Mod 4 Ques Bank

Module 04(B2)
Complete Questions Bank
4.1.1. Semiconductors - Diodes.
1. The weight of the atom is depend on the addition of ………………..

a. no. of protons + no. of neutrons
b. no. of protons
c. no. of neutrons
d. All of the above
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Page no.-3
2. The atomic number of the atom is depend on the ………………..

a. no. of protons + no. of neutrons
b. no. of protons
c. no. of neutrons
d. All of the above
3. The electron in any orbit of such an atom can have a range of energies rather than a single energy is known as
…………….
a. Energy band.
b. Energy level
c. Both a & b
d. All of the above
4. The electrons in the outermost orbit of an atom are known as …………………..

a. Valence electrons
b. Conduction electron
c. Both a & b
d. Conduction band
5. The separation between conduction band and valence band on the energy level diagram is known as ………….
a. forbidden energy gap
b. Energy gap
c. Valence band gap
d. Conduction band gap
6. In insulator , the energy gap between valence and conduction bands is =……………….
a. 15 eV
b. 1eV
c. 0eV
d. 18 eV
7. In semiconductor , the energy gap between valence and conduction bands is =……………….
a. 15 eV
b. 1eV
c. 0eV
d. 18 eV
8. In conductor, the energy gap between valence and conduction bands is =……………….
a. 15 eV
b. 1eV
c. 0eV
d. 18 eV
9. An extremely pure semiconductor is called as …………………..

a. Intrinsic Semiconductor
b. Extrinsic Semiconductor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
10. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is known as …………

a. Doping
b. Intrinsic Semiconductor
c. Atom
d. Both a & b
11. The germanium atom has ……………….valence electrons.

a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. One
12. When a small amount of trivalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it is called ……..
a. p-type semiconductor.
b. n-type semiconductor.
c. Both a & b
d. Non of these
13. A semiconductor is formed by ........ bonds.

a. covalent
b. electrovalent
c. co-ordinate
d. none of the above
14. A semiconductor has ........ temperature coefficient of resistance.

a. positive
b. zero
c. negative
15. The most commonly used semiconductor is........

a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
d. sulphur
16. A semiconductor has generally ........valence electrons.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
17. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard conditions is about ........
a. 6 *104 ohm cm
b. 60 ohm cm
c. 3 *106 ohm cm
d. 6 *104ohm cm
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta chapter no.5
18. The resistivity of pure silicon is about ........

a. 6 *104 ohm cm
b. 6000 ohm cm
c. 3 *106 ohm cm
d. 6 *104ohm cm
19. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ........

a. an insulator
b. an intrinsic semiconductor
c. p-type semiconductor
d. n-type semiconductor
20. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ........
a. free electrons
b. holes
c. valence electrons
d. bound electrons
21. A pentavalent impurity has ........ valence electrons.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
22. An n-type semiconductor is ........

a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. electrically neutral
23. A trivalent impurity has ........ valence electrons.

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
24. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ........

a. holes
b. free electrons
c. valence electrons
d. bound electrons
25. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as ........

a. a free electron
b. the incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. a free proton
d. a free neutron
26. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about ........ of pure semiconductor.
a. 10 atoms for 108 atoms
b. 1 atom for 108 atoms
c. 1 atom for 104 atoms
d. 1 atom for 100 atoms
27. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of the semiconductor ........
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
28. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due ........

a. only to holes
b. only to free electrons
c. to holes and free electrons
29. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ........
a. +ve terminal to p and -ve terminal to n
b. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
c. -ve terminal to p and -ve terminal to n
30. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ........
a. +ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n
b. ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
c. ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n
31. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ..........

a. acceptor ions
b. holes and electrons
c. donor ions
32. A reverse biased pn junction has ........
a. very narrow depletion layer
b. almost no current
c. very low resistance
d. large current flow
33. A pn junction acts as a ........

a. controlled switch
b. bidirectional switch
c. unidirectional switch
34. When a p-type semiconductor is suitably joined to n-type semiconductor, the contact surface is called
……………..
a. PN junction.
b. Transistor
c. Capacitor
d. Resistor
35. A crystal diode has ………

a. one PN junction
b. two PN junctions
c. three PN junctions
36. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………

a. kΩ
b. Ω
c. MΩ
37. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….

a. kA
b. mA
c. μA
d. A
38. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
a. 2.5 V
b. 3V
c. 10 V
d. 0.7 V
39. A crystal diode is used as ……………

a. an amplifier
b. a rectifier
c. an oscillator
d. a voltage regulator
40. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….

a. minority carriers
b. majority carriers
c. junction capacitance
41. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current ………..
a. remains the same
b. decreases
c. increases
d. becomes zero
42. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….

a. applied voltage
b. breakdown voltage
c. forward voltage
d. barrier potential
43. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
a. forward
b. inverse
c. poor
d. reverse
44. A crystal diode is a …………… device

a. non-linear
b. bilateral
c. linear
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Page no.55
45. The arrow direction in the diode symbol indicates

a. Direction of electron flow.
b. Direction of conventional current
c. Opposite to the direction of hole flow
d. None of the above
46. The forward voltage drop across a germanium diode is about …………………
a. 2.5 V
b. 0.3 V
c. 10 V
d. 0.7 V
47. When the diode is forward biased, it is equivalent to

a. An off switch
b. An On switch
c. A high resistance
48. Under normal reverse bias voltage applied to diode, the reverse current in Si diode
a. 100 mA
b. order of μA
c. 1000 μA
d. None of these
49. When P-N junction is in forward bias, by increasing the battery voltage
a. Circuit resistance increases
b. Current through P-N junction increases
c. Current through P-N junction decreases
d. None of the above happens
50. When a PN junction is reverse-biased
a. Holes and electrons tend to concentrate towards the junction
b. The barrier tends to break down
c. Holes and electrons tend to move away from the junction
51. A PN junction is said to be forward biased when

a. Positive terminal of the battery is connected to P-side and the negative side to the N-side
b. Junction is earthed
c. N-side is connected directly to the p-side
d. Positive terminal of the battery is connected to N-side and the negative side to the P-side
52. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is
a. 40.6%
b. 100%
c. 81.2%
d. 85.6%
53. The maximum efficiency of bridge wave rectification is
a. 40.6%
b. 100%
c. 81.2%
d. 85.6%
54. The maximum efficiency of half wave rectification is

a. 40.6%
b. 100%
c. 81.2%
d. 85.6%
55. The number of diode in half wave rectifier is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
56. The number of diode in full wave rectifier is

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
57. The number of diode in bridge wave rectifier is

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
58. The output frequency of half wave rectifier is ………………….(fin=input frequency)

a. fin
b. 2fin
c. 3 fin
d. 4 fin
59. The output frequency of full wave rectifier is ………………….(fin=input frequency)

a. fin
b. 2fin
c. 3 fin
d. 4 fin
60. The output frequency of bridge wave rectifier is ………………….(fin=input frequency)

a. fin
b. 2fin
c. 3 fin
d. 4 fin
61. In half wave rectifier peak inverse voltage is …………..

a. Vm
b. 2Vm
c. 3Vm
d. 4Vm
62. In full wave rectifier peak inverse voltage is …………..

a. Vm
b. 2Vm
c. 3Vm
d. 4Vm
63. In bridge wave rectifier peak inverse voltage is …………..

a. Vm
b. 2Vm
c. 3Vm
d. 4Vm
64. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is

a. 0.482
b. 0.812
c. 1.11
d. 1.21
65. The ripple factor of a full wave rectifier is

a. 0.482
b. 0.812
c. 1.11
d. 1.21
66. The ripple factor of a half wave rectifier is

a. 0.482
b. 0.812
c. 1.11
d. 1.21
67. A …………….. clipper is that which removes the positive half-cycles of the input voltage.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both positive and negative
d. Combination clipper
68. A …………….. clipper is that which removes the negative half-cycles of the input voltage.
a. Positive
b. Negative
69. A …………….. clipper is that which removes the some part of positive half-cycles of the input voltage.
a. Positive biased clipper
b. Negative biased clipper
70. A …………….. clipper is that which removes the some part of negative half-cycles of the input voltage.
71. A …………….. clipper is that which removes the some part of positive and negative half-cycles of the input
voltage.
c. Combination positive and negative biased
d. Clamper
72. Addition of another diode capacitor section to half wave voltage doublers creates a………….
a. voltage doublers
b. voltage Tripler
c. voltage quadruple
d. voltage regulator
73. what is long form of LED
a. light emitting diode
b. light emitting display
c. light emitting detector
d. low emitting diode
74. LED is made of ……………..

