Solutions to Chens Plasma Physics

Kalman Knizhnik

1-1. Compute the density (in units of m3 ) of an ideal gas under the following conditions:
a) At 0o C and 760 Torr pressure (1 Torr = 1mm Hg). This is called the Loschmidt
number.
b) In a vacuum at 103 Torr at room temperature (20o C). This number is a useful one
for the experimentalist to know by heart (103 Torr = 1 micron).
a) Avogadros number is NA = 6.022 1023 . One mole of gas at STP occupies 22.4 liters. 1 liter is
1 103 cubic meters. Thus, the number per cubic meter is NA /n = 6.022 1023 /(22.4 103 ) =
2.66 1025 m3 . Thus, the Loschmidt number is 2.66 1025 2
b) Using PV=NkT, we obtain (with R= 1.4 1023 J K 1 and 1 Torr = 133 Pa):
n=

N
P
103 133
=
=
= 3.3 1019 m3 2
V
kT
1.4 1023 (20 + 273)

(1)

1-2. Derive the constant A for a normalized one-dimensional Maxwellian distribution

2
f(u) = Aemu /2kT

such that

(2)

f(u)du = 1

(3)

This one is straightforward. Just integrate:

Z

s
mu2 /2kT

Ae

1=

du = A

2kT
m

A=

m
2kT

(4)

1-4. Compute the pressure, in atmospheres and in tons/f t2 , exerted by a thermonuclear

plasma on its container. Assume kTe = kTi = 20keV , n = 1021 m3 and p = nkT , where
T = Ti + Te .
This is just unit conversion, albeit with units that nobody really ever remembers. For reference,
1 keV = 1.6 1019 J, so
p = 1021 (20keV + 20keV ) = 4 1022 m3 keV = 4 103 m3 J = 4 103 N/m2

(5)

But 1 atm = 105 N/m2 = 1 ton/f t2 , so (Note: I think there is a mistake in Chens solutions here.
If I am mistaken, please let me know).
p = 0.04 atm = 0.04 ton/f t2 2

(6)

1-5. In a strictly steady state situation, both the ions and the electrons will follow the
Boltzmann relation
nj = n0 eqj /kTj
(7)
For the case of an infinite, transparent grid charged to a potential , show that the
shielding distance is given approximately by
2
D =

ne2 1
1
(
+
)
0 kTe kTi

(8)

Show that D is determined by the temperature of the colder species.

Well use Poissons equation
2 =

ene eni
en0 e/kTe
en0
e
e
e2 n

ee/kTi )
=
(e
(1 +
1
)=
(
+
) (9)
0
0
0
kTe
kTi
0 kTe kTi

Now well suppose the goes like a decreasing exponential: = 0 exp(x/D ). Thus, the Laplacian acting on this is
2 =

1
ne2

=
(
+
)
2
0 kTe kTi
D

1
ne2 1
1
=
(
+
) 2
2
0 kTe kTi
D

(10)

To show that D is determined by the colder species, we suppose first that the electrons are the
colder species: Te  Ti . Then,
1
ne2
=
kTe 0
2D

D =

kTe 0
2
ne2

(11)

Alternatively, if the ions are colder, Ti  Te , then a similar analysis yields:

ne2
1
=
kTi 0
2D

D =

kTi 0
2
ne2

(12)

1-6. An alternative derivation of D will give further insight to its meaning. Consider
two infinite, parallel plates at x = d, set at potential = 0. The space between them
is uniformly filled by a gas of density n of particles of charge q.
a) Using Poissons equation, show that the potential distribution between the plates
is
nq 2
=
(d x2 )
(13)
20
b) Show that for d > D , the energy needed to transport a particle from a plate to the
mid plane is greater than the average kinetic energy of the particles.
1-9. A distant galaxy contains a cloud of protons and antiprotons, each with density
n = 106 m3 and temperature T = 100o K. What is the Debye length?
The Debye length is given by
X 0 kTj
D =
(14)
nj e2j
j
Plugging in the numbers:
D =

8.85 1012 1.4 1023 100

= 0.48 m 2
106 (1.6 1019 )2

(15)

