Centro Escolar University

School of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

1. Root surface caries is most likely caused by which of the following microorganisms?
A. Actinomyces viscosus D. Streptococcus mutans
B. Bacteroides gingivalis E. Veillonella alcalescens
C. Actinobacillus ctinomycetemcomitans

2. Which of the following describes the microscopic form of the incipient pit and fissure caries in
enamel?
A. A cone-shaped lesion with the apex towards the dentinoenamel junction
B. A cone-shaped lesion with apex toward the outer surface
C. A circular-shaped lesion, open at the surface
D. A circular-shaped lesion, appearing along fissures

3. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression through the tooth enamel is:
A. 3 - 6 months D. 6 months – 1 year
B. 2 - 3 years E. 3 – 4 years
C. 4 – 5 years

4. The type of caries that is observed around the edges of restorations is

A. Recurrent caries. C. Rampant caries
B. Chronic caries. D. Acute caries.

5. Caries activity can be expected to increase in the mouth of

A. an expectant mother D. a lactating mother.
B. Xerostomatic E. a rachitic.
C. all of the above.

6. Erosion is chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the physiologic wear of teeth as a
result of normal tooth to tooth contact.
A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true
C. both statements are true
D. both statements are false

7. ______ results from flexure and fatigue of enamel and dentin at a location removed from the
point of loading, resulting in a wedged-shaped cervical lesion.
A. Attrition B. Erosion
C. Abrasion D. Abraction

8. Cavities on the incisal edges or the cusp tips of teeth are:

A.Class l D.Class ll
B.Class lll E.Class lV
C.Class Vl

9. A mesial cavity in a mandibular right second premolar is classified as a:

A. Class I B. Class II
B. Class III D. Class IV
C. Class V

10. Class V cavities on teeth involve:

A. only the occlusal surface
B. the occlusal surface and at least one proximal surface
C. the proximal surface of anterior teeth
D. the incisal edge of anterior teeth
E. the gingival third of all teeth

11. Three walls of a cavity preparation meet to form a:

A. line axis C. point axis
B.margin D.point angle E.line angle
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 12. A patient reports a serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves.  Which of the following cements
should be avoided?
 A. BIS-GMA  D. glass ionomer
 B. phosphoric acid  E. ethoxybenzoic acid
 C. Zinc oxide-eugenol

13. The width of the blade of the 6 ½ - 2 ½ -9 hoe is:

A. .5 B. 1 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 6.5 mm E. .65 mm

14. The operating the distance from the patient's mouth to the eyes of the operator should be
approximately:
A. 16" B. 12" C. 24" D. 8"

15. Bevelling of the axiopulpal line angle is always a routine procedure.

A. True B. False

16. A retainerless matrix system designed for any tooth regardless of its circumference.
A. Tofflemire C. Ivory #9 E. Composi-tight
B. Pallodent D. Automatrix

17. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restorations is more resistant to fracture if the
A. pulpal depth is 1mm
B. occlusal dovetail is present
C. axiopulpal line angle is rounded
D. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed

18. The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on maxillary molars should be in dentin
A. parallel to the dentinoenamel junction
B. parallel to the axis of the tooth
C. at an acute angle with the pulpal floor

19. Why do you break the contact in a Class II amalgam?

A. to allow matrix band to be placed properly
B. to obtain good contact between adjacent teeth
C. to place restoration in self-cleansing area
D. to allow instrumentation

20. A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface angles of a Class I dental amalgam cavity
preparation. Which of the following best explains why?
A. this type of margin is prone to microleakage
B. the cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult
C. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative material might fracture
D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade

21. When doing a Class II amalgam preparation the direction of the buccal and lingual proximal walls
in an occlusal gingival direction is determined by:
A. the direction of the enamel rods.
B. Achieving even access with the adjacent tooth.
C. The contour and alignment of the adjacent tooth.
D. the gingival extension of the preparation.
E. Meeting the gingival wall creating a sharp angle.

22. Which of the following weakens dental amalgam?

A. Zinc in the alloy C. Copper in the alloy
B. High condensation pressure D. High final mercury content

23. The most common cause of overhangs on a Class II amalgam restoration is

A. improper cavity preparation
B. expansion of the alloy after placement
C. improper contouring and placement of the matrix band and the wedge
D. excessive condensation of amalgam the into proximal segment
E. none of the above

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24. In applying a posterior matrix, the lesser circumference of the band should be placed:
A. lingually B. occlusally C. gingivally

25. A wooden wedge is used with a matrix band to

A. make the band taut D. retract the gingiva
B. give shape to the restoration E. force the band against the tooth
C. keep the matrix band retainer away from the gingiva

26. Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed expansion in an amalgam restoration
containing zinc?
A. Heavy condensation C. Excess mercury in the mix
B. Overtrituration of the amalgam D. Contamination by moisture during
manipulation

27. The primary reason for polishing an amalgam restoration is to

A. increase esthetics C. reduce surface irregularities
B. remove excess surface mercury D. adapt the amalgam to open cavity margins

28. Rationale given for polishing amalgam in a wet field includes which of the following?
A. Reducing heat D. Improving the luster
B. Removing surface mercury E. Preventing marginal fracture
C. Reducing air-borne particulate matter

29. List the following in the proper sequence in restoring a Class lll composite restoration:
1.Rubber dam isolation
2.Tooth preparation
3.Shade selection
4.Bonding and finishing of the restoration
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 1, 4 D. 3, 1, 2, 4

30. Each of the following determines the outline form for Class III composite restoration EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. convenience for access
B. extension for prevention
C. size, shape, and location of caries

31. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except
A. Increase the surface area
B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin.
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting.

32. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of

A. Borax
B. Barium and strontium glasses
C. Small amount of lead and carbon
D. Rare earthmetallic oxides

33. When over drying a cavity prep, which of the following effects will it have on the dentin?
A. decreases bonding strength
B. increases bonding strength
C. breaks down collagen in dentin

34. Where is recurrent decay most seen in Class II composite?

A. facioproximal
B. linguoproximal
C. gingivoproximal
D. occlusal

35. When doing a casting preparation a base is used to:

A. increase the retention and resistance of the preparation.
B. decrease the amount of metal in the final restoration.
C. block out undercuts
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 D. reduce thermal sensitivity. E. 2, 3, & 4
36. The axial walls in an MOD cavity preparation for a cast gold onlay should
A. form acute angles with pulpal wall
B. form acute angles with the proximal walls
C. diverge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall
D. converge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall

37. You do all the following for a composite inlay preparation except
A. divergent internal walls C. cavosurface margin bevel
B. retentive grooves and boxes D. all the margins finished in sound enamel

38. For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the most effective means for verifying
adequate occlusal clearance?
A. wax bite chew-in C. proper depth cuts
B. visual inspection D. articulating paper

39. After a wax pattern is formed, the resulting casting will be more accurate if the pattern is
A. invested immediately B. kept in a refrigerator
C. kept at room temperature D. immersed in room-temperature water before investing

40. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat?
A. deficient margins C. overextended margins
B. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring

41. Final set amalgam should contain

A. 20–35% mercury B. 35–45% mercury
B. 45–50% mercury C. 55–65% mercury

42. What is required in order for polymerization of resins to occur when desired?
A. Monomers B. Free radicals C. Fillers D. Polymers

43. The typical polymerization shrinkage of resin composite is:

A. 2–3%. B. 4–5%. C. 6–7%. D. 8–9%

44. The curing of resin composite is inhibited by:

A. Moisture B. Filler C. Calcium hydroxide D. Oxygen.

45. Which of the following is not one of the setting reaction stages of glass ionomer cement?
A. Gelation stage B. Dissolution stage
C. Hardening stage D. Polymerization stage

46. Glass ionomers were first introduced in the:

A. 1950s B. 1960s C. 1970s D. 1980s

47. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family?
A. Polyacrylic acid B. Polyitaconic acid
C. Polymaleic acid D. Polyacetic acid

48. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.

49. The etchant was rinsed with copious water spray. Excess water was aspirated until the dentin
surface presented moist.
A. Only the first statement is true. B. Only the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true. D. Neither statement is true.

50. Hydrogen peroxide in dentistry ____.

A. has been in use for more than 100 years B. has been found to promote bone healing
C. has no antimicrobial effects D. cannot be used in conjunction with periodontal surgery

51. The carbamide peroxide reaction is defined as follows:

A. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and water.
B. Carbamide peroxide degrades into oxygen and water.
C. Carbamide peroxide degrades into ammonia and carbon dioxide.
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D. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and urea.
52. Which of the following is not an intrinsic stain?
A. nicotine staining B. fluorosis C. amalgam staining D. Tetracycline

53. For in-office tooth whitening, _____.

A. heat increases the whitening effect
B. light increases the whitening effect
C. concentration is the only critical factor that determines the degree of whitening
D. contact time and concentration of active ingredients are the critical factors

54. Which ONE of the following is NOT an objective for pulp protection?
A. Adhesion to amalgam D. Chemical protection
B. Mechanical protection E. Thermal protection
C. Pulpal medication

55. Pulpal SENSITIVITY is caused primarily by:

A. Vibration from cavity preparation D. Thermal trauma
B. Electrical trauma E. Fluid flow in tubules
C. Chemical irritation from bacteria

56. FLUID FLOW is detected by:

A. Mechanoreceptors on the edge of the pulp D. Odotontoblastic processes
B. C-axis nerve fibers that penetrate into the tubules E. Fibroblasts
C. Odontoblast cells

57. The DENTIN SMEAR LAYER increases:

A. Chemical adhesion for varnishes D. Mechanical adhesion for liners
B. Thermal insulation for the pulp E. Coverage of tubule openings
C. Formation of reparative dentin

58. What is the typical THICKNESS range for varnishes?

A. 2-5 μm (0.002-0.005 mm) D. 10-50 μm (0.010-0.050 mm)
B. 50-100 μm (0.050-0.100 mm) E. 100-200 μm (0.100-0.200 mm)
C. 200-1000 μm (0.200-1.000 mm)

