ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
Skeletal System
1. What is the relationship between muscle function
and bones?
- Muscles use bones as levers to bring about body
movements
2. What are two functions of a bone's marrow cavity?
- Red bone marrow provides a site for hematopoiesis.
- Yellow bone marrow is a storage site for fat.
3. Where are most long bones found in the body?
- Most long bones are found in the limbs.
4. What is the anatomical name for the shaft of a long
bone? For its ends?
- Shaft = diaphysis
- Bone ends = epiphyses
5. How does the structure of compact bone differ from
the structure of spongy bone?
- Compact bones appear
● solid and
● very dense
● few holes.
- Spongy bone areas
● look like the cross-beams of a house
● lots of space between the bone spicules.
6. What is the importance of canaliculi?
- They carry nutrients to the bone cells.
7. Bones don't begin as bones. What do they begin as?
- Membranes or cartilage.
8. Which stimulus-PTH (a hormone) or mechanical
forces acting on the skeleton is more important in
maintaining the blood calcium ion level than in
maintaining bone strength?
- The hormonal stimulus (PTH) maintains blood
calcium homeostasis.
9. If osteoclasts in a long bone are more active than
osteoblasts, what change in bone mass is likely to
occur?
- Bones will become thinner and weaker because
osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells.
10. What is a fracture? What two fracture types are
particularly common in older people?
- A fracture is a break in a bone.
- Compression and comminuted fractures are
common in the elderly.
11. What are the three main parts of the axial skeleton?
- Skull, vertebral column, and bony thorax.
12. Johnny was vigorously exercising the only joints in
the skull that are freely movable. What would you
guess he was doing?
- Eating or talking.
- These are the temporomandibular joints.
13. Which skull bone(s) form the "keystone of the
face"?
- Maxillae.
14. Which bone has the cribriform plate and crista
galli?
- Ethmoid bone.
15. Which bones are connected by the coronal suture?
By the sagittal suture?
- Frontal joins with the parietals at the coronal suture.
-Parietals join one another at the sagittal suture
16. What are the five major regions of the vertebral
column?
- Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal.
17. How can you distinguish a lumbar vertebra from a
cervical vertebra?
- All typical cervical vertebrae are:
● small,
● have holes in their transverse processes,
● have a split spinous process.
- Lumbar vertebrae are
● large, blocklike vertebrae
● with a blunt spinous
● process that projects directly back
● no foramina in their transverse processes
18. What is a true rib? A false rib?
- A true rib is attached directly to the sternum by its
own costal cartilage.
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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
- A false rib attaches indirectly (by the costal cartilage
of a superior rib) or not at all.
19. Besides the ribs and sternum, there is a third group
of bones forming the thoracic cage. What is it?
- Vertebrae.
20. What bone class do the ribs and skull bones fall
into?
- Flat bones.
21. Which spinal curvatures are present at birth?
- thoracic
- sacral curvatures
22. How does the shape of a newborn baby's spine
differ from that of an adult?
- At birth the newborn's spine is an arc.
● C-shaped
- An adult's spine has two additional curvatures.
● S-shaped.
23. Contrast the general function of the axial skeleton
to that of the appendicular skeleton.
- The axial skeleton
● forms the body axis
● protects the brain and viscera.
- The appendicular skeleton
● allows for mobility
● manipulation of the external environment.
24. What is the single point of attachment of the
shoulder girdle to the axial skeleton?
- The clavicle attaches medially to the sternum.
25. What bone forms the skeleton of the arm?
- The humerus
26. Where are the carpals found, and what type (long,
short, irregular, or flat) of bone are they?
- Carpals are the short bones found in the wrist.
27. Which bones of the upper limb have a styloid
process?
- Radius and ulna.
28. What three bones form the hip bone? What bones
form each pelvic girdle?
- bones that form the hip bone
● ilium,
● ischium,
● pubis
- each pelvic girdle is formed by:
● two coxal (hip) bones
● the sacrum.
