galley that has been positively identified as extinguished.

C A total loss of the automatic pressurisation system just after take-off requiring manual intervention
by the crew.

D Total loss of one of the three available hydraulic systems, on an aircraft with flight controls that are
hydraulically powered.

Question N° 13
An aircraft descends from FL340 to an airfield at MSL, where ambient temperature is
+10ºC. Relating to the "Cold Soak Effect", which of the following statements is
correct?

A Pitot tube and static port may be covered in ice.

B Wings may be covered in ice.

C Rudder may be covered in ice.

D Horizontal stabilizer may be covered in ice.

Question N° 14
You are about to land. What is the best runway without wake turbulence?
A RWY 33R, 10 kt wind northerly, light airplane in front of you.

B RWY 22, Boeing 777 lands in front of you, calm wind.

C RWY 05, A318 lands in front of you, slight crosswind.

D RWY 33L, 10 kt wind northerly, helicopter lands first.

Question N° 15
Which of the following is an acceptable pilot technique for avoiding a wake turbulence
encounter?

A When departing behind a large aeroplane the following aeroplane should rotate just past the large
aeroplane`s rotation point.

B In the enroute environment when following a large aeroplane, the following aeroplane should fly
just below the preceding aeroplane`s flight path.

C Landing or departing aeroplanes should avoid being on a parallel runway that is upwind from the
one being used by large aeroplanes.

D In the landing pattern the following aeroplane should touch down past the point where the
preceding aeroplane touched down.

Question N° 16
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

A poor

B medium

C unreliable

D good
Question N° 17
Which of the following should be contained in an operator`s security search
procedures?
1. Aircraft-specific checklist
2. Actions in the event of discovery of a bomb
3. Removal procedures for suspicious articles
4. Sabotage procedures

A 1, 2, 3, and 4.

B 1, 2, and 4.

C 2 and 4.

D 1, 2, and 3.

Question N° 18
Which statement is correct when you considering a ditching situation?

A The aircraft should always land into wind.

B In case of strong winds, you will try to land into the wind which may put you in a position slightly
across the swell.

C The aircraft should always land perpendicular to the waves.

D The decision about the landing direction should be made shortly before the ditching so that
possible changes in the wind direction will be considered.

Question N° 19
A holder of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) issued by an EASA Member State is
required to establish procedures to minimise the effect of aircraft noise for each
aeroplane type it operates. These procedures must cover..

A arrival/approach and landing only.

B departure and arrival/approach, including any contingencies.

C departure and arrival/approach.

D take-off and departure only.

Question N° 20
In case of a cargo compartment fire, the system which should be switched off, is
generally the:

A pressurisation

B air recycling of the cargo compartment

C trim air

D total air-conditioning

Question N° 21
A crew are about to take-off from Paris, France to Washington, USA at the maximum
Performance-Limited Take-Off Mass. Just before V1 during the take-off, a master
caution indicates a serious engine malfunction. The take-off is aborted with maximum
braking but without the use of reverse thrust, as soon as the aircraft stops a brake
temperature warning is noted. What should the pilots do?

A Stop the aircraft on the runway, apply the parking brake, request a follow me truck to inspect any
damage there might be to the brakes, and coaches to de-plane the passengers on the runway.

B Stop the aircraft on the runway, do NOT apply the parking brake and request fire vehicles to attend
because of the possibility of a brake fire.

C Vacate the runway and stop the aircraft on the taxiway, apply the parking brake, shut down the
engines and evacuate the aircraft.

D Vacate the runway and expedite taxiing to the terminal area where the brakes can be properly
checked for overheating.
Question N° 22
According to ICAO Doc 4444 , a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3
minutes shall be applied:

A between a LIGHT aircraft and a SUPER aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilising an opposite-direction runway for take-off.

B to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
runway separated by less than 760 m.

C to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold.

D to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.

Question N° 23
What is the required configuration for ditching?

A Nose down, gear down.

B Nose up, gear up.

C Nose up, gear down.

D Nose down, gear up.