a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. gallium arsenide
d. both a & b
75. Red LED is made of ………..

a. gallium arsenide
b. gallium phosphide
c. gallium arsenide phosphide
d. both b & c
76. Green LED is made of ………..

a. gallium arsenide
d. both a & c
77. Yellow LED is made of ………..

a. gallium arsenide
d. both b & a
78. In LED , When recombination OF holes and electron takes place, the recombining electrons release energy in
the form of ………………….
a. heat and light
b. gas
c. electricity
d. both b & c
79. As forward current of LED increase, light emission of LED

a. will increase
b. will decrease
c. become zero
d. become infinite

80. In photodiode, when there is no incident light, the reverse current is almost negligible and is called
a. Zener current
b. dark current
c. photo current
d. PIN current
81. Photodiode always works in …………….

a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both a & b
d. Only forward biased
82. Greater the intensity of light falling on the PN junction of photo-diode, the …………………will be the reverse
current.
a. Greater
b. Lesser
c. Average
d. Both b & c
83. The capacitance of a varactor diode increases when reverse voltage across it
a. decreases
b. increases
c. breaks down
d. stores charge
84. The varactor is usually

a. forward-biased
b. reverse-biased
c. unbiased
d. in the breakdown region
85. To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator

a. C must be lighted
b. G must be off
c. F must be on
d. All segments must be lighted
86. To display the digit 0 in a seven segment display

a. A must be lighted
b. F must be off
c. G must be on
d. all segments except G should be lighted\
87. A zener diode has ........

a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
88. A zener diode is used as ........

a. an amplifier
b. a voltage regulator
c. a rectifier
d. a multivibrator
89. The doping level in a zener diode is ........that of a crystal diode.

a. the same as
b. less than
c. more than
90. A zener diode is always .......... connected.

a. reverse
b. forward
c. either reverse or forward
91. A zener diode utilises ........ characteristic for its operation.

a. forward
b. reverse
c. both forward and reverse
92. In the breakdown region, a zener diode behaves like a ......... source.
a. constant voltage
b. constant current
c. constant resistance
93. A zener diode is destroyed if it ........

a. is forward biased
b. is reverse biased
c. carries more than rated current
94. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to ........

a. properly reverse bias the zener
b. protect the zener
c. properly forward bias the zener
95. A zener diode is ........ device.

a. a non-linear
b. a linear
c. an amplifying
96. A zener diode has ........ breakdown voltage.

a. undefined
b. sharp
c. zero
97. An SCR has ............... pn junctions.

a. two
b. three
c. four
98. An SCR has ............... semiconductor layers.

a. two
b. three
c. four
99. An SCR has three terminals viz. ...............

a. cathode, anode, gate
b. anode, cathode, grid
c. anode, cathode, drain
100. An SCR behaves as a ............... switch.
a. Unidirectional
b. Bidirectional
c. Mechanical
101. An SCR is sometimes called ...............

a. triac
b. diac
c. unijunction transistor
d. thyristor
102. An SCR is made of ...............

a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
103. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is............... w.r.t. cathode.

a. at zero potential
b. negative
c. positive
104. In normal operation of an SCR, gate is............... w.r.t. cathode.
a. positive
b. negative
c. at zero potential
105. An SCR combines the features of ...............

a. a rectifier and resistance
b. a rectifier and transistor
c. a rectifier and capacitor
106. The control element in an SCR is ...............

a. cathode
b. anode
c. anode supply
d. gate
107. The normal way to turn on an SCR is by...............

a. breakover voltage
b. appropriate anode current
c. appropriate gate current
108. An SCR is turned off by ...............

a. reducing anode voltage to zero
b. reducing gate voltage to zero
c. reverse biasing the gate
109. An SCR is a ............... triggered device.

a. voltage
b. current
c. voltage as well as current
110. In an SCR circuit, the supply voltage is generally............... that of breakover voltage.
a. equal to
b. less than
c. greater than
111. An SCR is made of silicon and not germanium because silicon ...............
a. is inexpensive
b. is mechanically strong
c. has small leakage current
d. is tetravalent
112. An SCR is turned off when ...............

a. anode current is reduced to zero
b. gate voltage is reduced to zero
c. gate is reverse biased
113. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is ...............

a. exactly zero
b. small leakage current
c. large leakage current
114. When SCR starts conducting, then ...............loses all control.

a. gate
b. cathode
c. anode
4.1.2. Semiconductors - Transistor.
115. A transistor has ........

a. One pn junction
b. Two pn junctions
c. Three pn junctions
d. Four pn junctions
116. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is ........
a. four
b. three
c. one
d. two
117. The base of a transistor is ....... doped.

a. heavily
b. moderately
c. lightly
118. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ........
a. collector
b. base
c. emitter
d. collector-base junction
119. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are........

a. acceptor ions
b. donor ions
c. free electrons
d. holes
120. The collector of a transistor is ........ doped.
a. heavily
b. moderately
c. lightly
121. A transistor is a ......... operated device.
a. current
b. voltage
c. both voltage and current
122. In an npn transistor, ....... are the minority carriers.
a. free electrons
b. holes
c. donor ions
d. acceptor ions
123. The emitter of a transistor is ........ doped.
a. lightly
b. heavily
c. moderately
124. In a transistor, the base current is about ........of emitter current.
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 35%
d. 5%
125. At the base-emitter junction of a transistor, one finds ........
a. reverse bias
b. a wide depletion layer
c. low resistance
126. At the base-collector junction of a transistor, one finds........

a. reverse bias
b. a wide depletion layer
c. High resistance
127. The input impedance of a transistor is ......

a. high
b. low
c. very high
d. almost zero
128. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter.........

a. recombine in the base
b. recombine in the emitter
c. pass through the base region to the collector
129. The current IB is ........

a. electron current
b. hole current
c. donor ion current
d. acceptor ion current
130. In a transistor, ........

a. IC = IE + IB
b. IB = IC + IE
c. IE = IC * IB
d. IE = IC + IB
131. The value of α of a transistor is ........

a. more than 1
b. less than 1
c. 1
132. The output impedance of a transistor is ........

a. high
b. zero
c. low
d. very low
133. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is ........ arrangement.

a. common emitter
b. common base
c. common collector
134. The input impedance of a transistor connected in .......... arrangement is the highest.
a. common emitter
b. common collector
c. common base
135. The output impedance of a transistor connected in ......... arrangement is the highest.
a. common emitter
b. common collector
c. common base
136. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a common base arrangement is .........
a. 180º
b. 90º
c. 270º
d. 0º
137. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in ........ arrangement is the highest.
a. common base
b. common collector
c. common emitter
138. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance ........
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains the same
139. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is .......
a. equal to 1
b. more than 10
c. more than 100
d. less than 1
140. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor connected in common collector
arrangement is ........
a. 180º
b. 0º
c. 90º
d. 270º
141. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of ........

a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
142. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a ........ circuit.
a. high resistance to low resistance
b. low resistance to high resistance
c. high resistance to high resistance
d. low resistance to low resistance
143. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of .........
a. electron current in the emitter
b. electron current in the collector
c. hole current in the emitter
d. donor ion current
144. The leakage current in CE arrangement is....... that in CB arrangement.

a. more than
b. less than
c. the same as
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta page no.163
145. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to ........

a. increase the forward current
b. decrease the forward current
c. compensate for excessive doping
d. prevent excessive temperature rise
146. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is ........
a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
147. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ........

a. forward bias at all times
b. reverse bias at all times
c. low resistance
148. In an NPN transistor the P is the

a. Collector
b. Emitter
c. Base
d. Gate
149. What is resistor R used?

