PRE MOCK CAT – 3

Answers and Explanations

1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 5 5 6 1 7 5 8 2 9 4 10 1

11 5 12 3 13 4 14 3 15 4 16 1 17 3 18 4 19 5 20 5

21 2 22 5 23 5 24 2 25 1 26 2 27 3 28 5 29 1 30 4

31 5 32 2 33 2 34 1 35 2 36 2 37 2 38 3 39 3 40 3

41 3 42 2 43 1 44 5 45 3 46 1 47 3 48 3 49 2 50 1

51 3 52 1 53 3 54 3 55 2 56 3 57 2 58 2 59 4 60 3

61 1 62 5 63 5 64 3 65 5 66 1 67 2 68 1 69 4 70 5

71 3 72 3 73 2 74 4 75 1

MY PERFORMANCE
Total Time Taken Total Correct Incorrect Net
Questions (Min) Attempts Attempts Attempts Score

Logical Reasoning based

Section I 25
Data Interpretation
Language Comprehension
Section II 25
and English Usage
Quantitative Ability Section III 25
TOTAL 75 150

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MCT-0003/08
PRE MOCK CAT - 3 1
For questions 1 to 4: Washington → population density = 34.20
The number of people cannot be in decimals, so they should be in So for integral number of people at least 5 km2 area should be
integers only. Now consider the two digits after the decimal point in there.
every figure of population density column.
Massachusetts → population density = 312.68
Out of the given states for all those states which have an odd number So for integral number of people at least 25 km2 area should
(except multiple of 5) after the decimal, the population density must be be there.
multiplied by 100 to get minimum possible number of people living in
that state. e.g. Maryland. Connecticut → population density = 271.40
So for integral number of people at least 5 km2 area should be
For all those states which have an even number (except multiple of 10 there.
and multiple of 4) after the decimal, the population density must be
multiplied by 50, if the even number after the decimal is a multiple of So out of the given states in terms of area Massachusetts will
4 the population density must be multipled by 25 to get minimum possible definitely have a numberically higher rank than the other states.
number of people living in that state. e.g. New York.
3. 3 All those states which have an odd number (except multiple
If the even number after the decimals is a multiple of 4 as well as 10, of 5) after the decimal will have an area of at least 100 km2
the population density must be multipled by 5, to get minimum possible Among the given states 10 states will definitely have area of
number of people living in the state. 100 km2, i.e. Maryland, Delaware, Florida, Illinois, Hawaii,
Virginia, Georgia, Tennessee, Louisiana and Wisconsin.
For all those states which have odd multiples of 5 after the decimal,
the population density must be multiplied by 20 to get minimum possible 4. 1 Total population of New York = 195.18 × 150 = 29277
number of people living in that state. e.g. Rhode Island.
29277
Total number of families in New York = = 9759
For all those states which have multiples of 20 after the decimal, the 3
population density must be multiplied by 5 to get the minimum possible
number of people living in that state. e.g. Pennsylvania. 5. 5 Minimum possible area of Kentucky = 25 km2
Minimum possible area of Washington = 5 km2
1. 3 Rhode Island → population density = 387.35 Now areas of both Kentucky and Wisconsin are interchanged
For integral number of people in Rhode Island it must have So new area of Kentucky = 5 km2
atleast an area of 20 km2. In this case population of Rhode Population of Kentucky = 39.28 × 25
Island will be 387.35 × 20 = 7747 39.28×25
New Population density of Kentucky =
New York → population density = 195.18 5
For integral number of people in New York must have at least = 39.28 × 5
an area of 50 km2. In this case population of New York will be Population density of Kentucky changes by
195.18 × 50 = 9759 39.28 × 5 – 39.28
= × 100 = 400%
39.28
Pennsylvania → population density = 105.80
For integral number of people in Pennsylvania must have
atleast an area of 5 km2. In this case population of Pennsylvania For questions 6 to 9:
will be 105.80 × 5 = 529
Basic DA Bonus HRA Total Tax
New Hampshire → population density = 53.20 Swapi 10000 4000 5000 7000 26000 4900
For integral number of people New Hampshire must have Yeshu 12000 4200 10000 4000 30200 5400
atleast an area of 5 km2. In this case population of New
Manik 8000 2400 6000 5000 21400 4000
Hampshire will be 53.20 × 5 = 266
Vinita 12000 3000 8000 2000 25000 4800
Louisiana → population density = 39.61
All answers are evident from the table above.
For integral number of people Louisiana must have atleast an
area of 100 km2. In this case population of Louisiana will be
6. 1 7. 5 8. 2 9. 4
39.61 × 100 = 3961
For questions 10 to 14:
Minimum possible aggregate of these four states population
From statement 1 Shane received 0 cookies. From statement 3, [Shane
= 7747 + 9759 + 529 + 266 + 3961 = 22262
and Chris], and [Matthew and Graham] can have [(0,1)(2,3)] or
[(0,2)(1,3)] or [(0,3)(1,4)] cookies respectively.
2. 2 State that will be definitely ranked higher in terms of area will
Using statements 2 and 4 we can conclude that only possible case is
be the one whose minimum possible area is more than the
[(0,3)(1,4)]. So Greame must have got 2 cookies.
minimum possible area of other states.
Using statement 1 and statement 7 we can say that Graham and
Greame like wrestling shows, as Shane likes a sports show and
Michigan → population density = 67.55
there are only two sports shows. From statement 5, Matthew likes
So for integral number of people at least 20 km2 area should
Smackdown and Shane likes Sports Center. So Chris likes Hitz.
be there.
From statement 6 Graham likes Krackjack.
From statement 8 Greame likes Hide n Seek or Good Day. Shane likes
North Carolina → population density = 63.80
Good Day or Bon-Bon. Matthew likes Hide n Seek or Bon-Bon or
Good Day.
So for integral number of people at least 5 km2 area should be
there.

