Neet Papers

[FST-03] FULL SYLLABUS TEST [TEST ID-203]
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
TEST DATE : 25-09-2022
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:
I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

All India Full Syllabus Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 25-Sept-2022
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
u te
tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
s
t In
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : XI Model
SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. If the position of the particle is given in the function 1. x = 4 + t2 – 4t
of time as x = 4 + t2 – 4t. Then find out distance
4
covered by in 4 sec.
(1) 9 m
(1) 9 m
(2) zero (2)
(3) 8 m (3) 8 m
(4) 36 m (4) 36 m
2. If mass is measure in units of  kg, length in m 2. 

and time in s then 1 newton would be : m s
(1) –1–12 unit (1) –1–12
(2) –2 unit (2) –2
(3) –1–1–2 unit (3) –1–1–2
(4) 2 unit (4) 2

3. In the given figure find out average velocity 3.
u te P Q :
tit
between the points P and Q :
s
t In
igh
L P Q
u
P Q
ew u
h h

h h N 
O
O R
R
(1) u sin  (1) u sin 
(2) u cos  (2) u cos 
u2 sin 2 u2 sin 2
(3) (3)
2g 2g
u2 sin  u2 sin 
(4) (4)
sin  sin 
4. A vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main 4. 1 mm
scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale 20 16
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this
vernier callipers, the least count is :
(1) 0.02 mm (1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.05 mm (2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (3) 0.1 mm

(4) 0.2 mm (4) 0.2 mm
NLI / 3
5. A block of mass m is resting on a smooth 5. m
horizontal surface. One end of a uniform rope of m/3
mass (m/3) is fixed to the block, which is pulled in
F
the horizontal direction by applying a force F at
the other end. The tension in the middle of the
rope is :
8
8 (1) F
(1) F 7
7
1
1 (2) F
(2) F 7
7
1
1 (3) F
(3) F 8
8
7 7
(4) F (4) F
8 8
6. Match the following columns : 6.
Column - I Column - II -I - II
a. Boltzmannconstant p. [ML2T–1] a. p. [ML2T–1]
–1 –1
b. Coefficient of q. [ML T ]
viscosity b. q. [ML–1T–1]
c. Planck's constant r. [MLT–3K–1]

u
c. te r. [MLT–3K–1]
d. Thermal s. [ML2T–2K–1]
s
d.
tit s. [ML2T–2K–1]
conductivity
t In
(1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
g h (1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(2) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r Li (2) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(3) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r ew (3) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r
N
(4) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p (4) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p
7. A bomb explodes in mid-air when it has a 7.

horizontal velocity of 20 ms–1. It breaks into two A B
pieces A and B having masses in ratio 1 : 2. If
1:2 A 80
A goes vertically at speed 80 ms–1 , the speed of
B will be : B
(1) 40 ms–1 (1) 40 ms–1

(2) 50 ms–1 (2) 50 ms–1
(3) 60 ms–1 (3) 60 ms–1
(4) 100 ms–1 (4) 100 ms–1
8. A bullet of mass 20 g has an initial speed of 8. 20 cm
1 ms–1, just before it starts penetrating a mud wall 20 g 1 ms–1
of thickness 20 cm. If the wall offers a mean
resistance of 2.5 × 10–2 N, the speed of the bullet 2.5 × 10–2 N
after emerging from the other side of the wall is
close to :
(1) 0.4 ms–1
(1) 0.4 ms–1
(2) 0.1 ms–1
(2) 0.1 ms–1
(3) 0.3 ms–1 (3) 0.3 ms–1
(4) 0.7 ms–1. (4) 0.7 ms–1.
NLI / 4
9. Which of the following figures represents the 9.

motion of a body moving in a straight line under
constant acceleration :
v v
(1) (2)
v v
(1) (2) t t
t t
v v
v v (3) (4)
(3) (4)
t t
t t
10. Work done by centripetal force in a non-uniform 10.

circular motion is:
(1)
(1) zero
(2)
(2) non-zero
(3)
(3) may be zero
(4)
(4) never zero.
u te
11. Assertion: The centre of mass of a two particle 11.
stit :
system lies on the line joining the two particles,
t In
being closer to the heavier particle.
igh
L
Reason: Product of mass of one particle and its
e w :
N equal
distance from centre of mass is numerically
to product of mass of other particle and its distance
from centre of mass.
(1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3)
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
12. When forces F1, F2, and F3 are acting on a particle 12. F1, F2, F3 m
of mass m such that F 2 are F 3 are mutually F2 F3
perpendicular, then the particle remains
stationary. If force F1 is now removed then the F1
acceleration of the particle is :
(1) F1/m (1) F1/m
(2) F2F3/mF1 (2) F2F3/mF1
(3) (F2 – F3)/m (3) (F2 – F3)/m
(4) F2/m (4) F2/m
NLI / 5
13. A vibratory motion is represented by 13.
   
x  2A cos t  A cos  t   A cos(t  ) x  2A cos t  A cos  t    A cos(t   )
 2   2
A  3  A  3 
 cos  t   cos  t 
2  2  2  2 
The resultant amplitude of the motion is :
9A 9A
(1) (1)
2 2
5 A 5 A
(2) (2)
2 2
5A 5A
(3) (3)
2 2
(4) 2A (4) 2A
14. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 14. m1, m 2 m3

connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
u te m1
mass m hangs freely and m and m are on a stit m2 m3
In
1 2 3
rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction t ( = ).

g h
Li
= ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible m1
mass. The downward acceleration of mass e wm is : :( m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
N 1
m2 m3
P
m2 m3
P
m1
m1
g(1  g)
g(1  g) (1) g
(1) g
2g 2g
(2) (2)
3 3
g(1  2 ) g(1  2 )
(3) (3)
3 3
g(1  2 )
(4) g(1  2 )
2 (4)
2
NLI / 6
15. Find the ratio of tension in strings, T 1/T2 = ? 15. Mksfj;ksa esa ruko cyksa dk vuqikr (T1/T2 ) gS%
30
0
T1 30
0
T1
T2 T2
20 kg 20 kg
(1) 3 :2 (1) 3 :2
(2) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh

16. A solid sphere roles up a rough incline plane. The 16.
friction force is:
(1) Acting down the incline (1)
(2) Zero (2)
(3)
(3) Acting up the incline
u te
(4)it
(4) Dependent on the speed
s t
A sphere of mass m , moving with a velocity V, 17.In V
17.
enters a hanging bag of sand and stops. If the mass h
t m
L
of the bag is M and is raised by a height h, then ig M
h
the velocity of sphere was :
w
Mm
Ne Mm
(1) 2gh (1) 2gh
m m
M M
(2) 2gh (2) 2gh
m m
m m
(3) 2gh (3) 2gh
Mm Mm
m m
(4) 2gh (4) 2gh
M M
18. If a particle of mass 2 kg moves along a line 18. 2 2 m/s

y = x + 2 with the uniform velocity 2 m/s. Find its y=x+2
angular momentum about the origin :
(1) 4 2 kg m2/s (1) 4 2 kg m2/s
4 4
(2) kg m2/s (2) kg m2/s
2 2
(3) 4 kg m2/s (3) 4 kg m2/s
(4) 8 kg m2/s (4) 8 kg m2/s
NLI / 7
19. A body of mass m is dropped from 2R from the 19. 2R
surface of earth. The speed of body just before [ R
hitting the earth’s surface will be [R is radius of g ]:
earth, g is acceleration due to gravity]:
h=2R
h=2R
Earth
Earth
R
R
gR gR
(1) (2) 2 (1) gR (2) 2
gR 3
3
gR gR
(3) (4) 2 gR (3) (4) 2 gR
2 2
20. The acceleration (1) and displacement (x) graph 20. (1) (x)
is shown in the figure. The time period of
oscillation is:- u te
a
stit a
t In
igh
x L x
45º
ew 45º
N
(1) 2 seconds (2) 1 seconds (1) 2 (2) 1
1 1
(3) 2 seconds (4) (3) 2 (4)
2 2
21. A man of mass 50 kg is standing on a plank of 21. 50 kg
length 2m and mass 150 kg, which is placed on a 2m 150 kg
horizontal frictionless floor. If the man walked from
A B
end A to B, then actual (i.e. with respect to ground)
displacement of the man is:
50 kg 50 kg
A B A 2m B
2m
150 kg 150 kg
=0 =0
(1) 2 m (2) 1.5 m (1) 2 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m. (3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m.
NLI / 8
22. In the given figure a body rolls without sliping on 22.
a curve path. If maximum height achieved by body h
is h, then shape of the body is :
5 v2 5 v2
h h
6 g 6 g
v2 v2
(1) solid sphere (1)
(2) hollow sphere (2)
(3) ring (3)
(4) disc. (4)