a. Amplification
b. Bias
c. Stabilization
d. None of these
150. When a positive voltage is applied to the base of a normally biased n-p-n common emitter amplifier.
a. the collector voltage goes less positive.
b. the emitter current decreases.
c. the base current decreases.
d. All the above
151. Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction?.

a. Emitter to base.
b. Collector to base.
c. Collector to emitter.
152. For conduction of a transistor, the emitter junction is.

a. forward or reverse as appropriate to the input signal.
b. reverse biased.
c. forward biased.
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116.
153. In a PNP transistor, which way does conventional current flow?.

a) Base to emitter.
b) Collector to emitter.
c) Emitter to collector.
154. In a PNP transistor, conventional current will flow when.

a. The emitter is more positive than the base.
b. the base is more positive than the emitter.
c. the collector is more positive than the emitter.
155. In a common collector circuit the output and input are.

a. in phase.
b. out of phase by 60°.
c. out of phase by 90°.
156. An NPN transistor to conduct the collector circuit has to be.

a. more positive than the base.
b. less positive than the emitter.
c. more positive than the emitter.
157. Point X compared to point.
a. Y is more negative.
b. Z is more positive.
c. Z is more negative.
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116/117.
158. Resistance measured using an AVO between the Collector and Emitter of a transistor is.
a. smaller Collector to Emitter.
b. same both ways.
c. higher Collector to Emitter.
159. A transistor is used in.
a. current amplifiers.
b. both current amplifiers and voltage amplifiers.
c. voltage amplifiers.
160. Under normal operating conditions X will be.

a. negative with respect to Z.
b. positive with respect to Z.
c. negative with respect to Y.
. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116/117.
161. In which direction does the current flow on a PNP transistor when forward biased?.
a. Emitter to base.
b. Emitter to collector.
c. Collector to emitter.
162. With an NPN transistor electrons leave the.

a. Base.
b. Collector.
c. Emitter.
163. In a transistor, the arrow always points in the direction of.

a. electron flow.
b. conventional current.
c. emitter.
164. In an NPN transistor the.

a. collector is more positive than the base.
b. collector is the same as the base.
c. emitter is more positive than the base.
165. If light entering a photo transistor decreases, the current to the collector.
a. decreases.
b. remains the same.
c. increases.
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta chapter no.- 8
166. A silicon bi-polar transistor with two depletion zones.

a. operates by varying electric fields.
b. is a voltage operated device.
c. consists of 3 slices of semiconductor material.
167. "To decrease the voltage gain of a common emitter amplifier you would increase the resistance in the.
a. base circuit.
b. emitter circuit.
c. collector circuit.
168. The current I/P and O/P waveforms in a common emitter amplifier are.
a. Out of phase.
b. In phase.
c. 90° out of phase.
169. How is the amplifier in the diagram shown wired?.
a. Common base.
b. Common emitter.
c. Common collector.
170. Which mode of operation provides the best high frequency response?
a. Emitter.
b. Base.
c. Collector.
171. A FET when compared to a junction transistor is.

a. low impedance.
b. current operated.
c. high impedance.
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta chapter no.-8
172. One characteristic of the emitter follower is.

a. low resistance output.
b. low current amplification.
c. high voltage amplification.
173. An amplifier current gain will be slightly less than 1, but its voltage gain will be high, if it is connected in the.
a. common base configuration.
b. common emitter configuration.
c. common collector configuration.
174. The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower circuit because.
a. The emitter voltage follows the collector voltage.
b. the emitter current follows the collector current.
c. the emitter voltage follows the base voltage.
175. Amplifiers may be classified as.

a. Voltage amplifiers or power amplifiers.
b. voltage amplifiers or impedance amplifiers.
c. common emitter or common collector amplifiers.
176. An amplifier can provide both voltage gain and current gain when it is connected in the.
a. Common collector configuration.
b. Common emitter configuration.
c. Common base configuration
177. The most commonly used semiconductor material is

a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. Mixture of silicon & germanium
d. None of these
178. In an n-p-n transistor, the majority carriers in the base are
a. Electron
b. Holes
c. Both electron and hole
d. Either electron or hole
179. A Transistor has

a. One P-N Junction
b. Two P-N Junction
c. Three P-N Junction
d. Four P-N Junction
180. The number of depletion layer in a Transistor is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
181. The base of the Transistor is ……………. Doped

a. Heavily
b. Lightly
c. Moderately
182. The element that has biggest size in a transistor is

a. Collector
b. Emitter
c. Base
d. Emitter- Base junction
183. In a PNP transistor, the current carriers are

a. Acceptor Ions
b. Donar ions
c. Free electrons
d. Holes
184. The Collector of the Transistor is ……………. Doped

a. Heavily
b. Lightly
c. Moderately
185. The Emitter of the Transistor is ……………. Doped

a. Heavily
b. Lightly
c. Moderately
186. A transistor is a ………….. operated device.

a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Both Current and Voltage
d. Non of the above
187. In a NPN transistor…….are minority carriers

a. Free electrons
b. Holes
c. Acceptor Ions
d. Donar ions Ans – Holes
188. In a transistor, the base current is about …………. Of emitter current

a. . 25%
b. . 20%
c. . 50%
d. . 5%
189. At the Base-emitter junction of a transistor is

a. Reverse Biased
b. A wide depletion layer
c. Low resistance
d. Non of the above
190. The input impedance of the transistor is ………..

a. High
b. Low
c. Very high
d. Almost Zero
191. In a transistor…………….
a. IE = Ic- IB
b. Ic = IE + IB
c. IB= Ic + IE
d. IE = Ic+ IB
192. The value of Alpha of a transistor is …………

a. >1
b. <1
c. =1
193. The value of β of a transistor is …………
a. >1
b. <1
c. =1
d. Between 20 and 500
194. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………

a. High
b. Low
c. zero
d. Very Low
195. The relation between α and β is
a. β=α/1-α
b. αβ
c. β-α
d. α+β
196. The most commonly used transistor Configuration is

a. CCC
b. CEC
c. CBC
197. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in CCC is

a. Equal to 1
b. More than 10
c. More than 100
d. Less than 1
198. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a ……………. Circuit

a. High resistance to Low resistance
b. Low resistance to High resistance
c. Low resistance to Low resistance
d. High resistance to High resistance.
199. The Arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ……………
a. Electron current in the emitter
b. Electron current in the Collector
c. Hole current in the emitter
200. The leakage current in CE configuration is ……. That in CB arrangement

a. More than
b. Less than
c. The same as
201. The most commonly used SemiC material for the manufacture of a transistor is
a. Ge
b. Si
c. Cu
202. The collector – Base junction in a transistor has

a. F.W.B at all times
b. R.V.B at all times
c. Low resistance
203. Transistor biasing represents ………….. Conditions.

a. AC
b. DC
c. Both AC and DC
204. Transistor biasing is done to keep ………… in the circuit
a. Proper direct current
b. Proper AC
c. The base current Small
d. Collector current Small.
205. Operating point represents ……………..
a. Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
b. The magnitude of the signal
c. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
206. Improper biasing of a Transistor circuit leads to
a. excessive heat production at collector terminal
b. distortion in output signal
c. Faulty location load line
d. Heavy loading emitter terminal
207. The universal bias stabilization circuit is most popular because
a. Ic does not depend on the transistor characteristics
b. Its Beeta instability is high
c. Voltage divider is heavily loaded by transistor base
d. Ic = Ie Ans - Ic does not depend on the transistor characteristics
208. Transistor Biasing is generally provided by a …………….

a. Biasing circuit
b. Bias battery
c. diode
209. For proper operation of the transistor , its collector should have
a. FWB
b. RVB
c. Very Small size
210. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is …….
a. Base Resistor bias
b. Collector feedback bias
c. Voltage Divider or Potential Divider Bias
d. None of the above .
211. The point of intersection of the DC and AC load line represents……………

a. Operating point
b. Current gain
c. Voltage Gain
212. An ideal value of stability factor is ……………….