2 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

 21. 2 Statement (A) : (x – y)2 > 0.
No. of It cannot be inferred that (x – y) > 0.
Name TV show Type of Biscuit It can even be (y – x) > 0
cookies
So, statement (A) itself is not sufficient.
Shane 0 Sports Center Good Day/Bon-Bon Statement (B) : (x + y) (x + y) = 4xy
Hide n Seek/Bon- (x + y)2 – 4xy = 0⇒x – y)2 = 0⇒x = y.
Matthew 1 Smackdown
Bon/Good Day So, x >/  y. So, statement (B) in itself is sufficient.
Hide n Seek/Good Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
Greame 2 Raw/Wrestlemania
Day
Chris 3 Hitz Maska Chaska For questions 22 to 25: From the given information, we can
calculate the aggregate number of lines typed by the typists in a day.
Graham 4 Wrestlemania/Raw Krackjack

10. 1 Graham likes Krackjack. Day 1 (Nu m b er of lines 400)

11. 5 Greame likes either Hide n Seek or Good Day.

Hence cannot be determined. 96
92
G au ra v S a njay
12. 3 If Shane likes Good Day then Greame likes Hide n Seek and
then Matthew likes Bon-Bon.
76
13. 4 Chris likes Hitz.

14. 3 Raw – Bon Bon cannot be a matching pair, which is liked by

the same person. S a lim 56 80 A m m ar

For questions 15 to 19: The following table can be drawn.

Number Number Of f ers Of f ers

Number of
B-school of of per per Day 2 (Nu m b er of lines 350)
companies
students of f ers company student
FMS 60 100 125 2.08 1.25
IMT 90 150 225 2.5 1.5 63 70
K a nd arp S a lim
IMI 50 120 150 3 1.25

K.J.Somaiya 70 150 150 2.14 1

70
Narsee
80 150 200 2.5 1.33
Monjee
K a pil 56 91 D ip a k
15. 4 The ratio of number of students to the number of companies
visiting the campus is lowest for both FMS and IMT, i.e. 1.67.

16. 1 IMT has the highest number of offers per student.

17. 3 IMI has the highest ratio. Day 3 (N u m b er o f lines 300)

18. 4 Total salary of the students of FMS = 100 × 7 = Rs. 700 lakh
PPO salary = 25% of 100 × 10 = Rs. 250 lakh
Average annual salary of students not getting the PPO’s 51 54
K a pil S a njay
700 − 250 450
= = = Rs. 6 lakh
100 − 25 75
Hence option (4) is the correct choice. 1 05

19. 5 Though FMS had the best average salary, what constitutes
best placements has not been defined.
So, option (5) is the correct choice, i.e. cannot be determined. G au ra v 48 42 S a lim

20. 5 No information is provided about the year ‘X’, if it is a leap year

or not. Hence option (5) is the correct choice.

