Triangular Topmark and A Cardinal Topmark?

21. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current.
Without
considering wind, how would you allow for the set and drift?
•Increase your speed
•Head your vessel slightly to the right
•Decrease your speed
•Head your vessel slightly to the left
22. How would you distinguish between a triangular topmark and a cardinal topmark?
•A triangular topmark is composed of buoys marking the channels starboardside from seaward while a
cardinal topmark is marking the point of interest
•A triangular top mark buoy shows a flashing white light at night while a cardinal topmark shows an
isophase light at night
•A triangular topmark is composed of buoys marking the point of interest of the obstruction while a
cardinal topmark is marking the point of interest of the obstruction
•A triangular topmark will show an isophase light at night while a cardinal topmark shows flashing white
light at night
23. How would you interpret an area to be avoided? lt is a routeing measure comprising an area within
defined limits in which either navigation is particularly hazardous or it is exeptionally important to avoid
casualties and which should be avoided by all ships, or certain classes of ships.
•An area with defined limits which is exceptionally important to avoid casualties
•An area with defined limits which is particularly hazardous and to be avoided
•An area with defined limits which should be avoided by all ships
•An area with defined limits which should be avoided by certain classess of seaccrafts
24. How would you classify information regarding marine facilities, anchorages, channel depths,
obstructions and dangers in the unfamiliar US port if you plan to enter?
•You should check the Sailing Directions
•You should check the Notice to Mariners
•You should consult the Coast Pilot
•You should refer to the American Practical Navigator
25. What section in the steering and sailing rules of the ColRegs that applies to vessels that are not in
sight of one another?
•Section II
•Section IV
•Section I
•Section III
26. When bound to a port with narrow channel approach and your vessel is known to have unreliable
steering gear, what precaution would you take prior entry?
•The bridge team be notified if any additional problem is encountered
•Inform the port control of the suspected problem
•Take the vessel to suitable anchorage nearby and instigate repairs
•Brief the bridge team and carry out steering gear failure drill
27. You are steaming west in the South Atlantic Ocean and experiencing an extratropical cyclonic storm
with the wind observed to be dead ahead. Base on the Buys Ballots Law where does the center of low
pressure lies?
•To the direction southwest of your position
•To the direction north of your position
•To the direction northwest of your position
•To the direction south of your position
28. How would a shore station transmits an interrogation message on Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?
•Vessel response includes an individual ship identification number
•Vessel permits further communication by voice
•Vessel responds by obtaining additional information from the transponder
•Vessel responds if she is in the area
29. How would you show you understanding about the purpose of ships routeing?
•It improve the safety of navigation in areas that are to be avoided.
•It improve the safety of navigation in areas where the density of traffic is great.
•It improve the safety of navigation in areas adopted by the Organization.
•It improve the safety of navigation in areas where freedom of movement of shipping is being inhibited
being inhibited.
30. How would you ensure that the course laid down on a particular area on the chart is being navigated
with particular caution? and within which the direction of traffic flow maybe recommended.
•It is plotted in a deep water route
•It is plotted in a recommended route
•It is plotted in a recommended area
•It is plotted in a precautionary area
31. Where two or more governments have a common interest in a particular area of ships
reporting
•Uniform system,
reportingwhat shall this system have in common?
requirements
•Uniform guidelines
•Uniform operations
•Uniform procedures
32. What percentage of the sea surface is ice covered if the report says four (4) OKTA concentration?
•75%
•100%
•25%
•50%
33. How would you ensure that the hazard to navigation is being avoided while transiting a traffic lane?
•By keeping the vessel position along the plotted course
•By keeping the cross track distance to minimum
•By keeping the vessel on the track that is planned
•By keeping the cross track distance to be zero
34. How would you determine if risk of collision exist between vessels that are NOT in sight of one
another through the use of radio direction and ranging?
•Systematic observation of targets through the use of ARPA utilizing the CPA/TCPA function
•Systematic observation of targets through the use of ARPA by setting the relative vectors at appropriate
length
•Systematic observation of targets through the use of ARPA
•Systematic observation of targets through the use of ARPA by acquiring targets automatically
35. What concentration range of ice corresponds to a close pack?

•5-6 tehths
•9 - 10 tenths
•6-7 tehthS
•7 - 8 tenths
36. How would you avoid a danger to navigation while transiting a narrow channel if the available sea
room is less?
•Navigate woth caution so that cross crack distance must be kept to minimum
•Navigate with caution and monitor the ships position regularly
•Navigate with caution so that cross track error should be kept at zero
•Navigate with caution and follow the cross track as planned
37. How would you show your understanding of the objective of vessel traffic services?
•It contribute to the protection of offshore installations
•It contribute to the protection of work sites
•It contribute to the ship security procedures.
•It contribute to the protection of marine environment
38. What statement would you consider for the purpose of planning a safe passage?
•The existence of obstruction to navigation
•The movement of shipping is inhibited by restricted searoom
•The avoidance of adverse currents and shipping seas
•Unfavourable weather conditions
39. How do you describe an ice blink?

•It is a reddish white glare on the underside of a cloud layer.
•It is a yellowish white glare on the underside of a cloud layer
•It is a light white glare on the underside of a cloud layer
•It is an orange-white glare on the underside of a cloud layer.
40. How would you ensure that the required level of accuracy of position fixing is full achieved as planned
while transiting narrow canals?
•By incorporating parallel indexing during the passages including harpour entrances
•By incorporating parallel index on selected floating objects along the river
•By incorporating parallel index on selected fixed objects along the river
•By incorporating parallel index in varoius legs of the passage
•Head your vessel slightly to the right
•A triangular topmark is composed of buoys marking the channels starboardside from seaward while a
cardinal topmark is marking the point of interest
•An area with defined limits which should be avoided bv all ships
•You should consult the Coast Pilot
•Section III
•Take the vessel to suitable anchorage nearby and instigate repairs

•To the direction south of your position
•Vessel response includes an individual ship identification number
•It improve the safety of navigation in areas where freedom of movement of shipping is being inhibited
being inhibited.
•It is plotted in a precautionary area
•Uniform procedures
•50%
•By keeping the vessel on the track that is planned

•Systematic observation of targets through the use of ARPA
•7 - 8 tenths
•It contribute to the protection of marine environment
•The movement of shipping is inhibited by restricted searoom
•It is a yellowish white glare on the underside of a cloud layer
•By incorporating parallel index on selected fixed objects along the river
21. When you are steering your course on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the
lower light what you should do for safety of navigation?
•You should come to the right of the range light.
•You should come to the left of the range light
•You should wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line.
•You should continue on the present course.
22. What would be the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 215°15'?
•35°15'W
•35°15'E
•144°45'E
•144°45'W
23. What is the used of the equation of time taken from the Nautical Almanac for the use in celestial
navigation?
•It is used to determine time of local apparent noon.
•It is used to determine the time of sunrise and sunset.
•It is used to determine the local mean time.
•It is used to determine the zone time.
24. The height of the observer eye is 14.0 meters; Dip 6.6' and refraction1.7' : The observed sextant
altitude of star Dubhe was 29° 17.2' . What is the true altitude of star Dubhe if the index error is 1.8' off
the arc? LOWEST
•29° 10.7'
•29° 29.2'
•29° 19.7'
•29° 27.3’
25. If you are approaching a light fitted with a RACON, how could you identified the light on the radar?
•A circle appearing on the scope surrounding the light.
•A dashed line running from the the center of the scope of light.
•An audible signal when the sweep crosses the light.
•A coded signal apperaing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light.
26. What is the estimated distance that you will sight the light if the visibility is 20 miles and your eye
height is 20ft, given that the light list specifies that a light as a 20-mile nominal range and 52ft height?
•20.0 nm
•33.0 nm
•13.5 nm
•8.5 nm
7. The observed sextant altitude of star Pollux was 31° 17.2’, index error 1.8’ off the arc,
observer height of eye is 15 meters, with the following apparaent correction, dip 6.8’and
refraction 1.6’. What is the true altitude of star Pollux? LOWEST
•31° 10.6
•31° 22.2’
•31° 13.8’
•31° 20.6’
28. What is the reason why the Moon upper limb observation is used more often than those of Sun which
is observe in the lower limb?
•Because of the location of the moon and the rapid change of its declination.
•Because of the effect of augmentation and horizontal parallax.
•Because of the location of the Moon in sky and its phase.
•Because of the Moon lesser distance in the Earth
29. When does the ARPA swap targets when automatically tracking two targets?
•When the target tracked on the same bearing.
•When the targets pass close together.
•When the targets are tracked on reciprocal bearing.
•when the targets are at the same range.
30. What is the angular difference between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the observer?
•Zenith distance
•Meridian angle
•Nadir
•Right ascension
31. An object that is 70ft above water, what estimated geographic visibility for an observer with a 65ft
eye height it can be seen?
•20.6 nm
•16.8 nm
•22.4 nm
•19.0 nm
32. What is the term when the intercept of an observed star is plotted on a navigational chart?
•Line of Range
•Line of Fixed
•Line of position
•Line of Relative bearings
33. Can you identify which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of
index error? I = I/H not parallel
•Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame.
•Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel.
•Telescope not being parallel to the frame.
•Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame.
34. What appear to be your radar setting if your ship is displayed in the middle of the PPI scope, with the
heading flash set 359 degrees?
•In a True motion display
•Relative motion course-up stabilized display
•Relative motion unstabilized display
•Relative motion north-up display
35. What is meant when a planetary aberration is due?

•It is in part to the body's orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach Earth.
•It is the observed false horizon.
•It is the apparent motion of the body in relation to the rotation of the Earth on its axis.
•It is the refraction of light as it enters the Earth's atmosphere.
36. When position intersect to form a triangle, how would you determine the vessel’s position?
•Navigate with caution so that cross crack distance must be kept to minimum
•The position is anywhere in the triangle.
•The position is in the geometric center of the triangle
•The position is outside of the triangle
37. Your vessel is equipped with both 10cm and a 3 cm RADAR. In what function do you think a 3 cm
radar is a better provider?
•Range discrimination
•Bearing resolution
•Range resolution
•Bearing discrimination
38. If you are on the northern hemisphere, what is the name of the so called pole star?
•Polaris
•Allioth
•Dubhe
•Alkaid
39. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
•Three
•Two
•Four
•One
40. How would you correct your sextant if you have an excessive index error? I = H/S perpendicular
•Adjust the horizon glass to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame.
•Adjust the horizon glass to make it perpendicular to the index mirror with the index set at zero.
•Telescope to make it parallel to the sextant frame.
•Adjust the horizon glass to make it parallel to the horizon mirror with the index set at zero.
21. How would you identify the error of your magnetic compass if it has no deviation?
•The compass error is equal to the gaussian error.
•The compass error is equal to variation.
•The compass has no error.
•The compass error is equal to quadrantal error.
22. Which of the following nautical table published for the rapid solution of solving plain sailing, also
covers to solve distances up to 600 miles and among others such as amplitude?
•Transverse table
•Distance table
•Traverse table
•Amplitude table
23. What should you apply when changing from a compass course to a true course ?
•Deviation
•Variation
•Variation and deviation
•Gyro error
24. Where is the point where the magnetic field is vertical?

•Magnetic pole
•South Pole
•North pole
•Zenith
25. What will happen if a gyroscope is placed at the equator with the spin axis pointing E-W, as the earth
turn on its own axis?
•Gyroscope spin axis will be affected greatly by earth rotation.
•Gyroscopic inertia will tend to keep the plane of rotation constant.
•Gyroscope spinning inertia maintain the direction of its pointing
•Gyroscope tendency is to emulate the function of magnetic compass.
26. To determine your true course what should you apply to the compass coure?
•deviation
•variation and deviation
•variation
•a correction for the direction of current set
27. Which of the following statement about the Flinders bar on a magnetic compass is TRUE?
•It corrects the semi-quadrantal error at intercardinal headings.
•It is to compensates for the error caused by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.
•It reduces the deviation into half.
•It allows the magnetic compass to move freely in the fluid.
28. Based on what you know, what will happen to the compass card of a magnetic compass when a vessel
changes course to starboard?
•It will also also turns to starboard.
•It will turns counterclockwise to port.
•It will remain remain aligned with compass north.
•It will first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port.
29. What is the angular difference between true north and the magnetic meridian?
•Gyro error
•Deviation
•Variation
•Compass error
30. What does the lubber line of a magnetic compass indicates?