23. A particle of mass 2 kg travels along a straight line 23. 2 kg
with velocity v = b x , where b is a constant. The
v=b x ,
work done by net force during the displacement
x=0 x = 4m
of particle from x = 0 to x = 4m is :
u
(1) tb
te 2
(1) b2
s ti
In 2b
2
(2)
(2) 2b2
t
gh
2
(3) 4b
(3) 4b2
Li 2
(4) 2b.
(4) 2b.
2
ew
24. A body is dropped from rest from heightN
10 m on a 24. 10 m
horizontal floor. If coefficient of restitution between
1
1
body and floor is then maximum height 2
2
attained after first collision is :
(1) 5 m
(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 7.5 m
(3) 7.5 m
(4) 2.5 m. (4) 2.5 m.
25. Select the false statement: 25.
(1) In elastic collision, Kinetic energy during the (1)

collision is not conserved.
(2) 0 1
(2) The coefficient of restitution for a collision between
two steel balls lies between zero and one
(3)
(3) The momentum of a ball colliding elastically with
the floor is conserved
(4) In an oblique inelastic collision between two identical (4)
bodies with initially one of them at rest, final
velocities are perpendicular.
NLI / 9
26. A wire of area of cross-section 10–6 m2 is increased 26. 10–6 m2 0.1%
in length by 0.1%. The tension produced is 1000 N. 1000 N
The Young's modulus of wire is
(1) 1012 N/m2 (1) 1012 N/m2

(2) 1011 N/m2 (2) 1011 N/m2
(3) 1010 N/m2 (3) 1010 N/m2
(4) 109 N/m2 (4) 109 N/m2
27. Assertion: A body that is a good radiator is also a 27. :

good absorber of radiation at a given wavelength.
Reason: According to Kirhhoff's law the

absorptivity of a body is equal to its emissivity at :
a given wavelength.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (1)
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false u te

(3)
s tit
(4)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
t In
gh
28. Match the following columns : 28.
Li
Column - I Column - II -I - II
a. Refraction p. ew
the speed ofNwave a. p.
does not change
b. Reflection q. wavelength
decreases b. q.
c. Reflection from r. frequency does not c. r.
rare to dense change
medium
d. Reflection from s. change of phase by  d. s. 
dense medium
t. phase does not t.
change
(1) a-p,r; b-r,t; c-q,r,t; d-p,r,s
(1) a-p,r; b-r,t; c-q,r,t; d-p,r,s
(2) a-q,r,t; b-p,r; c-r,t; d-p,r,s
(2) a-q,r,t; b-p,r; c-r,t; d-p,r,s
(3) a-r,t; b-p,r; c-q,r,t; d-p,r,s (3) a-r,t; b-p,r; c-q,r,t; d-p,r,s
(4) a-r,t; b-p,r; c-p,r,s; d-q,r,t (4) a-r,t; b-p,r; c-p,r,s; d-q,r,t
29. Suppose ideal gas equation follows 29. VP3 =

VP3 = constant. Initial temperature and volume of T V
the gas are T and V respectively. If gas expand to
27V
27V then its temperature will become :
(1) T (2) 9T (1) T (2) 9T
(3) 27T (4) T/9 (3) 27T (4) T/9

NLI / 10
30. The r.m.s. velocity of a gas at a certain temperature 30.
is 2 times than that of the oxygen molecules at 2
that temperature. The gas can be :
(1) H2
(1) H2
(2) He
(2) He
(3) CH4 (3) CH4
(4) SO2 (4) SO2
31. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed 31.

with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas. The molar
specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is:
(1) 8 (1) 8
(2) 3/2 R (2) 3/2 R
(3) 2R (3) 2R
(4) 2.5 R (4) 2.5 R
32. The P-V diagram of 2 gm of helium gas for a certain 32. AB 2 PV
process A  B is shown in the figure. what is the AB
heat given to the gas during the process A  B :
u te
tit
P
P
s
In
2P0
2P0 B
B
t
igh
L P0 A
P0 A
ew
V0 2V0 V
N V0 2V0 V
(1) 4P0V0 (1) 4P0V0
(2) 6P0V0 (2) 6P0V0
(3) 4.5P0V0 (3) 4.5P0V0
(4) 2P0V0. (4) 2P0V0.
33. A certain mass of gas at 273 K is expanded to 33. 273 K

81 times its volume under adiabatic condition. If 81
 = 1.25 for the gas, then its final temperature is:  = 1.25
o
(1) –235 C (1) –235oC
(2) –182oC (2) –182oC
(3) –91oC (3) –91oC
(4) –0oC (4) –0oC
34. If a Carnot's engine functions at source 34. 127°C 87°C

temperature 127°C and at sink temperature 87°C,
what is its efficiency :
(1) 10% (2) 25%
(1) 10% (2) 25%
(3) 40% (4) 50% (3) 40% (4) 50%
NLI / 11
35. In an adiabatic change, the pressure P and 35. P
temperature T of a monoatomic gas are related
T PT C
c
by the relation P  T C , where c equals :
(1) 5/3
(1) 5/3
(2) 2/5 (2) 2/5
(3) 3/5 (3) 3/5

(4) 5/2 (4) 5/2
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. In a steady state of thermal conduction, 36. 100oC 0oC
temperature of the ends A and B of a 20 cm long
20 cm A 6
rod are 100oC and 0oC respectively. What will be
the temperature of the rod at a point at a distance
of 6 cm from the end A of the rod : (1) –30oC
(1) –30oC
(2) 70oC
(2) 70oC
(3) 5oC
(3) 5oC
(4) 10oC (4) 10oC
37. If 20 gm of water at 300C is mixed with 40 gm of ice 37. 20 300C) 40 (00C)
at 00C temperature then amount of ice melt is :
(1) 7.5 gm (1) 7.5 gm
u te
tit
(2) 32.5 gm (2) 32.5 gm
s
(3) 15 gm
t In (3) 15 gm
(4) ice does not melt
i gh (4)
38. L 38.
In the given figure stress and strain curve is shown A B
w
Ne
of material A and B, then the correct option is (T A (TA TB
and TB are the temperature of body): ):
Stress Stress
A A
B B
Strain Strain
(1) yA > yB (2) TA > TB (1) yA > yB (2) TA > TB
(3) TB > TA (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) TB > TA (4) (1) (3)
39. In a resonance tube, the first resonance is obtained 39.

when the level of water in the tube is at 16cm 16cm
from the open end. Neglecting end correction, the
next resonance will be obtained when the level
of water from the open end is :
(1) 24 cm (1) 24 cm
(2) 32 cm (2) 32 cm
(3) 48 cm (3) 48 cm
(4) 64 cm (4) 64 cm
NLI / 12
40. A wave travelling along positive x-axis is given 40. x- y = Asin(t  kx)
by y = Asin(t  kx) . If it is reflected from rigid
boundary such that 80% amplitude is reflected,
80%
then equation of reflected wave is
(1) y  A sin(t  kx)

(1) y  A sin(t  kx)
(2) y  0.8A sin(t  kx)
(2) y  0.8A sin(t  kx)
(3) y  0.8A sin(t  kx) (3) y  0.8A sin(t  kx)
(4) y  A sin(t  0.8 kx) (4) y  A sin(t  0.8 kx)
41. The frequency of the first harmonic of a string 41.

stretched between two points is 100 Hz. The
100 Hz
frequency of the third overtone is :
(1) 200 Hz
(1) 200 Hz
(2) 300 Hz (2) 300 Hz
(3) 400 Hz (3) 400 Hz
(4) 600 Hz (4) 600 Hz
42. A stretched wire of length 110 cm is divided into 42.

t e 110 cm
three segments whose frequencies are in ratio
titu
ns1 : 2 : 3
1 : 2 : 3. Their lengths must be :
I
t (1) 20 cm; 30 cm; 60 cm
(1) 20 cm; 30 cm; 60 cm
g h
(2) 60 cm; 30 cm; 20 cm Li (2) 60 cm; 30 cm; 20 cm
ew
(3) 60 cm; 20 cm; 30 cm N (3) 60 cm; 20 cm; 30 cm
(4) 30 cm; 60 cm; 20 cm (4) 30 cm; 60 cm; 20 cm
43. If n1, n2, n3.......... are the frequencies of segments 43. n

of a stretched string, the frequency n of the n1, n2, n3..........
composite string is given by
(1) n  n1  n2  n3  .......
(1) n  n1  n2  n3  .......
(2) n  n1  n2  n3  ....... (2) n  n1  n2  n3  .......
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
    ..... (3)     .....
(3) n n1 n2 n3
n n1 n2 n3
(4) n = n1 × n2 × n3 × ........ (4) n = n1 × n2 × n3 × ........
44. The equation of stationary wave along a stretched 44.

