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Sri Chaitanya: IIT Academy.,India
Sri Chaitanya: IIT Academy.,India
JEE-ADVANCE-2023-P1-Model
Time:3Hr’s IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 180
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 3) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 4 – 7) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Sec – III(Q.N : 8 – 13) +4 0 6 24
Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 14 – 17) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 18 – 20) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 21 – 24) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Sec – III(Q.N : 25 – 30) +4 0 6 24
Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 31 – 34) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 35 – 37) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 38 – 41) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
Sec – III(Q.N : 42 – 47) +4 0 6 24
Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 48 – 51) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
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MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 60
SECTION–I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4
marks;choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;choosing ONLY
(A) will get +1 mark;choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0
marks; andchoosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.
1. Triangle ABC has AB = 20, BC = 34 and CA = 42. Point P lies on the circle with
diameter AB. The greatest possible area of triangle APC is R, then which of the
following options is (are) CORRECT?
A) Number of positive integral divisors of R are 16.
B) Number of positive integral prime factors of R are 3.
C) R is a three digit number.
D) Number of ways in which R can be written as product of perfect squares is 4.
2. Let the end points M and N of the diameter 4x – y = 15 of the circle
x 2 y 2 6 x 6 y 16 0 are also on the tangents at the end points of the major axis of
the ellipse respectively, such that MN is also tangent to the same ellipse. The major axis
is along the line y = x then which of the following option(s) is (are) TRUE?
4
A) Eccentricity of ellipse is
5
36
B) length of latus rectum of ellipse is
5
C) centre of ellipse is (0, 2)
25 2
D) Equation of one of the directrices of the ellipse is x y
4
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3. On the sides AB and BC of e ABC, squares are drawn with centres D and E such that
points C and D lie on the same side of line AB and the points A and E lie on either side of
1 i 3
). Which of the following statement(s) is (are) CORRECT?
2
A) Acute angle between AC and DE is equal to
4
3
B) length of DE is
2
3 3
C) length of AE is
2
3
D) Area of triangle ADE is sq. units
8
SECTION–II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
4. The angles of triangle ABC satisfy cos3 A cos3B cos3C 1 . Two sides of the triangle
have lengths 10 and 13. The maximum possible length of the remaining side of e ABC
is ______
A) 179 B) 399 C) 409 D) 489
1
The shortest distance between 1 x x y y z z 2
2 2 2
5. and
4
4x 2 y 4z 7 0 is equal to ______ units.
11
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D)
3
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6. Number of triangles with positive area have all their vertices at points (i, j) in the
coordinate plane, where i and j are integers between 1 and 5, inclusive is
A) 2138 B) 2148 C) 2158 D) 2248
7. Let P1 and P2 be two parabolas with distinct directrices 1 and 2 and distinct foci F1 and
F2 respectively. It is known that F1F2 is parallel to 1 and 1 and 2 are parallel. F1 lies on
P2 and F2 lies on P1 . The two parabolas intersect at distinct points A and B.
f x sgn x 2 ax 1 bx 2 2bx 1 is discontinuous at exactly one point 1 (Where
a,b are integers and sgn(x) denotes signum function of x) is/are _____
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15. If A and B are orthogonal matrices of order 2 such that ABA1 is a symmetric matrix,
where A, B and ABA1 I , I . Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the list
Column–I Column–II
A) B is equal to P) 0
B) 2017 Q) 1
tr ABA1 is equal to
C) tr B 2 is equal to R) 1
D) B
2 S) 2
Sum of elements of adj is equal to
2
(Note: X , tr X and adj (X) denote determinant value, trace and adjoint of matrix X
respectively).
A) A–Q, B–P, C–R, D–S B) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
C) A–Q, B–P, C–S, D–R D) A–Q, B–S, C–P, D–R
16. Let a , b and c are three unit vectors mutually inclined to each other at an angle .
d is also a unit vector such that d.a d .b d .c cos . Match the entries for given in
column-I with their corresponding values for given in column-II
Column–I Column–II
A) P) 5
cos 1
2 3
B) Q)
1 1 2
3 cos
3
C) 1 R) 2
cos 1 cos 1
3 3
D) 5 S)
cos 1
8 6
T)
4
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A) A–Q, B–R, C–P, D–S B) A–R, B–Q, C–P, D–S
C) A–Q, B–S, C–R, D–P D) A–R, B–Q, C–S, D–P
17. Consider the following frequency distribution of 44 students
xi 3 9 17 23 27
fi 8 10 2 9 5
Match entries in column-I with their corresponding values column-II
Column–I Column–II
A) Mean of the given distribution is P) 10
B) Median of the given distribution Q) 15
C) Mean deviation about mean of the given distribution is R) 17
D) Mean deviation about median of the given distribution S) 74
is 11
T) 78
11
A) A–Q, B–P, C–T, D–P B) A–Q, B–R, C–T, D–S
C) A–T, B–R, C–P, D–S D) A–T, B–P, C–Q, D–S
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PHYSICS Max Marks: 60
SECTION – I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e.
the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.