a. 100
b. 200
c. More than 200
d. 1
213. The disadvantage of Base resistor method of transistor biasing is that it…….
a. is complicated
b. is sensitive to changes in β
c. Provides high stability
d. None of the above.
214. The operating point is also called the …………….

a. Cut off point
b. Quiescent point
c. The maximum current point
215. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point should be located at ………. Of the DC load
line.
a. The end point
b. Middle point
c. The maximum current point
216. The disadvantage of Voltage Divider Bias is that it has ……
a. High stability factor
b. Low base Current
c. Many resistors
217. Thermal runway occurs when …………….

a. Collector is RVB
b. Transistor is not biased
c. Emitter is FWB
d. Junction Capacitance is high.
218. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor amplifier is to ……

a. Limit the maximum IE
b. Provide base- emitter bias
c. Limit the change in the IE
219. In a transistor amplifier circuit , VCE = VCB + …….

a. VBE
b. 2VBE
c. 1.5 VBE
220. The base resistor circuit is generally used in

a. Amplifier circuit
b. Switching circuit
c. Rectifier circuit
221. The value of S factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ………… that of base resistor bias.
a. The same as
b. More than
c. Less than
222. The value of S factor of Base resistor bias is .

a. 1+ β b).
b. − β + 1
c. None of the above
223. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is determined by
a. VCE consideration
b. IB consideration
c. VCE consideration
224. If the value of the IC increases the value of the VCE…….
a. remains same
b. Decreases
c. Increases
225. If the value of the Temperature increases the value of the VBE…….
a. remains same
b. Decrease
c. Increases
226. The stabilization of operating point in potential divider method is provided by ….

a. RE Consideration
b. RC Consideration
c. VCC Consideration
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Page no.- 215
227. When the temperature changes , the operating point is shifted due to ……..
a. Changes in ICBO
b. Changes in Vcc
c. Change in the value of circuit resistances
228. In an NPN transistor the P is the

a. Collector
b. Base
c. Emitter
229. For correct operation of a transistor, the following conditions must apply
a. The base-emitter junction must be forward biased and the base-collector junction must be greater than 0.7 volts.
b. For an NPN transistor the base-emitter junction must be forward biased and for a PNP transistor the base
emitter junction must be reverse biased.
c. The base-collector junction must be reverse biased and the base-emitter junction must be forward
biased.
230. Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction?

a. Emitter to base
b. Collector to base
c. Base to emitter
d. None of these
231. In an NPN transistor the
a. emitter is more positive than the base
b. collector is more positive than the emitter
c. emitter is more positive than the collector
232. How is the amplifier in the diagram shown wired?
a. Common base
b. Common emitter
c. Common collector
233. The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower circuit because.
a. the emitter voltage follows the collector voltage.
b. the emitter current follows the collector current.
c. the emitter voltage follows the base voltage
234. A transistor is said to be in the quiescent state when.

a. no currents are flowing.
b. it is unbiased.
c. no signal is applied to the input.
235. An advantage of a common emitter is.

a. It has high power gain
b. It is a voltage follower
c. It has high voltage gain
236. A transistor at saturation has

a. low resistance
b. zero resistance
c. high resistance
237. Thermal runaway in a transistor refers to

a. high current flow when temperature decreases
b. low current flow when temperature increases
c. high current flow when temperature increases
238. A Common Collector circuit has the following characteristics

a. Medium Voltage Gain, High Current Gain, Non-Inverted Output
b. Low Voltage Gain, High Current Gain, Inverted Output
c. Medium Voltage Gain, Low Current Gain, Inverted Output
239. A transistor in Common Emitter mode gives.

a. high voltage gain only.
b. high current gain only
c. high power gain
4.1.3. Semiconductors – Integrated circuit.

240. An IC has …………….. size
a. Very large
b. Large
c. Extremely small
241. ICs are generally made of ………………

a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. Copper
242. ……………… ICs are the most commonly used

a. Thin films
b. Monolithic
c. Hybrid
243. The most popular form of IC package is ……………..

a. DIL
b. Flatpack
c. TO-5
244. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC

a. Transistors
b. Diodes
c. Resistors
d. Large inductors and transformers
245. An audio amplifier is an example of ………………

a. Digital IC
b. Linear IC
c. Both digital and linear IC
246. The active components in an IC are ………….

a. Resistors
b. Capacitors
c. Transistors and diodes
247. We use ……………….. ICs in computers

a. Digital
b. Linear
c. Both digital and linear
248. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as ………….
a. A resistor
b. An insulating layer
c. Mechanical output
249. ICs are used in ……………

a. Linear devices only
b. Digital devices only
c. Both linear and digital devices
250. A transistor takes …………… inductor on a silicon IC chip

a. Less space than
b. More space than
c. Same space as
251. The most popular types of ICs are …………..

a. Thin-film
b. Hybrid
c. Thick-film
d. Monolithic
252. Digital ICs process …………….

a. Linear signals only
b. Digital signals only
c. Both digital and linear signals
253. Operational amplifiers use …………..

a. Linear ICs
b. Digital ICs
c. Both linear and digital ICs
254. Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?

a. Diode
b. Transistor
c. FET
d. Capacitor
255. An IC has ................. size.

a. very large
b. large
c. extremely small
256. ICs are generally made of ................. 636
a. silicon
b. germanium
c. copper
257. .............. ICs are the most commonly used.

a. thin film
b. monolithic
c. hybrid
258. The most popular form of IC package is .................

a. DIL
b. Flatpack
c. TO-5
259. . ................. cannot be fabricated on an IC.

a. transistors
b. diodes
c. resistors
d. large inductors and transformers
260. An audio amplifier is an example of ..............

a. digital IC
b. linear IC
c. both digitial and linear IC
261. The active components in an IC are .............

a. Resistors
b. Capacitors
c. transistors and diodes
262. We use ................. ICs in computers.

a. digital
b. linear
c. both digital and linear

263. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as .................
a. a resistor
b. an insulating layer
c. mechanical output
264. ICs are used in .................

a. linear devices only
b. digital devices only
c. both linear and digital devices
265. A transistor takes ................. inductor on a silicon IC chip.

a. less space than
b. more space than
c. same space as
266. The most popular types of ICs are .................

a. thin-film
b. hybrid
c. thick-film
d. monolithic
267. Digital ICs process .................

a. linear signals only
b. digital signals only
c. both digital and linear signals
268. Operational amplifiers use .................

a. linear ICs
b. digital ICs
c. both linear and digital ICs
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Point no.-25.04
269. Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC ?

a. diode
b. transistor
c. FET
d. Capacitor
270. What is the IC no. of OP-AMP
a. IC 742
b. IC741
c. IC743
d. IC744
271. IDEAL Open loop gain of OP-AMP is
a. Infinite
b. 0
c. 1
272. IDEAL Input impedance of OP-AMP is

a)Infinite
b)0
c)1
d)5
Principal of electronics S. CHAND Point No.25.05
273. IDEAL Output impedance of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5
Principal of electronics S. CHAND Point. No.25.05
274. IDEAL Bandwidth of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5
275. The common-mode gain is

a) Very high
b) Very low
c) Always unity
d) Unpredictable
276. If ADM=3500 and ACM=0.35,CMRR is=

a) 1225
b) 10000
c) 80db
d) Answer [1] and [3]
277. What is gain formula for inverting amplifier?

a) –RF/R1
b) RF/R1
c) 1–RF/R1
d) 1+RF/R1
278. What is gain formula for Non- inverting amplifier?

