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MM:720
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Topics Covered:
Physics:Electrostatic
TermExam2024CE+OYM(P2)-TEO2C Time : 200

Chemistry : Potential and Capacitance Il: from

Electrochemistry,
Botany: Sexual
Zoology :HumanReproduction
Chemical Kinetics
Reproductionin Flowering Plants
electrostatics of fconductors, Current Electricity

General Instructions:
1. Read each question
2. It is to usecarefully.
3. Markmandatory
should Blue/Back Ball Point Pen to darken the
4.
be dark and should
Rough work Must not be done oncompletely fill the circle. appropriate circle in the answer steet
the answer sheet.
3. DOnor use Wnite-luid or any
6. Student cannot use log tablesother rubbing material on answersheet No change in the answer
and calculatorS or any other once marked is altowee
I. BerOre auemping the malerial in the
examination hall.
question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all
missing. pages and no page
8. Eacth correct answer carries four marks. One
mark will be
Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, deducted for each incorrect answer from the total scorE.
been filled and marked correctly. candidate should check that Roll No. and Centre Code nave
10. lmmediately after the prescribed
examination time is over, the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
11, There are tWo sections in each subject i.e.. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35
& only 10 questions out of 15 from
Section-B. questions from Secton-A

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1 For the given circuit, the total energy stored 2. A:On inserting a dielectric slab of dielectric
in he circuit when a 10 V batery is. constant K, the capacitance Co of a parallel
connected. (C= 10 F) plate capacitor increases to KCo.
R:The charge on the capacitor is given by
go = CoV, where V is potential
across the plates of capacitor.
difference
(1) Both Assertion &
Reason are true and
the reason is the correct
the assertion
explanation of
(2X Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason IS not the Correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is rue statement but Reason
V= 10 V is talse
(1) 360 J (A) Bothh Assertion and Reason are false
(2) 180 uJ slatements

(3) 720 J
Zero
2024CF+OYMIP2)ED2C

Four etalhc plaes each having area A. are
placed as shown. The dstance beween he
consecutve plalesd Ahernate plates are
Connected ponts A and B. The equivalent
capactance of he System beween A and B
7 In a grven newok OT captotors he rabo of
canaotance beween ponts P and o and
between pounts Pand R is

(1)

(3) 4
(1) 1
(2) I

(3)
A parallel plate capaotor (not connecied
w baery) havng charge Qb separason (4)
betwreen plates d and area A s beng
pulled by eternal agent o na¡ease he
separabon by 100%. hen (sybals have A parallel plate capactor. wnth a dielectric
her usual meanngs) plate which completely tled he space
(1) E Constant V= Constant and between the plates ot capaotor, has a
capac1tance C (delectnc constant of plate is
Constant S) Mthe dielectic plate is pulled out then
E Constant Vinoeases and : capactance of capacitor becomes
Constarnt (1) 5C
(3) E decre ases V decoeases and
deareases
(4) E Constant V deass nd O
Constant

n he orcuit shown in gure. he charge on 3

uF capaotor is Force between plates of an isolated charged
2 32 par allel plate capactor seprated by
dastance r is F.the separabon between he
plates is doubled hen force beween he
piates wll become
(1) F
3) 29 (2) 4F
6V (3) E
(4)
(1) 2 uC
(2) 6 uf 10. Equvalent capaotance between A and Bs
(3) 4 uF
(4) Zero B

# charge on a capactor is ingeased by 2 C.

hen energy stored in t increases by 21%
Then the onginal charge on the capaotor is
(1) 40 C
30C (2) nánte
20c
(4) 10 C
(3) C
(4) S
TmExam2024CF+OYMIP2)-TE02C
connected in series
11. Capacitance ofa
canacitor depends on 16. Four egual resistors are
consurme total power P.
(1) Potental d1tference anplied on be across a battery and
parallel then total
Capacitor | these are connected in
(2) Charge stored on the power consuned will be
(3))
capacitor (1) 16P
Dimensions of the capacitor
All of these (2) 8P
(3) 4P
12 Three capacitors each ot capacitance C and (4) P
breakdown voltage V are joined mn parallel. its
The capacitance and breakdown voltage of 17. If the length of a conductor is doubled,
the combination will be conductivity becomes
M 3C,v (1) Quadrupled
(2) C (2) _Doubled
(3) 3C. 3V wÚ Halved
(4) C. (4) Unchanged

18. When the switch is closed, the initial current

13. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance Cis through the 1 9 resistor iS
charged with a battery of emf V volts. A
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is 142
placed between the plates to fully occupy 2F
the space. The battery remains connected. 12 V
The electric fheld between the plates is
(1) Increases by K time
(YDecreases by Ktimes 312
(3) Increases byK times (1) 2A
(4) Remain unchanged (2) 4 A
(3) 3A

14 In the given fiqure current in some branches

(4) 6A
of an electrical circuit is shown, Value of / is
7A 19. A heater boils 1 ka of water in time I and
Y2A
2A another heater boils the same water in time
4A
tz across the same source. If both are
connected in series across the source, the
3A combination will boil the same water in tme

3A
(2) Vht2
(3) 1
(1) 4 A tËttg
(2) 12 A (4)
(3) 5 A
(4) 3A
20. The S.l. unit of electron mobility is
15 In the following figure the equivalent mvlg!
resistance of the circuit between the points P (2) mv's
and Sis
154! 5 4! 20 42
(3) mVs-1
P w (4) m'vs-2
5! 51?
21. Current/ through a conductor as a funcuon
ww
of time t (in second) is given as = 2 (A). The
8! 10 1 charge flowing betweent= lsto =2sis
(1) 55 Q
(1) 4 C
(2) 30 Q
(2) 3C
(3) 48 2
(3) 2 C
(4) 34 o
(4) 1C
Sorncam2024CF+OYM(P2)-TEO2C

the The curent through the batery just after the

The current hrough 20 Q resistance in
25.
22
nework shown below is switch S is cosed is (the capacitors are
10 V 12 initially uncharged)
W 62 2 yeF
W
B
12 W
62 32 4 uF
20 V 6 uF