x x
string is given by y = 5sin cos40t where y = 5sin cos40t x y
3 3
x and y are in centimetre and t in second. The t
separation between two adjacent nodes is :
(1) 6 cm (2) 4 cm (1) 6 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 3 cm (4) 1.5 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 1.5 cm
NLI / 13
45. The number of beats produced per second by two 45. x1 = x0 sin 646 t x2 = x0 sin 652 t
vibrations: x1 = x0 sin 646 t and x2 = x0 sin 652 t
is:
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 6. (4) 6.
46. An object is tied to a string of length l and is 46. l

revolved in a vertical circle at the minimum
velocity. When the object reaches the uppermost
point, the string breaks and it describes a parabolic
path as shown in the figure under the gravitational A
force. The horizontal range AC in the plane of A AC
would be:
B
B VB
VB
u te
VA A C tit V A A C
Ins
(1) l ht (1) l
g
(2) 2l
Li (2) 2l
ew
(3) 2l N (3) 2l
(4) 2 2l (4) 2 2l
47. Efflux velcoity does't depends upon : 47.
(1) Density if only single liquid filled (1)
(2) Density if two immisible liquid are filled (2)
(3) Depth of orfice from free surface (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
48. Motion under gravity of a particle is : 48.
(1) a uniform motion (1)
(2) non-uniform motion (2)
(3) may be uniform (3)
(4) non-uniform accelerated motion (4)
NLI / 14
49. If an ideal liuqid flows through horizontal pipe as 49.
show n in figure (crossectional area of (B =C
B = crossectional area of C) )
A B A B
C C
(1) PC > PA > PB (1) PC > PA > PB
(2) PC > PB > PA (2) PC > PB > PA
(3) PC = PB > PA (3) PC = PB > PA
(4) VC > VB > VA (4) VC > VB > VA
50. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of 50. R= 2

radius R = 2 m with an angular accleration  = (/4)
 = (/4) rad/s2. The magnitude of average velocity
u te
tit
of the particle over the time it rotates quarter circle
is : s
t In (1) 1.5 m/s
(1) 1.5 m/s
igh (2) 2 m/s
L
(2) 2 m/s
ew (3) 1 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
N
(4) 1.25 m/s
(4) 1.25 m/s
NLI / 15
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (XI-MODEL)

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. For the reaction, 51. ,
1 1 1 1
A 2  B2  AB, H  50 k cal A 2  B2  AB, H  50 k cal
2 2 2 2
If bond energies of A2, B2 and AB are respectively A2 , B 2 AB x/2,

x/2, x/2 and x k cal, the value of x is : x/2 x x
(1) 50 (1) 50
(2) 100
(2) 100
(3) 200
(3) 200 (4) 400.
(4) 400. 52.
52. Given below are two statements : - I:
Statement- I: CFC
Ozone is destroyed by CFC in the upper
stratosphere.
u tIIe:
tit
-
Statement- II :
n s
Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation t I
reaching the earth.
igh
In the light of the above statements, choose L
the
w
Ne
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
53. When acetone react with hydroxylamine then 53.

product (oxime) will form which will show
isomerism :
(1) Optical isomerism
(1)
(2) Geometrical isomerism (2)
(3) Conformational isomerism (3)
(4) None of these (4)
54. Generally, the first ionisation energy increases 54.
along the third period. But there are some
exceptions, the exception is/are :
A. P S B. Na Mg
A. P and S B. Na and Mg
C. Mg and Al D. Be and B C. Mg Al D. Be B
(1) A, C & D only (2) A & C only (1) A, C & D (2) A & C
(3) A, B, C & D (4) Only B (3) A, B, C & D (4) B
NLI / 16
55. Given below are two statements : 55.
Statement I: I:
2-Methylbutane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2- 2- KMnO4 2-
methylbutan-2-ol.
2-ol
Statement II :
II :
n-Alkanes can be easily oxidised to corresponding
n- KMnO4
alcohols with KMnO4.
In the light of the above statements, choose the

below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
56. Match Column-I with Column-II 56. -I -II
Column I Column II
u te I II
(a) Hydrolysis (i) 2AuCl +3HCHO+3H O
3 2
stit
(a) (i) AuCl3+3HCHO+3H2O
 2Au(Sol)+3HCOOH
t In 2Au(Sol)+3HCOOH
igh
+6HCl
L +6HCl
w
Ne
(b) Reduction (ii) As O +3H S 
2 3 2 (b) (ii) As2O3+3H2S 
As2S3(sol)+3H2O As2S3(sol)+3H2O
(c) Oxidation (iii) SO2+ 2H2S  (c) (iii) SO2+ 2H2S 

3S(sol)+ 3HCl 3S(sol)+ 3HCl
(d) Double decom- (iv) FeCl3+3H2O  (d) (iv) FeCl3+3H2O 

position Fe(OH)3(sol)+3HCl Fe(OH)3(sol)+3HCl
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)- (iv) (1) (a)-(i). (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)- (iv)
(2) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)- (ii) (2) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)- (ii)
(3) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)- (iii)
(3) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)- (iii)
(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)- (i)
(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)- (i)
57.
57. Strongest base is :
NH2 NH2
(1) (2) (1) (2)

N
.. N
..
CN CN
(3) (4) .. (3) (4) ..
N N
H H
NLI / 17
58. The compound 58.
X X
(Where Y is an o-, p- directing group (t gkaY o- v kSj p- funsZf' kr l ew
g gS
Y and X is a m-directing group) Y v kS
j X m- funsZ
f' kr l ewg gS
½
is subjected to electrophilic substitution reaction Z
for introduction of Z. The compound formed would
be :
X
X X
X
(1) (2)
(1) (2) Z Y Y
Z Y Y Z
Z
X
X Z
Z (3) (4) 2 3
(3) (4) Both 2 and 3 Y
Y
59.
59. Arrange the following carboxylic acids in the
increasing order of their acidic strength.
1. PhCOOH
1. PhCOOH
2. o-O2NC6H4COOH
2. o-O2NC6H4COOH
3. p-O2NC6H4COOH
3. p-O2NC6H4COOH
u te
tit2 < 4 < 3 < 1
4. m-O2NC6H4COOH
4. m-O NC H COOH
2 6 4
s
(1) 2 < 4 < 3 < 1 (2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
t In(1) (2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
(3) 2 < 3 < 4 < 1 (4) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4

g h (3) 2 < 3 < 4 < 1 (4) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4
60. Li 60.
Amongst the following compounds, the optically
ew is :
active alkane having lowest molecular mass
(1) n-butane
N (1) n-
(2) Isopentane (2)
(3) 3-methyl hexane (3) 3-
(4) 2-Cyclopropyl butane (4) 2-
61. Given below are two statement : One is labelled 61. (A)
as : (R)
Assertion(A): (A) :
o
The H–O–H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5 H–O–H 104.5o
Reason(R): (R) :
The lone pair-lone pair repulsion of electrons is
higher than the bond pair-bond pair repulsion.
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
exaplanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
NLI / 18
62. The density of 4M solution of NaCl is 1.25 gmL-1 62. 4M NaCl 1.25 gmL-1
calculate molality of the solution :
(1) 3 m
(1) 3 m
(2) 1.25 m
(2) 1.25 m
(3) 2.79 m (3) 2.79 m
(4) 3.94 m (4) 3.94 m
63. Nitric oxide reacts with bromine and give nitrosyl 63.
bromide as per the reaction given below

2NO(g) + Br2 (g)  2NOBr (g) 
2NO(g) + Br2 (g)  2NOBr (g)
when 0.087 mol of NO and 0.0437 mol of Br2 are
mixed in a closed container at constant 0.087 NO 0.0437 Br2
temperature, 0.0518 mol of NOBr is obtained at 0.0518 NOBr
equilibrium. Calculate the equilibrium amount of
nitric oxide :
(1) 0.087 mol (1) 0.087 mol
(2) 0.0352 mol (2) 0.0352 mol
(3) 0.0518 mol (3) 0.0518 mol
(4) 0.0480 mol (4) 0.0480 mol

u te
tit
64. Given below are two statements : 64.
s
Statement I:
t In I:
Rate of electrophilic addition on alkene
igh
HI > HBr > HCl > HF. L
ew HI > HBr > HCl > HF.
Statement II : N II :
Order of nucleophilicity
I– > Br– > Cl– > F–

I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
below :
65. The pKa value of weak acid HA is 3.80. The pKb of 65. HA pKa 3.80 BOH pKb
a weak base, BOH is 3.78. The pH of an aqueous 3.78 BA pH
solution at the corresponding salt, BA, will be :
(1) 5.22 (1) 5.22
(2) 9.07 (2) 9.07