29. Describe three ways the bony pelvis of a woman
differs from that of a man?
- The female pelvis is
● broader, lighter,
● has a less acute pubic angle,
● a wider inlet and outlet,
● shorter ischial spines.
30. What two bones form the skeleton of the leg?
- Tibia and fibula
31. Which bone allows us to "point our toes"?
- The talus
32. Which bone of the lower limb has an inter-
trochanteric line and crest and an intercondylar fossa?
- The femur has those markings.
33. What are the functions of joints?
- Joints connect bones together while allowing
flexibility of the body.
34. What is the major difference between a fibrous
joint and a cartilaginous joint?
- The material between the articulating bone ends,
which is connective tissue fibers in fibrous joints and
cartilage in cartilaginous joints.
35. Where is synovial membrane found? Its role?
- Lining a synovial joint capsule
- to provide a source of lubricating fluid in the joint.
36. What two joints of the body are ball-and-socket
joints? What is the best example of a saddle joint?
- The shoulder and hip joints are ball-and socket
joints.
- The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb isa saddle
joint.
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Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
37. Ninety-year-old Mrs. Pelky is groaning in pain.
Her or grandson has just given her a bear hug. What do
you do think might have happened to her spine, and
what bone condition may she be suffering from?
- Compression fracture; osteoporosis
38. Which two regions of the skeleton grow most
rapidly during childhood?
- Lower limbs and facial skeleton
Muscular System
1. How do cells of the three types of muscle tissues
differ from one another anatomically?
- Skeletal muscle fibers are long multinucleated cells
with obvious striations.
- Cardiac cells are branching, typically uninucleate
cells with less obvious striations but obvious
junctions.
- Smooth muscle fibers are spindle-shaped
uninucleate cells, nonstriated.
2. Which muscle type has the most elaborate
connective tissue wrappings?
- Skeletal muscle.
3. What does striated mean relative to muscle cells?
- Striped or having bands striated.
4. How do the movements promoted by skeletal
muscle differ from those promoted by smooth or
cardiac muscle?
- Skeletal muscle movements can be very forceful and
rapid
- Smooth muscle movements tend to be slow and
often rhythmic.
5. Specifically, what structure(s) is/are responsible for
the banding pattern in skeletal muscle cells?
- The alignment of the bands on the myofilaments is
responsible for the banding pattern in skeletal muscle
cells.
6. What two structures are closely associated at a
neuromuscular junction?
- The axon ending of a motor neuron
- The sarcolemma of the skeletal muscle fiber
7. Which ions enter the muscle cell during the
generation of an action potential?
- Sodium ions enter the cells during action potential
generation.
8. What is the role of calcium ions in muscle
contraction?
- Calcium stimulates the release of neurotransmitters
(ACh) at the axon terminal of the motor neuron and
- causes the regulatory proteins blocking the
myosin-binding sites on actin to move so
cross-bridges can form and allow contraction.
9. Which chemical-ATP or Ca2+-triggers sliding of the
muscle filaments?
- Calcium ions trigger the sliding of the myofilaments.
10. Which is a cross-bridge attachment more similar
to: a synchronized rowing team or a person pulling a
bucket on a rope out of a well?
- Pulling a bucket out of a well.
11. What are the three processes used to generate
energy for skeletal muscle contraction?
- Phosphorylation of ADP by CP,
- stored ATP,
- ATP generated by glucose oxidation
12. What is the direct source of energy used by muscle
fibers for contraction?
- Stored ATP
13. Gary is trying with all his might to pull a tree stump
out of the ground. It does not budge. Which type of
contraction are his muscles performing?
- Isometric contraction
14. What is meant by the term oxygen deficit?
- Oxygen deficit occurs when a person is not able to
take in oxygen fast enough to keep the muscles
supplied with all the oxygen they need when working
vigorously
15. To develop big, beautiful skeletal muscles, you
should focus on which type of exercise: aerobic or
resistance exercise?