18. A smooth track in form of a quarter circle of radius 6 m lies in the vertical plane , A
particle moves from P1 to P2 under the action of forces F1, F 2 and F 3 . Force F1 is
always towards P2 and is always 20 N in magnitude. Force F 2 is always act horizontally
and is always 30 N in magnitude. Force F 3 always acts tangentially to the track and is of
magnitude 15 N. select the correct magnitude.
O 6m P2
F1
F3
F2
P1
A) Work done by F1 is 120 2 J B) Work done by F 2 is 180J
C) Work done by F 3 is 45 J D) F 3 is conservative in nature.
19. Adjoining figure shows the snapshot of two waves A and B at any time t. The equation
for A is y = A sin kx t and for B, it is y = A sin kx t . It is clearly shown in
the figure that wave A is ahead of B by a distance / k . The motion of a single point,
i.e., y due to two waves individually, is not represented by
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A) B)
C) D)
20. A uniform plank of mass m, free to move in horizontal direction, is placed on the top of a
solid cylinder of mass 2m and radius R. The plank is attached with one end of a massless
spring of force constant k and the other end of spring is fixed with a wall as shown in fig.
The plank is shiftily displaced towards spring and released. There is no slipping any
where then
m k
C 2m
R
Horizontal surface
A) Total energy of the system, when compression is spring is x and velocity of plank is v,
7 1
is mv 2 kx 2
8 2
4k
B) Angular frequency of oscillation is
7m
7m
C) Time period of oscillation is
4k
2k
D) Angular frequency oscillation is
7m
SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
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21. In the pulley system shown, if radii of the bigger and smaller pulley are 2 m and 1 m
A) 0m / s 2 B) 5m / s 2 C) 10m / s 2 D) 5 / 2m / s 2
22. Radio waves coming at angle to vertical are received by a ladder after reflection from
a nearby water surface directly. What can be height of antenna from water surface so that
it records a maximum intensity (a maxima) (wavelength = ).
A) B) C) D)
2cos 2sin 4sin 4cos
23. Water in a clean aquarium forms a meniscus, as shown in the figure.
T = surface tension of liquid
h = difference of height between centre and the edge
= density of liquid.
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1 3
2
T T 2 T T 2
A) h B) h C) h D) h
24. A bar is subjected to equal and opposite forces as shown in the figure, PQ is plane
making angle with the cross-section of the bar. If the area of cross section be ‘a’, then
what is the tensile stress on PQ?
P
F F
Q
F F cos 2 F
A) B) F cos C) D) cos
a a a a
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases..
25. There is speculation that the free proton may not actually be a stable particle but may be
radioactive, with a half life of about 1032 years. If this is true, a human body made of
water and have a mass of 70 kg, then find the time interval between any to successive
decays of two protons nearly in the multiple of 103 years?
26. A particle traversed half the distance with speed of 1m/s. the remaining part of the
distance was covered with speed of 2 m/s for half time, and with speed of 3m/s for other
half of the time. If the mean speed of the particle averaged over the whole time of motion
10
is m / s then x = ……………..
x
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27. A motorboat going downstream overcame a raft at position A. One hour later, the motor
boat turns back and some times later crosses the raft at position C. The distance AC = 6
Km. The duty of the engine of motorboat remains constant. If the river flow velocity is x,
km
find the value of x, in .
hr
28. The earth receives 8.4 J / min ute / m 2 energy from the sun. If the solar energy in
10 104 m2 area is concentrated in a cup field with 100 g water at 00 C . The time the
water will boil in sec. is.
29. A conducting tube is passing through a bath. A liquid at temperature 900 C and specific
heat s is entering at one end of tube. Rate of flow of liquid is 1kg/s and exit temperature
is 500 C . In bath another liquid having specific heat 2s and inlet temperature 200 C is
entering at a rate of 2kg/s. If the exit temperature of liquid coming out of the bath is 10x.
Find x (Assume steady state condition)
of mass M and inner and outer radii R and 6R respectively as shown in the figure. If the
GM
escape velocity of the particle from this point is 2 , find N.
NR
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SECTION – IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
31. For the situation shown in Fig. in Column I, the statements regarding friction forces are
mentioned, while in Column II some information related to friction forces are given.
Match the entries of Column I with the entries of Column II.