(3) 7.01 (3) 7.01
(4) 13.90 (4) 13.90
NLI / 19
66. The hydrated salt, Na2SO4.xH2O undergoes 55.9% 66. Na2SO4.xH2O
loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous 55.9%
the value of x will be :
x
(1) 5
(1) 5
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 7
(3) 7
(4) 10 (4) 10
67. Which can act as buffer :
67.
(1) A mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate
(1)
(2) A mixture of Ammonium chloride and ammonium
Hydroxide (2)
(3) HCN + NaCN (3) HCN + NaCN
(4) All of these (4)
N N N N N N
68. 20 ml HCl, 40 ml H SO and 80 ml HNO3 are 68. 20 ml HCl, 40 ml H SO 80 ml HNO3
2 10 2 4 5 2 10 2 4 5
mixed. The normality of the mixture of the acidic
solution is :
(1) 1/16
(1) 1/16
(2) 5/16 u te (2) 5/16
(3) 3/14 s tit3/14

(3)
(4) 3/8 t In (4) 3/8

69. i
Correct order of thermal stability of followinggh69.
compound is : L
e w (1) GeCl < SiCl 2 2
< SnCl2 < PbCl2
(1) GeCl < SiCl < SnCl < PbCl
2 2 2 N 2 (2) SiCl < GeCl 2 2
< PbCl2 < SnCl2
(2) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2 (3) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2
(3) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2 (4) PbCl2 < SnCl2 < GeCl2 < SiCl2
(4) PbCl2 < SnCl2 < GeCl2 < SiCl2
CH 2CH3 CH=CH2
CH 2CH 3 70.
OH C
CH=CH 2
70.
OH C
B A
B A CHCH 3 CH 2CH2OH
CHCH 3 CH 2CH 2OH
OH
OH
A, B, C
In above reactions A, B, C respectively are :
I.
I. acid catalysed hydration
II. HBO (Hydroboration) II. HBO ( )
III. oxymercuration - demercuration III.

(1) I in all cases (1) I in all cases
(2) I, II, III (2) I, II, III
(3) II, III, I (3) II, III, I
(4) III, I, II (4) III, I, II
NLI / 20
71. The IUPAC name of the compound is : 71.
Cl Cl
Br Br
(1) 3-bromo-4-chlorohept-1-en-6-yne (1) 3- -4- -1- -6-
72. Which is most stable carbocation : 72.
+ +
(1) N (1) N
| |
H H
(2) +
(2) +
u te+
(3)
+
N
s tit
(3) N
|
|
H t In H
igh
L (4)
(4)
+ ew +
N 73.
73. Which is a correct matching set :
I II
Column I Column II
a. CH3COCH3CH3CH2CH3 p. Zn dust, 
a. CH3COCH3CH3CH2CH3 p. Zn dust, 
b. CH3CH2Br  CH2=CH2 q. Na /
b. CH3CH2Br  CH2=CH2 q. Na / dry ether
c. C6H5OH  C6H6 r. KOH (alc.)
c. C6H5OH  C6H6 r. KOH (alc.)
d. C2H5Br  C4H10 s. HI/red P d. C2H5Br  C4H10 s. HI/ P
(1) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r (1) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r
(2) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r (2) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r
(3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q (3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
(4) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p (4) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
74. Enthalpy of combustion of a substance is always : 74.
(1) > 0 (1) > 0
(2)  0 (2)  0
(3)  0 (3)  0
(4) < 0. (4) < 0.
NLI / 21
75. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 75. (A)
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (R)
Assertion(A):
(A) :
Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-
covalent interactions, resulting in hydrogen bond
formation,
Reason(R): (R):
Fluorine is the most electronegative element and HF
hydrogen bonds in HF are symmetrical.
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
exaplanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
76. Which of the following are incorrect (regarding 76.
oxidation number) :
u te
a. Oxidation number of P in hypophosphorous
a.ti
t P +1
acid is + 1 s
Oxidation number of P in phosphorus acid is + 3 t
In b. P +3
gh c.
b.
c. L
Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid i P +4
is + 4 w
Ne
d. P +3
d. Oxidation number of P in ortho-phosphoric
acid is + 3 (1) a b
(1) a and b (2) b d

(2) b and d (3) c a
(3) c and a
(4) c d
(4) c and d
77. The oxidation number of S in Na2S4O6 is : 77. Na2S4O6
(1) +2 (1) +2
(2) +2 and +3 (two S have + 2 and other two have +3). (2) +2 +3 +2 +3
(3) +2 and +3 (three S have +2 and one S has +3).
(3) +2 +3 +2 +3
(4) +5 and 0 (two S have +5 and the other two S have
0). (4) +5 0 +5 0
78. For a given mass of a gas, if pressure is reduced 78.

to half and temperature is increased four times,
then the volume would become :
(1) V/4
(1) V/4
(2) 2V2
(2) 2V2
(3) 6V
(3) 6V
(4) 8V (4) 8V
NLI / 22
79. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-orbitals 79. d2 sp3 - d-
involved in d2 sp3 -hydridisation is
(1) dx2 y2 , dz2

(1) dx2 y2 , dz2
(2) dxy , dx2  y2
(2) dxy , dx2  y2
(3) dz2 , dxz
(3) dz2 , dxz
(4) dxy, dyz (4) dxy, dyz
80. Which of the following statement is correct :
80.
a. Two nodal planes result when two wave
functions overlap axially in opposite phase. a.
b. The shape of NH3 molecule changes from

pyramidal to tetrahedral when it is bonded b. NH3
with BF3 BF3
c. In O3 molecule the formal charge on central c. O3 +1
oxygen atom is +1
(1) a, b c
(1) a, b and c
(2) a b
(2) a and b
(3) b and c (3) b c
(4) a and c
u te c (4) a
Some of the properties of two species NO and 81. t  it NO

81. 3 s 
H3 O +
In
3
+
H O are described below. Which one of them is
3
t
gh a.
incorrect
Li
a. Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom
w
Ne
with different structures
b. Isostructural with same hybridization for the b.

central atom
c.
c. Isostructural with different hybridization for the
central atom d.
d. Similar in hybridization for the central atom

with different structures
(1) a b
(1) a and b
(2) a d
(2) a and d
(3) b, c d
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d (4) a, b, c d
82. The five d-orbitals are designated as dxy,dyz, dxz, 82. d- dxy,dyz, dxz, dx2  y2 dZ2
dx2  y2 and d 2 . The shapes of four d-orbitals are
Z
same. Then which one have different shape :

(1) dZ2
(1) dZ2
(2) dx2  y2
(2) dx2  y2
(3) dxy
(3) dxy
(4) dyz
(4) dyz
NLI / 23
83. The correct order of size among O2–, F–, Na+ and 83. O2–, F–, Na+ Mg2+
Mg2+ is :
(1) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
(1) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
(2) O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+
(2) O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+
(3) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ (3) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
(4) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (4) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
84. Percentage of s-charactor in the orbital forming 84. P4 P-P s-

P-P bond in P4 molecule :
(1) 25% (1) 25%
(2) 50% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (3) 75%
(4) can't predict (4)

85. Glycerol is purified by : 85.
(1) steam distillation (1)
(2) vaccum distillation (2)
(3) sublimation (3)
(4) simple distillation (4)
SECTION-B
t e SECTION-B
86. The correct order of increasing thermal stability 86. K iCO
t tu , MgCO , CaCO BeCO
2 3 3 3 3
of K CO , MgCO , CaCO and BeCO is :
2 3 3 3 3
Ins(1) BeCO < MgCO < K CO < CaCO
(1) BeCO < MgCO < K CO < CaCO
3 3 2 3 3
ht 3 3 2 3 3
g
(2) BeCO < MgCO < CaCO < K CO
3 3 3 2Li 3
(2) BeCO < MgCO < CaCO < K CO
3 3 3 2 3
(3) MgCO < BeCO < CaCO < K CO

3 3 3
e w2 3
(3) MgCO < BeCO < CaCO < K CO
3 3 3 2 3
(4) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3 N (4) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3
87. Arrange the following in increasing order of Lewis 87.
acid character :
a. BF3 b. BCl3 a. BF3 b. BCl3
c. BBr3 d. BI3 c. BBr3 d. BI3
(1) a < b < c < d (1) a < b < c < d
(2) b < c < d < a (2) b < c < d < a
(3) a < d < b < c (3) a < d < b < c
(4) d < c < b < a (4) d < c < b < a
88. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 88.
orthoboric acid :
a. It can be prepared by acidifying an aqueous a.