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 3

 22. 5 For only Sanjay, the minimum possible sigma and the maximum
possible sigma lie within an integer.
Day 4 Num
( ber of lines 450)
Hence, for remaining six typists, exact sigma cannot be
calculated.

16 2 99 23. 5 For Sanjay, Salim and Ammar, the value of PV can be zero as
S an jay per the following conditions.

Name Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 PV

45 Salim 56 70 42 28 0
Sanjay 96 51 54 99 0
Ammar 80 26 25 81 0
81 63 K an darp
A m m ar
24. 2 Maximum lines that Kapil can type is 55 + 56 + 51 + 44 = 206.
Now Sanjay and Dipak have already crossed that mark.
Hence, both of them have definitely typed more number of
Table shows the number of lines typed by a typist. lines than Kapil.

25. 1 The difference between the maximum and the minimum

Day 1 (Total Day 2 (Total Day 3 (Total Day 4 (Total possible Sigma is least i.e. 0 for Sanjay.
Name
= 400) = 350) = 300) = 450)
Gaurav 92 48 26. 2 The author starts off the passage by talking about the Brits
being skinflint hosts. The second paragraph talks about a
Salim 56 70 42 cocktail party he attended with his wife and using the word
‘mirage’ – an illusion, means that she has had the same expe-
Sanjay 96 54 99
rience as the author and shares in his opinion. He is trying to
Ammar 80 81 substantiate his opinion and using an experience where his
wife comments on something makes it look realistic. This makes
Kapil 56 51 option (2) correct.
Dipak 91 162
27. 3 The author makes this point in the fourth paragraph. He has
Kandarp 63 63 introduced his reasoning in the third paragraph regarding the
explanation for the skinflint nature of the Brits being the
Maximum / wartime austerity, which became an ingrained habit. This is
refuted if one looks at some countries where the same wartime
Minimum
situations prevailed with no impact on the hospitality of the
number of
people. This makes option (3) correct.
lines typed 55/0 55/0 41/24 44/0
by those who 28. 5 The author uses this phrase in the second paragraph which
are not in the uses the name of a famous desert to indicate his main point –
top four the skinflintness of the Brits so that their cocktail parties seem
like being in a desert. This makes option (5) correct.

6able shows the minimum and maximum possible sigma’s. 29. 1 The author mentions in the last paragraph one of the aspects
of the Brit nature to look down upon ostentation, which might
Minimum possible Maximum possible serve to explain the skinflint nature. The public schools are
Name
sigma sigma guilty in that they teach students not to show off. This makes
0 + 48 55 + 48 option (1) correct.
Gaurav = 24 =51.5
2 2
30. 4 epistemology is correct.
56 + 42 56 + 44
Salim =49 =50
2 2 31. 5 analects is correct.
96 + 54 96 + 55
Sanjay = 75 = 75.5 32. 2 prose is correct.
2 2
80 + 24 80 + 55 33. 2 tactile is correct.
Ammar =52 =67.5
2 2 34. 1 pedantic is correct.
51 + 0 51 + 55
Kapil =25.5 =53 35. 2 The best option for the first sentence is sentence B.
2 2
It introduces the topic by talking about the disinterest regarding
63 + 24 63 + 55 the politics of taxation of another country. Sentence C takes
Kandarp =43.5 =59
2 2 that further by elaborating upon why it is a cause of such
disinterest and Sentence D introduces a book that is “different”.
91 + 24 91 + 55
Dipak =57.5 =73 Sentence A is next with information about what lies inside the
2 2 book. DA is a mandatory pair in this case. This makes option
(2) correct.

4 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

36. 2 The author introduces the Wonton factory in sentence C and
sentence B mentions its Vice President and his role. Sentence
D talks about an interesting incident related to the company
and sentence A provides the rationale behind it. DA is a
mandatory pair and this makes option (2) correct.
48. 3 The author mentions this in the fifth paragraph “While finding
ways to get badly governed countries to raise their game is
hard and hugely controversial for outsiders to do, this should
not be a barrier to action on the critical issues.” This makes
option (3) correct.