- Resistance exercise leads to increased muscle size
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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
16. What action is being performed by a person who
sticks out his thumb to hitch a ride?
- Abduction.
17. What actions take place at the neck when you nod
your head up and down as if saying "yes"?
- Flexion and extension.
18. In what way are fixator and synergist muscles
important?
- They anchor or aid the activity of the prime mover.
19. Based on their names, deduce some characteristics
of the following muscles: tibialis anterior, erector
spinae, rectus abdominis, extensor carpi radialis
longus.
- Tibialis anterior-a muscle overlying the tibia
anteriorly.
- Erector spinae-muscles that straighten the spine.
- Rectus abdominus muscle that runs straight up the
abdomen.
- Extensor carpi radialis longus-long muscle on the
posterior of the forearm that extends the wrist and
attaches at the distal radius.
20. What is the fascicle arrangement of the orbicularis
oris muscle?
- Circular.
21. Which muscle raises your eyebrow?
- Frontalis raises the eyebrows.
22. Which muscles are synergists in closing your jaw?
- Masseter and temporalis
23. Which muscle group is the prime mover of back
extension?
- Erector spinae.
24. What structural feature makes the abdominal
musculature especially strong for its thickness?
- It's like plywood.
- The various abdominal muscles run in different
directions across the abdomen, making the abdominal
wall very strong.
25. Which muscle of the posterior trunk is the
synergist of the pectoralis major muscle in arm
adduction?
- Latissimus dorsi.
26. Which muscle is the antagonist of the biceps
brachii when the biceps flexes the elbow?
- Triceps brachii
27. Which muscle group is the antagonist of the
hamstring muscles?
- Quadriceps on anterior thigh.
28. What are two good sites for intramuscular
injections in adults?
- The medial gluteal site
- the deltoid muscle of the shoulder
29. Which two muscles insert into the calcaneal
tendon? What movement do they effect?
- Soleus and gastrocnemius.
- They plantar flex the foot.
30. What must happen before babies can control their
muscles?
- Nerve fibers must be myelinated.
31. How does lifelong exercise affect our skeletal
muscles and muscle mass in old age?
- Exercise defers or reduces the natural loss in muscle
mass and strength that occurs in old age.
Nervous System
1. Name the structures that make up the CNS and those
that make up the PNS.
- CNS = brain and spinal cord.
- PNS = nerves that extend to and from the CNS.
2. Which neuroglia are most abundant in the body?
Which produce the insulating material called myelin?
- Astrocytes are the most numerous neuroglia.
- Oligodendrocytes produce myelin.
3. Why is a brain tumor more likely to be formed from
neuroglia than from neurons?
- Neuroglia can divide. Most neurons cannot. A
criterion of cancer cells is their uncontrolled division.
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Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
4. How does a tract differ from a nerve?
- A tract is a bundle of nerve fibers in the CNS.
- A nerve is a bundle of nerve fibers in the PNS.
5 .How does a ganglion differ from a nucleus?
- A ganglion is a cluster of nerve cell bodies in PNS
- A nucleus is a cluster of nerve cell bodies in the CNS
6. Which part of a neuron conducts impulses toward
the cell body in multipolar and bipolar neurons? Which
part releases neurotransmitters?
- Dendrites conduct impulses toward the nerve cell
body.
-The axon terminal releases neurotransmitters.
7. Your professor tells you that one neuron transmits a
nerve impulse at the rate of 1 meter per second and
another neuron conducts at the rate of 40 meters per
second. Which neuron has the myelinated axon?
- The fiber that conducts at 40 m/sec.
8. What is the difference between a graded potential
and an action potential?
- A graded potential is a local current that dies out
with distance.
-An action potential is a current that is continuously
regenerated along the length of the axon and does not
die out.
9. Explain the difference between a synaptic cleft and a
synapse. How is a stimulus transmitted across a
synapse?