•It is located on the compass card.
•It is the indication of the vessel's heading.
•It indicate the true north direction
•It is always parallel to the vessel transom.
31. Which statement is true about the directive force of a gyrocompass?

•It increase with latitude being maximum at the geographical poles.
•It is greatest when the vessel is near the earth magnetic equator.
•It decrease with latitude and maximum at geographical equator.
•It remain the same in all latitude
32. Which of the following is a cause of compass variation?

•Magnetism due to the instrument installed near the magnetic compass.
•Magnetism acquired from cargo onboard.
•Magnetism from the earth magnetic field.
•Magnetism effect due to lack of oil in compass moving parts.
33. The ships's total magnetic force is split into three components, Which is not a component forces of
ship total magnetic force?
•athwartships component
•directive force component
•vertical component
•fore and aft component
34. You are proceeding up a channel at night marked by a range light bearing 135°. You steady up your
course at 130° with the range dead ahead. What does this indicates?
•Your compass has an easterly error.
•You compass has a weasterly error.
•Your course is in error.
•You are being affected by southerly current.
35. What is the caused of variation of a magnetic compass?

•lack of oil in the compass bearings
•worn gears in the compass housing
•magnetism from the earth magnetic field
•magnetism within the vessel
36. What factor produces oscillations in the directive force of a gyro which creates temporary dislocation
in its direction until it is oriented?
•Changes in speed only
•Erratic power supply
•Changes in course only
•Changes in the course and speed
37. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earths, which statement is
TRUE?
•Compass north will be true north.
•There will be no compass error.
•Variation will equal deviation.
•Compass error and variation are equal.
38. What is the cause of variation which affects the directive force of a magnetic compass of a ship?
•The magnetic force from the earth magnetic field
•The magnetism within the vessel
•The worn gears within the compass housing
•The lack of oil in the compass bearings and points
39. How does the directive force of gyro compass work?

•It is greatest when a vessel is near the EarthVs magnetic equator
•It remains the same at all latitudes
•It increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic poles.
•It decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
40. The plotted course between two points is 090T . What course will you steer the magnetic compass if
the variation in the locality is 12E, and the magtnetic compass deviation is 5 E?
•You should steer course to 102 PSC
•You should steer the course to 073 PSC
•The compass error is equal to variation.
•Traverse table
•Variation and deviation
•Magnetic pole
•Gyroscopic inertia will tend to keep the plane of rotation constant.
•variation and deviation
•It is to compensates for the error caused by the vertical component of the earthVs
magnetic field.
•It will remain remain aligned with compass north.
•Variation
•It is the indication of the vessel's heading.
•It decrease with latitude and maximu at geographical equator.
•Magnetism from the earth magnetic field.
•directive force component
•Your compass has an easterly error.
•magnetism from the earth magnetic field

•Changes in the course and speed
•Compass error and variation are equal.
•The magnetic force from the earth magnetic field
•It decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
•You should steer the course to 073 PSC

21. These are the three (3) types of 406 MHz distress beacons EXCEPT:
•The aeronautical emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
•Local User Terminals (LUT)
•The personal locator beacon (PLB)
•The maritime emergency position indicating radio beacon (EPIRB)
22. In SAR operations, how would you categorize the situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that
a vessel or other craft including an aircraft or a person is threatened by a grave
and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance?
•Distress alert
•Distress phase
•Emergency alert
•Emergency phase
23. What is the rescue coordination center responsible for both aeronautical and maritime search and
rescue incidents and operations?
•Mission Control Center (MOC)
•Rescue Subcenter (RSC)
•Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)
•Joint Rescue Coordination Center (JRCC)
24. To exhibit a distress signal without using the GMDSS sub-system (equipment), which of
the following should be EXECUTED as to get attention of nearby vessels?
•Firing of green star
•Parachute red flare
•The use of EPIRB
•The use of NAVTEX receiver
25. Which of the following aeronautical-on-scene frequencies may be jointly used by aircraft and vessels
engaged in SAR operations?
•123.1 MHz
•243 MHz
•123.5 MHz
•144 - 146 MHz
26. What is the IAMSAR procedure word that is used to separate portions of a message or one message
from another?
•Affirmative
•Roger
•Negative
•Break
27. The phases of emergency at sea established for classifying incidents and determining the
actions to be taken are the following EXCEPT:
•Uncertainty phase
•Alert phase
•Critical phase
•Distress phase
28. How should the personnel basket be lowered to pick up personnel from a boat?
•It should be dropped in the water
•It should be lowered over open water
•It should be tied to the vessel with a tag line
•It should be tied to the rig with a tag line
29. In SAR operations what is the period during which preliminary action is taken to alert SAR facilities
and obtain amplifying information?
•Operation stage
•Conclusion stage
•Initial action stage
•Awareness stage
30. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
•Vertical motion of a flag
•Green star rocket
•Red star rocket
•Orange smoke signal
31. When a ship has been reported overdue at destination or it has failed to make an expected position
of safety report, the emergency phase declared is?
•Critical phase
•SAR phase
•Distress phase
32. When evacuating a crew by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?
•A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area.
•A course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure
•Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil.
•With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.
33. What is an Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Rescue System (AMVER)?

•A satellite based distress and safety alerting program operated by US Coast Guard
•A coordinated Radio Direction Finding effort between the Federal Communications Commision and US
Coast Guard to assist ships in distress
•An international system operated by the US Coast Guard providing coordination of search and rescue
efforts
•A voluntary organization of mariners who maintain radio watch on 500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.800 MHz
34. What is the point normally specified by Search and Rescue Mission where a SAR facility is to begin its
search pattern?
•Search and Rescue Point of Contact
•Commence Search Point
•Search and Rescue Region Point
•Search and Rescue Point of Coordination
35. What is the main function of the On Scene Co-ordinator (OSC) with respect to distress
communication?
•Fix the position of the casualty using an EPIRB
•Develop the search action plan and rescue action plan as appropriate
•Maintain communication with all Search and Rescue (SAR) facilities
•Recover and switch off the EPIRB
36. During a rescue operations, what method is used when a helicopter uses a special device for hoisting
or lowering persons with rescue sling and a seating belt from the water or deck?
•Multiple lift method
•Combo-lift method
•Double lift method
•Combined lift method
37. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft?
•Flashing Morse T
•Opening and closing the throttle
•Flashing the navigational lights off and on
•Rocking the wings
38. What do you call the period during which the SAR system becomes aware of an actual or potential
incident?
•SAR stage
•Awareness stage
•Conclusion stage
•Planning stage
39. What is the term used in search operation at sea to a geographic point, line, or area used
as a reference in search planning?
•Datum line
•Datum point
•Datum area
•Datum
40. What lifesaving signal you will send signifying "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as
possible"?
•Horizontal motion with a white flag
•Code letter K by blinker light
•Vertical motion of a white light
•3 white star signals
•Local User Terminals (LUT)
•Distress phase
•Joint Rescue Coordination Center (JRCCI
•Parachute red flare
•123.1 MHz
•Break
•Critical phase
•It should be lowered over open water
•Initial action stage
•Orange smoke signal
•A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area.
•An international system operated by the US Coast Guard providing coordination of search and rescue
efforts
•Commence Search Point

•Maintain communication with all Search and Rescue (SAR) facilities
•Double lift method
•Opening and closing the throttle
•Awareness stage
•Datum
•3 white star signals

21. Where it is stipulated that watchkeepers take mandatory rest periods of at least 10 hours in 24 hours
period?
•SOLAS
•ISM
•STCW Code
•ILO
22. In the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, as amended, what is NOT
included in the following choices about the term "other similar cause" which is found in Rule 3 (1)?
•Sandstorms
•Thunderstorms
•Falling snow
•Heavy rainstorm
23. What particular actions will a sailing vessels avoid when she is in doubt if whether she is a stand-on or
give way vessel?
•Do substantial actions according to the Rule
•Take early actions to keep out
•Remain stand-on all the time
•Observe positive approach to the situation
24. You are operating a vessel in a narrow channel. Your vessel must stay within the channel to be
navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as
to his intentions. What action are you going to do accordingly?
•May sound the danger signal.

•Are required to back down
•Must sound one prolonged and two short blasts.
•Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and speed.
25. What is generally used to an open navigable passage of water, or the channel dredged that has been
considered to be deep water channel which may be marked by pecked lines on the chart?
•Fairway
•Narrow channel
•Inshore Traffic Zone
•Traffic Separation Scheme
26. What is routeing measure comprising a designated area between the landward boundary of a traffic
separation scheme and the adjacent coast to be used in accordance with the provisions of Rule 10 (c)?
•Separation Line
•Inshore Traffic Zone
•Separation Zone
•Traffic Lane
27. Which of the following provisions in the convention that deals on watchkeeping?
•Title II of MLC 2006
•Cahpter VIII of the STCW Code
•Chapter XI of the SOLAS 1974
•Regulation 1 of the STCW Convention
28. Under Rule 19 of the COLREGs, what should be your course of action if you detect another vessel by
radar alone?
•Contiinue to observe the other vessel.
•Switch to manual steering.
•Determine if collision exists.
•Maintain a steady course and speed.
29. How do you arrange the items as per correct chain of assessments for the risk of collision?
•Awareness-Adjudication-Administration-Assessment
•Observe-Decide-Assess-Act
•Plan-Do-Check-Act
•Think-Manage-Assess-Administer
30. How does a vessel determine that she is deem to be overtaking a vessel?
•When seen in the aft are the stern light and aft masthead light
•It has horizontal sectors abaft her beam uo to 27.5°
•If your vessel is within angular sector of 135° of the stern light
•When the sector of the stern light is 67.5° from aft part of either side ahead
31. What is the "rudder adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand is used for?
•To set the number of degrees of rudder per degree of course error
•Set the rate at which the rudder responds
•Set the departure from base course before actuating the rudder
•Align the rudder angle indicator with the true rudder angle
32. Where can you see the sidelights of the object or vessel being pushed but not in composite unit
according to Rule 24 (f)?
•Anywhere as long as it can be best seen
•Side of the vessel's bridge
•At the after end
•At the forward end
33. A vessel is entering port and has Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure that the Pilot is taking
sufficeint action to prevent a collision, what should the Master do?
•Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and achor necessary ntil the situation clear
•State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of the vessel
•Nothing, the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety of the vessel
•Recommend an alternative action and if not followed, relieve the Pilot
34. Where do you used the "weather adjustment" control on the autopilot steering stand?
•Allow leeway according to the weather conditions.
•Proportionally set the number of degrees of rudder response per degree of course error
•Set the speed at which the rudder responds.
•Set the null band or dead zone signal before actuating the rudder.
35. While navigating in restricted visibility, you hear forward of your beam a a fog signal of another
vessel, how will you act?
•Alter course to starboard
•Reduce speed to bare steerageway
•Make a 180° turn
•Alter course to port
36. You are a vessel following a traffic lane and another large power-driven vessel is crossing the scheme
ahead of you. She is a " crossing vessel" under the Rules and she is on your starboard bow, and you
consider that risk of collision exists. What conclusion should you do in this scenario?
•You should comply with the collision Regulation only if you can do so without crossing a separation line or
zone.
•You should leave the traffic lane so that you will have full freedom to maneuver.
•You should comply with the Collision Regulation as the give-wav vessel.
37. The "Mode" selector switch in the Gyro Stand can be positioned and select all of the following
EXCEPT?
•Non-follow up control.
•Hand-electric steering.
•Automatic gyro.
•Weather adjustments.
38. Your vessel is underway in fog and you hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and
two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel of what?
•Constrained by her draft
•Engaged in mine clearance
•Engaged in fishing
•Being towed
39. Why dredgers are not required to show anchor lights and shapes when conducting an
underwater operation where obstruction will exist under the provision of Rule 27 of the
COLREG's?
•It is exempted as long as long as she is going to show flag signal that there are divers
down doing the underwater operations
•She is not allowed to show if the size of the vessel is less than 12 meters and doing an
underwater operation
•It is logically insufficient to indicate that she cannot deviate immediately due to her
nature of work
•It is important to show if the size of the vessel is showing lights of RAM when she is
more than 100 meters in length
40. In any one week, how many hours of mandatory rest periods for watchkeepers should have? Basing
facts on the Maritime Labour Convention 2006, in any one week, how many hours of mandatory rest
periods for watchkeepers should they have?
•70 hours
•48 hours
•72 hours
•56 hours
21. Which mode of the ARPA that when it is used properly, it will produce greater accuracy?
•Sea stabilized.
•Ground stabilized.
•Relative motion.
•True motion.
22. What is dangerous in operating the ARPA in mixed mode over time?
•The target warnings are no longer relevant.
•Forgetting that this actually is a mixed mode.
•The ARPA symbols becomes unstable.
•Overloading the computer.
23. With the radar on, what should be your best action when navigating in thick fog?
•Station the lookout in the wheelhouse to keep a continuous watch on the radar.
•Keep the radar on the shortest available range for early detection approaching vessels.
•Secure the sounding of fog signals until a vessel closes within five miles.
•Station a look-out as low down and far forward as possible.
24. While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 5.5
seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?
•3825 ft (1166 meters).
•3540 ft (1052 meters).
•3072 ft (936 meters).
•2475 ft (754 meters).
25. In what time frame must an ARPA produce a relative motion with 95% accuracy and CPA/TCPA?
•4 minutes.
•6 minutes.
•3 minutes.
•1 minute.
26. What does it indicates when a doppler log is set in the bottom return mode?
•Depth of the water
•Bottom characteristics
•Speed over the around
•Velocity of the current
27. What is the typical amount of time an ARPA would take to process and predict data?
•5 to 10 minutes.
•10 to 20 minutes.
•1 to 3 minutes.
•20 to 30 minutes.
28. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Automatic Identification Systems (AIS)?
•AIS can be relied upon as the sole means to determinie risk of collision and safe speed.
•AIS provides the other vessel's identity dimensions and navigational status regardless of visibility.
•AIS will not provide information on anoither vesseis indistinguishable in radar sea clutter.
•AIS is designed to replace ARPA, maneuvering boards and visual bearings as a means to ascertain the risk
of collision.
29. While in area of restricted visibility, a fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam is heard.
What action should you NOT do?
•Stop engine.
•Communicate and plot in radar.
•Navigate with caution.
•Keep course and speed.
30. What is a major component of a radar system which amplifies the weak echoes received thus
retaining its distinctive shapes?
•Indicator
•Receiver
•Duplexer
•Transmitter
31. What is the purpose of the function "Anticlutter" on the radar?