37. 2 BA is a mandatory pair. The link word is ‘corrupted latin’.
Conclusion C arises from D. Hence DC is also a mandatory
pair. Hence best choice is option (2).
38. 3 ‘enshrined’ means to cherish as sacred & has the association
of respect, ruling out option (3).
39. 3 The correct sentence should be ‘further my education/ ca-
reer’, ‘… future’ is incorrect.
40. 3 The passage refers to the subject of creationism, teaching
evolution and the stance taken by the American courts. The
beginning of the passage provides the hint.
(1) is vague. (2) restricts the idea to the point of view of the
schools. (4) mentions the opinion of the American government
whereas the passage refers to the opinion of the American
court. (5) refers to another idea and does not provide an
appropriate ending.
41. 3 In the para it is stated that one of the linguists’ goals is to
discover the universals concerning language. (1) and (2) talk
about specific rules which is negated by the paragraph. (4) is
incorrect because it talks about particular languages. (5) is
incorrect because it talks of interpretation. (3) is best in line
with the universal theme of the paragraph.
42. 2 The author mentions in the passage a set of political
happenings and then clarifies after he mentions the ‘long term
intimate relationship’ – “I’m separating not from a person but a
cause…”. This makes option (2) correct.
49. 2 The author makes this comment in the seventh paragraph
while talking about the problems that plague aid coming into
country. The issue is not so much the amount as much as the
use it is put to. This makes option (2) correct.
50. 1 The author looks at this issue in the ninth paragraph and the
basic logic for the demand is that the money was wasted by
earlier governments and now countries’ need to pay more
interest than the principal amount. This has to be channeled
from important causes and has a deleterious effect on the
present state. This makes option (1) correct.
51. 3 (xy)z = 26 = 43 = 82 = 641
When
z = 1, xy = 64. The total number of factors of 64 is 7.
z = 2, xy = 8. The total number of factors of 8 is 4.
z = 3, xy = 4. The total number of factors of 4 is 3.
z = 6, xy = 2. the total number of factors of 2 is 2
Hence, total number of positive integral solutions is 16.
52. 1 Diameter of the circle is equal to the side of the smallest
2
square is πr = 77
⇒ r = 3.5 2
⇒ 2r = 7 2 , side of the smallest square.
Diagonal of the innermost square = 14 units.
Diagonal of the largest square will be 14+ [(1.5) × 2] × 4
= 14 + 12 = 26 units
⇒ Area of the largest square

43. 1 The author mentions in the second and third paragraph the 1
= × (diagonal)2 = 338 sq units and area of the smallest
incident of the ‘self styled progressives’ opposing Iraq’s 2
democratization. What he finds objectionable about this is the
( )
2
fact that they have for long supported democratization of square = 7 2 = 98 sq. units.
oppressed people, but in case of Iraq have changed their
stance because they dislike George Bush. This makes option Required difference = 338 – 98 = 240 square units.
(1) correct.
53. 3 List price first increases by 10% and then decreases by
44. 5 The author starts off the passage by talking about a decision 10%.
he has taken regarding his political affiliations. He then  100 + 10   100 – 10 
proceeds to provide reasons for it and traces various points ⇒ ×  × initial list price = final list price
across his life relevant to this event. He is critical of the left,  100   100 
but the tone is about his decision and the rationale behind it.
This makes option (5) correct. 20 × 1002
⇒ Initial list price =
1002 – 102
45. 3 The author mentions his beginnings into the political landscape
from his childhood. He mentions that he was 10 years old and 54. 3 Total number of ways of dividing 24 boys in two distinct
did not know much about politics, all he knew was that – “The
people on the other side were dedicated to preserving my 24!
sub-sections is
24
C12 =
hometown’s backward-looking status quo”. This was the 12!12!
mythology that simplified the decision for him. This makes There can be two ways in which two shortest boys lie in
option (3) correct. different sub-section and correspondingly the remaining
22 boys can be divided into two distinct sub-sections in
46. 1 The author makes this point in the second paragraph and it 22 C
11 ways.
means that the time at which the comment is made, the level of
poverty is the same as it was 135 years ago with no reference 2× 22
C11 12
∴ Probability = 24
=
to the year 2015. This makes option (1) correct. C12 23

47. 3 The author lists the reasons in the fourth paragraph and option
(3) is incorrect as the Commission chaired was for Africa,
not Asia.