20 2

(1)A
33 S 16 V
(2)
A (1) 3A
(2) 8 A
(3)GA (3) 2 A
(4) A (4) Zero

23, In the following circuit diagram, for what 26. The most acCurate measurement of emf can
value of the resistance R, the power output be obtained using
will be maximum? (1) Multimeter
20V. 42 (2) Voltmeter
(3) Ammeter

Telegram
mPotentiometer
WW
R
27. The resistance of the carbon resistor, which
(1) 2 2 is color coded as shown in the figure is

@NEET_BROKER
(2) 102 Brown
(3) 12

24. Two resistances 4 Q and 8 2 are connected

in series with battery of 12 volt as shown. pellow violet gold
The current in the 8 Q resistance is (Y (47 x 10) 2+5%
4Q 82
W (2) (47 x102) Q+59%
(3) (28 x 10) 2+ 10%
(4) (29 x 10) 9+20%
in a
28 The average relaxation ime of electrons
12V conductor of conductiviy o is t. If at a
4o,
certain temperature. the conducivity is
then the average relaxation öme will be
(2) 2A
(3) 3 A
(2)
(4) 4 A
(3) 4

(4) 6T
 density J and
The electr:C field E, CUrrent 33. A30 HF capacitor in a defibrlator is charged
conductivity d of a metallic conductor are to 3000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor
related as
is sent through the patient during apulse of
(1) o = duration 1.1 ms. The power delivered to the
patient is
(1) 45 kW

(3) E J (2) 180 kw

(3) 147 kW
(4) o= IE 123 KW

0 Ifcurrent density and area of cross-section of 34, Resistivity of aluminium on heating

tthe conducting wire are (1) Decreases
-3i 4j) Am? and (2) Remains constant
3) Increases
(4) May increase or decrease
are respectively.

then current through the wire is 35.

A parallel plate capacitor is filled with two
(1) 30 mA dielectrics as shown in the diagram. The
(2) 1.1 mA area of plates is A and the distance beween
(3) 0.3 MA the plates is d. If the thickness of each
dielectric slab is dl2 and the dielectric
(4) 11 A
Constants are KË and Kz. then the net
capacitance is
31. If a copper wire is stretched such that its
length increases by 1%. thern the percentage
increase in resistance of wire is nearly
(1) 1% K,
d
(3) 3%
(4) No change K,
32 The minimum value of effective capacitance
that can be obtained by combining three
capacitors of capacitances 1 pF, 2 pF and 2
pFis
() pF (2) Ea K,K2
(3) En4
(K1 + K2)
2d
(3) GpF (4) 2r (K, + Kz)
(4) 1 pF

SECTION-B

The graph beween capacitance and

37 distance between plales of a capacitor is
36. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can
be increased by (1) Parabola
(1) Increasing the disance between the (2) Hyperbola
plates (3) Ellipse
(2) Increasing the charge on the plates (4) Suaigh-line
(3),Decreasing the area of the plates
DecreaSing the distance between the
plates
TermExam2024CF+OYM(P2 )-TEO2c

38. The energy stored in the capacitor C 42.

between terminals aand b is (all capacitors The eguivalent capacitance of combinaton
are identical with capacitance 2 uF) of capacitors as
20 V between AandBis shoWn in the figure

C
(1) C
(2) 2G
(1) 2 mJ (3Y4C
(2) 1 mJ (4)
(3) 0.1 mJ
(4) 0.2 mJ 43. A: The
capacitance of
increasing the charge oncapacitor
by increases
capacitor.
The intensity of electric field between plates R: Capacity of capacitor is
39
of proportional to charge on its plates. directly
capacitor is E. The work done to move a
charge q in a closed rectangular loop is (1)-Both Assertion & Reason are true and
a the reason is the
correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both
Assertion & Reason are true but
he reason IS not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true
(1) E(2a+ 2b)
Is false
statement but Reason
(2) E(2a) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Ea statements
(4) Zero
44. The potenttal difference beween
points A
40 Total energy stored in the capacitor system and B in steady state would be
shown in the figure will be 6F 2uF
C

12 F GuF 2uF

4 V 3uF
6 uF
200 V 60 Q
(1) 50 V
(1) 16 uJ (2) 100 V
(2) 32 J (3) 150 V
(3) 8 uJ (4) 200 V

45 The value of (Va - Ve ), in the part of circuit

shown n hqure is
L, Acapacitor is charged by a battery and the
energy stored is U. The battery is now 3
removed and separation distance between
the plate is tripled. The energy stored is now (1) 3 volt
(1) (2) 1 volt
3
(3) 2 volt
(2) U

3) 3U
(4) 9U
troxam2024CF+OYM(P2)-TEO2c

between Aand B
The equivalent resistance 48
Kirchhoff's junction law is based on the law
46.
is of conservation of
(1) Charge
(2) Energy
(3) Linear momentum
(4) Angular momentum

(1) R 49. A current of 4 A passes through a conductor

(2) 2R of resistivity of 1.5 x 10-8 Qm and radius of
cross section is 4 mm. If drift speed is 10
m/s, then mobility of conductor is
(4) R
3 (1) m²/Vs
(2) B m /Vs
4
47. The value of resistance R in the circuit
shown for zero reading of galvanometeris. (3) 6 m?Vs
10 S2
(4) 4m /Vs
15

30 2 6
50..If the current in an electric bulb
decreases by
R 2%,the power consumed by the bulb.
) Increases by 2%
(1) 6Q (2) Decreases by 1%
(2) 12 2 (3) Decreases by 4%
Ja 18Q (4) Increases by4%
(4) 24 Q

CHEMISTRY
S . n C A T ?

