Centro Escolar University

School of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY)

1. The initial procedure in preparing the outline form of the proximal box of a Class II cavity
preparations for amalgam is the isolation of the proximal enamel by the proximal ditch cut. The
ideal bur to used is:
A. #33 ½ B. # 2 C. #245 D. #169L E. # ¼

2. Ideally, in a MO Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, the mesiofacial and mesiolingual
margins of a conservative preparation should clear the adjacent tooth by only:
A. 0.1 to 0.2mm B. 0.2 to 0.3mm C. 0.3 to 0.4mm D. 0.4 to 0.5mm

3. Indicated when deep gingival extension of proximal box is anticipated:

A. round wedge B. triangular wedge C. both A & B D. none of these

4. Used to cleaved away the remaining undermined proximal enamel to establish properly the
direction of the mesiolingual and mesiofacial walls:
A. enamel hatchet C. angle former
B. binangle chisel D. both A & B E. all of them

5. The following characteristics are true for both inlay and onlay cavity preparation, except:
A. presence of primary and secondary flare D. beveled cavosurface margins
B. lightly beveled axiopulpal line angle E. reduction of cusp/s for capping
C. converging proximal walls.

6. Involves the occlusal and proximal surface/s of a posterior tooth and may cap one or more but
not all the cusps.
A. amalgam restorations C. cast inlay restoration
B. pin-retained restorations D. cast onlay restoration
7. Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth
syndrome:
A. collar preparation C. slot preparation
B. skirt preparation D. facial and lingual surface groove extension

8. This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while under load is
responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental tissues..
A. Erosion C. attrition
B. Abrasion D. abfraction E. both B & D

9. In a class 2 prepared cavity for dental amalgam, the facial and lingual proximal walls should be
formed:
A. approximately parallel with each other
B. at right angles to the gingival floor
C. slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface
D. slightly diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface.
10. Indirect composites is superior to porcelain for intracoronal posterior esthetic restorations for
the following reasons, except:
A. decrease polymerization shrinkage D. less wear on opposing tooth structures
B. easier to polish if adjusted E. lower bulk fracture rates
C. better marginal adaptation

11. Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following
reasons, except:
A. beveled margins remove less tooth structures
B. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing
C. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force
D. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth.
E. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab.
12. During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns
will be the most subject to accidental exposure?
A. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. C. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar.
B. Facial of a mandibular first premolar. D. Lingual of a mandibular first premolar.

13. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative
procedure?
A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
C. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface.
D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.

14. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, the primary retention form is provided by:
A. occlusal convergence of facial and lingual walls
B. dovetail design
C. coving the internal line angles
D. both A & B
E. both B & C

15. Used to prepare a retentive lock in the axiolingual line angle to enhance retention form of the
proximal box.
1. #33 ½ 2. #245 3. #169L 4. # ¼
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,4 D. 3,4 E. 3 only.

16. Cutting through the oblique of maxillary first molar is indicated only if:
A. ridge is undermined by caries
B. ridge is crossed by a deep fissure
C. a separate MO and DO outline forms leave less than 0.5mm tooth structure
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 1,2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 3 only.

17. Viewed from the occlusal, the directions of the mesiofacial enamel wall is parallel to the
________, usually creating a reverse curve in the outline.
A. long axis of the tooth C. facial cusp ridge
B. enamel rod directions D. all of these E. none of these.

18. Wedging technique indicated for patient with recession of interproximal tissue level:
A. single-wedging B. “piggy-back” wedging C. double-wedging D. wedge-wedging

19. 12. Cast metal restorations are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. when extension of the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth is necessary to form
a contact with an adjacent tooth.
B. presence of fracture lines in enamel and dentin
C. large proximo-occlusal caries but the facial and facial tooth surfaces are relatively non-
carious.
D. presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious
occlusal and proximal surfaces.
E. a molar that is treated endodontically.

20. Beveling the gingival cavosurface margins for an inlay/onlay restoration will:
A. help improve the fit of the casting in the gingival margins
B. removed unsupported enamel
C. extend preparation to the gingival embrasure making the area self-cleansing
D. create a metal that is burnishable.
E. none of the above.

21. Cavity varnish functions in which of the following ways in the amalgam restoration?
A. Improves marginal seal
B. Prevents discoloration of dentin
C. Provides thermal protection
D. Has a direct medicinal benefit to pulpal tissue
E. Prevents acid penetration to the pulp from cements
 A. I & II only B. I, II & V C. I, III, IV & V D. II, III & IV E. all of the choices

22. Which of the following solutions is used to etch enamel when using the acid etch technique
with composite resins?
A. 50% silicophosphoric acid C. 37% phosphoric acid in water
B. 75% phosphoric acid in water D. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer
23. Rotary cutting burs usually has the following number of blades:
A. 6-8 B. 9-10 C. 10-12 D. none of these.

24. Gingival trimmers are:

A. chisels B. angle formers C. excavators D. hatchets

25. The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure on the revolving tool without
decreasing its speed or reducing its cutting efficiency is called:
A. vibration B. torque C. amplitude D. heat production E. pressure

26. The copal resin varnish that is placed in the cavity preparation before the amalgam is
condensed provides:
A. sealing of the margins for the lifetime of the restoration
B. long-term sealing of several years duration
C. short-term sealing of the margins
D. no sealing of the margins

27. How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed?

A. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth
surface.
B. By carving from the restoration to the tooth with a sharp instrument.
C. By carving from the tooth to the restoration with a sharp instrument
D. By burnishing from the tooth to the restoration until the amalgam is trimmed to the
margin.