Question N° 24
Shortly before touchdown at a busy airport you hear a few soft bangs coming from the
aircraft's nose. After a normal landing and whilst exiting the runway to the taxiway you
observe that the airspeed indicator still indicates an airspeed close to your landing
reference speed.
An immediate valid action with respect to safety at this airport would be to:
A Verify the aircraft speed by using a secondary means such as the GNSS.

B Inform the airport operator that the reported local QNH is NOT correct.

C Verify if the altimeter displays the correct airport reference altitude.

D Notify ATC of a possible bird strike.

Question N° 25
A light aircraft pilot is approaching an aerodrome with the intention to land. ATC gives
this pilot the choice of the landing runway and advises that the necessary separation
will be provided. Given the following wind and traffic information per runway, which
runway should the pilot choose to mitigate the effects of wake turbulence?
For runway 33R, the wind is northerly at 10 knots and the landing is behind a
helicopter.
For runway 33L, the wind is northerly at 10 knots the landing is behind a light, fixed -
wing aircraft.
For runway 21, the wind is variable at 3 knots and the landing is behind a B777.
For runway 03, the wind is calm and the landing is behind an A318.

A Runway 33R

B Runway 33L

C Runway 03

D Runway 21

Question N° 26
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3
minutes shall be applied to:

A LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway.

B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.

C LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

D LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less
than 760 m. (using whole runway).

Question N° 27
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an
aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful
interference must immediately notify the:

A State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only.

B State of the operator, the EASA and ICAO.

C State of Registry of the aircraft and the EASA.

D State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO.

Question N° 28
A crew on a quick turnaround at Oslo, Gardermoen, Norway. The outside air
temperature is -6°C and there is light snow falling. The pilots receive a message from
their company Operations Department requesting them to get airborne without delay.
What should the pilot-in-command consider?

A The Commander should check the cost and time it takes to de-ice and anti-ice to the aircraft and
then decide if decontamination is enough to warrant de-icing/anti-icing.

B The prevailing weather conditions are such that the aircraft must be de-iced and anti-iced before
take-off, even if this results in a delay.

C The Commander may decide NOT to de-ice/anti-ice the aircraft in order to get airborne within the
shortest amount of time.

D In order to expedite the taxi and take-off the Commander could ask that only the main wings are
de-iced.
Question N° 29
In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures
when:

A it has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

B cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less

C the head wind component, including gusts, is more than 15 kt

D there is no visual approach slope indicator

Question N° 30
A runway is considered to be contaminated if:

A More than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) is covered with wet
ice 1.5 mm thick.

B More than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) is covered with slush
equivalent to 2 mm of water.

C Only if the contaminant covers a connected 25% of the runway surface area (patches of
contaminants can add upp to more than 25% of the surface area without effects).

D Less than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) is covered with water
more than 3 mm deep.

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2022.12.11.

Question N° 31
A light aircraft pilot is approaching an aerodrome with the intention to land. ATC gives
this pilot the choice of the landing runway and advises that the necessary separation
will be provided. Given the following wind and traffic information per runway, which
runway should the pilot choose to mitigate the effects of wake turbulence?
For runway 33R, the wind is northerly at 10 knots and the landing is behind a
helicopter.
For runway 33L, the wind is northerly at 10 knots the landing is behind a light, fixed -
wing aircraft.
For runway 21, the wind is variable at 3 knots and the landing is behind a B777.
For runway 03, the wind is calm and the landing is behind an A318.

A Runway 33R

B Runway 33L

C Runway 03

D Runway 21

Question N° 32
Which of the following de-/anti-icing fluids are available, according to ICAO Doc
9640?

A Types I, II, III, and IV.

B Types A, B, C, D.

C Type 1 de-icing fluids, Type 2 anti-icing fluids.

D Types Ia, Ib, II, and III.

Question N° 33
According to ICAO Annex 6, a flight data analysis programme shall contain adequate
safeguards to protect the (1) _____ in accordance with (2) _____.
A (1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 17

B (1) completeness of the data; (2) ICAO Annex 19

C (1) source(s); (2) ICAO Annex 17

D (1) source(s); (2) ICAO Annex 19

Question N° 34
Which of the following risks can be identified in a SNOWTAM?
1. Snow
2. Lightning
3. Standing water
4. Oil spills
5. Windshear

A 1 and 3

B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C 1, 3, 5

D 1 only

Question N° 35
An aircraft flying in NAT HLA in Shanwick and is in active contact via CPDLC.
During crossover to Santa Maria, the crew automatically connects via CPDLC with
Santa Maria. Which of the following is correct?