•Reduce the range
•Find the TCPA
•Reduce disturbance from electrical equipment
•Reduce the sea echoes
32. What is the importance of a wide vertical scanner beam in heavy weather?
•To reduce loss of beam targets
•Lower refraction
•To decrease sea return.
•To increase the range.
33. What happens to the tracking accuracy of an ARPA as the range increases?
•Scatters.
•Increases.
•Smoothens.
•Decreases.
34. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you take?
•Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been reduced.
•Increase the range of the inner and outer guard rings.
•Increase the STC setting to reduce close-in spurious signals.
•Increase the radar gain to pick up weak echoes through the rain.
35. Two power-driven vessels are crossing so as to involve risk of collision, which statement is TRUE
according to the Rules?
•If the stand-on-vessel takes action, she shall avoid changing course to port.
•The give way vessel should keep the other vessel to her starboard.
•If the stand-on-vessel takes action, she shall avoid changing course to starboard.
•The vessel which has the other on hew own port side shall keep out of the way.
36. What is the ability of a radar to separate targets close together on the same bearing but at different
ranges?
•Refraction in range.
•Attenuation in range.
•Resolution in range.
•Diffraction in range.
37. What should be the size of the display on which ARPA information with alphanumerical data area
around it is presented?
•Display diameter should be at least 340 mm.
•Display diameter should be at least 300 mm
•Display diameter should be at 250 mm.
•Display diameter should be at least 200 mm.
38. What is the ability of a radar to separate targets close together on the same bearing?
•Refraction in range
•Diffraction in range
•Attenuation in range
•Resolution in range
39. What is the process of calculating target motion based on past positions by an ARPA?
•Smoothing.
•Rate aiding.
•Tracking.
•Steady state tracking.
40. Under Rule 19, you are conning the vessel in restricted visibility, what is the MOST important action if
you get into a close quarters situation with a vessel forward of the beam?
•Reverse your engine until all way is lost.
•Activate a second radar, if fitted until danger of collision is over.
•Navigate with caution until danger of collision is over.
•Post a forward lookout.
21. What do you call the inner cloud bands of a hurricane, when viewed from a distance, form a mass of
dense, black cumulonimbus clouds?
•Bar of the storm
•Funnel
•Eye of the storm
•Rain bands
22. In a working copy of a weather map, a cold front is presented by what color line?
•Alternate purple and magenta line
•Blue
•Red
•Alternate red and blue line
23. What will a veering wind do? Shift in direction "clockwise"

•Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner in the Southern Hemisphere.
•Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere.
•Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere.
•Vary in strenght constantly and unpredictably in the Southern Hemisphere.
24. A tropical storm is building strength some distance from your vessel. Waves are coming from the East,
with periods increasing from 5 seconds to 15 seconds. The swell is from the East. Where was the storm
when these new swells were generated?
•To the South of you

•To the East of you
•To the West of you
•To the North of you
25. What does a microbiograph as a precision instrument measures?

•Charted record of athmospheric temperature over time
•Graphic record of combuatible gasses measured in an athmosphere
•Charted records of atmospheric pressure overtime
•Graphic record of vapor pressure from a flammable/combustible liquid
26. Due to Coriolis effect, how do the water in the Northern Hemisphere moves?
•Counterclockwise
•Clockwise
•Horizontal
•Vertical
27. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. What winds
are known along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the East?
•Horse latitudes
•Doldrums
•Geostrophic winds
•Prevailing westerlies
28. When is a tide be called diurnal?

•The high tide is higher and the low tide is lower tyhan usual.
•Only one high and one low water occur during a lunar day.
•Two high tides occur during a lunar day.
•The high tide and low tide are exactly six hours apart.
29. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides occur?
•Apogean
•Neap
•Perigean
•Spring
30. Where will you find information about the time of high tide at a specific location on a particular day
of
the year?
•Tidal Current Tables
•Tide Tables
•Coast Pilot
•Nautical Almanac
31. What is the large scale region of clockwise spinning air that tends to bring a lack of precipitation?
•Cyclone
•Vort max
•Jet stream
•Anticyclone
32. What are the prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5 to 30 degrees N?
•Northeast trade winds
•West wind drift
•Horse latitudes
33. What are the known winds that you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between
Latitude 5A° and 30A° S?
•Trades
•Westerlies
•Easterlies
•Doldrums
34. What is another name for 30 degrees North or South Latitude?

•Northeasterlies.
•Doldrums.
•Horse Latitude.
•Roaring thirties.
35. What do you call the belt of light and variable winds between the Westerly wind belt and the
Northeast trade winds?
•Conveyor belt
•Subtropical high pressure belt
•OrionVs belt
•High pressure belt
36. In the Northern Hemisphere, what do you call the wind that shifts counterclockwise?
•Backing wind
•Reverse wind
•Chinook wind
•Veering wind
37. On a working copy of a weather map, what is the color of the line that represents a warm front?
•Purple
•Blue
•Red
•Green
38. Which of the following weather changes accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern
Hemisphere?
•A line of cumulonimbous clouds.
•Steady precipitation.
•Wind shift from Northeast clockwise to Southwest.
•Falling barometer pressure.
39. On the main body of a Pilot Chart, what is indicated by a solid green arrows?
•Probable surface current flow.
•Shortest great circle routes.
•Prevailing wind directions.
•Prevailing ocean current directions.
40. What type of of tide will occur when the declination of the moon is at maximum North?
•Tropic tides
•Neap tides
•Mixed-type tides
•Equatorial tides
23. What will a veering wind do? Shift in direction clockwise

•Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner in the Southern Hemisphere.
•Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere.
•Vary in strenght constantly and unpredictably in the Southern Hemisphere.
25. What does a microbiograph as a precision instrument measures?

•Charted record of athmospheric temperature over time
•Graphic record of combuatible gasses measured in an athmosphere
•Graphic record of vapor pressure from a flammable/combustible liquid
26. Due to Coriolis effect, how do the water in the Northern Hemisphere moves?
•Counterclockwise
•Clockwise
•Horizontal
•Vertical
27. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. What winds
are known along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the East?
•Horse latitudes
•Doldrums
•Geostrophic winds
36. In the Northern Hemisphere, what do you call the wind that shifts counterclockwise?
•Backing wind
•Reverse wind
•Chinook wind
•Veering wind
38. Which of the following weather changes accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern
Hemisphere?
•Steady precipitation.
•Wind shift from Northeast clockwise to Southwest.
•Falling barometer pressure.
40. What type of of tide will occur when the declination of the moon is at maximum North?
•Tropic tides
•Neap tides
•Mixed-type tides
•Equatorial tides
•Bar of the storm
•Blue
•To the East of you
•Clockwise
•Only one high and one low water occur during a lunar day.
•Neap
•Tide Tables
•Vort max
•Northeast trade winds
•Trades
•Horse Latitude.
•Subtropical high pressure belt

•Backing wind - turn coungter clockwise
•Red
•Prevailing ocean current directions.
•Tropic tides

•Clockwise
•Backing wind - turn coungter clockwise
•Tropic tides
21. What should be done beore passing a tow?:
•Be satisfied all radio equipment are working and ready for immediate use.
•Be satisfied that vour vessel is large and powerful enough to handle the tow
•That sufficient protection from elements for passengers and crew
•That the required safety equipment is carried and operational
22. What should be considered throughout the beaching process to ensure that the vessel can be
refloated without assistance?
•To have a minimal fuel onboard.
•To take ballast before beaching.
•To drop anchor to hold the vessel.
•To retain the cargo onboard.
23. What does "end for end" mean in regard to a towing hawser?
•To ncrease the catenary,
•To take the kinks out of the hawser to minimize tear,
•To take it down in figure eights,
•To swap ends of the hawser to minimize wear.
24. What is the SOLAS regulation for all ships' steering gear system?
•The ship main/auxilliarv steering gear shall be so arranged that the failure of one of them will not render
the other inoperative.
•The ship main steering gear is capable of operating the rudder as required while operating with all
power units.
•The ship main steering gear after a single failure in its piping can be isolated so that the steering
capability can be maintained.
•The ship main steering gear shall be capable of operating the rudder required while one power is out of
operartion.
25. What is the surest tow line at hand available in a merchant vessel for a deep sea towing during heavy
weather?
•5 inches Manila rope.
•Manila hawser and chain cable.
•Chain cable.
•Wire rope and chain cable.
26. As a Master, how would you ensure that rudder system is compliance with regulatory requirements?
•Request for a two yearly survey bv Class.
•Request for a five yearly survey by Class.
•Request for a yearly survey by Class.
•Request for a bi-yearly survey by Class.
27. What is the "Port-Off-Stbd" selector switch on an autopilot steering stand is used for?
•To change over hand electric steering to non-follow up.
•To change from hand electric steering to automatic gyro.
•To change over the port to the starboard bow thruster.
•To change over one steering system to the other.
28. What do you call the deliberate throwing overboard of cargo or equipment to lighten or relieve a
vessel in peril, or to refloat a stranded ship or to right a ship badly listed, or on her beam end?
•Jettison
•Flotsam
•Jetsam
•Derelict
29. You are a Senior officer on deck on a laden tanker which has collided with a smaller vessel. What
should your first action be?
•Call the company immediately and ask for further procedures
•Identify the extent of damage to own vessel and take necessary steps to safeguard the complement
H9
•Make a statement and hold the other vessel responsible for the collision
•Write down the story as favourable as possible seen from your own point of view. Make sure that
your log books tell your story
30. During towing operation, what imminent danger results from tripping?
•Your tug being pulled backwards by your tow.
•Capsizing your tug.
•A crewmember being knocked over the side.
•The tow being thrown off course.
31. When is a tow is said to be "is tripped"?