Column–I Column–II
A) Total friction force on 3 kg block is P) towards right
B) Total friction force on 5 kg block is Q) towards left
C) Fiction force on 2 kg block due to 3 kg block is R) zero
D) Friction force on 3 kg block due to 5 kg block is S) non-zero
A) A–R, B–QS, C–PR, D–QS B) A–QS, B–R, C–PS, D–QS
C) A–QS, B– PR, C– R, D–QS D) A–QS, B–R, C– QS, D– PR
32. A trolley containing a liquid of density moves down an inclined plane of inclination
with an acceleration a. Match the following
Column–I Column–II
A) P) a = g sin down the incline
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B) Q) a g sin and directed down the
incline
C) R) a = 0
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B) Q) Magnitude of current density
T) Electric current
A) A–QST, B–QST, C–PT, D–T B) A–QT, B–T, C–PT, D–T
C) A–QST, B–T, C–PT, D–QST D) A–QST, B–QST, C–T, D–PT
34. Column 1 gives situations involving a charged particle which may be realized
under the condition given in column-II. Match the situations in column in
column I with the conditions in Column-II.
Column–I Column–II
A) Increase in speed of a charged particle. P) Electric field uniform in space
and constant in time.
B) Exert a force on an electron initially at rest. Q) Magnetic field uniform in
space and constant in time.
C) Move a charged particle in a circle with R) Magnetic field uniform in
uniform speed. space but varying with time.
D) Accelerate a moving charged particle. S) Magnetic field non-uniform in
space but constant with time.
T) None of these
A) A–PR, B– Q, C– PR, D–PQRS B) A–PR, B–PR, C– PQRS, D– Q
C) A–PR, B– PQRS, C–Q, D–PR D) A–PR, B–PR, C–Q, D–PQRS
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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 60
SECTION – I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e.
the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.
D) An electron with non-zero kinetic energy at infinite distance from the proton, releases
more than 13.6 eV when hydrogen atom is formed in its ground state
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SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
38. Consider the solvolysis (with acetic acid) of the following compounds,
CH3
OTs
(P) (R) + (S)
(Intermediate)
CH3
CH3
OTs
(Q) (T) + (U)
(Intermediate)
CH3
A) B) C) D)
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41. Consider the following redox reaction:
5I IO3 6 H 3I 2 3H 2O
0.1 M solution of KI reacts with excess of H 2 SO4 and KIO3 solutions, according to
above redox reaction.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Molecular weight
A) Equivalent weight of KIO3 is equal to
5
B) 100 mL of the KI solution reacts with 0.006 mole of H 2 SO4 .
C) 0.5 L of the KI solution produced 0.005 mole of I 2
D) 200 mL of the KI solution react with 0.004 mole KIO3
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1
42. For the reaction A s A g , the variation of log K P0 vs is given by :
T
0
If Sm , A g is 31.78 cal/K mole, then calculate S m
0
A(s) in cal/K mole.
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43. Among the following compounds how many gives positive Tollen’s test?
a) O b) c)
OH
d) CH 3 C C CH 3 e) CH 3 CH 2 C CH f) HO OEt
g) O h) HO OEt i) O
OEt
j) EtOH k) OH l) O
H
OH
OH
44. How many compounds are more reactive than CH 3 CH 2 Br towards S N 2
reactions?
Br
H 3C I
I
Br
Ph CH 2 I H 3C I H 3C C CH 2 I
Br ||
C O
C
CH 2 CH C
45. For adsorption of a gas on solid surface, following isotherm was obtained.
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Where P is pressure of gas in atm, x represents amount of gas adsorbed and m represents
x
mass of adsorbent, calculate the value of of the gas at same temperature and at a
m
pressure of 81 atm.
Report the value to nearest integer.
46. How many metals are commercially obtained by auto-reduction.
Fe ; Na ; Mg ; Ca ; Pb ; Sn ; Cu ; Hg ; Au
47. How many of the following reaction(s) yield benzene as one of the products?
SO3H
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A) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV B) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
C) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I D) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
49. Match List–I with List–II.
List–I List–II
A) Roasting P) Ag 2 S
B) Froth flotation Q) AgC
C) Complex with CN without oxidation R) Ag
D) Oxidation followed by complexing S) Au
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below.
A) A–P, B–P, C–P, D–RS B) A–Q, B–P, C–R, D–S
C) A–S, B–P, C–Q, D–R D) A–P, B–R, C–Q, D–P
50. Match List–I with List–II.
List–I List–II
A) Si O 6 I) Orthosilicate
2 7
B) SiO3 2nn II) Pyrosilicate
Sec: Sr.Super60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs Space for rough work Page 23