A The pilot is then required to contact Santa Maria Oceanic control using VHF radio in the 118.000
MHz to 136.975 MHz frequency band.

B Contact Santa Maria via radiocommunication, using HF radio in the 2.8 MHz to 18 MHz
frequency band.

C You need to contact/log on with Santa Maria to confirm automatic change.

D Do nothing as contact via CPDLC is transferred automatically.

Question N° 36
The primary objective of each Contracting State as regards safeguarding against acts of
unlawful interference with civil aviation is the safety of which of the following?
1. Passengers
2. Crew
3. The aircraft
4. Ground personnel
5. The general public
6. Aerodrome buildings

A 2, 3, 5, and 6

B 1, 4, 5, and 6

C 1, 2, 4, and 5

D 1, 2, 3, and 4

Question N° 37
A jet transport aeroplane is landing at an airport situated close to a noise -sensitive area
at 23:59. Noise Abatement Procedures are in force between 20:00 to 03:00. Use of
reverse thrust is..

A allowed after obtaining ATC permission, as the landing is performed within the Noise Abatement
period.

B allowed as the Noise Abatement Procedures permit this during landing.

C prohibited under all circumstances, as Noise Abatement Procedures are in force.

D allowed only if a malfunction is experienced related to the braking capability of the aircraft.
Question N° 38
Refer to figure.
An aircraft is overflying a mountainous area when the pilot observes the clouds shown
in the attached figure. Mountain waves are frequently associated with this area.
Therefore, a pilot flying in areas where these types of clouds are observed should
consider the:

A Impact on the mass and balance of the aeroplane since the upward and downward components of
the airflow may cause significant pitching of the aeroplane.

B Likelihood of significant clear air icing as a result of the air being forced over the mountains,
creating an effect where ice may form outside clouds.

C Performance of the aeroplane as the downward component at the back of the waves may be greater
than the achievable rate of climb.

D Risks of entering the area where the waves exist because the rate of climb may exceed what the
aeroplane is capable of controlling.

Question N° 39
In accordance with OPS regulations and with the exception of amphibians and
seaplanes, the carriage of a life jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the
aeroplane is:
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the
case of an engine failure.
2. is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM.
3. is using departure and arrival paths over water when a ditching probability exists.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4

B 1, 2

C 2, 3

D 3, 4

Question N° 40
The maximum flight duty time in any 7 consecutive days:

A 60 h

B 48 h

C 90 h

D 72 h

Question N° 41
(For this question use annex ECQB-071-020-v2016-06).
Given the following information, choose the lowest possible flap setting for landing on
a wet runway, in order to avoid dynamic hydroplaning. The landing performance
calculation is based on immediate and maximum brake application after main -gear
touchdown.
Landing Mass: 45000 kg
Tyre pressure: 200 psi
A FLAPS 30.

B FLAPS 40.

C FLAPS 15.

D No flap setting is suitable at this landing mass to avoid the possibility of dynamic hydroplaning.

Question N° 42
A pilot holds a current ATPL(A) that is endorsed with valid class ratings for single
engine piston (land) and single engine piston (sea), all flown as single pilot operations.
The pilot intends to operate both classes for a Commercial Air Transport Operator.
When acting as flight crew for the Operator, the maximum number of aeroplane types
or variants that the pilot can operate is:
A There is no limit to the number of aeroplane types that the pilots can operate.

B Three reciprocating engine aeroplane types or variants.

C Two reciprocating engine aeroplane types or variants.

D One reciprocating engine aeroplane type or variant.

Question N° 43
An aircraft has just been turned around and is ready to depart, but the RVR has dropped
below 300 m. The operator is approved to conduct low visibility take -offs on the type.
One of the pilots was unable to refresh his LVO qualification due unserviceable
equipment during his last OPC, the other pilot is LVO qualified. The airplane is a
turbojet aircraft operated in commercial air transport. Which of the following is a
correct solution to the situation.