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 5

 57. 2 Let, the values of ‘x’ and ‘z’ be denoted by (y − 2 5) and
55. 2
(y + 2 5)
In th e be ginn in g 25 = (y – 2 5 ) (y) (y + 2 5 )
⇒ y3 = 25 + 20y
1 99 0.5 cm ⇒ y=5
Therefore, x + y + z = 3y = 15

58. 2 Selling price of 8 chocolates = Rs. 60.

Since Mr. X made a profit of 32%, the cost price of 10
1 0 .5
chocolates = Rs. 
6000   500 
3.5 7  = Rs.  
W h en in con ta ct  132   11 
9.89 Selling price of 4 chocolates = 48.

 500 
 48 − 11 
Let the number of revolutions per sec = x.   × 100 = 5.6%
Profit percent =
Then, the speed of the smaller wheel 500
11
 7
=  2 π  × ( x ) = 7πx cm / sec
 2
1
Speed of the larger wheel = 14 π x cm / sec 59. 4 B A
In 10 sec, together they travel a distance
= (1990.5 − 9.89) cm
= 1980.61 cm O 2

1980.61 T M 1 Q
∴ = 10
14 π x + 7π x
Or, 21 π x = 198
198 × 7
Or, x = =3
21 × 22 P
22
∴ Speed of smaller wheel = 7 × ×3 Since, OQ = TQ = 2 units, therefore ∆OTQ is an equilateral.
7
= 66 cm/sec ∴ ∠TOQ = 60°
Since, PQ is a tangent to the circle, therefore ∠OQP = 90°.

56. 3 S=
1
=5 Since, PQ is a parallel to OA therefore ∠AOQ = 90°.
4
1− For the same reason ∠BOT = 90°.
5
∴ ∠AOB = 360° – (∠TOQ + ∠AOQ + ∠BOT ) = 120°.
  4 n 
1×  1 −   
 5  a2 – c2 = d2 – b2 = mn. Assuming m > n; we can say
 = 5 1 −  4  
n 60. 3
Also, Sn = 
  a + c = m, a – c = n ...(i)
1−
4   5   OR a – c = 1, a + c = mn ...(ii)
5
Similarly; d – b = 1 and d + b = mn ...(iii)
n
OR d – b = n and d + b = m ...(iv)
4 If (i) & (iv) OR (ii) & (iii) are the cases; we get
⇒ S − Sn = 5 ×  
5 a = d & c = b; but a, b, c & d are distinct.
Hence, only (ii) & (iv) OR (i) & (iii) are correct.
5
3 S − Sn < m+n mn − 1
2 cases (i) & (iii) give a = &b=
2 2
n
4
( )( )
5
⇒ 5×  < 1
1 + m2 1 + n2
5 2 ⇒ x = a2 + b2 =
4

4 1
n mn + 1 m−n
⇒   < Cases (ii) & (iv) give a = and b =
5 2 2 2

5
⇒   >2
n
⇒ x = a2 + b2 =
1
4 (
1 + m2 1 + n2 )( )
4 Hence, (3) is the correct choice.
∴ Minimum possible value of ‘n’ is 4.