- The synapse is the location where an impulse passes
from one neuron to another or to a target cell.
- The synaptic cleft is the gap at the synapse that
neurotransmitter must cross to transmit the signal.
- Chemically via the release of a neurotransmitter and
binding of the neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic
membrane.
10. Which portion(s) of a neuron is (are) likely to be
associated with a sensory receptor or a sensory organ?
- Dendrites.
11. What is a reflex?
- A reflex is a rapid, predictable, and involuntary
response to a stimulus.
12. What are the three major regions of the cerebrum?
- Cerebral cortex, white matter, and basal nuclei.
13. What is the composition of white matter of the
brain?
- Mostly myelinated nerve fibers.
14. Which brain region controls such vital activities as
breathing and blood pressure-cerebrum, brain stem,
or cerebellum?
- The brain stem controls vital activities.
15. What is the function of the cerebellum?
- provides precise timing for skeletal muscle activity
- helps control our balance and equilibrium.
16. In what major brain region are the thalamus,
hypothalamus, and pineal gland found?
- Diencephalon.
17. What name is given to the cerebrospinal fluid-filled
cavities within the brain?
-Ventricles.
18. What name is given to the barrier that protects the
brain from toxic chemicals?
- Blood-brain barrier.
19. Which meningeal layer provides the means for
draining cerebrospinal fluid back into the blood-dura
mater, arachnoid mater, or pia mater?
- Arachnoid mater.
20. A person has been hit on the head with a baseball
and soon becomes comatose. Has he suffered a
concussion or a contusion?
- Contusion.
21.What is found in the gray matter of the spinal cord?
- Nerve cell bodies of interneurons
- motor neurons.
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Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
22. Which spinal cord pathways are sensory pathways
ascending or descending?
- Sensory pathways are ascending pathways.
23. Why is the leash of nerve fibers at the end of the
ibnis spinal cord called the cauda equina?
- Because the leash of nerve fibers there looks like a
horse's tail, the literal translation of cauda equina
24. Where is the epineurium located?
- Around each nerve fiber.
25. Which cranial nerve pair is the only one to serve
structures outside the head and neck?
- Vagus nerves.
26. What is a nerve plexus?
- Nerve plexus = complex network of nerves.
27. Ron has a horrible pain in his right buttock, thigh,
and leg. He is told he has sciatica. Which spinal nerve
is involved, and what plexus does it belong to?
- Sciatic nerve of the sacral plexus.
28. Which regions or organs of the body are served by
the autonomic nervous system? Which are served by
the somatic nervous system?
- Visceral organs (smooth and cardiac muscles and
glands) are served by the ANS.
- Skeletal muscles are served by the somatic nervous
system.
29. How does the motor pathway of the autonomic
nervous system differ from that of the somatic
nervous system?
- The ANS has a two-motor neuron pathway from the
CNS to the organ to be served.
- The somatic nervous system has just one motor
neuron in the motor pathway.
30. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is
the "fight-or-flight" system?
- Sympathetic division.
31. Why must premature babies be placed in incubators
until their hypothalamus matures?
- They are unable to regulate their body temperature
until the hypothalamus matures.
32. What is orthostatic hypotension? Why do many
older people suffer from this condition?
- It is hypotension caused by a rapid change in
position, such as getting up quickly from a reclining
position.
The sympathetic nervous system, which regulates
blood pressure, is less efficient in old age.
Special Senses
1. What is the role of the eyelids?
- The eyelids protect the eyes.
2. Which four accessory glands or structures help
lubricate the eye?
- The tarsal glands, ciliary glands, conjunctiva, and
lacrimal glands all contribute to lubricating the eye,
though their secretions differ.
3. What is the role of lysozyme in tears?
- Lysozyme is a component of tears that helps to
destroy bacteria and protect the eye from infection.
4. What is the visual role of the external eye muscles?
- They direct the eyeball toward what you wish to
view.