As a check, use the SI unit form for the Debye length given in Chen. If T is in Kelvin, and n is in
cubic meters, then:
s
s
T
102
D = 69
m = 69
m = 69 102 m 2
(16)
n
106
This is the same order of magnitude so we are ok.
1-10. A spherical conductor of radius a is immersed in a plasma and charged to a
potential 0 . The electrons remain Maxwellian and move to form a Debye shield, but
the ions are stationary during the time frame of the experiment. Assuming 0  kTe /e,
derive an expression for the potential as a function of r in terms of a, 0 , and D . (Hint:
Assume a solution of the form ebr /r.)
Lets assume a solution of this form: = Aebr /r. Then,
2 =

1 2
e
(r
) = b2 = (ne ni )
2
r r
r
0

(17)

Since the electrons are Maxwellian, they obey ne = n0 ee/kTe n0 (1 + e/kTe ). The ions, however,
are stationary, so ni = n0 . Thus we have:
b2 =

e
e
n0 e 2

(n0 + n0
n0 ) =
2
0
kTe
0 kTe
D

b=

1
D

(18)

Thus, so far we have:

er/D
r
But we also need to match the boundary condition that (a) = 0 . So,
=A

0 = A

ea/D
a

(19)

A = a0 ea/D

(20)

So, finally we have our answer:

er/D
2
(21)
r
You know what they say: if it satisfies Poissons equation and the boundary conditions then it
must be the answer.
(r) = 0 ea/D a

2-3. An ion engine (see Fig. 106) has a 1-T magnetic field, and a hydrogen plasma
is to be shot out at an E B velocity of 1000 km/s. How much internal electric field
must be present in the plasma?
The E B velocity is given by
EB
v=
(22)
B2
Plugging in the numbers:
106 m/s =

|E|
1T

|E| = 1000 V /m 2

(23)

2-4. Show that vE is the same for two ions of equal mass and charge but different
energies, by using the following physical picture (see Fig. 2-2). Approximate the right
half of the orbit by a semicircle corresponding to the ion energy after acceleration
by the E field, and the left half by a semicircle corresponding to the energy after
deceleration. You may assume that E is weak, so that the fractional change in v is
small.
If the energy of the right part of the orbit is E1 and the energy of the left part of the orbit is E2 ,
then we have
E1 = E0 + eEr1 , E2 = E0 eEr2
(24)
where E0 is the initial energy and E is the electric field. The velocity is determined by v =
so
s
s
2E0 + 2eEr1
2E0 eEr2
v1 =
v2 =
m
m

2E/m,
(25)

The Larmor radius is determined via r = mv /qB, so

r1,2

m
=
qB

2E0
m

eEr1,2
1
=
E0

2mE0
eEr1,2
(1
)=
qB
2E0

2E0 1
Er1,2

m c 2 mE0 c

(26)

Thus,
s

r1,2 (1

m E
1
)=
2E0 qB
c

2E0
eE
(1
m
2E0 c

2E0
)
m

(27)

The guiding center moves a distance r1 r2 :

eE
r1 r2 =
E0 c

2E0 1
m c

2E0
2eE
=
m
mc2

(28)

The velocity of the guiding center is

vgc = 2

2eE
2E
c
4eE
E
r1 r2
=
=
= 2 (r1 r2 ) =

2
T
2
2mc
mc
B
B

(29)

since c = eB/m. This is a pretty good approximation.

2-5. Suppose electrons obey the Boltzmann relation of Problem 1-5 in a cylindrically symmetric plasma column in which n(r) varies with a scale length ; that is
n/r = n/.
a) Using E = , find the radial electric field for a given .
b) For electrons, show that the finite Larmor radius effects are large if vE is as large
as vth . Specifically, show that rL = 2 if vE = vth .
c) Is (b) also true for ions?
Hint: Do not use Poissons equation.
a) We simply solve for from the Boltzmann relation for electrons.
n = n0 ee/kTe

kTe
n
ln( )
e
n0

(30)

Therefore,
E = =

kTe n0 1 n
kTe
r =
r =
r 2
r
e n n0 r
e

(31)

b) We start with the definitions of vE , vth , and rL :

E
vE = ,
B

vth =

2kTe
,
m

rL =

mv
eB

(32)

So, calculating the magnitude of vE :

vE =

2
kTe
mvth
1
rL vth
=
=
eB
2 eB
2

(33)

where in the last step I have assumed that the perpendicular velocity is the thermal velocity. Now,
setting vE = vth , it is easy to see that
rL = 2 2
(34)
c) Sure, why not?
2-6. Suppose that a so-called Q-machine has a uniform field of 0.2 T and a cylindrical
plasma with kTe = kTi = 0.2 eV . The density profile is found experimentally to be of
the form
n = n0 exp[exp(r2 /a2 ) 1]
(35)
Assume the density obeys the electron Boltzmann relation n = n0 exp(e/kTe ).
a) Calculate the maximum vE if a = 1 cm.
b) Compare this with vE due to the earths gravitational field.
c) To what value can B be lowered before the ions of potassium (A = 39, Z = 1) have
a Larmor radius equal to a?
We solve for :
n0 exp[exp(r2 /a2 ) 1] = n0 exp(e/kTe )

kTe r2 /a2
(e
1)
e

(36)