6 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

 66. 1
5a
61. 1 5a – 2b = 60% of 150 = 90 or b = − 45
2 D a C
Since (a, b) are integers and a + b ≤ 30, the only possible h2
pairs are (18, 0) and (20, 5). O
h1
62. 5 A student can leave 0 or 1or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 ... or 30
questions unattempted. When a student attempts all the 30
questions and gets 0 or 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or ... out of them A b B
incorrect, then he can have all the scores in the series 150, Let AB = b; CD = a.
143, 136, ... 3. Hence if all the questions are attempted, 22 Let the perpendiculars from O to AB and CD be h 1 , h 2
distinct scores can be achieved. Similarly, we can list all the respectively.
possible scores when a student leaves 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or Triangles AOB and COD are similar.
6 ... questions, out of the 30. Since the ratio of their areas is 1 : 4; the ratio of the proportional
The following table lists the possible scores. sides and the heights h2, h1 must be 1 : 2.
1
Number Area of the trapezium = (a + b) (h1 + h2)
Number of Possible Scores 2
General of
Questions (Maximum to 1
Form Possible (3a) (3h2)
=
Unattempted Minimum) 2
Scores
= 9 × area of the triangle COD = 90 sq cm.
0 150, 143, 136, … , 3 7N + 3 22
1 145, 138, 131, … , 5 7N + 5 21 67. 2 Total product of the factors of
2 140, 133, 126, … , 0 7N 20 N = (26 × 34 × 52)105/2
3 135, 128, 121, … , 2 7N + 2 20 Total product of the factors of N
Which are not multiples of 5
4 130, 123, 116, …, 4 7N + 4 19 = (26 × 34)35/2= 2105 × 370
5 125, 118, 111, … , 6 7N + 6 18 So, total product of the factors of N which are multiples of 5.
6 120, 113, 106, … , 1 7N + 1 18
2315 × 3210 × 5105
=
2105 × 370
When a student leaves 7 questions, the possible scores will
be (115, 108, 101, ... , 3) which are already counted in the = 2210 × 3140 × 5105
case (7N + 3). Similarly, all the possible scores (from 1 to 150)
when 8, 9, 10, ... questions are left unattempted are already 68. 1 The equation will look like, x + (x + 1).......(x + k) = 50.
counted. The total number of possible scores are: 22 + 21 + There are a total of k + 1 terms, average of these k + 1 terms
20 + 20 + 19 + 18 + 18 = 138. Hence the number of scores (2x + k )
which are not possible to achieve are 150 – 138 = 12. Hence is .
2
(5) is correct.
So, (k + 1)(2x + k) = 100 = 22 × 52.
Since x, k are positive integers, the only possible values of
63. 5 3 f(n) = f(n + 1) − f(n − 1) k + 1 is 4 and 5 for which the value of x is 11 and 8 respectively.
⇒ f(n – 1) = f(n + 1) – f(n) ∴ (x, k) = (11, 3), (8, 4)
∴ f(8) – f(7) = f(6) and f(7) – f(6) = f(5)
⇒ f(n + 1) = f(n) + f(n – 1) 69. 4 When two circles having radii r 1 and r 2 circles touch
externally, the distance between their centres = sum of the
⇒ f(3) = f(2) + f(1) = 1 + 1 = 2 radii of the two circles = (r1 + r2)
⇒ f(4) = f(3) + f(2) = 2 + 1 = 3
⇒ f(5) = f(4) + f(3) = 3 + 2 = 5
⇒ f(6) = f(5) + f(4) = 5 + 3 = 8 r1 r2
f(8) − f(7) + f(5) f(6) + f(5) 8 + 5 13
∴ = = =
f(7) − f(6) − f(4) f(5) − f(4) 5 − 3 2 When the circles touch internally, distance between their
centres = difference between their radii = (r1 – r2)
64. 3 Out of the given options only 16 cannot be expressed as a
sum of 3 distinct composite numbers.
21 = 4 + 8 + 9, 23 = 6 + 8 + 9 and 18 = 4 + 6 + 8
Hence option (3) is the correct choice.
r 1– r 2
r 1– r 2
65. 5 10a + b = a2 + b2
10a – a2 = b2 – b Let the radii of the circles with centers O, Q, P and R be R, r1,
a(10 – a) = b(b – 1) → Now b(b – 1) is always even. r2 and r3
⇒ a(10 – a) can be → 2 × 8 = 16 or 4 × 6 = 24 OP = R – r2 = 98
Neither 16 nor 24 can be the product of two consecutive PQ = r1 + r2 = 157
numbers such as (b – 1) and b. OR = R – r3 = 92
PR = r2 + r3 = 170
⇒ R = 180, r1 = 75, r2 = 82 and r3 = 88

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 7

 Alternative Method: 74. 4
Can be directly solved by using the options by equating the
sum and difference. 1 00 m