a) –RF/R1
b) RF/R1
c) 1–RF/R1
d) 1+RF/R1
279. In unity follower what is value of Rf

a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 5
280. In unity follower what is value of Ri

a. infinite
b. 0
c. 2
d. 5
281. Practical Open loop gain of OP-AMP is

a.Infinite
b.0
c.1
d.5
282. Practical Input impedance of OP-AMP is
a. 2Mohm
b. 5mohm
c. 1Mohm
d. 5mohm
283. Practical Output impedance of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 100
c) 1100
d) 5kohm
284. How much supply required for op-amp is
a. +15v
b. 12v
c. -45v
d. 05v
285. What is value of V1 in virtual ground concept

a. 0
b. 1
c. 5
d. 1
286. For inverting amplifier R1=1K and Rf=1M, AV=

a. -1000
b. 1000
c. -1100
d. 10
287. For non- inverting amplifier R1=1K and Rf=1M, AV=

a. 1001
b. 1000
c. -1100
d. 10
288. What is pin number of two in IC 741

a. Inverting pin
b. Non inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
289. What is pin number of three in IC 741

a. Inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
290. What is ideal value of Bandwidth in OP-AMP is
a. Infinite
b. 0
c. 1
d. 5
291. In inverting Amplifier output signal is

a. In phase with input signal
b. Out of phase with input signal
c. Equal to input signal
d. All of the above
292. In Non-inverting Amplifier output signal is
a. In phase with input signal
b. Out of phase with input signal
c. Equal to input signal
d. All of the above
293. When a three of OP-amp stages are connected in series with voltage gain A1 , A2 & A3, the overall voltage gain
is equal to
a. A1+A2+A3
b. A1*A2*A3
c. A1-A2-A3
d. A1*A2+A3
294. An OP-AMP can be classified as ……………….amplifier
a. Linear
b. Low -rin
c. Positive feedback
d. RC-coupled
295. Since input resistance of an ideal op-amp is infinite
a. Its output resistance is zero
b. Its output voltage becomes independent of load resistance
c. Its input current is zero
d. It becomes a current –controlled device.
296. The gain of an op-amp is around
a. 1,000,000
b. 1000
c. 100
d. 10,000
297. When an input voltage of 1V is applied to an op-amp having Av=106 and bias supply of +15V,the output voltage
is
a. 15*106 V
b. 106 V
c. 15 uV
d. 15 V
298. When in negative scalar, both R1 and Rf are reduced to zero, the circuit function is
a. Integrator
b. Subtraction
c. comparator
d. unity follower
299. The two input of op-amp is called as
a. High and low
b. Positive and negative
c. Inverting and Non-inverting
d. Differential and Non-differential
300. The feedback path in an op-amp integrator consist of
a.Capacitor
b.Resistance
c.Inductor
d.Led
301. The most popular application of op-amp integrator is
a. Produce sine signal
b. Produce ramp signal
c. Produce cosine signal
d. Produce dc signal
302. What is pin number of two in IC 741
a. Inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
303. What is pin number of three in IC 741

a. Inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
304. Differentiator is used to produce a rectangular wave from ___.

a. Sine wave input
b. Ramp input
c. Both a & b
d. NTA S.
Principal of electronics CHAND Point No.25.06
305. The Averaging summing amplifier consist of input voltage V1 and V2 then VOUT=
a. (V1+V2)/2
b. –(V1+V2)/3
c. - (V1+V2)/2
d. (V1+V2)/4
306. The Subtraction amplifier consist of input voltage V1 and V2 then VOUT=
a. V1/V2
b. V2-V1
c. V1+V2
d. V1 * V2
307. Practical Input impedance of OP-AMP is
a. 2Mohm
b. 5mohm
c. 1Mohm
d. 5mohm
308. Practical Output impedance of OP-AMP is

a.Infinite
b.100
c.1100
d.5kohm
309. How much supply required for op-amp is
a. +15v
b. 12v
c. -45v
d. 05v
310. Which signals are rejected by Differential amplifier___.

a. Differential mode signals
b. Common mode signals
c. Both a & b
d. Out off phase signal
Principal of electronics S. CHAND Point no. 25.04
311. Negative feedback ___
a. Stabilizes gain of amplifier
b. Decreases input impedance
c. Increase output impedance
d. Both a & b
314. Feedback element in the integrator is ____
a. capacitor
b. resistor
c. inductor
d. only b is correct
Principal of electronics S. CHAND Page no. 2510
315. A non-inverting op-amp

a. has a non-inverting input and an inverting output
b. has an inverting input and a non-inverting output
c. a non-inverting input connection only
316. ____ circuit is called as unity gain buffer.

a. Inverting amplifier
b. Voltage follower
c. Non inverting amplifier
d. Summing Amplifier
317. With zero volt on both inputs, an OPAMP ideally should have an output____
a. Equal to the positive supply voltage
b. Equal to the negative supply voltage
c. Equal to zero
d. Equal to CMRR
318. For an OPAMP with negative feedback, the output is ____
a. Equal to the input

b. Fed back to the inverting input
c. Increased
d. Fed back to the non-inverting input
319. The input offset current equals the

a. Difference between the two base currents
b. Average of the two base currents
c. Collector current divided by current gain
d. Difference between the two base-emitter voltages
320. When the two input terminals of a diff amp are grounded
a. The base currents are equal
b. The collector currents are equal
c. An output error voltage usually exists
d. The ac output voltage is zero
321. A common-mode signal is applied to

a. The non- inverting input
b. The inverting input
c. Both inputs
d. The top of the tail resistor
322. The common-mode voltage gain is

a. Smaller than the voltage gain
b. Equal to the voltage gain
c. Greater than the voltage gain
323. The input stage of an op amp is usually a

a. Differential amp
b. Class B push-pull amplifier
c. CE amplifier
d. Swamped amplifier
324. The common-mode rejection ratio is

a. Very low
b. As high as possible
c. Equal to the voltage gain
d. Equal to the common-mode voltage gain
325. The typical input stage of an op amp has a

a. Single-ended input and single-ended output
b. Single-ended input and differential output
c. Differential input and single-ended output
d. Differential input and differential output
326. The input offset current is usually

a. Less than the input bias current
b. Equal to zero
c. Less than the input offset voltage
d. Unimportant when a base resistor is used
327. With both bases grounded, the only offset that produces an error is the
a. Input offset current
b. Input bias current
c. Input offset voltage
d. β
328. The voltage gain of a loaded differential amp is

a. Large than the unloaded voltage gain
b. Equal to RC / re
c. Smaller than the unloaded voltage gain
d. Impossible to determine
329. At the unity-gain frequency, the open-loop voltage gain is

a. 1
b. AV(mid)
c. Zero
d. Very large
330. If the cutoff frequency is 20 Hz and the mid-band open-loop voltage gain is 1,000,000 the unity-gain frequency
is
a. 20 Hz
b. 1 MHz
c. 2 MHz
d. 20 MHz
331. When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the slew rate.
a. Distortion occurs
b. Linear operation occurs
c. Voltage gain is maximum
d. The op amp works best
332. A 741 C contains

a. Distortion resistors
b. Inductors
c. Active-load resistors
d. A large coupling capacitor
333. The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is

a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. Extremely high
334. The 741 C has a unity-gain frequency of
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 1 MHz
d. 15 MHz
335. An op amp has a voltage gain of 200,000. If the output voltage is 1 V, the input voltage is
a. 2 μV
b. 5 μV
c. 10 V
d. 1 V
336. A 741 C has

a. A voltage gain of 100,000
b. An input impedance of 2 MΩ
c. An output impedance of 75 Ω
d. All of the above
337. The voltage follower has a

a. Closed-loop voltage gain of unity
b. Small open-loop voltage gain
c. Closed-loop bandwidth of zero
d. Large closed-loop output impedance
338. An instrumentation amplifier has a high
a. Output impedance
b. Power gain
c. CMRR
d. Supply voltage
339. In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is limited mostly by the

a. CMRR of the op amp
b. Gain-bandwidth product
c. Supply voltages
d. Tolerance of the resistors
340. The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes from
a. An inverting amplifier
b. A resistor
c. A differential amplifier
d. A wheat- stone bridge
341. In a nonlinear op-amp circuit, the

a. Op amp never saturates
b. Feedback loop is never opened
c. Output shape is the same as the input shape
d. Op amp may saturate
342. To detect when the input is greater than a particular value, use a
a. Comparator
b. Clamper
c. Limiter
d. Relaxation
343. The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is

a. A low voltage
b. A high voltage
c. Either a low or a high voltage
d. A sine wave
344. Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with

a. A sinusoidal input
b. Noise voltages
c. Stray capacitances
d. Trip points
345. If the input is a rectangular pulse, the output of an integrator is a

a. Sine wave
b. Square wave
c. Ramp
d. Rectangular pulse
346. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger, the output is a
a. Rectangular wave
b. Triangular wave
c. Rectified sine wave
d. Series of ramps
347. A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes called a

a. Threshold detector
b. Zero-crossing detector
c. Positive limit detector
d. Half-wave detector
348. The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that causes
a. The circuit to oscillate
b. Peak detection of the input signal
c. The output to switch states
d. Clamping to occur
349. In an active peak detector, the discharging time constant is
a. Much longer than the period
b. Much shorter than the period
c. Equal to the period
d. The same as the charging time constant
350. A window comparator

a. Has only one usable threshold
b. Uses hysteresis to speed up response
c. Clamps the input positively
d. Detects an input voltage between two limits
Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Page no.-
4.2. Printed circuit board
1. Instead of copper sometimes the conducting material used for PCB is ____.
a. Aluminium
b. Silicon
c. Germanium
d. Only b is correct
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.
2. Cupric chloride, chromic acid, alkaline ammonia are the example of _____.
a. Etchant
b. Flux
c. Only b is correct
d. Both a & b
3. To save the space on PCB ____ mounting is to be carried out.