Thus, the electric field is

E=

kTe 2r r2 /a2
r =
r
e
r
e a2

(37)

E
2rkTe r2 /a2
=
e
B
ea2 B

(38)

and so vE (and its maximum) is

vE =

vE
2kTe
4r2 kTe r2 /a2
2
2
= 2 er /a
e
=0
r
ea B
ea4 B

r=

a2
2
2

(39)

So, with a = 1 cm,

vE,max

2kTe
= 2
ea B

a2 1/2 
8.5 km/sec 2
e

2
a=1 cm,B=0.2 T,kTe =0.2 keV


(40)

b) If we assume these are potassium ions, we have mg = 39 1.6 1027 9.8 = 6.4 1025 N .
Meanwhile, if we plug in the numbers above into the expression for the electric field (equation 37),
well get that E = 17 V /m. Thus, the force due to the electric field is eE = 1.6 1019 17 =
2.8 1018 N . Thus the gravitational drift is
Fg
6.4 1025
=
1.5 107
FE
2.8 1018

(41)

times smaller. 2
c) The Larmor radius is rL = mvth /qB, so, in terms of the constants of vth , we have (setting
rL = a):
s
s
m 2kTe
2mkTe
rL =
=a B=
(42)
qB
m
q 2 a2
Plugging in the numbers:
s

B=

2 39 1.6 1027 0.2 1.6 1019

= 4 102 T 2
(17 1.6 1019 )2 (0.1 102 )2

(43)

2-8. Suppose the Earths magnetic field is 3 105 T at the equator and falls off as
1/r3 , as for a perfect dipole. Let there be an isotropic population of 1 eV protons and
30 keV electrons, each with density n = 107 m3 , at r = 5 earth radii in the equatorial
plane.
a) Compute the ion and electron B drift velocities.
b) Does an electron drift eastward or westward?
c) How long does it take an electron to encircle the earth?
d) Compute the ring current density in A/m2 .
Note: The curvature drift is not negligible and will affect the numerical answer, but
neglect it anyway.
a) The grad-B drift is given by
1
B B
1
B
vB = v rL |
| = v rL |
|
2
2
B
2
B

(44)

We can calculate v from the energy, and rL from the magnetic field:
s

v =

2E
,
m

mv
m
rL =
=
eB
eB

2E
m

(45)

Thus,
vB

1
=
2

2E m
m eB

2E B
E B
|
|=
|
|
m B
eB B

(46)

Since B r3 , we obtain
B =

B
3
B
r = 4 = 3
r
r
r

B
3
|=
B
r

(47)

vB =

3E
3Er3
3Er2
3E(eV )r2
=
=
=
eBr
eB0 Re3 r
eB0 Re3
B0 Re3

(48)

So

where I have used the fact that B = B0 Re3 /r3 . Now we can plug in the numbers:
vB,e =

3 30 103 (5 6 106 )2
= 1.3 104 m/s 2
3 105 (6 106 )3

(49)

3 1 (5 6 106 )2
= 0.42 m/s 2
(50)
3 105 (6 106 )3
b) The magnetic field is azimuthal, from north to south, i.e. the direction. The gradient of the
which is eastward.
magnetic field is clearly in the radial direction, so we have B B r = ,
vB,i =

This is for the electrons. The ions, which come without the minus sign to cancel the minus sign in
which is westward. 2
equation 47, will go in -,
c) Well, it has to travel a distance L = 2(5Re ), with the velocity vB,e . So,
T =

L
vB,e

2 5 6.4 106
4.5 hours 2
1.3 104

(51)

d) The current density is given by J = nev, so, using the grad-B velocity in this expression, we get
J = nevB,e = 107 1.6 1019 1.3 104 = 2 108 A/m2 2

(52)

2-10. A 20 keV deuteron in a large mirror fusion device has a pitch angle = 45o at
the mid plane, where B = 0.7 T . Compute its Larmor radius.
The Larmor radius is given by
mv
rL =
(53)
qB
In natural units, a deuteron has m = 2 and q = +1. Furthermore, v = vsin(). To find v, we
convert the energy to velocity:
m
rL =
eB