•It is overtaken by the tow.
•It is pulled sideways by the tow.
•The propeller is fouled by the towing hawser.
•The weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability.
32. What should be avoided when executing ship beaching?

•Sounding of all tanks must be done before beaching.
•Ballast the ship to its maximum capacity.
•Head with the damage side fro beaching 90 degrees to the tide.
•Approach parallel to the beach and dropping anchor on leeside.
33. If the vessel's rudder is in place but damage, what should you do?
•Use the anchor chain across the trailing edge of the rudder to secure it in amidships postion.
•Through the access hole, attach the shackle and enable the rudder to be tied off.
•Use the synthetic rope eye and attach it to the access hole using a fid for easy fittng.
•Cut down rudder post using electric arc welding, then weld it temporarily to the ship's side.
34. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be
taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?
•Shift weight to the bow
•Shift weight to the stern
•Throw excess weight overboard
•Shift weight to the center of the boat
35. A towing vessel becomes tripped while towing on a hawser astern. What factor is MOST important
when assessing the risk of capsizing?
•Length of the towline.
•Height of the towline connection.
•Longitudinal position of the towline connection.
•Direction of opposing force.
36. Regarding deadweight cocks and screw caps for double bottom tank sounding pipes, i.e. engine
cofferdam, bilge tank, D.O. double bottom etc. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
•Caps should be placed on top ot the sounding pipes to keep the engine room tidy.
•Deadweight cocks should be fastened in the open position to save time when sounding the tanks.
•It does not matter where the cocks/caps are, unless when using the tanks.
•Caps and cocks should be closed at all times, to prevent ingress of water into the engine room in case of
tank bottom damage
37. When towing astern, what equipment should be stowed ready for use near the towline?
•Blow torch.
•Crow bar
•Bosun's knife.
•Axe or cutting torch
38. Which statement is true about the use of a "gob rope"

•The gob rope is a mooring line for tying up lighters for working cargo alongside a vessel anchored in an
open roadstead.
•The gob rope is a line hung over a vessel's side to assist in boarding.
•The gob rope is a rope used in mooring a vessel to a buoy.
•The gob rope is used to secure the towline aft over the centerline of the tug.
39. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has
a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard
aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct the situation?
•Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the list.
•Pump out any slack after double bottom tanks to reduce free surface and increase freeboard aft.
•Pump out the after peak tank and fill the fore peak tank to change the trim.
•Press up any slack double bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty.
40. What should the you tell to the Officer on Watch to do FIRSTLY in the event of accidental grounding?
•Maintain an adequate lookout until the situation is corrected.
•Consider alternative means of propulsion/steerage, etc. to get under way.
•Take bearings and plot vour position.
•Notify the safety authorities of your situation and position.
•Be satisfied that vour vessel is large and powerful enough to handle the tow
•To take ballast before beaching.
•To swap ends of the hawser to minimize wear.
•The ship main/auxilliarv steering gear shall be so arranged that the failure of one of them will not render
the other inoperative.
•Chain cable.
•Request for a two yearly survey bv Class.

•To change over one steering system to the other.
•Jettison
•Identify the extent of damage to own vessel and take necessary steps to safeguard the complement
H9
•Capsizing your tug.
•It is pulled sideways by the tow.
•Approach parallel to the beach and dropping anchor on leeside.
•Through the access hole, attach the shackle and enable the rudder to be tied off.
•Shift weight to the stern

•Height of the towline connection.
•Caps and cocks should be closed at all times, to prevent ingress of water into the engine room in case of
tank bottom damage
•Axe or cutting torch
•The gob rope is used to secure the towline aft over the centerline of the tug.
•Press up any slack double bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty.
•Take bearings and plot vour position.

21. MV JERINEB a refeer container vessel entering a shallow at high speed. How would you describe the
common occurrence she will experience?
•Her bow will suck down farther than the stern.
•Her maneuverability will increase
•she will rise slightly on a level plane
•Her speed will increase
22. You arrived on your designated anchorage position. You execute engine astern prior to letting go the
anchor. How will you identify that your vessel has stopped and making no way in order to let go your
anchor?
•The GPS speed indicates zero

•The shipVs doppler log reads zero
•An azimuth bearing on the beam remains steady
•The backwash of the propeller reaches amidships.
23. How would you identify the best time for the ship to work in the slipway?
•when the wind against you
•at slack water
•with a cross current
•with the current setting against you
24. During a rescue operation in heavy seas, identify from the following statement how should the
helmsman steer the motor lifeboat?
•He should steer in a series of figure of eight
•He should steer into the seas slightly off the bow.
•He should steer broadside to the seas
•He should steer in the same direction as the seas
25. Your vessel is stopped without headway and you are at the pilot station. Your vessel is a twin . Screw
ship. You must come around 180° to board the pilot. What approach would you use to turn the ship
fastest in the least amount of space?
•Half ahead with hard over the rudder, then full astern on inboard engine.
•Full ahead on one engine full astern on the other.
•Slow ahead with hard over rudder
•Full ahead on the engines and hard over rudder.
26. Identify from the following MOB rescue device that it can take the form of a hammock or strecher for
the rescue of weakened or injured people when the "top" and "bottom" of the net are lowered to the
water level so they can simply roll into it?
•Laerdal BaXstrap Spineboard
•Patient Carry sheet
•Jason cradle
•Scrambling net
27. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. What action to
execute before positioning your vessel to pass the towline?
•Reduce speed and put the sea on starboard tack.
•Full speed in order to get off the area.
•Reduce speed and put the sea on port tack.
•Continue the voyage at sea speed.
28. How would you apply COLREG Rule 10b(ii) when using the TSS?
•join or leave a traffic lane 45 degrees angle to the general direction of traffic flow,
•join or leave a traffic lane at as large angle to the general direction of traffic flow
•join or leave a traffic lane at as small an angle to the general direction of traffic flow
•join or leave a traffic lane at 90 degrees angle to the general direction of traffic flow.
29. What approach would you apply when anchoring using both anchors and you desire to keep the
swing of the stern to port?
•Keep both anhors slack
•Keep holding the starboard anchor
•Keep holding both anchors
•Keep holding the port anchor
30. You are docking a ship with a single-screw tug assisting on your starboard bow. How should the tug
be tied up if you are anticipating that she will have to hold your bow off while you stem the current?
•The tug would need at least two head lines.
•The tug should put a spring line up, leading astern on the ship.
•One head line would be sufficient
•The tug should put a stern line up. leading ahead on the ship.
31. MV JERINEB is proceeding alongside using one tug to assist in mooring. Identify which position and
how do you want to use the tug?
•Tug to push at vesseIVs flat side where it is needed.
•Tug to make fast forward to pull when needed
•Tug to make fast on the twd shoulder to push and pull.
•Tug to make fast aft to pull when needed.
32. What is your preferrence if possible when you are docking a vessel?
•I should go in with the current
•I should go in against the current
•I should approach the dock at a 90° angle and swing to
•I should pass a mooring line to the dock with a heaving line and let the crew pull the vessel in.
33. Your vessel is approaching Gamboa at Panama canal while proceeding along the right bank on a
narrow channel. Your vessel start to sheer due to bank suction/cushion effect. Choose from the following
action the pilot will execute?
•He will give full astern and rudder amidship

•He will stop the engines and put the rudder hard port
•He will decrease speed and put the rudder hard starboard.
•He will increase speed and put the rudder hard staroard
34. When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel propeller is being lifted out of the water
and racing. What would be the correct way to avoid this?
•Decrease speed
•Shift the rudder back and forth several times.
•Move more weight forward
•Increase speed
35. What immediate action would you do if you observed that your anchor is dragging?
•Heave up anchor and re anchor
•Pay out more chain cables.
•Wait until dragging stop.
•Inform the owners.
36. What will be the alternative action using a single turn method to a man overboard?
•if the vessel is very maneuverable
•if the conning officer is inexperienced
•if a boat will be used to recover the man
•if the man is immediately seen as he falls overboard
37. Which of the following situations will most likely happen, if you are using the anchor to steady the
bow while maneuvering?
•Bow will be held in position while the engine is coming slowly ahead
•anchor will be touching the bottom
•Scope will not be more than
•cable will enter the water at an angle between 60 degrees and 85 degrees from the horizontal
38. Why there is a need to cooperate with VTS control by providing them information?
•Full cooperation with VTS is of utmost importance for vour vessels safety.
•Full cooperation with VTS is a mandatory requirement.
•Full cooperation with VTS is included in the shipVs routeing.
•Full cooperation with VTS is of navigational requirement in the area.
39. How would you show your understanding on the holding power if anchor cable scope will be
shortened?
•It will increase the holding power
•It will decrease the holding power
•It will remain the same on holding power
•The holding power will be unstable
40. If rescue person will jump into the water in order to assist a survivor, which is the proper equipment
to used?
•Lifeline
•lifejacket
•Survival suit
•Survival suit and lifeline.
21. If overspeed and low lube oil pressure condition contribute to engine shutdown, which from the
following condition demonstrate the cause?
•High jacket water temperature
•High lube oil pressure
•High jacket water pressure
•Low jacket water pressure
22. Select from the following specifications/qualities of cylinder oils counter corrosive wear?
•Specific gravity
•Viscosity
•TBN
•Detergency
23. What conclusion can you captivate if proper lubriction of the main bearings is more easily obtained, in
a single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, than a single acting two-stroke /cycle diesel engine?
•Because the bearing pressure in a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is continually
reversed.
•Because the two stroke/cycle diesel engines require more complicated lubrication piping
•Because the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting two-stroke/ cycle diesel engine.
•Because the bearing pressure in a four-stroke /cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed.
24. What RPM you are require if the pitch of propeller is 19.5 feet and speed required to reach the port at
designated time is 13.77 knots and slip expected is 7%?
•76.55 RPM
•77 RPM
•76.8 RPM
•76.94 RPM
25. If your vessel burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16
knots?
•2.3 tons
•1.8 tons
•5.3 tons
•3.0 tons
26. Can you identify from statement below the purpose of an air cooler in a supercharging system?
•To reduce the temperature of the superchaged air in order to increase the density & also to cool down
below dew point to remove moisture from air prior entry to the engine.
•To reduce temperature of supercharge air in order to condense and remove maximum possible moisture
from the air prior entry to the engine.
•To cool supercharge air to increase its density and also to keep the peak temperature and exhaust gas
temperature within limits.
•To cool supercharge air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry of
moisture into the engine.
27. Can you identify from statement below the most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket
water cooling system?
•It requires the use of a day tanks test stand.
•It requires the use of an injector
•It requires the use of a fuel/water separators.
•It accelerates erosion
28. How would be an emergency generator to be capable of being started at an ambient tempereature
and if lower temperature are expected?
•It should be provided with anti-freeze engine oil.
•It should be provided with cold starting spray.
•It should be provided with heating arrangement.
•It should be provided with a manual starter.
29. It has been reported that Engine room bilge pump was unable to take suction from Fwd.(P) bilge well
while it is taking suction efficiently from Fwd.(S) & aft bilge wells. Can you identify from the statement
below is the most probable cause?
•The pump needs to be overhauled

•The Fwd (P) bilge well suction valve might be leaking
•There is leakage in the bilge suction pipeline somewhere between the bilge wells and bilge pump
•The Fwd (P) bilge well suction filter cover gasket might be leaking
30. During a routine check of one of the auxiliary engines in an UMS operated engine room, a minor
leakage on a high pressure fuel pipe was observed. Demonstrate the appropriate action and/or
precaution to be executed?(Assume normal operation: 2 sets operating)
•Any of the mentioned alternatives will meet the requirement.