a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Axial
d. Center
4. Solder with ____mm to ____ mm diameter can be used for PCB work.
a. 0.75mm-1mm
b. 0.075mm-1mm
c. 0.075mm-0.1mm
d. 1mm-10mm
5. _____ soldering is most common method of attaching surface mount components to a circuit board.
a. Dip soldering
b. Wave soldering
c. Reflow soldering
d. Both a & b
6. ____ gives green or brown colour to PCB.

a. Etching
b. Solder mask
c. Silk screen
d. Both b & c
7. In single layer PCB component mounting is done on …… to the conductor track.

a. Opposite side
b. Same side
c. Both a & b
d. Top side
8. How PCB is protected after manufacture?

a. It has non conductive varnish
b. With the help of wax
c. Conformal coating/Solder mask
d. Both a & b
9. A multilayer PCB has

a. Two or more layer connected in series
b. Two or more layer on one or both sides
c. One layer on either side
d. Both a & b
10. In Double side PCB

a. The circuit is etched on both sides
b. Space is not important than the cost of PCB
c. It has less cost
d. None of these
11. Flexible PCB is used in___

a. Cameras
b. Satellites
d. Both a & b
12. Ferric chloride is widely used because ___

a. It has long etching time
b. Stored for long time
c. Both a & b
d. Stored for short time
13. When compared to a system that is constructed on one board, a modular system using Printed Circuit Boards
(PCBs) is
a. Harder to fault find
b. More expensive for spares
c. Easier to fault find.
d. Both a & b
14. A Printed Circuit Board (PCB) is constructed of a plastic laminate which has bonded to one or both sides.
a. A thin sheet of copper.
b. Various thicknesses of copper.
c. A thick sheet of copper.
d. BOTH a & b
15. How is a PCB protected after manufacture?

a. By conformal coating
b. With non-conductive varnish.
c. With wax.
d. Both a & c
16. A decoupling capacitor in a PCB is used to. Option
a. minimize transient currents
b. Pass DC only.
c. Pass AC only.
d. Pass AC & DC
17. What is the base material of a PCB?.
a. Insulator.
b. Semiconductor.
c. Conductor.
d. Both a & b
18. What are printed circuit boards made of
a. Fiberglass board coated with copper in which circuits are etched.
b. Synthetic resin board etched with copper.
c. Matrix board with components soldered on.
d. Both a & b
19. What is the ratio of tin & lead in soldering metal alloy?
a. 50% & 50%
b. 20% & 80%
c. 10% & 90%
d. 60% & 40%
20. PCB stands for

a. Printed circuit board
b. Proper circuit board
c. Prepare circuit board
d. Both a & b
21. How is a PCB protected after manufacture?
a. With non-conductive varnish

b. With wax
c. By conformal coating
4.3. Servomechanism
1. Synchronous is the name given to

a. Rotary devices
b. Electromechanical devices
c. Position sensing devices
d. All of the above
Aircraft instruments Pallet Second Edition Page no.225
2. Which devices are used by servomechanism to control the power

a. Electronic devices
b. Hydraulic devices
c. Mechanical devices
d. All of the above
3. Servomechanism are classified on the basis of

a. Information sampled at the output of the system for comparison with the input instructions
b. Construction of the open and close loop system
c. Operation of the open and close loop system
d. All of the above
4. When error feedback is included in the design that system is called

a. Open loop control system
b. Closed loop control system
c. Both a and b is correct
d. Ata
5. In servomechanism with positive feedback the returning signal

a. Increases the original signal
b. Decreases the original signal
c. Depends on situation
d. Both b and c is correct
Aircraft instruments Pallet Second Edition Page no.-227
6. In open loop system control elements control

a. Magnitude of the input to power amplifier
b. Direction of the input to power amplifier
c. Magnitude and direction of the input to motor
d. Both a and b is correct
7. Which control system has less accuracy
a. Open loop control system Less accuracy
c. Positive feedback control system
d. Negative feedback control system
8. In which system variations or faults in load can be detected

a. Open loop control system
c. Positive feedback control system
d. Negative feedback control system
9. In servomechanism feedback can be classified as

a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
c. Both a and b
10. In close loop system what are the advantages of replacing the human operator with automatic system as
a. Get quicker and less accurate reading
b. Automatic system is subject to fatigue
c. Manpower saving
11. What is the basic principle of transformer

a. Mutual induction
b. Electromagnetic induction
c. Lenz’s law
d. Left hand rule
12. voltage transformer is also know as

a. Power transformer
b. Current transformer
c. Step-up transformer
d. Step-down transformer
Aircraft instruments Pallet Second Edition Page no.-
13. which formula is used to prove that the power in transformer is constant
a. P=IE
b. P=I²R
c. P=E²/R
d. All of the above
14. In step up transformer winding ratio (primary winding/secondary winding) is 1:5 then what is the ratio of voltage
and current in primary and secondary
a. 1:5 and 5:1 respectively
b. 5:1 and 1:5 respectively
Primary - voltage low current high
c. Voltage and current ratio will be same 1:5 only
d. Voltage and current ratio will be same 5:1 only
15. When the rotor and magnetic lines of force are perpendicular to each other then the amount of emf produced is
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. 90%
d. 10%
16. Synchronous system falls into two clasess

a. Direct current synchronous system
b. alternating current synchronous system
c. Both A and B correct
d. conventional current synchronous system
17. Which one of the following is correct

a. Transmitter located at the source of measurement
b. Reciever is used to position the indicating element
c. Reciever is fitted at the source of measurement
d. Both a and b is correct
18. the basic desynn system is a type of

a. DC synchro system
b. AC synchro system
c. Both a and b is correct
d. only b is correct
19. Which one of the following system provides the information about the position and liquid contents
a. The basic desynn system
b. Slab desynn system
c. Micro desynn system
d. Torque synchro system
20. resistor wound on circular former is called

a. Toroidal resistor
b. Fixed resistor
c. Variable resistor
d. All of the above
21. Which one of the following is not a part of alternating-current synchronous system
a. Resolver
b. Basic desynn system
c. Torque synchro
d. Control synchro
22. the value of induced emf is depend upon

a. Number of turns in winding
b. Angle between magnetic lines of force and rotor
c. Both a and b correct
23. Torque synchro system provides information about

a. Linier position
b. Angular position
d. Only a is correct
24. In torque synchro system which one of the following winding works as a secondary winding
a. Rotor winding
b. Stator winding
c. Both a and correct
25. the rotor of TR is always try to align with

a. The rotor of TX
b. The stator of TR
c. The stator of TX
d. All of the above
26. When a system is said to be in “null”

a. When the rotors of TX and TR occupy the same angular position
b. Equal and opposite voltage is produced
d. Both a and b false
27. Which one of the following system produces error voltage signal in receiving element
a. Torque synchro
b. Control synchro
c. Differential synchro
d. Resolver
28. Control synchro system used in which one of the following instrument
a. Asi
b. Vsi
c. Turn and slip indicator
d. Attitude director indicator
29. The receiver of the control synchro system is designated by