SECTON-A
51. On dilution
) un increases while k decreases
Maximum emf among the following is of
(2) Am and k both increases Mg(s)|Mg* (0.1 M) I| Cu (0.2 M) |
Cu(s)
(3) Ana decreases while kincreases
(2) Mg(s) | Mg (0.2 M) || Cu* (0.1 M)
(4) Am and k both decreases Cu(s)
(3) Mg(s) | Mg (0.2 M) |I| Cu (0.3 M) 1
52. Molar conducivity of which ion is highest at Cu(s)
infinite diluion? (4) Mgls) | Mg* (0.3 M) || Cu* (0.2 M) I
Cu(s)
(2) OH
(3) Nat 55. f conductiviy of 0.1 mol/dm soluion of KC)
is 1.3 × 10- S cm at 298 K then its molar
(4) cr conductivity will be ??
Y130 s cm²mol
53 The
reduction potential
electrode at oH =1and pH, =1 atm is
of hydrogen (2) 250 s cm²mol
(3) 75 S cm²Imol
(1) Zero volt
(2) 0.0591 V (4) 182 S cm²mol
(3) 9.0295 V
9-0.0591 V
TermExam2024CF+0YM(P2)-TEO2c

charge required for

S6. Number of Faradays of Cr3 is
62. A,G° (in kJimol) for the following cell is
conversion of 0.2 mol Crz0,2- into Cr(s))cr?(aq) | Ca*(aq)| Cd(s)
Y0.6F
(2) 0.3F (Given
(3) 0.2F
= -0.74
(4) 1.2 F
:EoCr
.40 V)
V, Eoa? Ca0

S7. Salts of metals x, y & Z are electrolysed (1) -131.24

under identical conditions using the same
quanity of electricity. It was observed that 2Y-65.62
4.2 g of x; 5.4 9 of y & 19.2 g of z were (3) -196.86
deposited at electrode [cathode). If atomic (4) -98.43
weights of x, y & 2 are 7, 27 & 64
respecively; then the ratio of the valencies
of x, y and z respecively is 63. Consider the following half cell reacions
(1) 1:2:3 Cu2 +2e - Cu E'=0.34 V
(2) 1:3:2 Fe3+ +e -Fe2* E° =0.77 V
(3) 2:3:1 Pb2 +2e- Pb E':-0.13 V
(4) 3:2:2 c+3e Ct E°:-0.74 V
Srongest oxidising agent based on given E
values is
58. How long a current of 2 ampere should be (2) cu2*.
applied through a soluion of silver nitrate
solution to obtain 1.08 a Silver? Fe3+
Y965 second (3) Pb2* "
(2) 9650 second (4) Cr3+
(3) 482.5 second
(4) 4825 second 64. Consider the following statements:
() 5 Molar conducovity increases with
59. Which among the following is weakest decrease in Concenttaton of weak
electrolyte ? electrolyte.
(ii) Conducivity decreases with decrease in
(1) HCI
Concentration of weak electrolyte.
(2) Hz0 (iii) When concentration approaches zero,
(3) NaOH the molar conducivity is known as limiing
molar conductivity.
4) NH,OH The correct statements are
(1)>(0) and (i) only
60. Select the correct relation of E . with 12) (). (i) and (ii)
equilibrium constant (K) among the given (3) (i) and (iii) only
opions. (4) (0) and (ii) only
(1) E = RTlog Ke
(2) E = 2.303RT log K. 65. During the electrolysis of water, if 11.2 litre
2.3nF
03 RT log Ke H, is obtained at S.TP at cathode. then
mass of O, obtained at anode is
(4) E = log Ke )89
(2) 16 9
61, (3) 32 g
Given: EAA9 =0.80V, E° MgMg =-2.37V
(4) 49
=0.34 V, E°+=0.88 V
Which of the following statements is 66. For a spontaneous reacion, AG°, El) and
Correct?
equilibrium constant Kwill be respectively
(1) AgNO3 can be stored in copper vessel (1) AG <0, E, >0, K<1
(2) Cu(NO3), can be stored in magnesium (2) AG' >0, E <0, K>1
Nessel
3) CuCl, can be stored in silver vessel KÐ) AG<0, E, > 0, K> 1 /
(4) AG° >0, E >0, K> 1
(4) HgCi, can be stored in copper vessel
mExam2
2024CF+0YM(P2)-TEO2C

dilution of
The molar Conductance at infinite 73
ACl, BOH and BCl are 200, 100 and 50 s Consider
a.
the following
statements
cm mol respectively then the molar Molecularity
nonnteger.
of a
reaction can be zero or
conductance of A(OH), at infinite dilution will b. For complex
reacion, molecularity has no
be meaning.
(1) 250 S cm² mol-1 c. For complex
reaction, order is given by the
(2) 350 S cm mol-1 slowest step
The correct statements are
J8 300 S cm molrl (1) a and b only
(4) 150 S cm mol-l (2) b and c only
3) a and c only
6A. Decomposition of N,Os according to the (4) a,b and c
equation, 2 N,Os (g) ’4 NOZ(g) + Oz(g)
follows irst order kineics. After 30 minute 74. If initial concentration of
order reacion increases toreactant
from the start of the reaction the total in a first
pressure developed is 315 mm of Hg and on four times, then
rate constant of reaction
complete decomposition, the total pressure (1) Increases by a factor of4
is 450 mm of Hg. The rate constant of the
decomposition reaction is 2) Increases by a factor of 8
(3) Increases by a factor of 2
(1) 5.2 x 10-4 min-1
(4) Remains same
(2) 2.3 x 10- min1
J 1.2 x 10-3 min-l 75. If for a chemical reaction with rise in
(4) 3.4 min-1 temperature by 10°C, the rate constant is
nearly doubled then the ratio of rate
at 50°C to 10°C is constant
69. For which of the following order unit of rate
of reaction and rate constant are same? ) 5
(1) 3rd order (2) 52
(2) 2nd order (3)