•Change operation to the third generator set, preparing the original set for repair of the failure and
switching to manual mode until repair is carried out.
•Change the operation to the third generator set, leaving the original set as stand-by awaiting
possibility to repair the
•Have a motorman failure.for the rest of the night, especially instructed to watch the engine.
on watch
31. If water contamination occurs in the crankcase oil of an auxiliary engine, what would be the result of
the oil viscosity?
•Nothing will happen
•It will decrease
•It will increase
•It will stay at the same
32. What evidence can you find on a normal manometer reading of turbocharger air suction filter and
normal speed of the turbocharger but reduced scavenge air pressure?
•May be due to fouling of the nozzle ring
•May be due to cold climate
•May be due to fouling of the turbine
•May be due to fouling of diffuser or compressor wheel
33. Which of the following main engine components regulates speed?

•telegraph
•fuel rack
•valve gear
•governor
34. A vessel's propeller has a pitch of 16 feet and a 10 percent slip. Calculate the amount of revolution
per minute must she turn up to arrive the ship at 10 knots?
•70.47 RPM
•70.57 RPM
•70.37 RPM
•70.27 RPM
35. If the timing of the engine is delayed, and the exhaust temperatures are high. Can you identify from
the following possible behaviour to affect the turbocharger?
•A surging of the turbo charger
•An increased turo charger revolutions
•A higher air and gas temperature after turbo charger.
•A decreased turbo charger revolutions.
36. In a pressure type lubrication system, the lube oil service pump normally takes suction from the sump
tank, select from the following it is directly discharge?
•To the gravity feed tank
•To the lube oil header
•To the main thrust bearing
•to the lube oil cooler
37. What can you point out about the effect of excessive tappet clearance in 4 stroke auxiliary engine?
•The turbocharger surging, loss of rotation of valve spindle and high exhaust temperatures.
•The valve hammering, change in timing of exhaust with more side thurst causing greater wear between
stem and bush.
•The increased engine efficiency as espansion can take place for a longer duration and less energy wasted
with the exhaust gases.
•The loss in compression, poor combustion, improper mixing of fuel & air and gas leakage due to improper
closing of valve.
38. How would you describe the intake valves of diesel engines that is fabricated from low-alloy steels?
•That the intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust gases
•That the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the volume of air passing through exhaust
valves
•That the intake valves utilize stelite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce wear
•That the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self centering during seating
39. What evidence do you think a crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication?
•A slack thrust bearings
•A worn main bearing journals
•A torsional stress deformation
•A bearing shells shim dimensions
40. If centrifugal pumps cannot handle air and require priming. What ideas justify why the centrifugal
pump cannot handle air?
•Fluidity only
•Compressibility
•Both fluidity and density
•Density only
•High jacket water temperature
•TBN
•Because the bearing pressure in a four-stroke /cycle single acting diesel engine is continually
reversed.
•76.94 RPM
•1.8 tons
•To cool supercharge air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry
of moisture into the engine.
•It accelerates erosion
•It should be provided with heating arrangement.
•The Fwd (P) bilge well suction filter cover gasket might be leaking
•Change operation to the third generator set, preparing the original set for repair of the failure and
switching to manual mode until repair is carried out.
•It will increase

•May be due to fouling of diffuser or compressor wheel
•governor
•70.37 RPM
•A surging of the turbo charger
•to the lube oil cooler
•The valve hammering, change in timing of exhaust with more side thurst causing greater wear
between stem and bush.
•That the intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust gases
•A worn main bearing journals
•Both fluidity and density

21. What principle should be considered when designing bulk carriers with short and long holds?
•load light bulk cargo only on long holds
•load small shipments of cargo only in short holds
•load heavy bulk cargo only in short holds
•provide space for loading rolled iron in long holds.
22. Choose from the following what does a "Bulk cargo" refer to?
•Cargo which requires refrigeration.
•Cargo which occupies a large volume of space.
•Cargo which is very dense.
•Homogeneous cargo not enclosed in a container.
23. Select from the following what document should a master have to secure from the shipper on a reefer
vessel before the start of cargo operation?
•The voyage instruction
•The temperature instruction
•The carrying instruction
•The cooling instruction
24. What approach would you use when coming from cold climate to hot climate and carrying
hygroscopic cargo?
•Ventilate continuously.
•Ventilate only when cargo temperature is warmer than the dew point.
•Ventilate only to raise the dew point.
•Do not ventilate.
25. To prevent explosion in cargo tanks, how does an inert gas system function on a tanker?
•The inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive
limit.
•It de-energizes the /''charged mist\" effect.
•It maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
•The inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
26. When planning the loading or unloading of a bulk carrier, which of the following statement should be
prioritized?
•To provide space for loading rolled iron in long holds.
•To load small shipments of cargo only in short holds.
•To load heavy bulk cargo only in short holds.
•To load light bulk cargo only on long holds.
27. The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging
operation. You start the discharging and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. Which of following
reason is the possible cause for pressure dropping sharply?
•booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly

•booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction
•booster pump failing to start
•shipVs pump speeding up
28. How would you describe the term "flow state" when referring to dry bulk cargoes?
•It refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid
•It relates to the minimum granule size of a particular product where it will flow like a liquid at an angle of
30 degrees
•It designates the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled past the angle of repose.
•It relates to the sutability of loading a cargo by flowing down inclined chutes
29. Select from the following statements is INCORRECT regarding bulk grain cargo?
•When loading bulk grain in a hatch, shifting boards should be used if the hatch is not entirely full.
•The feeders can be used to increase the grain holding capacity of a hold.
•The purpose of feeders is to store grain and fill the hold as the grain settles.
•The shifting of grain is more probable the farther its surface is situated from the center about which the
ship rolls.
30. Can you identify from the following condition what kind of stress is on the sheer strake if a vessel is
sagging?
•Tension
•Thrust
•Backing
•Compression
31. Select which of the following publication should be consulted to ensure compliance with the
requirements of SOLAS for the carriage of dangerous goods in package form?
•The IMDG Code
•The IMSBC Code
•The Grain Stability Booklet
•Dangerous Good Manual
32. In relation to its rolling period a vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff. Can you identify from
the following statement what would cause a vessel to be tender?
•There is minimal weight in the higher decks has been loaded
•There is greater weight down low and is trimmed by the head
•There is greater weight down low and is trimmed by the stern
•There is greater weight in the higher decks has been loaded
33. If your forward draft is 8.25 meters, the aft draft is 8.92 meters and amidship draft is 7.11 meters.
How would you identify the deflection condition of your vessel?
•Hogging
•Listing
•Down by stern
•Sagging
34. Which of the following should be examined before shutting the hatch cover to ensure that it forms a
watertight seal?
•The rubber around the underneath cover is not missing.
•The top of hatch cover is clear.
•The hatch cover pulling chain is not slack
•The wheel of the hatch cover are on the trackway.
35. In which case the metacentric height be considered an indication of a vessel's stability?
•For all angles of inclination
•In no case
•For the small angle of inclination.
•For the large angle of inclination
36. Identify from the following which is NOT hazardous effect when loading coal?
•Spontaneous combustion
•Coal slurry
•Corrosion
•Methane Emission
37. How would you show your understanding the prevention of damage to inner bottom plating on
tanktop by crane operator as part of the concurrence before the unloading operation using grab?
•Operator should drop the grab at medium speed during free digging.
•Operator should drop the grab carefuvlly and evenly on the the tank top.
•Operator should drop one side of the grab that will land safely on the cargo but the other side may drop
corner first.
•Operator should drop the grab where there are mounds of cargo on the tank top.
38. When a Cargo Transport Unit is loaded with a mixture of dangerous goods and non-hazardous
materials, how should the dangerous goods consignments be loaded?
•Away from all doors or openings to prevent falling out when the unit is opened.
•Whenever possible, adjacent to the doors, with labels and markings visible.
•On the bottom of the unit, to ensure no damage of other cargo occurs in the event of leakage.
•On top of the non-hazardous material, so as to be readily accessible for priority unloading
39. What is the maximum gas concentration must the fixed gas detection system on a LNG ship activate
an audible and visual alarm?
•At about 30% by volume.
•At about 30% by lower flammable limit.
•At about 20% by volume
•At about 20% of the lower flammable limit.
40. How would you describe the effect when cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck?
•The GM will increase
•The center of buoyancy will move downward.
•The center of buoyancy will move upward.
•The center of gravity will move upward.
39. What is the maximum gas concentration must the fixed gas detection system on a LNG ship activate
an
•Ataudible and by
about 30% visual alarm?
volume.
•At about 30% by lower flammable limit.
•At about 20% by volume
•At about 20% of the lower flammable limit.
21. A vessel has an engine room at midships and cargo is concentrated at the end holds. What is the
vessel’s stability condition?
•Sagging with tensile stress on main deck.
•Hogging with tensile stress on main deck.
•Sagging with compressive stress on main deck.
•Hogging with compressive stress on main deck.
22. Your vessel has amidships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds.What is the
condition of your vessel?
•Hogging with compressive stress on main deck
•Sagging with tensile stress on main deck
•Hogging with tensile stress on main deck
•Sagging with compressive stress on main deck
23. If a bulker is so designed that with proper maintenance cracking should not occur, what guarantee of
fatigue life span you would expect?
•until 15 years
•until 25 years
•until 10 years
•until 20 years
24. What is your basis to determine the depth of a beam bracket?

•It should be 2 1/2 times the depth of the beam
•It should be the same depth as the beam
•It should be 5 times the depth of the beam
•It should be 10 times the depth of the beam
25. What conclusion can you employ to reduce the racking stresses in a ship?
•By fitting a good system of bulkheads
•By fitting a good system of deck girders
•By fitting a good system of side girders
•By fitting a good system of stringers
26. You are on the MV Tasman Mermaid and involved in collision, your vessel is on an even keel and has a
long rolling period with the roll being sluggish and the vessel hanging at the roll's ends. What conclusion
you would employ if draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining?
•To fill up any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG.

•To pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface.
•To pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free surface.
•To jettison topside weights to increase freeboard.
27. What does it means to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo means?
•Distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the main deck.
•Weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo.
•Package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the deck.
•Strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks.
28. Coal and iron ore cargoes, types of coal cargo transported, frequency of cargo operations and
ballasting, ballast ratios, and expected trade routes are a number of main parameters affecting corrosion
rates. Which of the following options contribute in increasing the rate of the level of corrosion?
•Chloride, sulphate and acidity produced from various coals
•Diffusion, temperature, condictivity produced from various coals
•Temperature, humidity, salinity produced from various coals
•Temperature, oxygen and moisture supply produced from various coals
29. Your vessel has been holed in number 1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further
flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use what
method?
•Added weight method

•Compartment-standard method
•Factor of subdivision method
•Lost buoyancy method
30. What is your analysis if the bulkhead approximates a rectangle in an event where you must shore up
a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. Where should the shore pressure's center on the bulkhead be
located?
•It should be approximately halfway up the bulkhead.

•It should be approximately one-third of the way up the bulkhead.
•It should be at the bottom of the bulkhead.
•It should be evenly over the surface of the bulkhead.
31. Identify the action you would take as a Chief Officer to avoid the detrimental effects on Bulk Carriers
due to corrosion, fatigue and improper cargo handling? I. Routing Planned Maintenance & Inspection of
Structural members of cargo holds & hatch covers. II. Identification of susceptible areas prone to Fatigue
& stresses. III. Ensure accessibility of the area to be surveyed with due regards to the area under
inspecition shall be clean and well lit. IV. Careful planning of the surveys to be undergone with all
personnel involved. V. Where a fracture which not been caused by contact damage is found in the main
hull structure on one side of a ship.
•I.ll.lll. IV and V
•I, II, III and IV
•I , III, IV and V
•I , II, IV and V
32. Which of the following is EXCLUDED in identifying the main characteristics of corrosion in the primary
members of the cargo hold region? I. Tank Top Plating II. Hooper tank III. Transverse Frames IV. Upper
Stools and Bulkhead Plating V. Double Bottom Ballast Tank (DBBT)
•V
•IV
•III
•II
33. What is the minimum required initial metacentric height of any ship carrying bulk grain after
correction for free surface of liquids in tanks is deducted?
•0.4 m
•0.5 m
•0.3 m
•0.6 m
34. Can you identify this watertight compartment which is between the stem and the aftermost
watertight bulkhead?
•A cofferdams
•An after peak tank
•A deep tanks
•A bilges
35. Ship are built of steel, which in a marine environment exposed to water (both fresh and sea) and air is
prone to the formation of rust. Which of the following contributing factors that accelarate the rate of
corrosion? I. equipment grab damage II. seawater corrosion III. corrosive cargoes IV. improper method of
cleaning
•I. II. and III

•I, II, III and IV
•I, II and IV
•I and IV
36. What is your opinion on the purpose of a carling aboard ship?