solution of borax.
b. It has a layer structure in which planer BO3 b. BO3

units are jointed by H-bonding
c. It is highly soluble in cold water

c.
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b (1) a, b c (2) a b
(3) Only c (4) a and c (3) Only c (4) a c
NLI / 24
89. Rate of abstraction of iodine by Ag+ is : 89. Ag+
I I I I
a. b. a. b.
I I
c. c.
(1) a > b > c (1) a > b > c
(2) b > a > c (2) b > a > c

(3) c > a > b (3) c > a > b
(4) a > c > b
(4) a > c > b
90. Which of the following statement is incorrect :
90.
i. Fullerenes have dangling bonds i.
ii. Fullerenes are cage-like molecules ii.
iii. Graphite is most pure form of carbon iii.
iv. Thermodynamically most stable allotropic u te
tit
iv.
form of carbon is graphite. s
(1) i and iii t In
g h (1) i iii
(2) ii and iii Li (2) ii iii
(3) ii and iv ew (3) ii iv
N
(4) i, ii, iii and iv (4) i, ii, iii iv
91. The correct set of four quantum number for the 91. Fe++ Fe+++
electron involved in Fe++ to Fe+++ conversion :
(1) n=3, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2 (1) n=3, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2
(2) n=4, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2 (2) n=4, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2
(3) n=3, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2 (3) n=3, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2
(4) n=4, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2 (4) n=4, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2
92. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no 92.

covalent bond(s):
KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4 KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4
(1) KCl, B2H6, PH3 (1) KCl, B2H6, PH3
(2) KCl, H2SO4

(2) KCl, H2SO4
(3) KCl
(3) KCl
(4) KCl, B2H6
(4) KCl, B2H6
NLI / 25
93. Match List-I with List-II. 93. I II
List-I List-II I II
(a) SF4 (i) sp3 d2 (a) SF4 (i) sp3 d2
(b) IF5 (ii) d2 sp3 (b) IF5 (ii) d2 sp3
(c) NO2+ (iii)sp3 d (c) NO2+ (iii)sp3 d
(d) NH4+ (iv)sp3 (d) NH4+ (iv)sp3
(v) sp (v) sp
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v) (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
94. Which of the following conversions involves 94.

change in both shape and hybridisation :
(1) BF3  BF4 (1) BF3  BF4

u te
t(2)it H O  H O

(2) H2 O  H3 O 
s 2 3
(3) CH4  C2H6 t In (3) CH  C H 4 2 6
(4) NH3  NH4 igh (4) NH  NH 

L 3 4
95. Which one of the following equations does not ew 95.

correctly represent the first law of
N
thermodynamics for the given processes involving
an ideal gas:
( )
(Assume non-expansion work is zero)
(1) : U   w
(1) Adiabatic process : U   w
(2) Isochoric process : U   q (2) : U   q
(3) Isothermal process: q = –w (3) : q = –w
(4) Cyclic process : q = –w (4) : q = –w
96. Consider the reaction equilibrium : 96. :

o
2SO2(g)+ O2(g)  2SO3(g); H = –198 kJ 2SO2(g)+ O2(g)  2SO3(g); H o = –198 kJ
On the basis of Le Chatelier’s principle, the
condition favourable for the forward reaction is :
(1) lowering of temperature as well as pressure
(1)
(2) Increasing temperature as well as pressure
(2)
(3) lowering the temperature and increasing the
(3)
pressure
(4) any value of temperature and pressure (4)
NLI / 26
97. The weakest base among NaOH, Ca(OH)2, KOH 97. NaOH, Ca(OH)2, KOH Be(OH)2
and Be(OH)2 is :
(1) NaOH
(1) NaOH
(2) Ca(OH)2
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) KOH
(3) KOH
(4) Be(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2
98. A similarity between optical and geometrical 98.

isomerism is that :
(1) each form equal number of isomers for a given (1)
compound.
(2) If in a compound one is present then so is the (2)
other.
(3)
(3) both are included in stereoisomerism
(4)
(4) they have no similarity.
99. 0.2 0.147
99. If 0.2 g of an organic compound containing
carbon, hydrogen and oxygen on combustion CO2 0.12
yielded 0.147 g CO2 and 0.12 g water. What will u te
be the content of oxygen in substance :
st(1)it 73.29%
(1) 73.29% t In
g h (2) 78.45%
(2) 78.45%
Li (3) 83.23%
(3) 83.23%
ew (4) 89.50%
(4) 89.50% N
100. B , Be
100. B has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than Be.
Consider the following statements :
(a) 2s 2p
(a) it is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s
electron.
(b) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the (b) B 2p Be 2s
nucleus by the inner core electrons than the
2s electrons of Be.
(c) 2s electron has more penetration power than
(c) 2s 2p
2p electron.
(d) atomic radius of B is more than Be.
(d) B Be
(Atomic number B = 5, Be = 4)
( B = 5, Be = 4)
The correct statements are :
:
(1) a, b and c
(1) a, b c
(2) b, c and d
(2) b, c d
(3) a, c and d (3) a, c d
(4) a, b and d (4) a, b d
NLI / 27
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (XII-MODEL)

SECTION–A–(PART-1) SECTION–A–(PART-1)
101. Given below are two statements 101.
Statement I:
-I:
The ammonia synthesis by nitrogenase requires a very
high input of energy
Statement II :
The enzyme nitrogenase is highly sensitive to the
- II :
molecular oxygen
Choose the correct answer from the option given

below:

(1) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

Statement I:
C4 Plants lacks photorespiration
u te- I :
Statement II :
stCit 4
In C4 Plant both RUBISCO and PEPcase enzyme
t In - II :
present.
g h
Li
C 4
RUBISCO PEPcase
below: e w
N
(1) I II

Statement I:
-I:
Caecum is a small blind-sac which hosts some
parasitic microorganism.
Statement II :
The vermiform appendix which is a vestigial organ arises
- II :
from the caecum.

below:

(1) I II
NLI / 28
Statement I:
-I:
Lysozyme present in saliva act as an antiviral and
antifungal agent that promotes infection.
Statement II :
Large amount of lipases are also secreted by gastric - II :
glands

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Statement I:
-I:
The mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained
u te
by sliding filament theory.
stit
Statement II :
t In
Sliding filaments theory states that contraction of ag h - II :
L
muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thick
i
filaments over the thin filaments. w
Ne
below:
106. In the given below example, How many animals 106.
are member of super class pisces:
Dog fish, Saw fish, Flying fish, ,
Cuttle fish, Devil fish, jelly fish, Silver fish
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 5 (4) 5
NLI / 29
107. How many matching are correct with reference to 107.
photosynthesis
a. –
a. Photosynthesis – Physico-chemical
process b. –
b. Joseph Priestley – Discovery of c. –
Hydrogen
c. cornelius van Niel – Mouse and Tobacco
experiment plant used d. –
H2O
d. Purple and green – H2O used as hydrogen
sulphur bacteria donor (1)
(1) Three (2)
(2) Four
(3)
(3) Two
(4) One (4)
108. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 108.
statement
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
(a) This compound is a nucleoside called N (a)
adenosine
(b) This compound is a type of water insoluble (b)
molecule
(c)
(c) This compound is a type of Coenzyme
(d)
(d) This compound is present in plant and animal
(1) b, d
(1) b, d
(2) a, d (2) a, d
(3) c, d (3) c, d
(4) Only d (4) d
109. How many matching are correct 109.
a. Duodenum - C shaped a. - C
b. Stomach - J shaped b. - J
c. Duodenum - A shaped c. - A
d. Vasa recta - V shaped d. - V
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 1
(4) 1
NLI / 30
110. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in : 110.
(1) Plasmodium (1)
(2) Amoeba (2)
(3) E.coli (3)
(4) Chlamydomonas (4)
111. Choose the correct option, mycorrhiza is a 111.

symbiotic association of fungus with roots system
of higher plant which helps in:

(a)
(a) Absorption of water
(b)
(b) Mineral nutrition
(c)
(c) Translocation
(d)
(d) Gaseous exchange.
Select the correct options from the above codes:
(1) Only a
u te a
(1)
(2) Only b s tit b

(2)
t In
(3) a and b
g h (3) a b
(4) b and c. Li (4) b c
ew
112. In the given below diagrams curd making
organism are related with :
N 112.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) a
(1) a
(2) b
(2) b
(3) c
(3) c
(4) d (4) d
113. Ovary is inferior in the flowers of : 113.
(1) Cucumber (1)
(2) Mustard (2)
(3) Plum (3)
(4) Brinjal (4)
NLI / 31
114. Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Chara, Dictyota, 114.
Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, Fucus, Porphyra
and Polysiphonia, etc., are the examples of green a
plants. Number of organism which having
chlorophyll a
(1) 11
(1) 11
(2) 8
(2) 8
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 5 (4) 5
115. The given diagram is 115.
u te
(1) Dicot root
s tit
(1)
(2) Monocot root t In
g h (2)
(3) Dicot stem Li (3)
ew
(4) Monocot stem N (4)
116. In the given below examples how many animals 116.

are Triploblastic
, , , , , , ,
Hydra, Spongilla, Sycon, Adamsia, Meandrina,
, ,
Taenia, Cockroach, Ctenoplana, Physalia, Sepia
(1) 7
(1) 7
(2) 6
(2) 6
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 3 (4) 3
117. Which is a correct matching set : 117.