a. TR
b. CR
c. CT
d. CX
30. which of the following synchro system is used to detect and transmit error signals representative of two angular
position,
a. Torque synchro
b. Control synchro
d. Resolver
31. differential synchro

a. Indicates the difference of two angles
b. Indicates the sum of two angles
c. Both a & b correct
32. when differential synchros used with torque synchro it is denoted by
a. TDX
b. CDX
c. TCX
d. CTX
33. when differential synchros used with control synchro it is denoted by

a. TDX
b. CDX
c. TCX
d. CTX
34. in differential synchro if tx rotor is at 60 degree and tdx rotor moves 15 degree clockwise, then what will be the
position of the TR rotor?
a. 45 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 105 degree.
35. in differential synchro if tx rotor is at 60 degree and tdx rotor moves 15 degree anticlockwise, then what will be the
position of the TR rotor?
a. 45 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 105 degree
d. 75 degree
Opposite
36. if the tdx rotor moves in clockwise direction then TR rotor moves in
a. Clockwise direction
b. Anti-clockwise direction
37. In resolver synchros

a. Cartesian coordinates can be converted into polar coordinates
b. Polar coordinates can be converted into cartesian coordinates
d. Both a & b correct
38. how many terminals are there in resolver synchro?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
39. typical use of resolver synchro is in

a. Flight director system
b. Integrated instrument system
c. Both a & b
40. while converting from polar to Cartesian which winding is unused
a. R1-R2
b. S1-S2
c. S3-S4
d. R3-R4
41. rotor winding R3 and R4 is short-circuited because

a. To improve accuracy
b. To limit spurious response
42. in resolver synchro EMF induced in stator windings depends on

a. Angle of the rotor R1-R2
b. Angle of the rotor R3-R4
c. Angle of the ststor S1-S2
43. in resolver synchro when EMF induced in stator winding S1-S2 is maximum that time emf induced in S3-S4 is
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. 40 v
44. in resolver synchro when EMF induced in S3-S4 maximum then angle of the rotor R1-R2 with stator S1-S2 is
a. 90 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 70 degree
d. 180 degree
45. the EMF induced in stator windings is in phase with voltage applied to rotor R1-R2 at the angle of?
a. 0 to 90 degree
b. 270 to 360 degree
c. both a & b correct
46. the EMF induced in stator windings is out of phase with voltage applied to rotor R1-R2 at the angle of?
a. 90 to 270 degree
b. 270 to 360 degree
c. 180 to 360 degree
d. All of the above
47. damping is force which

a. Increases the oscillations of pointer
b. Decreases the oscillations of pointer
c. Neutralises the pointer
48. types of oscillations are

a. Mechanical damping
b. Electrical damping
49. Which one is the most accurate damping method

a. Mechanical damping
b. Electrical damping
c. Air damping
d. All of the above
50. which one of the transducer converts linear motion into electrical signals ?
a. LVDT
b. RVDT
c. AVDT
51. What is constructional difference between TX and TR?

a. Rotor of the TX are mechanically coupled to an input shaft
b. TX rotor is free to rotate
c. TR is free to rotate
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
52. When the rotors of TX and TR occupy the same angular positions, and power is applied equal and opposite the
amount of voltage produced or that situation is called?
a. Null position
b. Electrical zero position
c. Damping position
53. The currents are more in the circuit where,

a. Voltage unbalance is more
b. Voltage unbalance is less
c. No difference in voltage at both end
d. All of the above
54. Control synchro is used in which one of the following instrument?

a. Altimeters
b. Air speed indicator
c. Vertical speed indicator
d. Both a and b correct
55. in which one of the following system at electrical zero position there in a diffreenece of 90 degree between rotor of
transmitter and rotor of the receiver?
a. Torque synchro
b. Control synchro
d. Resolversynchro
56. In control synchro if difference between both rotor 90 degree is maintened then error voltage produced is?
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. Maximum
57. device which converts one form of energy into another form is called ?
a. Transducer
b. Amplifier
c. Rectifier
d. None of the avove
58. E and I is a transformer which is used in servomechanism system for the purpose of
a. Error detector
b. Error amplifier
c. Error rectifier
d. Error transducer
59. In E and I transformer if the I bar (armature) is at centre position then emf induced in secondary coils
a. It will vary
b. It will be equal
c. It will change in very small amount
60. What are the two major components of synchro
a. The rotor and the stator
b. The housing and the stator
c. The rotor and the shaft
d. The housing and the shaft
61. How does the stator of TX receive voltage

a. By physical connection with the rotor
b. By magnetic coupling with the another stator
c. By a magnetic coupling with the rotor
d. By a physical connection with the source
62. A synchro receiver has which of the following characerstics that is not found in any ordinary transformer?
a. A primary that can rotate in relation to the secondary
b. A primary magnetically coupled to the secondary
c. A step-up turns ratio
d. An air-core
63. The primary purpose of damping is to reduce which of the following conditions in a synchro device
a. Reading 180 degree out of phase
b. Overheating
c. Oscillating
64. What type of synchro can accept two signals simultaneously and add or subtract
a. Transmission
b. Differential
c. Automatic
d. Shiftless
65. What are the common defects can occur in servo system
a. Short circuit
b. Incorrect wiring
c. Power failure
d. All of the above
module – 4 point no. 3.12
66. If power failure occurred in servo system then will come to know it by checking
a. Ac volts across rotor winding
b. Ac volts across stator winding
67. If short circuit occur in the servo system then what will happen?
a. Operation will stop
b. It will operate sluggish
c. Operation normal
68. What are the indications of short circuit in servo system?

a. Will cause fuse to blow
b. Component and wiring will burn
c. Both a and b
69. rotor winding will cause the receiver synchro to stck in one position is the indication of?
a. Power failure
b. Open circuit
c. Short circuit
d. Incorrect wiring
70. AC power is supplied to

a. Torque receiver only
b. Torque transmitter only
c. Both the torque receiver and torque transmitter
d. All of the above
71. A differential synchro

a. Can only be used as a transmitter
b. Can only be used as a receiver
c. Can be used as either a transmitter or a receiver
d. All of the above
72. AC power is supplied to

a. Torque receiver only
b. Torque transmitter only
c. Both the torque receiver and torque transmitter
d. All of the above
73. A differential synchro

a. Can only be used as a transmitter
b. Can only be used as a receiver
c. Can be used as either a transmitter or a receiver
d. All of the above
74. 75.A resolver has

a. 2 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator
b. 3 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator
c. 2 coils on the rotor and 3 coils on the stator
d. All of the above
75. The 'null' point on a control synchro is when the two rotors are
a. At 90o to each other
b. Parallel to each other
c. Wired in series
d. All of the above
76. while converting from polar to Cartesian which winding is unused

a. R1-R2
b. S1-S2
c. S3-S4
d. R3-R4
77. When a servomotor overshoots after a step input and oscillates it is

a. Over damped
b. Under damped
c. Critically damped
d. All of the above
78. The rotor of a desynn indicator is
a. An electromagnet
b. A permanent magnet
c. An ac magnet
d. All of the above
79. A differential synchro has

a. 3 phase stator, 3 phase rotor
b. single phase stator, 2 phase rotor
c. 3 phase stator, single phase rotor
d. All of the above
80. Differential synchros have

a. A transmitter only
b. A receiver only
c. A transmitter and a receiver
81. In a torque synchro system, the power supply is connected to

a. The rotor windings of the transmitter only
b. The rotor windings of both the transmitter and receiver
c. The stator windings of the transmitter
d. All of the above
82. The phase difference between the supplies of a two phase induction motor is
a. 180o
b. 90o
c. 0o
d. All of the above
83. To reduce overshoot errors in a synchro

a. The system will have position feedback
b. The system will have velocity feedback
c. The gain of the amplifier is increased
d. All of the above
84. A synchro transformer is used to

a. Derive an error voltage from a synchro transmitter signal and a shaft position
b. Obtain a 26 volt ac reference
c. Add the output of two synchro transmitters
d. All of the above
85. Reversal of the complete power to a torque synchro system will