(3) 1sl order

ohorder 76. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is
70. Ratio of tgg.g94 to tong for first order reaction labelled as Reason(R).
IS Assertion(A):Acid catalysed hydrolysis of
(1) 10:1
esteris ápseudo first order reaction.
Reason(R) : In acidic hydrolysis of ester
(2) 9:1 water is taken in excess.
n the light of the above statements, choose
(3) 6:1
the most appropriate answer from the
53:1 options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
71. For the reacion xA + yB C, on doubling (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
he concentration of both A and B rate (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
becomes 8 times while on doubling the the correct explanation of (A)
Concentration of A only rate becomes 4 (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
times. The overall order of reacion is not the correct explanation of (A)
(1) 0
(2) 1 77. For the following reacion,
(3) 2 A+8 C+56 kJ molr
J4) 3 energy of activation is 113 kJ mol, For tha
reaction:C’ A+B, the energy of activation
12. The rate law for a reaction is given as will be
follows (1) 57 kJ mol
Rate kAB) (2) 169 kJ mol
hat is the order of the reacion? (3) 56 k] molrl
(1) 2
(4) 226 kJ mol-l
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4
 TermExam2024CF+OYMB1.

order reaction
29 Let amoUnt of reactant in first 81 The rate constant for a reaction is given by
half lives if
afer two rate constant of reaction
In k = 2 0 4 20.14
is k and inital concentration is An T
Acivation energy., E, for this reaction will be
(1) A
k (1) 1.67 kJ mol-1
(2) 40 2) 4kCal mol
4k

(3) Aa (3) 38.3 kJ mol-1

2 (4) 9kCal mol
4
82. In Arrhenius equation
79. Given below are two statements: One is k= AeE,/RT
labelled as Assertion(A)) and the other is When T ’ , the value of rate constant will
labelled as Reason(R). be
A: The rate of reactions increase with
increase in the temperature.
R: Acivation energy decreases with (2) A/Ea
increase in the temperature. (3) Zero
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) A x Ea
the. most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 83. .The cell potential remains constant in
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) Dry cell
(3)/Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R) is j Mercury cell
the correct explanation of (A) (3) Lead storage battery
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is (4) Nickel-cadmium cell
not the correct explanation of (A)
84. Incorrect statement about catalyst is
80. Given diagram represSents variation of (1),It lowersthe potential energy barrier
concentration vs time for a zero order we talters Gibbs energy, AG ofa reaction
reacion. Slope of the straight line in the
Concenitration
diagram is given by (3) It catalyses the forward as well as the
of
reactant backward reacion to the same extent
[R (4) It does not change the equilibrium
constant of the reaction

85. The eguilibriumconstant fora cell in which 2

moles of electrons has been exchanged at
298 Kis E =1.55 v
Time 2.8 x1052
(1) k
(2) 2.303 (2) 2.8 x 1040
(3) 3.5 x 1070
(3) (4) 3.5 x1035

SECTION-B

87. In mercury cell, cathode is made up of

86. On elecrolysis of NacI(aq) using Pt
elecrodes product obtained at cathode will (1) Pb
be (2) Zn-Hg amalgam
(1) Cz(g) Paste of HgO and carbon
(2) Na(s) (4) Graphite

(4) Oz(9)
CtmExamz0,

will be
of copper metal
HOW Many grams of copper
93. If rate constant of a first order reaction is 2.31
88. deposiited when a solution
5
with a current of x 10 s and initial
eulohate is electrolysed(1F=96500 C atomic reactant is 1.6 M then theconcentration
of the
amperes tor 3.86 min? rate of the reacion
after second half life period will be
u)
mass of Cu = 63.5
(1) 0.38 g (1) 4.6 x 103 Ms1
(2) 0.62g (2) 2.5 x 10- Ms1
(3) 1.24 g (3) 75 x 10-3 Ms
(4) 3.1 g (4) 9.2 x 10-^ Ms1

A
device that converts energy of combustion 94. Select the incorrect staternent
of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly
into electrical energy is known as (1) Elementary reactions are single step
Fuel cell Reaction kinetics of a reaction is
governed by slowest step
(2) Electrolytic cell
(3) Order of a reaction is an
(3) Dynamo experimental
quantity
(4) Ni-Cd cell
(4) Order of a reaction cannot be

an. For which of the following hydrogen 95. For the

electrode. hall cell potential is 0 volt? reaction
5Br (ag) +BrO, (aq) + 6H" (aq)
(1) P(s) |H2 (g. 1 bar)| H* (aq. 1 M)
’ 3Br2(aq) + 3H,0O()
(2) P(s) |H2 (g. 2 bar)| H* (aq, 2 M) Rate of reaction is equal to
(3) P(s) |H2 (g. 1 bar)| H* (aq. 2 M) (1) -6) H]

(4) P(s) |H2 (g. 2 bar)| H* (aq, 1 M) (2) 1 A[Br)