(1) Metamerism  Earthworm (1)
(2) Coelomate  Cockroach (2)
(3) Fresh water sponge  Spongilla (3)

118. The total number of chamber of heart occurs in 118.
cockroach
(1) 13 (2) 12
(1) 13 (2) 12
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 2 (4) 1
NLI / 32
119. Amyloplast is 119.
(1) A type of Leucoplast (1)
(2) A type of Chromoplast (2)
(3) Differentially permeable membrane (3)
(4) Impermeable membrane (4)
120. How many radial spokes are present in a flagella: 120.
(1) 18 (1) 18
(2) 9 (2) 9
(3) 27 (3) 27
(4) 36 (4) 36
121. How any spermatheca are present in earthworm 121.
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 2 (4) 2
122. Which one of the following statement are correct 122.
for events of metaphase:
te
(1) Centromere split and chromatids separate (1)
u
(2) Chromosome at opposite poles and gain their iden
s tit
(2)
tity as discrete elements
t In
(3) Chromatids move to opposite pole
igh (3)
(4) None of these L (4)
w
123. Synapsis occurs in : Ne 123.
(1) Zygotene (1)
(2) Prophase I (2) I
(3) Meiosis I (3) I
(4) All (4)
124. Which one of following statements are correct for 124.

crossing over
(1)
(1) Recombination of genetic material
(2)
(2) Responsible for variation
(3) Important for the process of evolution (3)
(4) All (4)
125. What will be the number of the chromosomes in 125. S

human in prophase of mitosis if the number of
chromosomes in S-phase is 46 :
(1) 44
(1) 44
(2) 23
(2) 23
(3) 46 (3) 46
(4) 92 (4) 92
NLI / 33
126. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 126.
(1) Primary metabolite – Alanine (1) –
(2) Primary metabolite – Curcumin (2) –
(3) Drugs – Vinblastin (3) –
(4) Pigments – Carotenoids (4) –
127. How many matching are correct: 127.
Column – I Column – II I II
a. Collagen – Proteins a. –
b. Trypsin – Enzyme
b. –
c. Insulin – Vitamins
c. –
d. Antibody – Fights infectious
agents d. –
e. -helix – Secondary structure e. - –

structure of protein
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 4
u te (3) 4
(4) 1 s tit1
(4)
t In
128. How many matching are correct according to 128.
activator of enzyme : igh a. PEPcase
L – Mg+2
a. PEPcase – Mg w +2
Ne
b. RUBISCO – Mo+2
b. RUBISCO – Mo+2
c. – Zn+2
c. Carboxypeptidase – Zn+2
d. – Cl–
d. Peroxidase, Nitrogenase – Cl–
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
129. How many matching are correct with reference 129. C4

to C4 plant
a. RUBISCO –
a. RUBISCO – Mesophyll cells
b. PEP – 3
b. PEP – 3 carbon molecule
c. OAA – Primary CO2 c. OAA – CO2

acceptor d. –
d. Calvin pathway – Takes place in
Bundle sheath cells
(1) (2)
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) One (4) Two (3) (4)

NLI / 34
130. Match column I with column II and select the 130. I II
correct option from the codes given below :
Column I Column II I II
A. RQ (i) Chemiosmotic ATP A. RQ (i)
synthesis ATP
B. Mitchel (ii) Muscle fatigue B. (ii)
C. Cytochromes (iii) Inner mitochondrial C. (iii)
membrane
D. Lactic acid (iv) Alcoholic fermentation D. (iv)
E. Yeast (v) Respirometer E. (v)
(1) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(iv) (1) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(iv)
(2) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii) (2) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(iv) (3) A-(i), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(iv)
(4) A-(v), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(i) (4) A-(v), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(i)
131. FAD acts as an electron acceptor in between : 131. FAD
(1) Fumaric and malic acid (1)
(2) Succinic and fumaric acid
u te (2)
(3) Malic and oxaloacetic acid tit
(3)
s
(4) Citric and isocitric acid
t In (4)
i
132. To speed up the malting process in brewinggh132.
industry which PGR is used :
L
w
(1) IAA Ne (1)
(2) Cytokinin (2)
(3) Gibberellin (3)
(4) Ethylene. (4)
133. Read the following and choose the incorrect 133.

statement amongst the following :
(1)
(1) Vernalisation promotes early flowering of plants
(2)
(2) Wheat and barley have only one kind of variety
(3)
(3) Vernalisation seen in Biennial plants
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4)
134. Which one is Rh incompatible marriage : 134. Rh
(1) Rh negative female and Rh positive male (1) Rh Rh
(2) Rh positive female and Rh positive male (2) Rh Rh
(3) Rh negative female and Rh negative male (3) Rh Rh
(4) Rh positive female and Rh negative male (4) Rh Rh
NLI / 35
135. Which one of the following is the correct 135.
statements for the given below diagram
A A
B B
(1) A – Secretes steroidal hormones (1) A –
(2) B – Secretes steroidal hormones (2) B –
(3) A – Secretes aminoacid derivative hormones (3) A –
(4) A – Secretes hormones of flight or fight (4) A –
SECTION–B–(PART-1) SECTION–B–(PART-1)
136. Which one of the following is the correct state 136. ADH
ments for ADH or vasopressin : te
(1)itu
(1) Enzyme that hydrolyses peptides
s t
(2) Hormone released by pituitary that promotes re-
t In (2)
absorption of water from latter parts of the tubule h
g
(3) Hormone that promotes glycogenolysis Li
e w (3)
(4) Energy rich compound connected with N muscle
contraction. (4)
137. Match the column I with column II 137. I II
I II
Column I Column II
(a) (i)
(a) Bilirubin and (i) Parotid
biliverdin
(b) Hydrolysis of (ii) Bile (b) (ii)
starch
(c) Digestion of fat (iii) Lipase (c) (iii)
(d) Salivary gland (iv) Amylase (d) (iv)
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
NLI / 36
138. How much air remains in lungs after forcible 138.

expiration
(1) 1500 ml (1) 1500 ml
(2) 1400–1600 ml (2) 1400–1600 ml
(3) 1100–1200 ml (3) 1100–1200 ml
(4) 1000–1100 ml (4) 1000–1100 ml
139. How many statement are correct for fungi 139.

a. All member are multicellular a.
b. All member are heterotrophic b.
c. Cell wall are made up of chitin and c.

polysaccharides
d. They show most extensive diversity in d.
photosynthesis
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 1
(2) 1
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 4
u te(4) 4
140. Given below are two statements 140. tit

Statement I:
Ins -I:
Muscle fatigue due to accumulation of lactic Acid. t
Statement II : igh
Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing
L
pigment called myoglobin. e w - II :
N
below:


Statement I: -I:
RAAS mechanism increases GFR.
RAAS GFR
Statement II :
- II :
ANF Decreases GFR.
ANF GFR
below:
NLI / 37
Statement I:
-I:
An adult human excretes on an Average 1 to 1.5 litres
of Urine per day. 1 1.5
Statement II :
An adult human excretes on an average 250-300 gm - II :
of urea per day.
250-300
below:

Statement I:
-I:
Pectoral girdle consist of two coxal bones.
Statement II :
u te
Each coxal bones is formed by the fusion of three
stit - II :
bones.
t In
Choose the correct answer from the option giveng h
below: Li
e w
N

Statement I:
-I:
The CNS includes the brain and the spinal chord.
Statement II :
The PNS is divided into two divisions called somatic - II :
neural system and autonomic neural system.

below:


NLI / 38
Statement I: -I:
The fore brain consists of cerebellum, thalamus and
hypothalamus.
Statement II :
- II :
Corpus callosum is unique character of mammalian
brain.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

Statement I:
-I:
Skeletal system consists of a framework of only bones.
Statement II :
u te
Skeletal system is grouped into two principal divisions
– The axial skeleton and the appendicular skeletion. stit - II :
t In
Choose the correct answer from the option given h
g
below: Li
e w
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Nincorrect
(1) I II
147. Which of the following are asexual reproductive 147.