•It is used as a connecting strap between the butted ends of plating.
•It is used to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams.
•It is used to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is released.
•It is used to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig.
37. How would you evaluate the kind of stress when two forces acting in opposite directions and along
parallel lines?
•It is a strain stress
•It is a tensile stress
•It is a compression stress
•It is a shear stress
38. If your vessel is loaded in such a manner that the she is said to be sagging, what kind of stress is
placed on the sheer strake?
•Racking
•Tension
•Thrust
•Compression
39. To check weather tightness of hatch covers, which from the following are normally being applied? I.
Ultrasonic Hatch leak Detection II. Water hose test III. Chalk Test IV. High pressure test
•I. II and III only
•I, II, III and IV only
•II, III and IV only
•I, II, and IV only
40. When should you propped a leaking bulkhead?

•When a leak is found
•When it is felt that the bulkhead will fall
•When the leak is below double bottom tank.
•When the water starts seeping in.
25. What conclusion can you employ to reduce the racking stresses in a ship?
•By fitting a good system of bulkheads
•By fitting a good system of deck girders
•By fitting a good system of side girders
•By fitting a good system of stringers
26. You are on the MV Tasman Mermaid and involved in collision, your vessel is on an even keel and has a
long rolling period with the roll being sluggish and the vessel hanging at the roll's ends. What conclusion
you would employ if draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining?
•To fill up any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG.

•To pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface.
•To pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free surface.
30. What is your analysis if the bulkhead approximates a rectangle in an event where you must shore up
a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. Where should the shore pressure's center on the bulkhead be
located?

•It should be approximately one-third of the way up the bulkhead.
•It should be at the bottom of the bulkhead.
•It should be evenly over the surface of the bulkhead.
33. What is the minimum required initial metacentric height of any ship carrying bulk grain after
correction for free surface of liquids in tanks is deducted?
•0.4 m
•0.5 m
•0.3 m
•0.6 m
36. What is your opinion on the purpose of a carling aboard ship?

•It is used as a connecting strap between the butted ends of plating.
•It is used to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is released.
•It is used to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig.
•Hogging with tensile stress on main deck.
•Hogging with tensile stress on main deck
•until 20 years
•It should be 2 1/2 times the depth of the beam
•Bv fitting a good system of bulkheads
•Strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks.

•Chloride, sulphate and acidity produced from various coals
•Compartment-standard method
•I.ll.lll. IV and V
•II
•0.3 m
•An after peak tank
•I. II. and III
•It is a shear stress
•Compression
•I. II and III only

•When a leak is found
•Bv fitting a good system of bulkheads
•0.3 m
21. How would you classified inflammable solid as indicated in the IMDG code?
•Class 4.3
•Class 5.1
•Class 4.1
•Class 4.2
22. What is the classification of a substance epichlorohydrin under the IMDG Code?
•Class 4
•Class 2
•Class 6
•Class 8
23. Sawdust is liable to spontaneous combustion when impregnated with what kind of material?
•Tung Oil
•Vegetable Oil
•Clove Oil
•Gambier Oil
24. Any flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 pounds or less and a flashpoint of 80°F or
below belongs to what category of cargo?
•Grade B
•Grade C
•Grade D
•Grade A
5. What kind of cargo in which a manila rope is not appropriate to be used?

•Steel
•Lumber
•Cotton
•Tires
26. Appendix 1 of the IMSBC Code contains individual cargoes schedules. What kind of information would
you find to ensure the ships crews personal safety?
•A description of individual protective equipment appropriate to ensure safe handling of the cargo
•The hazards that the individual cargo presents
•A detailed requirements for stowing and carrying cargo safely
•A description of each cargo properties and details of handling requirements
27. Substances that may cause the combustion of other materials by yielding oxygen belongs to what
Class under the IMDG Code?
•Class 5
•Class 3
•Class 9
•Class 7
28. What is the general segregation requirements between a spontaneously combustible substances (4.2)
and an infectious substances (6.2)?
•separated longitudinally by an intervening complete compartment or hold from
•Away from
•Separated by a complete compartment or hold from
•Separated from
29. What is the classification of substances that emits flammable gases when it become in-contact with
water?
•Class 7.3
•Class 5.3
•Class 4.3
•Class 6.3
30. The observance of this code harmonizes the practices and procedures followed in the carriage of
dangerous goods by sea and ensures compliance with the mandatory provisions of the SOLAS Convention
and of Annex III of MAR POL 73/78 . What is this code?
•IMO code
•IMDG Code.
•IMSBC code
•None of the choices
31. Choose from the following the relationship between a Transportable Moisture Limit and a Flow
Moisture Point?
•Loading a cargo below the TML represent an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Loading a cargo near its FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Loading a cargo above the FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Loading a cargo at its FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
32. What is this convention that was amended in specifiying the special requirements for a ship intended
to carry dangerous goods, (the keel of which was laid or which was at a similar stage of construction on
or after 1 July 2002)?
•(MAR POL 73/78)
•International maritime soliud bulk cargoes code
•Solas Convention
•International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG)\nCode.
33. Under the IMDG Code, what is the classification of substances that emits flammable gases when it
become in contact with water?
•Class 7.3
•Class 4.3
•Class 6.3
•Class 5.3
34. What is the classification of a cottonseed oil?

•Poison B
•Flammable liquid
•Flammable solid
•Combustible liquid
35. What is the classification of an Argon gas?

•Flammable liquid
•Non-flammable gas
•Flammable gas
•Corrosive
36. What is the general segregation requirements between organic peroxides and infectious substances?
•separated longitudinally by an intervening complete compartment or hold from
•Away from
•Separated from
37. How many Classes of Dangerous Substances are there in the IMDG Code?
•EIGHT
•TWELVE
•NINE
•TEN
38. Can hazardous goods be packed in containers?

•Yes, as long as it is packed accordingly.
•Yes, the nature of the goods being shipped, would not dictate the position of stowage.
•Yes. But they must be declared as dangerous goods and the container would need to be provided with a
packing certificate to effect that the goods have been packaged, labeled and stowed in accord with the
IMDG Code.
• Yes, ensure that UN numbers or signage is posted in the container
39. Molten solid substances with a flash point above 60 celcius degrees and liquid desensitized explosives
are categorized under what Class in the IMDG Code?
•Class 7
•Class 3
•Class 1
•Class 5
40. The IMDG Code gives a coded instructions on packing, marking and labelling of substances. What is
the code if the packing instructions are for liquids?
•P003
•P001
•P005
•P007
•Class 4.1
•Class 6
•Vegetable Oil
•Grade C
•Steel
•The hazards that the individual cargo presents
•Class 5
•Class 4.3
•IMDG Code.
•Loading a cargo above the FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Solas Convention
•Class 4.3
•Combustible liquid
•Non-flammable gas
•Separated bv a complete compartment or hold from
•NINE
•Yes. But they must be declared as dangerous goods and the container would need to be provided with a
packing certificate to effect that the goods have been packaged, labeled and stowed in accord with the
IMDG Code.
•Class 3
•P001
21. What is utilize to determine your vessel initial stability?
•GM
•GZ
•KM
•KG
22. Your ship is 30 meters long and has a beam of 6 meters and draft of 2 meters. What is your GM if the
natural rolling period is 6 seconds?
•0.85 meter
•0.95 meter
•0.70 meter
•0.90 meter
23. A 6,000 tonnes displacement vessel has a KG of 6.7 meters, if her KM is 7.3 meters. What is the vessel
GM?
•14 meters
•0.8 meters
•0.6 meters
•15 meters
24. What is the ratio of the density of any substances to the density of some other substance taken as
standard?
•Volumetric Measure
•Specific Gravity
•Weight Measure
•Stowage Factor
25. What is the TPC of a box shaped vessel 80 m x 14 m floating in saltwater with a 4 m even keel draft ?
•11.48 tonnes per centimeter
26. In what state will the ship be, when the forces of gravity and buoyancy being equal and opposite will
cancel each other out?
•Unstable Equilibrium
•Neutral Equilibrium
•Stable Equilibrium
•Static Equilibrium
27. What does a constant deterioration of the list or trim imply?

•A structural failure
•A breached of vessel stability
•A progressive flooding
•A negative GM
29. What is the transverse inclination caused by unequal distribution of weights on either side of the
centerline of the ship?
•Inclination
•Transverse Inclination
•Heel
•List
30. What is the TPC of a box shape vessel 80 meter x 14 meter floating in fresh water with a m4 meters
even keel draft?
•11.0 tons/cm
•11.68 ton/cm
•11.48 tos/cm
•11.58 tons/cm
31. A 60 m long and 12 m wide box shaped vessel is loading in sea water. How many tons are needed to
change her mean draft by one centimeter?
•7.38 tonnes
•7.43 tonnes
•7.28 tonnes
•7.20 tonnes
32. A vessel's stropical load line is 6 inches above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will
arrive in the summer zone 8 days after her departure, she will burn off about 47 tons/day and water
consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads on the
tropical zone?
•472 tons
•20.5 tons
•10.5 tons
•28.8 tons
33. A ship has a displacement of 7,000 tonnes and VCG of 6 meters. A heavy cargo in the lower hold has a
VCG of 3 meters and weights 50 tonnes. Find the new VCG when this weight is raised through 0.3 meters
vertically and is suspended by the derrick whose head is 17 meters above the keel.
•5.97 meters
•5.99 meters
•6.10 meters
•5.92 meters
35. A 130 meter long vessel laden with a weight produce a trim change of 24 centimeters. What is the
difference in aft draft if the LCF is 5 meters aft of amidship?
•10.60 centimeters
36. What is the state of vessel when is heeled,and the vessel has no tendency to return to its original
condition or to continue heeling further?
•Unstable Equilibrium
•Stable Equilibrium
37. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stem is submerged on a damaged
vessel down by the stern and trim is increasing due to progressive flooding but no list had been
observed?
•KB is increase, increasing BM and therefore GM.
•There is no effect on transverse stability.
•BM decrease rapidly due to the loss of water plane area.
•GM decrease rapidly due to loss of water plane area.
38. A vessel has a displacement of 10,555 tonnes, a lenght of 120 meters and width of 16 meters. She is a
float in water density of 1.020 tonnes per cubic meter. If the calculated block coefficient is 0.77, what is
her mean draft?
•7.55 meters
•7.99 meters
•6.99 meters
•6.55 meters
39. What is the point when a vessel is heeled and the force of buoyancy acting vertically upwards that the
new position of CB cuts the centerline of the ship?
•Metacentric Radius
•Metacentric height
•Transverse metacenter
•Righting Lever
40. The initial vertical center of gravity and displacement of a vessel is 12 meters and 50,000 tonnes
respectively. A weight of 500 tonnes is discharged from the lower hold with a VCG of 3 meters. What will
be the new VCG if weight of 500 tonnes is loaded on the same hold with a VCG of 5 meters?
•12.00 meters
•12.04 meters
•12.02 meters
•11.98 meters
•GM
•0.70 meter
•0.6 meters
•Specific Gravity
•A progressive flooding
•List
•11.0 tons/cm
•7.38 tonnes
•472 tons
•6.10 meters
•BM decrease rapidly due to the loss of water plane area.
•6.99 meters
•Transverse metacenter
•12.02 meters
21. What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Radiotelegraphy Certificate?
•4 years
•2 years
•3 years
•5 years
IOUU I J c
22. SOLAS Regulation VI/5-1 requires ship's carrying oil or oil fuel prior to the loading of such oil as cargo
in bulk or bunkering of oil fuel to be provided with which of the following?
•Oil Record Book
•Bunker Delivery Note
•Material Safety Data Sheets
•Cargo Record Book
23. The law of the sea is embodied in what other convention besides the United Nations Convention on
the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
•London Convention of 1955.
•STCW Convention of 1978 as amended in 1995.
•Geneva Convention of 1958
•United Nation Conventions of 1958.
24. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78.
Which statement is TRUE?
•An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized thereon.
•AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification.
•The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
•The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance with MARPOL 73/78.
25. Under the Revised PMMRR, what do you prepare for inspection of hull, boilers, machinery,
firefighthing life-saving appliances, pilot ladders, navigational lights and detail inpection?
•Be made every two years
•Be made annually
•Be made every five years
•Be made bi-annually
26. When should a drills take place if there is a crew change as SOLAS stipulates that if more than 25% of
crew have not participated in abandonship and fire drills in the previous month?
•within 48 hours after ship leaves port
•24 hours after embarkation
•48 hours after embarkation
27. What is the meaning of "Harmful Substances" under Marpol?