5. What is the meaning of the term blind spot in
relation to the eye?
- The blind spot contains no photoreceptors; it is the
site where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball.
6. What function does the choroid of the vascular layer
have in common with the pigmented layer of the
retina?
- Both contain pigment, which prevents light
scattering in the eye.
7. How do the rods and cones differ from each other?
- Rods have
● a rodlike outer segment
● containing the photopigment
● respond to low light conditions
● produce blackand-white vision
- Cones have
● a shorter coneshaped outer segment
● need bright light
● provide color vision.
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Did You Know + Answers from Appendix
8. What are the refractory media of the eye?
- Refractory media include
● cornea,
● aqueous humor,
● lens,
● vitreous humor.
9. What name is given to the ability of the eye to focus
on close objects?
- Accommodation.
10. What is the difference between the optic tract and
the optic nerve?
- The optic nerves leave the eyeballs
- The medial half of the fibers of each optic nerve
cross over to the opposite side, joining there with the
fibers from the outside half of the opposite eye to form
the optic tracts.
11. In what way does the photopupillary reflex protect
the eyes?
- It causes pupillary constriction in very bright light.
Intense light stimulation can injure the
photoreceptors.
12. How is astigmatism different from myopia and
hyperopia?
- Astigmatism results from unequal curvatures onthe
lens surface, not from an eyeball that is too long or too
short to focus the image on the retina.
The unequal curvatures of astigmatism result in
points of light that focus on the retina as lines, not
points, leading to blurry images.
13. Which region(s) of the ear (external, middle, or
internal) serve hearing only?
- External and middle ears serve hearing only.
14. Which structures of the ear transmit sound
vibrations from the eardrum to the oval window?
- The ossicles (hammer, anvil, and stirrup).
15. What sense do the vestibule and semicircular
canals serve?
- Balance or equilibrium.
16. Describe the different receptors for static and
dynamic equilibrium and their locations.
- Dynamic receptors
● located in the semicircular canals (crista
ampullaris)
● have embedded in the gel-like cupula
- Static receptors
● located in the vestibule (maculae)
● have otoliths that move when the head
moves, causing hairs embedded in the
otolithic membrane to bend.
17. What are otoliths, and what is their role in
equilibrium?
- Otoliths are tiny stones made of calcium salts that
are located in the maculae of the vestibule. They
respond to static equilibrium cues relative to the
position of the head in space.
18. From the air outside the body, through what
substances do sound waves travel to excite the
receptor cells of the cochlea?
- Tympanic membrane to bones of ossicles to fluids of
the cochlear scalae.
19. Which nerve transmits impulses from the spiral
organ of Corti to the brain?
- Cochlear nerve (division of cranial nerve VIII).
20. Do high-pitched sounds peak close to or far from
the oval window?
- Close to the oval window.
21. How do sensorineural deafness and conduction
deafness differ from each other?
- Sensorineural deafness results from damage to
neural structures involved in hearing (cochlear nerve,
auditory region of the brain)
- Conductive deafness results from anything that
prevents sound vibrations from reaching the cochlea
(earwax, fusion of the ossicles, fluid in the middle
ear).
22. What general name is used to describe both taste
and smell receptors? Why?
- Chemoreceptors, because they respond to chemicals
in solution.
23. Where, relative to specific structures, are most
taste buds located?
- On the tongue.
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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Did You Know + Answers from Appendix

24. Why does it help to sniff substances that you want

to smell?
- Odor receptors are located at the superior aspect of
the nasal cavity. Sniffing brings the air upward.

25. Fifty-year-old Mrs. Bates is complaining that she

can't read without holding the newspaper out at arm's
length. What is her condition, and what is its cause?
- Presbyopia;
- caused by reduced elasticity of the lens as a result of
aging.

26. Which of the special senses is least mature at

birth?
- Vision.

27. What is presbycusis?

- Deafness of old age.