structure in fungi
(1)
(1) Zoospore
(2)
(2) Conidia
(3) Sporangiospores (3)
(4) All (4)
148. What is similar feature in between angiosperm, 148.

pteridophytes, gymnosperms :
(1) Dominant sporophyte (1)

(2) True stem, leaves and root (2)
(3) Vascular tissue (3)

NLI / 39
149. In the given below example. How many plants 149.
are nonspermatophytes
Spirogyra, Sargassum, Fern, Funaria, Cycas, Pinus,
Volvox, Adiantum, Salvinia, Equisetum, Ginkgo,
Psilotum
(1) 3 (2) 9
(1) 3 (2) 9
(3) 8 (4) 7 (3) 8 (4) 7
150. Which one of the following plant not related with 150.
the given diagram
(1) Porphyra
(1)
u te
(2) Polysiphonia
s tit
(2)
(3) Polytrichum
t In (3)
(4) All of these igh (4)
L
SECTION–A–(PART-2)
ew SECTION–A–(PART-2)
N
151. How many statements are correct with 151.
reference to the given figure :
(a)
(a) It is present in Leaf, root (b)
(b) It has a structure which absorbed the water
(c) It has cell division area (c)
(d) Above structure is formed by embryonic
(d)
plumule
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
NLI / 40
152. Which one of the following is the correct 152.
statements:
(1)
(1) Palisade parenchyma present in tomato
(2)
(2) Bulliform cells occurs in potato
(3) Both palisade and spongy parenchyma present in (3)

monocot leaf
153. Which of the following statements are correct for 153.

skeletal muscle fibre
(1) Skeletal muscle fibre taper at both ends (1)
(2) It is neurogenic (2)
(3) It is Involuntary, nonstriated (3)
(4) All (4)

154. Which is the correct statements between 70S and 154. 70S 80S
80S ribosomes
te
a. In both larger unit are different a.
b. In both smaller unit are different b.tit
u
s
c. Both are present in PPLO
t In c. PPLO
g h
Li
d. Both are present in Slime moulds d.
(1) b, c, d
ew (1) b, c, d
(2) Only a, d
N (2) a, d
(3) c, d (3) c, d
(4) a, b, d (4) a, b, d
155. The correct descending order of time duration of 155. M-
deferent stage in M-phase of cell cycle is :
(1) Prophase > Telophase > Metaphase > Anaphase (1) > > >
(2) Prophase > Metaphase > Telophase > Anaphase (2) > > >
(3) Telophase > Prophase > Anaphase > Metaphase
(3) > > >
(4) Metaphase > Anaphase > Prophase > Telophase
(4) > > >
156. If we make 100 ATP through ETS then how many 156. 100 ATP ETS
number of NADH2 and FADH2 respectively required:
NADH2 FADH2 :
a. 20, 20 a. 20, 20
b. 18, 23 b. 18, 23
c. 24, 14 c. 24, 14
d. 12, 32 d. 12, 32
(1) Only a (2) Only a, b (1) a (2) a, b
(3) Only a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d
NLI / 41
157. Which of the following options correctly represents 157.
the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema,
respectively :
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory
(1)
surface area
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; increased (2)
respiratory surface area
(3) Increased respiratory surface area; Inflammation of
bronchioles (3)
(4) Decreased respiratory surface area; Inflammation
of bronchioles (4)
158. What is the relation between P50 and affinity of 158. P50
haemoglobin for O2 :
(1) Affinity of haemoglobin for O2  P50 (1) O2  P50
1 1
(2) Affinity of haemoglobin for O2  (2) O2 
P50 P50
(3) Affinity of haemoglobin for O2  (P50)2 (3) O2  (P50)2
1 1
(4) O2 
(4) Affinity of haemoglobin for O2 
P50  2
u te P50  2
159. t
it
159. Incomplete double circulation occurs in : s
t In (1)
gh (2)
(1) Whale
(2) Scoliodon Li
(3) Salamander ew (3)
N
(4) Ornithorynchus (4)
160. Which of the following are correct statements : 160.
(i) Auxin help to initiate rooting in stem cutting (i)
(ii) Ethylene promotes root growth

(ii)
(iii) Ethylene promotes root hair formation
(iii)
(iv) IAA and IBA are natural auxin
(iv) IAA IBA
(1) i, ii and iii only (1) i, ii iii
(2) i and ii only (2) i ii
(3) i, iii and iv only (3) i, iii iv
161. ABA acts antagonistic to : 161. ABA
(1) Ethylene (1)
(2) Cytokinin (2)
(3) Gibberellic acid (3)
(4) IAA. (4) IAA.
NLI / 42
162. At which stage of glycolysis does dehydration 162.
occurs
(1) 
(1) Phosphoglycerate  Phosphoenolpyruvate
(2) 
(2) PEP  Pyruvic acid
(3) 3 PGA  2 PGA (3) 3 2
(4) BPGA  3 PGA (4) 3
163. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles 163.

mostly due to genetic disorder occurs in
(1) Myasthenia gravis (1)
(2) Muscular dystrophy (2)
(3) Osteoporosis (3)
(4) Tetany (4)
164. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are 164.

the examples of those that can easily pass through
the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a
receptor inside it :
u te
(1)it
(1) Somatostatin, oxytocin
s t
(2) Cortisol, testosterone t In (2)
igh (3)
(3) Insulin, glucagon L
(4) Thyroxin, Insulin ew (4)
N
165. In which kingdom cell wall are absent : 165.
(1) Animalia (1)
(2) Fungi (2)
(3) Plantae (3)
(4) Monera (4)
166. Golgi apparatus were observed by Camillo Golgi 166.
in 1898. Which of the following is wrong statement
regarding it :
(1)
(1) Diameter of cisternae is 5 m to 10 m
(2)
(2) The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near
the mitochondria
(3)
(3) It is site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) (1) (2)
NLI / 43
167. Which of the following statements is incorrect : 167.
(1) Imbibition is diffusion of water against the (1)

concentration gradient
(2) Water potential gradient between the absorbent and (2)

the liquid imbibed is essential for imbibition
(3) In hypotonic solution their is higher water potential (3)

as compared to cytoplasm
(4) Absorption of water by seeds and dry wood is (4)

example of imbibition.
168. Essential elements that are component of energy 168.

related chemical compounds in plants :
(1) Mg in chlorophyll (1)
(2) P in ATP (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Oxygen.
u te
(4)
169. Assertion : Scientist believed that reptiles are 169. ti :

t
s
ancestor of birds.
t In
Reason : In birds scales are present on Hind limb igh :
L
e w
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) N
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
170. How many matching are correct : 170.
a. Hypertension – 160/90 mm Hg a. – 160/90 mm Hg
b. Stroke volume – 170 ml of Blood b. – 170

c. Duration of a cardiac– 0.08 second
c. – 0.08
cycle
d. – 5000
d. Cardiac output – 5000 ml
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
NLI / 44
171. Read the given name carefully 171.
Ustilago, Puccinia, Neurospora, Claviceps,
Aspergillus, Trichoderma. .
How many fungi is/are imperfect
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 5 (4) 5
172. Respiratory climactic effect is shown by which 172.

PGR:
(1) Abscisic acid (1)
(2) Auxin (2)
(3) Gibberellin (3)
(4) Ethylene (4)
173. Assertion : In Humans due to non functioning of 173. :

parietal or oxyntic cell protein digestion effected. u te
Reason : Parietal cell or oxyntic cell secretes HCl s tit :
that are necessory for conversion of pepsinogen t I
n HCl
to pepsin.
igh
L
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) e w (1) (A) (R) (R)
N (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
174. Which of the following statement is true regarding 174.

female reproductive system in frog
(a) consist of a pair of ovary, situated near kidney (a)

and functionally connected to kidneys,
(b) A pair of oviduct opens into cloaca separately. (b)

female lays 25000-30000 eggs at a time
(c) fertilisation external and takes place in water
(d) the larval stage tadpole undergoes (c)

metamorphosis to become adult
(d)
(1) all true
(1)
(2) a,b,c (2) a,b,c
(3) b,c,d (3) b,c,d
(4) c, d (4) c, d
NLI / 45
175. How many of the following statements are correct 175.
with reference to the given below diagram of
different animals:
a b
a b
c
c d
d
A. All are vertebrate
A.
u te
tit
B.
B. All are chordate
C. All are viviparous animal s C.
D. All are four chambered heart containing t In D.
E.
animals
Only b, c have scales igh E. b, c
(1) 2
L (1) 2
(2) 4 ew (2) 4
(3) 3 N (3) 3
(4) 1 (4) 1
176. The solubility of CO2 in blood higher than that of 176. CO2 O2
O2 (1) 5 - 10
(1) 5 - 10 Times
(2) 20 - 25
(2) 20 - 25 Times
(3) 25 - 50
(3) 25 - 50 Times
(4) 40 - 50
(4) 40 - 50 Times
177. Assertion (A) : In Cycas female cone is absent 177. (A) :
Reason (R) : In Cycas due to large size of ovule (R) :

megasporophyll are not associates to form female
cone
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (3) (A) (R)