2E
2 1.6 1027
sin() =
m
1.6 1019 0.7

2 20 103 1.6 1019

sin(45o ) = 0.3 m 2 (54)
2 1.6 1027

2-12. A cosmic ray proton is trapped between two moving magnetic mirrors with
Rm = 5 and initially has W = 1 keV and v = v|| at the mid plane. Each mirror moves
toward the mid plane with a velocity vm = 10 km/sec (Fig. 2-10).
a) Using the loss cone formula and the invariance of , find the energy to which the
proton will be accelerated before it escapes.
b) How long will take to reach that energy?
1. Treat the mirrors as flat pistons and show that the velocity gained at each bounce
is 2vm .
2. Compute the number of bounces necessary.
3. Compute the time T it takes to traverse L = 1010 km that many times. Factor of
two accuracy will suffice.
a) The loss cone formula is sin2 (m ) = 1/Rm , where m is the angle of the magnetic mirror and
Rm is the mirror ratio Bmax /B0 . We can also write down a formula for sin(m ) in terms of the
parallel and perpendicular velocities:
sin(m ) =

v,f
1
1
=q
=q
v||,f 2
2
2
Rm
v,f
+ v||,f
1 + ( v,f
)

(55)

Squaring both sides, and noting that, since is invariant, v,f = v,i , we have
1
1
1
=
v||,f 2 =
Rm
5
1 + ( v,i )

v||,f = 2v,i

(56)

Thus, we can get the final energy:

1
1
5
2
2
2
2
2
Wf = m(v,f
+ v||,f
) = m(v,i
+ 4v,i
) = mv,i
2
2
2

(57)

But we cant evaluate this without knowing what the original v,i is. Fortunately, we know that
initially v = v|| , so
1
1
2
2
2
2
+ v||,i
) = m(2v,i
) = mv,i
= 1 keV
Wi = m(v,i
2
2

(58)

So, finally,
5
Wf = Wi = 2.5 keV 2
(59)
2
b) In the frame of the piston, when the particle bounces off, its velocity doesnt change. In the
pistons frame, the velocity of the particle as it is coming in is vi vm , where vm is the velocity of
the piston (it is negative). Its final velocity is the same but negative. Thus,
vi0 = vi vm ,

vf0 = vm vi

(60)

where the prime denotes the velocity in the pistons reference frame. But, in the lab frame,
vf = vf0 + vm , so we have
vf = 2vm vi
(61)
Thus, the change in velocity on each bounce is 2vm = 20 km/sec. The initial proton velocity is
s

vi =

2Wi
=
m

2 1 103 1.6 1019

= 447 km/s
1.6 1027

(62)

The proton final energy is 2.5 keV . This corresponds to a velocity of

s

vf =

2Wf
=
m

2 2.5 103 1.6 1019

= 707 km/s
1.6 1027

(63)

Thus, the total change in velocity needed is vtot = 707 447 km/s = 260 km/s. This corresponds
to
vtot
260
=
= 13 bounces 2
(64)
Nbounces =
v1bounce
20
We can neglect the distance the mirrors move in the time the particle travels the distance, since
vm  vproton . Thus, the time it takes to travel a distance Nbounces L is, using vproton = (vf vi )/2,
T =

Nbounces L
2 13 1010
=
= 109 s 32 years 2
vproton
707 447

(65)

2-13. Derive
the result of Problem 2-12(b) directly by using the invariance of J.
R
a) Let v|| ds v|| L and differentiate with respect to time.
b) From this, get an expression for T in terms of dL/dt. Set dL/dt = 2vm to obtain
the answer.
R
a) The quantity J = ab v|| ds is invariant. Thus, is approximate it as v|| L, then its time derivative
must be 0:
d
(v L) = Lv || + v|| L = 0
(66)
dt ||

b) We can solve this expression:

Lv || = v|| L

dv|| L = 2v|| vm dt

(67)

2-14. In plasma heating by adiabatic compression, the invariance of requires that

kT increases as B increases. The magnetic field, however, cannot accelerate particles
because the Lorentz force qv B is always perpendicular to the velocity. How do the
particles gain energy?
Maxwell tells us that an electric field will be induced by a changing magnetic field. The induced
electric field is what accelerates the particles. 2
4-1. The oscillating density n1 and potential 1 in a drift wave are related by
n1
e1 + ia
=
n0
kTe + ia