•Any substance of petroleum products or petrochemicals that is hazard to the environment
•Any substances creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities
•Any substance with oils and fuels on the products content
•Any substances in a hydrocarbons form harmful to environmen.
28. What is essentially the license given to aship to enter a port on the assurance that she is free from
contagious diseases?
•Certificate of Free Pratique
•Ship Sanitation and Control Exemption Certificate
•Ship Derrating Exemption Certificate
•Ship Sanitation Control Documents
29. Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge
of oil or oily mixture into the sea?
•Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of MasterVs fault even if the Master/Owner of
the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
•Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
•Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
•Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master's fault, but because of a third
partvs fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
30. SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew cabin or in what other areas
onboard it should be place?
•bridge
•recreation and messrooms
•engineering control station
•fire control room
31. Passenger Ship Safety Certificate is issued under the provision of the International Convention for the
Safety of Life at Sea. The vessel is surveyed in accordance with the requirements of what regulation?
•Reg 1/6
•Reg 1/5
•Rea 1/7
•Reg 1/4
32. How many other surveys on the vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the
period of validity of an IOPP certificate?
•One
•Two
•Three
•Four.
33. When your vessel call a US port which one is the document where requirements on firefighting
equipments for a particular vessel can be found?
•Certificate of Registry
•Certificate of Inspection
•Certificate of Seaworthiness
•Class Certificate
34. Which document shows the minimum required crew a vessel must have?
•Safety Management Certifcate
•Certificate of Registry
•Safe Manning Certicate
•Shipping Articles
35. You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles
from land must you can discharge biodegradable ground garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25
mm) screen into the sea?
•Twelve Nautical miles
•Three nautical miles
•Twenty five nautical miles
•Six Nautical miles
36. What was adapted on the first International Loadline Convention in 1930 all about?
•It was based on the principle of reserve bouvancv recognizing that the freeboard should also ensure
adequate stability.
•Determining the freight of cargoes that can be loaded on ship hold to be transported safely at sea.
•The provisions are made in determining the freeboard of ships by subdivisio and damage stability
calculation.
•Adequate structural strenght. Protection of safe means of access for the crew. Watertight intigrity of
hull bellow freeboard deck.
37. Under the Revised PMMRR, ships shall be provided with atleast two independent means for
communicating orders between navigating bridge and the machinery spaces or control room, which none
shall be considered?
•Steering gear
•Bridge Engine Telephone
•Engine Telemotor
•Engine Telegraph
38. What should you do first to prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo
piping system?
•open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
•A open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
•open block valves, then start the cargo pump
•start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
39. Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
•OPA 1990
•Fund convention
•CLC 1992
•A LLMC
40. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present
SOLAS regulations?
•Each survival craft shall be stowed in a sheltered position and protected from fire or explosions.
•Each craft shall be stowed in a sheltered position and protected from damage by fire.
•Each survival craft shall be stowed in a secure position and protected from damage by explosions.
•Each survival craft shall be stowed in a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by
fire or explosions.
•5 years
IOUU I J c
•Material Safety Data Sheets
•Geneva Convention of 1958
•The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
•Be made annually
•Any substances creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities
•Certificate of Free Pratique
•Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master's fault, but because of a third
partvs fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
•recreation and messrooms
•Rea 1/7
•Three
•Certificate of Inspection
•Safe Manning Certicate
•Three nautical miles
•It was based on the principle of reserve bouvancv recognizing that the freeboard should also ensure
adequate stability.
•Engine Telegraph
•start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
•OPA 1990
•Each survival craft shall be stowed in a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by
fire or explosions.
21. When you have a fire in an enclosed space what is the most effective extinguishing medium?
•Mist Sprinkler
•Foam
•Dry chemical
•C02
22. Which of the following statement is the best method of extinguishing an oil fire?
•Removing the fuel.
•Cooling below the ignition tempereture
•Spraying with water.
•Cutting off the supply of oxygen.
23. Which regulation provides the requirements with respect to testing and drills for steering and
emergency steering?
•COLREG 1972
•SOLAS Chapter V
•Under USCG rules in US waters
•MARPOL 73/78
24. When should you stop the engine of the survival craft during its retrival operation?
•When the cable have been attached.
•When it reach the securing platform.
•When at the embarkation deck.
•When the craft clear the water.
25. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors side scuttles valves and closing mechanism
of scuppers ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ship?
•It should be held monthly
•It should be held weekly
•It should be done daily
•It should be held every two weeks
26. After securing the power of an electrical switchboard fire. What is the best fire extinguisher to be use?
•Water Portable fire extinguisher
•CO2 portable fire extinquiher
•Portable Foam extinguisher
•Dry chemical portable extinguisher
27. SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19 applies to all ships. What is the required interval for a lifeboat fall to
be turned end for end?
•Not more than 32 months.
28. Which of the following step should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an
emergency situation?
•Head toward the normal shipping route.
•Check supplies and survival kit.
•Determine position of closest point land
•Search for survivors
29. Water Ingress Monitoring for detecting water in cargo holds is a requirement under what regulation?
•MARPOL 73/78
•BC Code
•BLU Code
•SOLAS Chapter XII
30. How often should a C02 cylinder forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system is require to be
pressure test?
•6 years
•3 years
•Annually
•12 years
31. When you received a word that a person had fallen overboard form starboard side. What action
should you do first?
•Notify the Master
•Put the wheel hard right (Hard starboard)
•Sound the man overboard alarm.
•Through the man overboard lifering.
32. In plugging submerged hole, what is the purpose of using rags, wedges and other materials in
conjunction with plug?
•As a sealant to reduce water pressureon the hull.
•As a gasket to reduce the water leaking around the plug.
•As preventer to reduce progressive flooding.
•As a sealant to reduce the possibilty of stress fracture.
33. When you will fight fire onboard the effect of the weigth of water must be taken into account. How
much sea water will increase the weigth displacement by one ton?
•50 cubic feet
•500 liters
•35 cubic feet.
•100 gallons
34. Where in the accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors be located as per SOLAS 11-2/13.2.2?
•In all crew and passenger cabins
•In stairways, corridors and escape routes
•In messrooms, public lounges and other public rooms
•Near ventilation ducts throughout the accommodation spaces
35. What is the main job of the ship management team when a fire break out?
•On the scene party ffigthing the fire and secure the retreat
•Back up and support the fire squad.
•Command and control must know the information about the ship preparedness.
•Command and control organizing the fire squad and rescue team for missing personnel.
36. With reference to SOLAS II-2/5.2.4, if C02 fixed fire-fighting systems for machinery spaces is activated,
how many percent of gas it is capable to be discharge?
•85% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes
•70% of the gas can be discharged into the space within one minute
•100% of the gas can be discharged into the space within three minutes
•100% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes
37. Which of the following statement is TRUE about lifejacket?

•A lifejacket must be worn with the same side facing outward to floats properly.
•Lifejacket are design to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water?
•Ligthly stain and faded lifejacket will fail in the water and should not be use.
•Bouyant vest may substitute a lifejacket.
38. For the purpose of training and drills, how frequently should a rescue boat be launched with the
assigned crew?
•Every six months
•Once a month
•Every week
•Every three months
39. What type of fire extinguisher is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?
•Automatic sprinkler system
•Carbon dioxide system
•Dry chemical system
•Steam smothering system
40. What percentage of thermal protective aids are required to equip a survival craft?
•Fifty percent of survival craft capacity.
•Twenty five percent of survival craft capacity
•Ten percent of survival craft capacity
•Hundred percent of survival craft capacity.
24. When should you stop the engine of the survival craft during its retrival operation?
•When the cable have been attached.
•When it reach the securing platform.
•When at the embarkation deck.
•When the craft clear the water.
25. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors side scuttles valves and closing mechanism
of scuppers ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ship?
•It should be held monthly
•It should be held weekly
•It should be done daily
•It should be held every two weeks
32. In plugging submerged hole, what is the purpose of using rags, wedges and other materials in
conjunction with plug?
•As a sealant to reduce water pressureon the hull.
•As a gasket to reduce the water leaking around the plug.
•As preventer to reduce progressive flooding.
•As a sealant to reduce the possibilty of stress fracture.
40. What percentage of thermal protective aids are required to equip a survival craft?
•Fifty percent of survival craft capacity.
•Twenty five percent of survival craft capacity
•Ten percent of survival craft capacity
•Hundred percent of survival craft capacity.
21. What is the emergency life-saving procedure that consist of recognizing and correcting failure of the
respiratory or cardiovascular systems?
•Medical first Aid
•Medical Care
•Advanced life support
•Basic life support
22. If the vessel sustain damage and the bulkhead is exposed to sea, what support must be given to the
particular area to strenghten the bulkhead and slow the ingress of water?
•Blocking
•Shoring
•Battening
•Bracing
23. How does the backflow towards machinery spaces of cargo vapor in an inert gas system is prevented?
•It prevented by pressure vacuum breaker.
•It is prevented by high velocity vent.
•It is prevented bv deck water seal.
•It is prevented by build in P trap.
24. What should a rescuer use if he has to jump into the water in order to assist a survivor?
•Diver suit with breathing apparatus.
•Life Jacket and lifeline
•Survival suit and lifeline
•Life ring with lifeline
25. What should you considered as the MOST important to preserve aboard damaged vessels?
•Bilge pumping capacity.
•Present level of stability.
•Reserve buoyancy.
•Maintain the upright stability.
26. Which areas need prevention of fire outbreak on board ships?