At

91. Intercept of graph which is ploted between (3) 1 4[B |

2 At

Telegram
Am and c for strong electrolyte is
(4) A{3r0,l
(1) ^°m At

(2) -Am
(3) K 96. A certain reaction is 50% complete in 32

@NEET_BROKER
minutes and 75% complete in 48 minutes.
(4) What is the order of reaction?
(1) First
(2) Second
92. The standard reduction potential E of the
following systems are: (3) Zero
E (4) Third
System (volts)
97. Half life of a radioactive element is
) MnO, + 8H* + 5e Mn2 + 1.51 seconds. In U2 seconds, the percentage of
4H,0 the element decayed is
() Sn4 + 2e Sn2* 0.15 (1) 29%
(2) 25%
Cr,0,2- 14H* + 6e (3) 21%o
(i) 1.33
2C3+7H,0 (4) 17%o
1.61
(v) cef* +e- -. Ce
is
The oxidising power of the various species 98. Slope of graph of logk vs T(K)
decreases in the order. (1) E,
() Cef*> Cr0,2- > Sn"> MnO4 R

Ce*> MnO, > Cr,0,?-> Sn 2. 3R

(3) E
(3) Cr0,2-, Sn4t > Ce" > MnO4 R

(4) MnO,-> ceft >Sn" > Crz0, (4) 2.303a

R
TemExarn2024CF+OYM(P2)TEO2C

99. Slope of he graph grven below will be (for

1 order reacionj

log A

(1) k
2-2.303 k
(3)
2.303
k
(4)
2.303 R

100. Consider he process

E'=x Vott E'=x, Vot
BrO, Br0
Value of eO, Brg Br?
(1) (<1 + xz) Volt
(2) (2x1 t x)3 Volt
(3) (4x1 + x2) Volt
4) ( ) Volt

BOTANY

SECTIO-A

101. Read the following statements and choose 103. Select he incorrect match wit polen
the correct option. viabT period.
Statement-A: Each cell of sporogenous Rice 30 mines
issue in anther is capable of giving rise to
microspore terad. 2 Potato Several years
Statement-B : Each micosporogenesis 3 Some Several months
involves one meiosis and two mitosis in members
anher.
(1) Only statement Ais incorrect Rosaceae
W) Only statement B is incorred (4)Wheat EHalt an hour
(3) Both staleements are correct (1) (1)
(4) Both statements are incorret
(3) (3)
102. Which one of the following statements is (4) (4)
correct?
(1) Endothecium produces he 104. Select the correct option wsL drvisions
microspores required for formaton of 3-celled male
J ) Tapetum nourishes the developing gametophyte frorm pollen mother ca.
pollen grains (1) 2 miOic and2 meiotc divisions
(3) Hard outer layer of pollen is calHed (2) meiotic and 3 miiotc divisons
inine Ja 1 meiotic and 2 mitotc dirvisions
(4) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (4) 2 meiotic and2 mitotc drvisions
 erm
statements and select
Read the following 110. Which of the given plant
he cortrect opion.
ASSerton (A) Generative cell is spndle autogamy but never features promotes
geitonogamy or
shped xenogamy?
etson (R) Generave cell foats in the (1) Bisexual flowers
cell.
onlasm of vegetative (2) Monoecious condition
) Both Asserbon & Reason are true and (3) Homogamy
the reason is the correct explanation of
e assertion ) Cleistogarny
Both Asserton & Reason are true but
is not the correct 111. Pollen pistil
the reason
explanabon of the asserton
interaction is
(1) Light mediated
B) ASserton is true statement but Reason (2) Gravity mediated
is false
a Chemical mediated
(4) Both Asserton and Reason are false (4) Air mediated
statements

112. Primary endosperm nucdeus is produced

106. Generatve cell of pollen grain fusion of by
(1) Has large irregulariy shaped nucleus (1) Male gamete and egg cell
2 Has dense cytoplasm
RYMale gamete and one polar nucleus
(3) Is bigger in size than vegetatve cell (3) Two polar nuclei
(4) Has abundant food reserve
Male gamete and two fused polar
nuclei
107. Choose he incorrect statement w.r.L pollen
grains 113. Double fertlisation is a
(1) The hard outer layer called the exine is
characterisic feature
of
made up of sporopollenin (1) Gymnosperms
(2) Intbne is a thin and continuous layer
made up of cellulose and pecin YAngiosperms
(3) Algae
8 The variety of architecture sizes. (4) Bryophytes
shapes, colours, designs seen on the
pollen grains from difterent species
under scanning electron microscope 114. Endospermic dicotyledonous seeds are
present in
(4) In over 60 percent angiosperms.
pollen are shed with 2 male gametes (1) Pea
Castor
08. Embryo sac (3) Beans
(4) Groundnut
(1) s a diploid structure
2 Has 3 celled egg apparatus
115. A fertilized ovule is called
(3) 0s not involved in double fertilisation Y Seed
(4) Is the male gametophyte of
(2) Fruit
angiosperms
(3) Gamete
tEmbryo
9. Which of the following features are true for
synergids?
(a) Diploid cells 16. In grasses, single large cotyledon is called
(b Cells of egg apparatus Scutellum
(c) Produced by microsporogenesis (2) Coleoptile
(d) Contains filiform apparatus (3) Coleorhiza
(1) (a) and (b) (4) Epiblast
4 (b) and (d)
which of the 9iven seeds, persistent
(3) (a) and (c) 117. In
nucelluS is seen?
(4) (c) and (d) MBlack pepper
Bean
(3)Coconut
(4)Gram
TermExam2024CF+OYM(P2) -TEO2C