(68)

where it is only necessary to know that all the other symbols (except i) stand for
positive constants.
a) Find an expression for the phase of 1 relative to n1 . (For simplicity, assume that
n1 is real.)
b) If < , does 1 lead or lag n1 ?
a) Solving for 1 leads to
1 =

+ ia n1 kTe
n1 kTe ( + ia)( ia)
n1 kTe + a2 + i(a a)
=
=
+ ia n0 e
n0 e
2 + a2
n0 e
2 + a2

(69)

Now, in a drift wave we can suppose that 1 exp(i), which in turns tells us that tan() =
Im(1 )/Re(1 ). We have
Re(1 ) =

n1 kTe + a2
n1 kTe a
; Im(1 ) =
2
2
n 0 e + a
n0 e 2 + a2

Thus,
= tan1 (a

) 2
+ a2

(70)

(71)

b) For < , > 0. We can set the phase of n1 to be 0, since all that matters is a phase difference.
Thus, 1 lags n1 . 2
4.2 Calculate the plasma frequency with the ion motions included, thus justifying our
assumption that the ions are fixed. (Hint: include the term n1i in Poissons equation
and use the ion equations of motion and continuity.
We will use Gausss Law, Fourier transforming the field and charge perturbations into plane waves
of the form x = x0 + x1 , where x is any quantity, vector or scalar. The subscript 0 indicates the
equilibrium value, and the subscript 1 indicates the perturbation. We only keep terms of to first
order in small quantities.

e(ni ne )
E=
ik E1 =
(72)
0
0
Similarly, the equation of motion for the electrons,
me

dve
= eE
dt

mi

dvi
= eE
dt

ime ve = eE1

(73)

imi vi = eE1

(74)

ions,

and continuity equation for electrons,

ne
+ (ne ve ) = 0
t

ne1 + ne0 k ve = 0

(75)

and ions

ni
+ (ni vi ) = 0 ni1 + ni0 k vi = 0
(76)
t
We now have 9 equations and 9 unknowns. I will skip the boring algebra. Solving for yields
2 = p2 + 2p 2
q

(77)

ni e
is the ion plasma frequency. Clearly, omitting the ion plasma frequency from
where p = m
i 0
the calculation is justified since mi  me .

4.4 By writing the linearized Poissons equation used in the derivation of simple plasma
oscillations in the form (E) = 0 derive an expression for the dielectric constant 
applicable to high-frequency longitudinal motions.
Fourier transform Poissons equation:
ik E =

e
= n1
0
0

(78)

We also know that

n1
+ n 0 v1 = 0
t
and we know Newtons Law:
m

in1 n0 ik v = 0

v
= eE
t

v=i

n1 = n0

kv

e
E
m

(79)

(80)

Thus, equation (78) gives us

kE=

e 2 n0
ie
n0 k v =
kE
0
0 2 m

(81)

We can do a trick here, and pull everything over to the left side. Writing p2 e2 n0 /m0
k E(1

p2
)=0
2

and thus we obtain

=1

{(1

p2
)E} = 0
2

p2
2
2

(82)

(83)

4.6
a) Compute the effect of collisional damping on the propagation of Langmuir waves
(plasma oscillations), by adding a term mnv to the electron equation of motion and
rederiving the dispersion relation for Te = 0.
b) Write an explicit expression for Im() and show that its sign indicates that the
wave is damped in time.
a) The cold electron equations of motion are
mne
and

v
= ene E mne v
t

ne
+ (ne v) = 0
t

imv = eE mv

ine ine k v = 0

kv=

(84)

(85)

We also have Gausss law:

E=

ne e
0

kE=i

ne e
m
= i p2
0
e

(86)

We will dot equation (84) with k:

kE=kv

(im m)
e

(87)

Plugging in equations (86) and (87), we obtain

i

m 2 (i 2 m m)
=
e p
e

p2 = 2 + 2

(88)

So we see that if we include collisions, the oscillation frequency is different from the plasma frequency.
b) Lets let = R + iI . Then expression (88) becomes
2
p2 = R
I2 + 2iR I + iI + R

(89)

This means that

2
2
Now we suppose a plane wave solution for the field quantities, i.e.
2R I + I = 0

I =

(90)

E eit
we obtain
E eiR t+I t

(91)
t

E eiR t e 2

Thus, the wave is exponentially attenuated in time.

(92)