•The alleyways, decks and bulkheads.
•The superstructures and structura/nbulkheads.
•The superstructures and bulkheads.
•The structural subdivision bulkheads.
27. Which of the statement is NOT applicable as part of the procedure to reduce the harmful effect of
damage to the ship?
•Maintain the stability and maneuverability of the ship.
•Make rapid repairs to damage gear on structures.
•Preserve the watertight integrity of the ship.
•Removing large quantity of water from compartment.
28. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused
by water preasure. What should you do to control this?
•Install shoring so that it pushes the damaged bulkhead while supporting it.
•Use jacks or chain falls to remove the set before installing shores.
•Install shoring to the damaged bulkhead without pushing on them.
•Place sandbags by the bulkhead without installing shores.
29. Your vessel hit a derelict pontoon and sustain damage and exposing the bulkhead to the sea. What
support you should do to strentghen the bulkhead to reduce the ingress of sea water?
•You should re-inforce the damage area by bracing
•You patch the damage area.
•You should batten the damage area.
•You should intall shoring on the damage area.
30. What is the purpose of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?
•Reduce free surface effect.
•Increases the rolling period.
•Decreases weight because extra stiffiners are not needed.
•Reduce the center of buoyancy without decreasing the GM.
31. Before entering a compartment how could you determine the presence of toxic gas?
•By use of 02 analyzer
•By the use of LEL analyzer
•Bv measuring it with explosimeter
•By smelling the air inside the compartment.
32. What must be accurately determined in assessing the potential for progressive flooding after your
vessel has been damaged?
•The free surface effect on vessel stability.
•The capacity of your ballast pump to discharge to check the flooding.
•The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarm and water ingress alarms on cargo holds
•The integrity of watertight bounderies.
33. What is the large metallic device mounted directly in the piping designed to prevent the passage of a
rapidly moving flame through the piping?
•Detonation arrestor
•Flame arrestor
•Detonation blocker
•Flame screen
34. What material should the trays be constructed onboard small passenger vessels in the storage of
batteries containing an electrolyte?
•suitably strong to hold the weight of the batteries
•a material resistant to damage by the electrolyte
•a porous material that permits drainage of any acid overflow
•a fireproof material
35. What should you ensure before using a fixed C02 system to fight an engine room fire?
•Evacuate the engine room.
•Wait for the advice of the ship owner.
•Close all engine room dampers.
•Call the master to the engine room.
36. Normally why It is desirable to have screens on the vents of portable water tanks?
•prevent backups
•filter the incoming air
•stop insects from entering
•prevent explosions
37. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?

•To warped the deformed section back into place
•To support and hold the area in the damage position.
•To seal the damage area.
•To prevent subsequent additional damage
38. How could you prevent the spread of fire onboard by conduction?
•Close all opening in the area of fire.
•Shut off electrical supply in the area of fire.
•Removed all conbustible from direct exposure fire.
•Cool the bulkhead area around the fire.
39. How does a portable foam fire extinguisher is placed in operation?

•Pressing down the lever.
•Pointing the nozzle directly to the fire.
•Activating the pin.
•Turning it upside down.
40. Having made a distress call, what must you do once the distress situation is received?
•Maintain listening DSC and VHF.
•Cancell the distress communication once the distress situation is resolved.
•Continue the distress communication even after receiving a brief order that the distress situation is
resolved.
•Give instruction to OOW to continue listening on DSC.
•Basic life support
•Shoring
•It is prevented bv deck water seal.
•Survival suit and lifeline
•Reserve buoyancy.
•The superstructures and structura/nbulkheads.
•Removing large quantity of water from compartment.

•Install shoring to the damaged bulkhead without pushing on them.
•You should intall shoring on the damage area.
•Reduce free surface effect.
•Bv measuring it with explosimeter
•The integrity of watertight bounderies.
•Detonation arrestor
•a material resistant to damage by the electrolyte

•Evacuate the engine room.
•stop insects from entering
•To support and hold the area in the damage position.
•Cool the bulkhead area around the fire.
•Turning it upside down.
•Cancell the distress communication once the distress situation is resolved.

21. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?
•Giving warm clothings.
•Giving cold drinks
•Applying Artificial Respiration
•Giving stimulants.
22. What should you do to a person who gets battery acid in the eyes?
•Immediately washed the eves with water.
•Immediately applied eye wash solution.
•Immediately washed the eyes with fresh milk.
•Immediately washed the eyes with cold soft drink.
23. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?

•Apply pressure in the pressure point.
•Elevating the wounded area.
•Apply tourniquet above the wound.
•Direct pressure on the wound.
24. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite/hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the
affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given to a person sufffering with
frostbite?
•Heat the affected area with hot-water bottles.
•Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin.
•Give the casualty a cigarette to relax him.
•Rub the affected area.
25. Which of the following should NOT be done to a victim suffering frostbite?
•Remove the wet clothing of the victim
•Give the victim something warm to drink.
•Rubbing the affected areas
•Ask the victim to rest.
26. Frostbite is the exposure of the skin to severe cold the tissue become frozen particularly the fingers
and toes. What is the first thing you should do in the treatment of frostbite?
•Keep the patient in a warm cabin.
•Dress the area with sterile dry gauze.
•Massage the affected area.
•Immerse the affected area in warm water.
27. Where can you easily determine if an adult victim has a pulse?
•At the corotid artery in the neck
•At fermoral artery in the groin.
•At radial artery in the wrist.
•At brachial artery in the arm
28. What is the primary purpose of splint applied as first aid?

•To reset the bone.
•To lessen the pain.
•To control the bleeding
•To immobilize a fracture.
29. How can you best provide an airtight seal during mouth to mouth ventilation?
•After pitching the victim nostril keep his head elevated and apply mouth to mouth ventilation
•After pitching the victim nostril cup your hand around the patient mouth and apply mouth to mouth
ventilation
•After picthinq victim nostril apply vour mouth tighlty over his mouth and apply mouth to mouth
ventilation.
•After pitching the victim nostril hold his jaw firmly and apply mouth to mouth ventilation
30. What should you do if the patient vomit during mouth to mouth resuscitation?
•Wipe the mouth and continue mouth-to mouth ventilation.
•Swicth to mouth to nose ventilation.
•Pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume to mouth to mouth resuscitation.
•Turn the patient body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume to mouth to mouth ventilation.
31. Unfortunately a fish hook has entered someone's finger. The barb of the hook is even inside the skin.
How would you remove the fish hook?
•Push the hook through the skin until the barb protrudes, then cut the hook between the barb and the
skin and gently withdraw the hook.
•Apply disinfectant and washed it with soap and water and dry then remove the hook immediately by
pulling it back.
•Cleaned the skin and widden the cut of the skin so it is possible to take the hook directly out fromk
the cut.
•Don't do anything by your self, until you received an advice from a medical doctor.
32. What should be your primary concern in aiding a back injury?

•Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord bv incorrect handling.
•Preventing convulsions and muscle spasm caused by the pain.
•Providing enough fluid to prevent spasm.
•Relieving the patient pain by administering aspirin.
33. In taking pulse rate to an adult, what is the normal adult pulse rate?
•Pulse rate between 60 to 80 per minute
34. Which of the following is a symptons of fractured back?

•Pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arm.
•A pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury.
•A legs cramps in the muscles in one or both legs.
•Vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement.
35. While working on a sunny day which of the following is the best clothing you should wear?
•Light color clothing makes you feel cooler it reflects most of the sun rays.
•Tight clothing to give you a good mobility.
•Loose clothing provide you a good body ventilation.
•Dark color clothing absorb sun rays and help prevent the ultraviolet radiation from getting to the skin.
36. What is the MOST important element when you are administering CPR?
•Treating for traumatic shock.
•Administering of oxygen.
•Starting the treatment quickly.
•Having the proper equipment for the process.
37. What should you do to a patient having an epileptic seizure while you are providing assistance?
•It is most importan to removed any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed.
•It is most important to give artificial respiration.
•It is most important to kep a patient awake.
•It is most important to prevent a patient from hurting himself.
38. What is the first indication that you should look for on a victim who is unconscious?
•Irregular breathing
•High fever
•Head injury
•Broken limbs
39. What would you do if a person suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?
•Make the victim as comfortable as he could be.
•Let him lie on his side.
•Check his puise and start CPR.
•Administer oxygen immediately.
40. How deep should you depressed the sternum, when applying chest compressions on an adult victim
during CPR?
•1 to 1-1/2 inches
•1-1/2 to 2 inches
•1/2 to 1 inch
•1/2 inch or less
•Giving stimulants.
•Immediately washed the eves with water.
•Direct pressure on the wound.
•Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin.
•Rubbing the affected areas
•Immerse the affected area in warm water.
•At the corotid artery in the neck

•To immobilize a fracture.
•After picthinq victim nostril apply vour mouth tiahltv over his mouth and apply mouth to mouth
ventilation.
•Turn the patient body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume to mouth to mouth ventilation.
•Push the hook through the skin until the barb protrudes, then cut the hook between the barb and the
skin and gently withdraw the hook.
•Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord bv incorrect handling.
•A pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury.
•Dark color clothing absorb sun rays and help prevent the ultraviolet radiation from getting to the skin.
•Starting the treatment quickly.
•It is most important to prevent a patient from hurting himself.
•Irregular breathing
•Check his puise and start CPR.
•1-1/2 to 2 inches
Class A Fires Solid Combustibles
Fires involving solid combustible materials such as wood, textiles, straw, paper, coal etc.
Class B Fires Flammable Liquids

Fires caused by combustion of liquids or materials that liquify such as petrol, oils, fats, paints, tar, eth
Class C Fires Flammable Gases

Fires caused by combustion of gases such as methane, propane, hydrogen, acetylene, natural gas and
Class D Fires Flammable Metals
Fires involving combustible metals such as magnesium, aluminium, lithium, sodium, potassium and th
Class F Fires Combustible Cooking Media

Fires involving particularly hot or deep oil and grease fires, such as deep fat fryers in commercial kitch
Electrical Fires Electrical Appliances

Fires involving electrical appliances such as computers, electrical heaters, stereos, fuse boxes etc.
per, coal etc.
l, oils, fats, paints, tar, ether, alcohol, stearin and paraffin.
acetylene, natural gas and city gas.
sodium, potassium and their alloys. Combustible metal fires are unique industrial hazards which require special fire extinguishers.
fryers in commercial kitchens or overheated oil pan fires in homes. Wet chemical extinguishers are unique in that they lay a cooling foam
tereos, fuse boxes etc.

cial fire extinguishers.
n that they lay a cooling foam layer on top of the burning fat/oil and react with the liquid, stopping air supply to the fire. Normal water-bas
to the fire. Normal water-based extinguishers with large droplets would cause an 'explosion' of steam and carry burning oils and fats from
arry burning oils and fats from the container. Equally, a CO2 extinguisher's jet would carry burning oil out of the container and also would
he container and also would have insufficient cooling effect to stop re-ignition.

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21. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current.

35. What concentration range of ice corresponds to a close pack?

39. How do you describe an ice blink?

•You should consult the Coast Pilot

•Take the vessel to suitable anchorage nearby and instigate repairs

•Vessel response includes an individual ship identification number

•It is plotted in a precautionary area

•By keeping the vessel on the track that is planned

•It contribute to the protection of marine environment

•The movement of shipping is inhibited by restricted searoom

•It is a yellowish white glare on the underside of a cloud layer

35. What is meant when a planetary aberration is due?

24. Where is the point where the magnetic field is vertical?

30. What does the lubber line of a magnetic compass indicates?

31. Which statement is true about the directive force of a gyrocompass?

32. Which of the following is a cause of compass variation?

35. What is the caused of variation of a magnetic compass?

39. How does the directive force of gyro compass work?

•Variation and deviation

•Gyroscopic inertia will tend to keep the plane of rotation constant.

•variation and deviation

•It is the indication of the vessel's heading.

•It decrease with latitude and maximu at geographical equator.

•Magnetism from the earth magnetic field.

•directive force component

•Your compass has an easterly error.

•magnetism from the earth magnetic field

•Compass error and variation are equal.

•The magnetic force from the earth magnetic field

•It decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator

•You should steer the course to 073 PSC

33. What is an Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Rescue System (AMVER)?

•Joint Rescue Coordination Center (JRCCI

•Parachute red flare

•Initial action stage

•Orange smoke signal

•Commence Search Point

•Double lift method

•Opening and closing the throttle

•3 white star signals

•May sound the danger signal.

31. What is the purpose of the function "Anticlutter" on the radar?

23. What will a veering wind do? Shift in direction "clockwise"

•To the South of you

25. What does a microbiograph as a precision instrument measures?

28. When is a tide be called diurnal?

34. What is another name for 30 degrees North or South Latitude?

23. What will a veering wind do? Shift in direction clockwise

25. What does a microbiograph as a precision instrument measures?

•Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere.

•To the East of you

•Charted records of atmospheric pressure overtime

•Northeast trade winds

•Subtropical high pressure belt

•A line of cumulonimbous clouds.

•Prevailing ocean current directions.

•Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere.

•Charted records of atmospheric pressure overtime

•Backing wind - turn coungter clockwise

•A line of cumulonimbous clouds.

31. When is a tow is said to be "is tripped"?

32. What should be avoided when executing ship beaching?