59. How much tubule coverage is produced by 1 thin coating of varnish?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 90% E. 100%

60. Which ONE of the following is FALSE about a cement liner?

A. The setting reaction is accelerated by moisture
B. The liner should be placed in relatively thin layers
C. It has sufficient strength in 6-7 mins to support amalgam condensation
D. It releases constituents for pulpal medication
E. It provides adequate mechanical strength to replace existing dentin

61. Dental materials to be used as BASES should have COMPRESSIVE STRENGTHS of:
A. 1000- 5000 psi [7-35 MPa]
B. 5000-12000 psi [35-80 MPa]
C. 12000-15000 psi [80-100 MPa]
D. 15000-30000 psi [100-200 MPa]
E. 30000-60000 psi [200-400 MPa]

62. In determining the caries rate for older adults, an epidemiologist usually uses the DMFT index,
because it can be difficult to ascertain why teeth are missing.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

63. The following are purposes of fluoride varnish, except;

A. promote mineralization of the tooth C. retard cavity formation
B. reserve the process of cavity formation D. decrease pH level E. none of the
above
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64. Refers to measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present.
A. Tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention D. any of the three.

65. Water irrigation devices in oral health regimens are useful in:
A. eliminating plaque C. diluting bacterial products
B. reducing periodontal pockets D. eliminating gingival inflammation

66. A timed series of service activities requiring physical, human and financial resources to achieve
health policy objectives;
A. Civic action C. outreach program
B. Dental mission D. health program E. public program

67. It describes the chain of superiors from the highest to the lower ranks;
A. Centralization C. scalar principle
B. Span of control D. administration E. autonomy

68. It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action;

A. Planning B. coordination C. objective D. strategy E. action

69. The maximum production with the least coast with available resources;
A. Principle of allocations C. principle of administration
B. Principle of management D. principle of efficiency E. both A & D

70. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with certain
group of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C

71. Freedom of control from others in matters affecting the quality of work.
A. Autonomy C. authority
B. esprit de corps D. discipline E. projection

72. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are
the factors under;
A. health related socio-economic factors C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analysis

73. Measures taken before the disease occurs to reduce susceptibility;

A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. primary prevention D. any of the three.

74. Methods of imposing people’s values & judgment of what is important on the raw data;
A. limited resources C. priority determination
B. allocation D. both A & C E. none of these

75. They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is involved;
A. para-dental professional C. dental hygienists
B. dental assistant D. dental auxiliaries E. all of these.

76. The Magna Carta of Public Health Worker;

A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572 E. none of these

77. “In union there is strength” is the principle of;

A. autonomy C. esprit de corps
B. organization D. dental health E. centralization

78. This model was developed with the specific intention of addressing noncompliance issues in
behavior that results in negative health consequence.
A. Self-care motivational model C. behavioral learning model
B. Contemporary community health model D. Fayol’s model

79. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm
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80. It is the laying down of foundation of the organization by bringing together several leaders to have
a better understanding of the community.
A. Mobilization C. core grouping
B. Training D. area selection E. setting up an organization

81. The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:

A. size B. location C. gender D. occupational groupings

82. The S for the supportive factor of primary health care program refers to:
A. success of primary health care C. strengthening intersectoral collaboration
B. sanitation of community D. safe water supply

83. It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community’s water supply to an optimal level for
the prevention of dental caries.
A. fluoride supplements C. fluoride mouthrinse program
B. school water fluoridation D. none of these

84. Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___community:

A. mature B. immature C. progressive D. organize E. none of these

85. It is a set of educational economic and environmental incentives to support behavioral changes
that lead to a better level of health .
A. health promotion C. preventive dentistry
B. public health D. all of these E. none of these.

86. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention

87. Are activities that are aimed at the early diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease in order to
prevent sequelae.
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention.

88. Detained analysis of the working of the organization:

A. standing order C. organizational chart
B. records D. budgeting E. procedure manual.

89. It is a scientific discipline concerned with the application of statistical method of problems in
biology and medicine:
A. public health C. statistics
B. biostatistics D. sampling E. none of these

90. It is concerned in making estimates, predictions, generalizations, conclusions about a population

based on information from a sample.
A. descriptive statistics C. inferential statistics
B. inscriptive statistics D. differential statistics E. none of these.

91. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human populations and
those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury:
A. epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. dental epidemiology D. experimental epidemiology E. none of these.

92. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:

A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these

93. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology E. none of these

94. It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue:
A. dental caries activity C. pH test
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 B. susceptibility test D. both A & B only E. A & C only

95. Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time:

A. incidence B. rate C. ratio D. prevalence E. none of
these.

96. The T for supportive factor of primary health care program:

A. training and help manpower development
B. treatment of common diseases and injuries
C. both A & B
D. none of these.

97. The CPTIN index assessment is based on the evaluation of specified index teeth for:
A. gingival inflammation C. presence of supra/-subgingival calculus
B. depth of periodontal pockets D. both A & B E. all of the above.

98. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.

99. Fluorosis index was formulated by:

A. Greene and Vermillion C. Gayford
B. Dean D. Hussy E. none of them.

100. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

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