a. Have no effect
b. Cause reverse rotation of the receiver rotor
c. Displace the receiver rotor by 1800
d. All of the above
86. The power supply to a torque synchro system is

a. Ac
b. Dc
c. Ac or dc
d. All of the above
87. Mechanical friction in a servo results in

a. Reduced gain
b. Increased damping
c. Increased inertia
d. All of the above
88. A servo system that overshoots and oscillates is

a. Under damped
b. Over damped
c. Critically damped
89. The power supply to a torque synchro system is connected to

a. The transmitter stator
b. The transmitter rotor only
c. The transmitter and receiver rotors
d. All of the above
90. If the rotor of the receiver in a torque synchro system was prevented from aligning with the transmitter rotor, then
a. The transmitter rotor will turn to align with the receiver rotor
b. The receiver will overheat
c. A high current will flow in the stator windings
d. All of the above
91. In a toroidal resistance transmitter indicator system, the power supply is connected to
a. The brushes
b. The resistor slab
c. The rotor
d. All of the above
92. When a servo has reached its null and stopped, the velocity feedback is
a. Zero
b. Maximum and anti-phase
c. Maximum and in phase
d. All of the above
93. The primary purpose of rate feedback in a positional servo system is to

a. Ensure minimum response time
b. Prevent excessive overshoot
c. Ensure system linearity
d. All of the above
94. in an AC rate servo, a steady input will result in the servomotor

a. Oscillating about a new datum
b. Rotating at a constant speed
c. Rotating to a new datum position
d. All of the above
95. An E&I bar output at datum has
a. No induced voltage in the secondary windings
b. An imbalance of voltages in the secondary windings
c. Equal and opposite voltages induced in the secondary
d. All of the above
e. module – 4 point no. 3.10
96. The result of cross connecting two of the transmission leads in a torque synchro system and the turning the rotor
of the transmitter 60oclockwise would be
a. The receiver would move 60oclockwise
b. The receiver would move 120oanti-clockwise
c. The receiver would move 60oanticlockwise
d. All of the above
97. The control windings of a two phase servomotor is supplied with AC voltage of
a. Constant amplitude
b. Variable phase
c. Variable amplitude, variable phase
d. All of the above
98. In a torque synchro that includes a differential synchro the power supply is connected to
a. The transmitter rotor only
b. The transmitter and receiver rotors only
c. All three rotors
d. All of the above
99. A differential synchro rotor has
a. Three windings
b. Two windings
c. One winding
d. All of the above
100. If the rotor of a control synchro sticks

a. The system hunts
b. High current will flow
c. The position feedback will oscillate
d. All of the above
101. with the reversal of the connections to the rotor of the transmitter of a torque synchro, the position of the
receiver rotor will be
a. Unchanged
b. Changed by 120o
c. Changed by 180o
d. All of the above
102. The application of a 'stick-off' voltage to a control synchro servo system is

a. To overcome the effect of static friction
b. To overcome the effect of viscous friction
c. To prevent alignment to a false null
d. All of the above
103. In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically displaced by
a. 90o
b. 120o
c. 180o
d. All of the above
104. A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with

a. One single coil
b. Three coils at 120o
c. Two coils at 90o
d. All of the above
105. In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when

a. The CT rotor is at null
b. When the two rotors are aligned
c. When power is removed
d. All of the above
106. The result of reversing the rotor connections to the receiver of a torque synchro system is that the rotor
position
a. Is unchanged
b. Is changed by 120o
c. Is changed by 180o
d. All of the above
107. The rotor of a torque synchro indicator is

a. Supplied with an excitation voltage
b. Short circuited
c. Connected in series with the transmitter stator coil
d. All of the above
108. A two phase induction motor used in a servomechanism

a. Will always require a starter
b. Is self starting under light loads
c. Runs with no slip
d. All of the above
109. A hysteresis servo motor is used in a servomechanism because

a. It has good starting characteristics
b. Good speed/voltage relationship
c. Low inertia
d. All of the above
110. The null position of a torque synchro system is when

a. The TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other
b. The TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other
c. The TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other
d. All of the above
111. Unbalance position of a torque synchro system is when
a. The TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other
b. The TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other
c. The TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other
d. All of the above
112. with a constant input to a speed control servo, the servo motor
a. Moves to a certain position
b. Moves at a constant speed
c. Oscillates, but otherwise does not move
d. All of the above
113. A closed loop servomechanism

a. Must only have position feedback
b. Must have both position and velocity feedback
c. Can have either position or velocity feedback
d. All of the above
114. Critical damping in a servomechanism is

a. The point which allows just one overshoot before the load comes to rest
b. The amount of damping that results in the load just not oscillating
c. The critical damping required for the optimum damping of the servomechanism
d. All of the above
115. In a control synchro system the power supply is connected to the
a. Transmitter rotor and amplifier
b. Receiver rotor and amplifier
c. Transmitter and receiver rotors
d. All of the above
116. Reverse rotation of a control transformer rotor can be caused by

a. Connections between the transformer rotor and the amplifier reversed
b. Connections to the transmitter rotor reversed
c. Short circuit between two transmission lines
d. All of the above
117. The power supply to a torque synchro system is

a. AC
b. DC
c. AC or DC
d. All of the above
118. Velocity feedback

a. Opposes the demand input
b. Assists the demand input
c. Prevents dead space errors
d. All of the above
Aircraft instruments Pallet Second Edition Page no.-
119. A two phase motor will stop when

a. The reference phase is reversed
b. The control phase is reversed
c. The control phase is zero
d. All of the above
120. The rotor of a torque synchro indicator is

a. Supplied with an excitation voltage
b. Short circuited
c. Connected in series with the transmitter stator coil
d. All of the above

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Module 04(B2)

Complete Questions Bank

4.1.1. Semiconductors - Diodes.

1. The weight of the atom is depend on the addition of ………………..

2. The atomic number of the atom is depend on the ………………..

4. The electrons in the outermost orbit of an atom are known as …………………..

9. An extremely pure semiconductor is called as …………………..

10. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is known as …………

11. The germanium atom has ……………….valence electrons.

13. A semiconductor is formed by ........ bonds.

14. A semiconductor has ........ temperature coefficient of resistance.

15. The most commonly used semiconductor is........

16. A semiconductor has generally ........valence electrons.

18. The resistivity of pure silicon is about ........

19. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ........

21. A pentavalent impurity has ........ valence electrons.

22. An n-type semiconductor is ........

23. A trivalent impurity has ........ valence electrons.

24. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ........

25. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as ........

28. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due ........

31. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ..........

33. A pn junction acts as a ........

35. A crystal diode has ………

36. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………

37. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….

39. A crystal diode is used as ……………

40. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….

42. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….

44. A crystal diode is a …………… device

45. The arrow direction in the diode symbol indicates

47. When the diode is forward biased, it is equivalent to

51. A PN junction is said to be forward biased when

54. The maximum efficiency of half wave rectification is

56. The number of diode in full wave rectifier is

57. The number of diode in bridge wave rectifier is

58. The output frequency of half wave rectifier is ………………….(fin=input frequency)

59. The output frequency of full wave rectifier is ………………….(fin=input frequency)

60. The output frequency of bridge wave rectifier is ………………….(fin=input frequency)

61. In half wave rectifier peak inverse voltage is …………..

62. In full wave rectifier peak inverse voltage is …………..

63. In bridge wave rectifier peak inverse voltage is …………..

64. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is

65. The ripple factor of a full wave rectifier is

66. The ripple factor of a half wave rectifier is

74. LED is made of ……………..

75. Red LED is made of ………..

76. Green LED is made of ………..

77. Yellow LED is made of ………..

79. As forward current of LED increase, light emission of LED

Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Page no.126

Principal of electronics V. K. Mehta Page no.131

81. Photodiode always works in …………….

84. The varactor is usually

85. To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator

86. To display the digit 0 in a seven segment display

87. A zener diode has ........

88. A zener diode is used as ........

89. The doping level in a zener diode is ........that of a crystal diode.

90. A zener diode is always .......... connected.

91. A zener diode utilises ........ characteristic for its operation.

93. A zener diode is destroyed if it ........