NLI / 46
178. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the 178.

light reaction is (1) PS II, PSI,
(1) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI, ferredoxin (2) PSI, PS II,
(2) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, ferredoxin
(3) PSI, , PSII,
(3) PSI, ferredoxin, PSII,
(4) PSI, PS II,
(4) PSI, cytochromes, plastoquinone, PSII, ferredoxin
179. In meiosis how many cycle of DNA replication 179.
occurs :
(1) One (1)
(2) Two (2)

(3) Three (3)
(4) No replication occurs. (4)
180. Which one gives the most valid and recent 180.
explanation for stomatal movement :
(1) Starch hydrolysis (1)
(2) Guard cell photosynthesis (2)
(3) Transpiration
u te (3)
(4) Potassium influx and efflux s tit

(4)
n
tI
181. Plant follows different pathways in response to h181.
g
Li
environment to form different kind of structures
called ew
N (1)
(1) Senescence
(2)
(2) Plasticity
(3)
(3) Differentiation
(4)
(4) Dedifferentiation
182.
182. Find out the incorrect statements
a.
a. Family with good ornamentals - Lily family
b.
b. Family with mostly herbs, shrubs and rarely
small trees- Potato family
c. Family widely distributed in tropics, subtropics c.

and even temperate zones - Potato family
d. Family with monothecous anther and d.

diadelphous stamens–Fabaceae
(1) a, b (1) a, b
(2) a, b, c (2) a, b, c
(3) d (3) d
(4) c, d (4) c, d
NLI / 47
183. When a flower which can be divided into two equal 183.
vertical halves only in one particular vertical
plane:
(1)
(1) Actinomorphic
(2)
(2) Zygomorphic
(3)
(3) Cyclic
(4) All (4)
184. Apocarpous condition is found in 184.
(1) Lotus and tomato (1)
(2) Tomato and rose (2)
(3) Mustards and tomato (3)

(4) Lotus and rose (4)
185. Which of the following statement about early 185.
wood is incorrect
(1) Formed during spring (1)

(2) It has large number of xylary elements (2)
u te
tit
(3) The wood is lighter in colour (3)
s
(4) It has a higher density than late wood
t In (4)
SECTION–B–(PART-2)
igh SECTION–B–(PART-2)
L
186. In naked seed bearing plants which is thewchief 186.
water conducting element : Ne (1)
(1) Vessels
(2)
(2) Companion cells
(3)
(3) Conjunctive tissue
(4)
(4) Tracheids
187.
187. Select the correct statements for dicot root:
(1)
(1) Vascular cambium is only primary in origin
(2) Vascular cambium is only secondary in origin (2)
(3) Vascular cambium is absent (3)
(4) Vascular cambium is circular initially
(4)
188. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are
188.
collectively called :
(1) Phellem
(1)
(2) Phelloderm (2)
(3) Phellogen (3)
(4) Periderm (4)

NLI / 48
189. Adjacent cell communicate with each other by 189.
which junction :
(1) Tight junction (1)
(2) Gap junction (2)
(3) Adhering junction (3)
(4) Ligament (4)
190. Which is a secretion of exocrine gland : 190.
(1) Earwax (1)
(2) Thyroxine (2)

(3) Oil (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4)
191. In systematics which two processes are included: 191.
(1) Only indentifications and taxonomy (1)
(2) Only classifications and nomenclature (2)
(3) Taxonomy and phylogeny (3)
(4) Only phylogeny and identifications u te
tit
(4)
192. Plant species in the botanical garden are grown 192. s
for identifications purposes and each plant is t
In
labelled providing information for which : igh
L
(1) Botanical name and family w
Ne
(1)
(2) Scientific name and family (2)
(3) Only botanical name (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

193. Assertion (A) : In humans cardiac muscles are 193. (A) :
involuntary in nature.
(R) :
Reason (R) : In humans cerebrum does not directly
control the activities of cardiac muscles.
explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
194. The accepted mechanism used for the 194.
translocation of sugar from source to sink is called
the
(1) Pressure flow hypothesis (1)
(2) Mass flow hypothesis (2)
(3) Starch-sugar interconversion (3)

(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
NLI / 49
195. A type of proteins form huge pores in the outer 195.

membrane of the plastids, mitochondria and some
bacteria allowing molecules up to the size of small
proteins to pass through :
(1) Porins (1)
(2) Inorganic catalyst (2)
(3) NAD and FAD (3) NAD FAD
(4) FMN (4) FMN
196. Which of the following is incorrect statements: 196.
(1) Water is essential for all physiological activities of (1)

the plants and play a very important role in some
living organism
(2) Main content of protoplasm is water (2)

(3) A watermelon has 92% water (3)
(4) A mature corn plant absorb 3 litres of water in a (4)
day
197. Which of the following is incorrect statement :

te
197.
(1) Pure water has highest water potential (1)itu
s t
(2) Water molecules possess kinetic energy
t In (2)
(3) Water potential is denoted by Latin symbol  g h (3) w
Li w
(4) Pressure potential is usually positive

e w (4)
N
198. In the given figure, which is the correct statements 198. A, B C
for A, B and C :
(i) A-
(i) A–living tissue help in food translocation
(ii) A–help in water transport
(ii) A-
(iii) C–Impervious for water
(iii) C-
(iv) B–outer boundary of cortex
(iv) B-
(1) i, iii
(1) i, iii
(2) ii, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, iv
(3) ii, iii (3) ii, iii
(4) ii, iv (4) ii, iv
NLI / 50
199. Interfascicular cambium originates from : 199.
(1) Endodermis (1)
(2) Phloem parenchyma (2)
(3) Pericycle (3)
(4) Medullary rays (4)
200. Assertion (A) : The posterior pituitary gland is not 200. (A) :
a true endocrine gland.
Reason (R) : The posterior pituitary gland only (R) :

stores and release hormones
explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
te
u
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 51

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[FST-03] FULL SYLLABUS TEST [TEST ID-203]

ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

TEST DATE : 25-09-2022

Please read the instructions carefully :

• The important points to note:

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2. If mass is measure in units of  kg, length in m 2. 

(1) –1–12 unit (1) –1–12

(2) –2 unit (2) –2

(3) –1–1–2 unit (3) –1–1–2

(4) 2 unit (4) 2

(1) u sin  (1) u sin 

(2) u cos  (2) u cos 

(1) 0.02 mm (1) 0.02 mm

(2) 0.05 mm (2) 0.05 mm

(3) 0.1 mm (3) 0.1 mm

c. Planck's constant r. [MLT–3K–1]

7. A bomb explodes in mid-air when it has a 7.

(1) 40 ms–1 (1) 40 ms–1

(4) 0.7 ms–1. (4) 0.7 ms–1.

9. Which of the following figures represents the 9.

10. Work done by centripetal force in a non-uniform 10.

(1) F1/m (1) F1/m

(2) F2F3/mF1 (2) F2F3/mF1

(3) (F2 – F3)/m (3) (F2 – F3)/m

(4) F2/m (4) F2/m

13. A vibratory motion is represented by 13.

The resultant amplitude of the motion is :

14. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 14. m1, m 2 m3

rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction t ( = ).

mass. The downward acceleration of mass e wm is : :( m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh

(1) Acting down the incline (1)

(2) Zero (2)

18. If a particle of mass 2 kg moves along a line 18. 2 2 m/s

(1) 4 2 kg m2/s (1) 4 2 kg m2/s

(4) 8 kg m2/s (4) 8 kg m2/s

(1) 2 seconds (2) 1 seconds (1) 2 (2) 1

(1) 2 m (2) 1.5 m (1) 2 m (2) 1.5 m

(3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m. (3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m.

(1) solid sphere (1)

(2) hollow sphere (2)

(3) ring (3)

(4) disc. (4)

25. Select the false statement: 25.

(1) In elastic collision, Kinetic energy during the (1)

(1) 1012 N/m2 (1) 1012 N/m2

(4) 109 N/m2 (4) 109 N/m2

27. Assertion: A body that is a good radiator is also a 27. :

Reason: According to Kirhhoff's law the

not the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) If assertion is true but reason is false u te

29. Suppose ideal gas equation follows 29. VP3 =

(3) 27T (4) T/9 (3) 27T (4) T/9

(4) SO2 (4) SO2

31. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed 31.

(4) 2.5 R (4) 2.5 R

(1) 4P0V0 (1) 4P0V0