A The flight can take off provided that the pilot in command verifies, by his/her own observation,
that he/she can actually see a distance of more than 400 m irrespective of the reported RVR.

B The flight can be continued provided that the pilot with the valid qualification is the pilot in
command.

C The pilot with current LVO is able to conduct the flight as pilot flying.

D The flight cannot take off in these conditions.

Question N° 44
A pilot is flying an APV approach when he/she encountered adverse meteorological
visibility at 600 m. He/she can see the runway edge lights and threshold ones. He/she
should:

A Continue the approach.

B Go around.

C Alternate.
D Wait until the situation gets better.

Question N° 45
Complete the following sentence:
In an aircraft galley, which is not located in the passenger compartment, a cabin crew
member discovers a fire in the oven. There should be at least ___ in the galley.

A Two hand fire extinguishers

B One hand fire extinguisher

C One fire blanket

D Two fire blankets

Question N° 46
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:

A from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.

B from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

C clockwise.

D counter clockwise.

Question N° 47
A flight from Europe to Canada is being planned on a large twin-engined jet transport
aeroplane. During the pre-flight preparations, a technical issue occurs which only
affects the ETOPS status of the aeroplane. The flight must now be operated as NON -
ETOPS. What implications does this have to the conduct of the flight? The pilots:
A Can only follow the planned route if the aeroplane remains within 1 hour, at the One Engine
Inoperative cruising speed, of a suitable alternate aerodrome.

B Must request a reroute to remain outside of NAT HLA since the aeroplane does NOT conform to
the entry requirement of being ETOPS compliant.

C Can only follow the blue spruce routes through NAT HLA airspace since these routes are designed
for aeroplanes that are NOT ETOPS compliant.

D Must request a reroute to ensure that the aeroplane remains within 1 hour flight time, at the normal
cruising speed, of an adequate aerodrome.

Question N° 48
Under what conditions can the choice of runway disregard any noise abatement
approach procedures?
1) Crosswind more than 10 kt.
2) Tailwind gusts more than 5 kt.
3) Visibility less than 3 000 m

A 2, 3

B 1, 2

C 2

D 1, 2, 3

Question N° 49
For an operator to conduct single-pilot IFR operations, the aircraft should be equipped
with an autopilot capable of at least..

A vertical speed and level change.

B altitude hold and heading mode.

C altitude and speed hold.

D heading mode.

Question N° 50
(For this question use annex ECQB-071-020-v2016-06)
A pilot is considering the possibility of having to carry out a rejected take-off on a
flooded runway and is evaluating the aircraft configuration and the selection of the
take-off speeds. Given the following information, choose the lowest possible flap
setting that would avoid dynamic hydroplaning in case of a rejected take-off.
Take-off Mass: 70000 kg
Tyre pressure: 200 psi

A FLAPS 10

B FLAPS 25

C FLAPS 5
D FLAPS 15

Question N° 51
During the passenger briefing for a flight requiring life jackets, the passengers shall be
instructed to inflate their life jackets:

A when outside the aircraft.

B as soon as ditching is prepared.

C immediately on ditching.

D immediately on the opening of the exits.

Question N° 52
You are flying to Thessaloniki Airport in Greece, where would you find information
concerning noise abatement procedures for the airfield?

A ICAO DOC 9284

B ICAO DOC 8168

C AIP AD 2

D NOTAM for the departure airport

Question N° 53
What is the maximum flight duty period (FDP) without extensions?

A 13 hours.

B 15 hours.
C 8 hours.

D 10 hours.

Question N° 54
What is correct for an aircraft flying over a small bird sanctuary?

A Fly fast to minimize damage.

B Small birds do not cause damage.

C Small birds can cause severe damage.

D Fly low to avoid bird.

Question N° 55
On arrival at the aircraft the Commander notices that some work is being carried out on
a flap track. The engineer is on the flight deck completing the technical log entry for
the daily maintenance check. The engineer leaves for a minute or two, then returns and
completes a technical log, in which all entries, including the maintenance release,
appear to be complete and correct. Which of the following statements is correct?

A The Commander should ask the engineer to explain how he / she can sign the maintenance release
when he / she was NOT involved in the work, nor did he / she watch it being carried out.