440 splect the correct statement about true 126. Chasmoganous arnd cieistogamous both
truits. types flowers are produced in
(1) Always develop witlhout fertilisation of mOxalis
ovary
(2) Hibiscus
. 1 Develop Irom the ovary
(3) Maize
Are always seedless
(4) Papaya
(4) Develop from floral parts other than
Ovary
127. Advantage of cleistogamy is
119. Pericarp of a fruit is (1) Vivipary
Wallof ripened ovary (2) Higher genetic variability
2) Integument of mature ovule (3) More vigorous offspring
0Fleshy corolla ) Independent of pollinators
(4) Ripened thalamus
128. In a typical anther, the tssue involved in
120. Banana fruit microsporogenesis is
(1) Develops from fertilised ovary (1) Epidermis
(2) Contains tiny seeds in center (2) Sporgenous tissue
(3) Lack pericarp (3) Tepetum
. 4 Is aparthenocarpic fruit (4) Connecive tissue

121. A form of asexual reproduction that mimics 129. Choose the odd one w.r.t. ploidy
sexual reproduction (apomixis) has evolved (1) Synergid
(2) Egg
(1) Pea (3) Antipodal cell
(2) Banana (4) Secondary nucleus
(3) Strawberry
(4) Some species of Asteraceae 130. The cell that divides to
form wo male
gametes in anqiosperms is
122. The most Common biouC (1) Vegetative cell
ate
pollating agents
(2) Generative cell
(1) Birds (3) Tube cell
2insects (4) Archesporial cell
(3) Snakes
(4) Snails 131. The ploidies of central cell and
are respectively
male gamete
123. Filliform apparatus is a (1) (n + n) and (n)
of characteristic feature
(2) (n) and (2n)
(1) Fgg cell (3) (3n) and (n)
Synergid (4) (2n) and (2n)
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell 132. Find the odd one out w.r.L.
(1) Male and female
dioecious plants
124. Number of anipodal cells in flowers are produced
on the same plant
of most of the the embryo sac
(1) Five
flowering plants is (2) Male and female flowers are produced
on wo separate plants
(2) Two (3) They prevent autogamy
(3) Three / (4) They prevent geitonogamy
(4) Four
133. Transter of pollen grans from anther to the
te. All of the sligma of a different plant is called
following are the teatures of fiowers
pollinated by insects, except (1) Autogamy
(1) Large size (2) Geitonogamy
(2) (3) Cleistogamy
(3)
Presence of nectaries
Colourful petals (4) Xenogamy
(4)
Non-sucky pollen grains /
 been claimed
pallen tablets and syrups has
(o increase
(1) Bronchitis
(2) Respiratory disorders
) Pertormance of athletes and race
horses
(4) Asthma

ac Mature female gametophyte of angiosperms

is generally
1) 7-celled & 7-nucleated structure
(2) 8-celled & 7-nucleated structure
(3) 7-celled & 8-nucleated structure
A) 3-celled & 3-nucleated structure

SECTION-B
136. A plant specis which provides safe place to
lay eggs as pollination reward is 141. Double fertilization includes
(1) Salvia (1) Endosperm and embryo development
(2) Commelina (2) Ovules and ovary maturation
(3) Calotropis (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
4 Amorphophallus (4) Porogamy and
chalazogamy
137, Mark incorrect match w.t ploidy 142. Water pollination is observed in
(1) Primary endosperm nucleus- 3n (1) Grasses
R) Perisperm - 3n (2) Water hyacinth
(3) Antipodal cell -n (3) Water lily
(4) Zygote - 2n (4) Hydrilla

138. WMhich of the layers of anther wall 143. Mhich cells in the
can be egg apparatus
more than one layer thick? degenerate after fertil1sation in
(1) Epidermis angiosperms?
(1) Antipodals, synergids
(2) Endothecium
(2) Polar nuclei, synergids
(3) Middle layer
(3) Central cell
(4) Tapetum (4) Synergids

139. Fruit production without fertilization is

known 144. Yucca plant is pollinated by a species of
(1) Wasp
(1) Apomixis
(2) Bee
(2) Parthenogenesis (3) Moth
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Snail
(4) Pseudocarpy
145. Which of the followIng tems is not related to
140. CIleistogamy refers to the condition in which megasporangium of angiosperms?
(1) (1) Hilum
Pollinators are not required
(2) (2) Chalaza
Flowers are absent
(3) (3) Nucellus
Flowers always remian open
(4) Locule
(4) Flowers are gamopetalous
TormExam2024CF+0YM{P2)-TEO 2C
1A6. Mch loal patt
fertilization?
fos peHCA). after Atypical angiospermc anthers
148
(1) Nucellus (1) Trigonal
(2) Outer integunent (2) Tetralobed
(3) Ovary wall Tetrasporarngiate
(4) Inner integument (4) Atached at proximal end offilament

147. The number of vules in an ovary may be 149. The aynoecium in Papaver is
Variable. It can be one (1) Monocarpellary
which of the following pairovule in a
of plants?
ovary. In (2) Tricarpellary apocarpous
(1) Marngo and wheat
(2) Papaya and orchids (3) Multicarpellary apocarpous
(3) H Multicarpellary syncarpous
Watermelon and orchids
(4) Paddy and papaya
150. In anther wall, epidermis is
(1) Nutritive tissue
(2) HygroscopIC in nature
(3) Polyplord
rProtective in function

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
151. Normal site of fertilization in humans is
155. WMhich one of the following is an incorrect
YAmpulla of fallopian tube match?
(2) Fundus of uterus
(1) Spermiogenesis - The spermatds are
(3) Infundibulum of fallopian tube transformed into spermatozoa
(4) Cervix .21Spermiation - Release of sperms from
vasa etferenta
152. Secreions of (3) Ejaculation- Release of sperms from
epididymis are essential for body of males
(1)
Spermiaion (4) Middle piece of sperm - Energy
AEjaculation
3 Maturation and
for swinning
source
motility of sperms
(4) Spermatogenesis 156. A complex neuroendocrine mech anism
induces parturition and it involves
153. Number of primary follicles found in each (1) Cosol, FSH and LH
ovary at puberty in human females is 21 Relax1n, oxytocin and prolactun
K60,000 - 80,000 (3) Estroqen, cortsol and oxytocm
(2) 7,000 - 8,000 (4) Esrogen, progesterone and prolactun
(3) 80,000- 90,000
(4) 50,000-60,000 157. Rupture of Graafian tollicle is nduced by
Increase in secreuon of