70. 5 At least one rose means if one rose is there, then 7 sun O’
P
flowers would be there. Or, if two roses are there, means 6
sun flowers and it goes upto 4 roses & 4 sunflowers.
Total number of ways
= 4
C1 × 9C7 + 4C2 × 9C6 + 4C3 × 9C5 + 4C4 × 9C4
C
Q
⇒ 4 × 36 + 6 × 84 + 4 × 126 + 1× 126 O
⇒ 144 + 504 + 504 + 126 = 1278 1 00 m
2 00 m
2500
71. 3 Initial Efficiency per week = = 250 questions. If their starting point is O, and they are meeting for the second
10
time at C, then
After six weeks, total developed questions Either they are meeting for the first time at Q (I)
= 250 × 6 = 1500 questions Or, they are meeting for the first time at P (II)
Remaining questions = 2500 – 1500 = 1000
100 75. 1 Smallest natural number which when divided by 7 leaves a
Increase rate = (1000 – 250) × = 300% remainder of 2 is 2.
250
⇒ The number is of the form 2 + 7K
Now when we divide this number by 8, remainder should be
72. 3 If a + b = 9, then possible pairs of values of a and b not 4.
necessarily in that order is (1,8); (2,7); (3,6) and (4,5) (K = 0) ⇒ 2 divided by 8 ⇒ remainder is 2.
Case 1: (a, b) is (1, 8): a243 + b243 – (ab) 243 = 1 + 2 – 2 = 1. (K = 1) ⇒ 9 divided by 8 ⇒ remainder is 1.
For the below mentioned values of ‘a’ and ‘b’, the value of So, with each increment in K, remainder decreases by 1.
(ab) 243 is greater than the value of (a243 + b243). ⇒ To get remainder as 4 (or 8 – 4 = 4), the decrease must be
Case 2: (a, b) is (2, 7): (ab) 243 – (a243 + b243) = 4 – (8 + 3) carried out six times.
= 3. ⇒K=6
Case 3: (a, b) is (3, 6): (ab) 243 – (a243 + b243) = 2 – (7 + 6)
∴ Smallest natural number which when divided by 7 leaves
= 9.
a remainder of 2 and which when divided by 8 leaves a
Case 4: (a, b) is (4, 5): (ab) 243 – (a243 + b243) = 0 – (4 + 5)
remainder of 4 is 2 + 7 × 6 = 44.
= 1.
LCM (7, 8) = 56
⇒ The number is of the form 44 + 56r.
73. 2 Assume α, β and γ be the roots of the equation Now when we divide this number by 9, the remainder should
x3 + ax2 + bx = c be 6.
Then, α + β + γ = −a, αβ + βγ + γα = b (r = 0) ⇒ 44 divided by 9 ⇒ 8 remainder
(r = 1) ⇒ 100 divided by 9 ⇒ 1 remainder
2 2 2 2 2 So, with each increment in r, remainder gets increased by 2.
So, (α + β + γ ) = α + β + γ + 2( αβ + βγ + γα ) = a
⇒ To get a remainder of 6, r will be like
⇒ α2 + β2 + γ2 + 2b = a2
(r = 1) ⇒ remainder 1
⇒ α 2 + β2 + γ 2 = a2 − 2b (r = 2) ⇒ remainder 3
(r = 3) ⇒ remainder 5
If α, β & γ are all real, then
(r = 4) ⇒ remainder 7
α2 + β2 + γ2 must be positive. But, if α2 + β2 + γ2 is negative,
(r = 5) ⇒ remainder 0
then 2 roots out of (α, β, γ) must be non real numbers
(r = 6) ⇒ remainder 2
(complex numbers).
(r = 7) ⇒ remainder 4
⇒ If a2 < 2b, then all the roots of the equation are not real. (r = 8) ⇒ remainder 6
So, the smallest such number is 44 + 56 × 8 = 492

Alternative Method:
LCM of (7, 8, 9) = 504
When we subtract 3 from the LCM and divide by 7, 8 and 9
respectively, remainders will be 4, 5 and 6. Here, the gap in
these remainders is 1. When we subtract 9 from 501, then
their remainder gap will be doubled i.e. 2, 4 and 6. So, the
required smallest number is 504 – 3 – 9 i.e. 492.

8 PRE MOCK CAT - 3