B The Commander must ask the engineer to get the technician who completed the work to sign a
maintenance release.

C The Commander should reject the aircraft and ask for an independant check by another aircraft
engineer.

D The Commander can sign the Commander's acceptance in the technical log and depart.

Question N° 56
Which of the following statements is correct?

A Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.Familiarisation training

requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the
aircraft.

B Differences training requires the acquisition of additional training on an appropriate training device
or the aircraft.Familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

C Differences training and familiarisation training are both the same.

D Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an

appropriate training device or the aircraft.Familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional
knowledge.

Question N° 57
An operator is performing CAT scheduled flights in Germany with a flight crew
holding Part-FCL licences issued by France, the cabin crew hold attestations issued by
Sweden, and the operator has its principal place of business in Italy. According to OPS
regulations, what Member State shall designate the Competent Authority responsible
for the oversight of this operation?

A Germany

B Sweden

C France

D Italy

Question N° 58
In accordance with OPS regulations, refuelling with non-wide cut fuel performed while
passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft is acceptable provided, among
other conditions :

A the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas
must be kept clear.
B all flight crew remain at their station.

C the fire brigade truck is close to the aircraft, ready for fire fighting.

D all the aircraft doors are completely open.

Question N° 59
An aeroplane is flying along airway T16 within the NAT HLA and is communicating
with Shanwick Oceanic control using CPDLC. When passing GONAN, the CPDLC
connection is automatically transferred to Santa Maria Oceanic control. What is
correct?

A The pilot does NOT need to take any further action once the CPDLC connection with Santa Maria
Oceanic control is established.

B The pilot is then required to perform a CPDLC facility notification/log-on with Santa Maria, to
acknowledge the automatic transfer.

C The pilot is then required to contact Santa Maria Oceanic control using VHF radio in the 118.000
MHz to 136.975 MHz frequency band.

D The pilot is then required to establish contact with Santa Maria Oceanic control using HF radio in
the 2.8 MHz to 18 MHz frequency band.

Question N° 60
An aircraft is flying from London, Heathrow, UK to New York, JFK, USA and is within
the NAT High Level Airspace at FL 360. A hydraulic warning light has come on, which
may necessitate a change of level. The in-flight contingency procedure requires an
offset from the assigned route.
If prior clearance cannot be obtained, what would be the initial action?

A A turn to the right of track of at least 45° towards the nearest alternate, which is Kevlavik, Iceland.

B A turn to the right of track of at least 30° towards the nearest alternate, which is Kevlavik, Iceland.

C Turn to the right of track in order to avoid any nearby traffic, which would follow the Strategic
Offset Procedure (SLOP).
D A turn to the left or right of track by at least 45° and immediately initiate a descent to a lower level.

Question N° 61
During flight, the pilot notices that he/she does not have enough final reserve fuel. The
aircraft is 40 minutes away from the departure (A) and 50 minutes to the destination
(B). There is a runway of another aerodrome (C) in sight but ATC reports that the
weather is below minimum. What should he/she do?

A Declare an emergency and ask ATC for further instructions.

B Continue to B.

C Return to A.

D Land at C.

Question N° 62
Which of the following statements is correct for an aeroplane flying from New York to
Tokyo and passing the north domestic Canadian airspace?

A The pilots may expect the VORs to be oriented to the true north.

B The pilots may expect the VORs to be oriented to the magnetic north only.

C It is mandatory that the pilots speak French.

D There are no VORs in Canada.

Question N° 63
The Single European Sky legislation is not applicable. Consequently, the SSR
transponders should operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of Volume IV of
ICAO Annex:
A 6

B 10

C 11

D 18

Question N° 64
Who provides service within the Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA) and
Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA)?

A NOTA: Shanwick ACA; SOTA: Shannon Control

B NOTA: Shanwick ACA; SOTA: Shanwick ACA

C NOTA: Shanwick ACA; NOTA: Shannon Control

D NOTA: Shannon Control; SOTA: Shannon Control

Question N° 65
You want the IRS to be as accurate as possible when in NAT HLA airspace. When do
you align the IRS?

A As soon as the first person enters cockpit.

B When you release the parking brake.

C 40 min before oceanic entry.

D When the engines are on.