154, Select the opúon which correctly fills up the (1) Progesterone
blar1k in the qiven stalement. (2) Prolacun
Ihe human male ejaculate contains about Lutein1zng homone
during a coitus under nomal
(4) Follicle simulaung homone
Condiions.
(1) 40-60 mmllion sperns
200 to 300 million spems
(3) 300 to 500 million sperms
(4) 100 to 150 nillion sperms
 mExam2024CF+OYM(P2)-TE02C
(

Assertion (A) : Milk can

be tenporarily 163. Choose the odd
glands along one w.rL structure of
mammary
158.
red in ampula of fallopian tube.
alveoli. (1) Infundibulum
Reason (R) Release of mlk by suckling
under tlhe effect of (2) Ampulla
ccurs due to reflex
prolactn. (3) Isthmus
) Both Assertion & Reason
are true and
the reason is the correct
explanation of yCervix
the assertion

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are

true but 164. Secretions of bulbourethral glands help in
the reason is not the corre ct W Storage and transport of sperns Irom
explanation of the assertion testis
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason 2) Lubrication of the penis
is lalse
(3) Erection of penis
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4)
statements Ejaculation of sperms
165. Genetic constitution of (22 + Y) is found in
169. Select the incorrect match w.r.t humans.
(1) Primary spermatocyte
Chromosome
Cell (2) Spermatozoa
number per cell
Secondary (3) Spermatogonium
(1) spermatocyte 23 (4) Male germ cell
(2) Spermatozoa 23
166. Which of the following is
46
parturition?
correct for
(4) Primary oocyte 46 (1) The signals for parturition
from maternal pituitary originate
(2) (2) (2) Foetal ejection reflex induces secretion
Jr (3) of GnRH from
maternal pituitary.
(4) (4) (3) Oxyto cin secreted from hypothalamus
of foetus is
responsible for initiation of
foetal ejection reflex
160. A functional mammary gland contains (4)
glandular tissue and
Oxytocin acts on uterine muscles and
variable amount of fat. causes sttonger uterine contracions
The glandular tissue of each breast is which in turn
divided into stimulate further secretion
of oxytocin
(1) 10-12 manmary lobes
(2) 12-14 mammary lobes 167. Not all copulations lead to ferilisation and
(3) 20-30 mammary lobes pregnancy because ovum
(415-20 mammary lobes (1) Can undergo fertilisation only in
isthmus region of oviducts
161 The first (2) And sperms are not transported
meiotic division of primary oocyte is simultaneously to the ampullary region
completed avduring of fallopian tube
SFoetal lite (3) Degenerates just after ovulaion
(2) Puberty (4) Membrane is not always penetrable
(3) Fertilisation
JA) Ovulation 168. The incorrect match w.r.L given
and their function is
hormones
162. Spermatogenesis in males begins (1) Testosterone - Spermatogenesis
(1) Before birth (2) FSH Stimulates
development
tollicular
YAt puberty (3) Progesterone
(3) Before puberty Maintains
endometrium for possible implantaion
(") During third trimester of embryon1c
(PRL - Suonger uterne contactions tor
development expulsion of the baby
 TermExam2024C+OYM(P2)-TEO 2c

169. Which of the following is not a part of female 175. Read the given staterrments.
external genitalia?
A. Leydig cells are located in
(1) Mons pubis
Mammary glands
Spaces in testes.
B. Sertoli cells of Semin inteerstital
(3) Labia minora tubules
provide nourishment to developing Spermr niferous
Select the correct option.
(4) Clitoris
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
170. Given below is an incomplete lowchart
KBoth statements A and B are correr
showing the infiuence of hormones on
testes. Observe the lowchart and cho0se (4) Both statements A and B are incorrert
the option that fills the blanks correctly.
[Hypothalamus 176. Milk produced during he ini0al few
(A lactation is called
days of
Piluitary (1) Colostrum
(2) Prolactin
(3) Steroid
(B) (C)
(4) Lactose
Leydig cel Nurse cell

177. Given diagram represents ar

(D) OVum
Surrounded by few sperms
. (A) GnRH, (D) Androgen
(2) (B) FSH, (C) LH
(3) (B) ICSH, (D) Inhibin
Sperm
(4) (A) GnRH, (C) LH

171, Which of the following is consituent of

semen?

(1) Seminal plasma only

(2) Sperm only
(3) Seminal plasma along with sperm (C) Ovum
(4) Seminal plasma along with ovum

172. The three phases of the uterine cycle in

order are
(1) Menstrual Luteal - Ovulatory
(b
. ) Folicular Luteal - Ovulatory
(3) Menstrual Proliferative Secretory Select the option which correctly describes
(4) Ovulatory - Luteal - Follicular the structures (a). (b) and (c) respectvely.

(a) (b) (c)

173. How many sperms and ova will be produced
Irom 100 primary spermatocytes and 100 Cell of
Zona Periv1telline
primary oocytes respectively? Corona
pellucida space
radiata
(1) 200 sperms and 50 ova
(2) 400 sperms and 100 ova Cell of Perivitelline Zona
(3) 100 sperms and 100 ova
corona
space
pellucida
radiata
(4) 400 sperms and 400 ova Zona Foll1cular Corona
(3 pellucida rad1ata
cells
414. hich hormone inhibits secretion of FSH in
Foll1cula Corona Zona
both male and female? pellucida
(4) cells radiata
(1) Esrogen
(2) Testosterone (1) (1)
(3) Inhibin (2) (2)
) GnRH (3) (3)
(4) (4)
mEram2024CF+OYM(P2)-TE02C
sexes of
product of meiocytes in both 183. Correct sequence of spermatogenesis is
Anal except
178. mans differ in all aspects Spermatogonia Primary
Degree of motliy
(1)
spermatocyte Secondary
(2) Size spermatocyte Spermatid
(3) Chromosome number Spermatozoa
(4) Arangement of mitochondria (2) Spermatogonia Secondary
spermatocyte Primary
which spermatocyte Spermatid
The innermost lining of the ulerus Spermatozoa
breaks during menstruation is (3) Primary spermatocyte Secondary
(1) Perimetrium spermatocyte Spermatogonia
rEndometrium Spermatid Spermatozoa
(3) Myometrium (4) Spermatozoa Spermatogonia
(4) Epimetrium Primary Spermatocyte Secondary
spermatocyte Spermatid
180, Which of the following portion of oviduct is 184. Ectopic
closest to the uterus? pregnancies are best explained as
(1) Implantation of embryo at sites other
(1) Ampulla than uterus
(2) IsthmUs
ontundibulum (2) Implantation of malformed embryo in
the uterus
(4) Fimbriae
(3) Pregnancy terminated due to hormonal
imbalance
181. Each testis has about (4) Pregnancies ending in premature
(1) 1000 testicular lobes parturition despite fundic implantation
(2) 500 testicular lotbes
J3 250 testicular lobules 185. In the menstrual cycle of human
female.
(4) 150 testicular lobules uterine proliferative phase coincides with
(1) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13
days
182. Many hormones are secreted only during
pregnancy, but some hormones are secreted (2) Ovarian follicular phase and lasts for
in pregnancy as well as in menstrual cycle. about 9-11 days
such as (3) Secretory phase and lasts for about 14
(1) hcG days
(2) hPL (4) Ovarian menstrual phase and lasts for
(3) Relaxin about 13 days
(4) Estrogen

Telegram
@NEET_BROKER
SECTION-B

186. The first 187, Hormones eleased exclusively in

movements of he foetus and
dppearance of hair on the head is observed
during
(4) First month of gestation period
(<) First trimesler of gestation period
S) Afth month of gestation period
(4) Second month of gestaion period
pregnant female include
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone, hCs, hp
(2) hcG, hcShPL, Relaxin
(3) Thyroxine, Corbsol, Oxytocin, hcG
(4) nhibin, hCG, hPL, Prolactin
TermExam202 CF+OYM(P2)-TE02 C

402 Select the correct option with set of haploid 194. provides
cells.
(1) Spermatogonium
Connection beween foetus and vascular
spermatocytes
and primary body (uterus).
(1) Cervix
maternal
(2) Primary spermatocytes and secondary
spermatocytes (2) Birthh canal
(3) Spermatid and spermatozoa (3) Uterine muscles
(4) Spermatogonium and spermatozoa (4) Placenta

189, Birth canal consist of 195. Seminderous tubules of the

Select the option which fill
and
the blanks the vasa efferentta through testis open into
correctly. (1) Epid1dyrns
(1) Vagina and uterus (2) Vasa deferens
21 Vagina and cervix aj Rete tesus
(3) Cervix and hymen (4) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Vagina and hymen
196. Which group Constututes the
190. Read the following statements and select accessory ducts? female
the correct option. (1) Ovary, uterus, vag1na
A Capacitation is observed in animals both
exhibiting external as well as internal Oviduct, uterus, vag1na.
)
fertilization. (3) Uterus, vagirna and hymen
B. Capacitation leads to a (4) Oviduct, vagina and cl1toris
fertilizing capacity of sperms.
decrease in
(11 Both statements are
correct 197. In a
(2) Only statement A is correct nonpregnant
corpus luteum Occurs female, regression of
(3) Only statemnent B is correct
due to fall in level of
(4) Both statements are
Progesterone
incorrect (2) Esrogen
(3) hcG
191. When does secondary (4) LH
oocyte
second meiotiC division in humans?begin the
(1) After ovulation and before entry of 198. Choose the correct sequence
sperm in reproductive tract of events in
(2) Before ovulation
human reproducion.
(1) Garmetogenesis
(3) After entry of sperm in the Syngamy
00cyte secondary Inseminaton ZygoteOrganogenests
Cell differentaton Cleavage
(4) After release of 2n" (2) Gametogenesis
polar body Insemination
Syngay Zygote Cleavage
192. Select the false Organogenesis Cell differentiaton
statement from the (3) Gametogenesis
following. Inseminaton
(1) After delivery,
placenta remains inside Syngamy Zygote Cleavage
Cell differentiation.OrganogenesIs
the uterus in case of
humans (4) Gametogenesis
(2) Inner cell mass Inseminaton
contains stem cells Syngamy Zygote Cell
(3) Endoderm is the
(4) Time period called
innermost germ layer differentiation Cleavage
'trimester' refers to 3 Organogenesis
monthS
193. Which of the

Telegram
following set of male sex
accessory glands are paired?
() Seminal vesicle and
prostate gland

(3)
Seminal vesicle and bulbourethral
gland
Prostate and bulbourethral gland
@NEET_BROKER
(4) Prostate and Cowper's gland
 mExam2024CF+ OYM(P2)TE0 2 C

199,Which of the following hormone IS

considered as birth hormone
(1) Progesterone
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
Oxytocin
the option which is n¡t a direct
200. Select
unction ot gonadotrophins.
) Androgen secretion from te stes
P) Maintenance of corpus luteum
(3) Ovulation
Maintenance of secondary sexual
characters