28. In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial and distal
walls toward the occlusal surface. This divergence serves to:
A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
B. Provide convenience form
C. Resist the forces of mastication
D. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed.

29. Condensation of amalgam mix into the prepared cavity should be completed within/or:
A. 2½ to 3½ mins. C. 4½ to 5mins
B. 3½ to 4½mins. . D. 5mins E. until after crystallization of mix occurs

30. The enamel and amalgam relationship that create the strongest margins for Class II cavity
preparation for amalgam is:
A. 80 degrees C. 100 degrees
B. 90 degrees D. 80-90degree E. 90-100 degrees

31. Advantages of bonded, direct, composite restoration versus dental amalgam.

A. Esthetics
B. conservation of tooth structure
C. low thermal conductivity
D. low modulus of elasticity
E. no corrosion
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5 D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5

32. Final impression material for onlay restoration should have the following qualities, except:
A. free of toxic or irritating components.
B. Have adequate strength to resist breaking or tearing
C. Non-elastic
D. Have adequate dimensional accuracy, stability and reproduction of details
E. Must be able to be disinfected without distortion
33. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is:
A. Actinomyces viscosus C. Streptococcus salivarius
B. Streptococcus mutans D. Lactobacillus acidophilus

34. Initial carious lesion is limited to the enamel and is characterized by intact surface, but a
porous subsurface, usually tooth preparation is not indicated.
A. arrested caries C. recurrent caries
B. primary caries D. rampant caries E. incipient caries

35. In a Class 2 preparation, this wall joins the facial wall where retention groove is placed.
A. occlusal wall C. facial/lingual wall
B. axial wall D. pulpal wall E. mesial/distal wall
C.
36. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:
A. at right angles to the pulpal floor
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove
E. none of the above.

37. The distal wall in an MO cavity on a mandibular second premolar is:

A. at right angles to the pulpal floor
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove
E. none of the above.

38. A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved. What is the
likely cause of this problem?
A. A low-copper alloy was used.
B. Moisture contamination occurred.
C. The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury.
D. The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure.
E. The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed.

39. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This process serves each
of the following, except:
A. to remove loose enamel rods C. to facilitate finishing
B. to minimize marginal opening D. to minimize the need for gingival extension

40. The dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. This procedure will
result in
A. increased value C. decreased value
B. intensified color D. increased translucency

41. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to the cavity
preparation?
A. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration.
B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam.
C. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation

42. The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant advantage of acid-etch
technique?
A. Microleakage
B. Pulpal irritation
C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
D. Coefficient of thermal expansion

43. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite preparation, the
preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist should do which of the
following?
A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed.
 B. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
C. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it with air,
then proceed
D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the
etching procedure.

44. Streptococcus murtans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it

produces organic acids and it:
A. forms a gelatinous matrix C. metabolizes substrate from saliva
B. derives energy from constituents D. lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus

45. In a Class III composite preparation, retention should be placed:

A. in the axial wall C. entirely in dentin
B. at the DEJ D. at the expense of facial and lingual walls, but not the axial wall

46. The position of mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier Class V direct filling gold
restoration should be:
A. in an easily cleansable area D. perpendicular to the gingival margins
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth E. just past the extent of the carious lesions
C. at the respective line angles of the tooth

47. Reasons for incorporating an enamel cavosurface bevel in preparations for bonded, direct,
composite restorations:
1, provides more surface area for bonding
2, allows for the more preferred end-on etching of the enamel rods.
3, increase retention
4, reduce leakage
5, provide greater potential for strengthening the remaining tooth structure
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5 D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5

48. Basic preparation designs most frequently used for tooth-colored restorations of Class II
cavities:
A. conventional cavity design C. modified design
B. beveled conventional design D. both A & B E. both B & C

49. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall from the line draw of an inlay/onlay tooth
preparation is:
A. 2 to 3 degrees C. 2 to 5 degrees
B. 2 to 4 degrees D. 3 to 5 degrees E. none of these.

50. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles are usually indicated if
tooth is short for inlay/onlay restoration, this can be achieved by using:
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D. flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271.

51. Used in preparing occlusal and gingival bevels:

A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D. flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271.

52. The amount of occlusal marginal metal bevel for inlay is:
A. less than 30 degrees C. more than 40 degrees
B. 30 to 40 degree D. 140 to 150 degrees

53. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:

A. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from the
primary grooves to the cusp tip
B. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from
the primary grooves to the cusp tip
C. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from
the primary grooves to the cusp tip
54. Primarily indicated for the initial restoration of smaller, cavitated, carious lesions usually
surrounded by enamel and for correcting enamel defects.
A. conventional preparation design D. beveled conventional preparation design
B. modified preparation E. box-only preparation
C. facial / lingual slot preparation

55. Primarily indicated on preparations located on root surfaces.

A. conventional preparation design
B. beveled conventional preparation design
C. modified preparation
D. box-only preparation
E. facial / lingual slot preparation

56. In pin-retained amalgam restoration, the direction of retention pin holes should be:
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
B. parallel to the nearest external surface
C. at right angles to the dentinal tubules
D. perpendicular to the occlusal or the gingival floor of the preparation
E. at a 15 degree angle to the long axis of the tooth.

57. Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time:

A. incidence B. rate C. ratio D. prevalence E. none of these.

58. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm

59. It is a scientific discipline concerned with the application of statistical method of problems in
biology and medicine:
A. public health C. statistics
B. biostatistics D. sampling E. none of these

60. This model was developed with the specific intention of addressing noncompliance issues in
behavior that results in negative health consequence.
A. Self-care motivational model C. behavioral learning model
B. Contemporary community health model D. Fayol’s model
E. none of the above

61. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with
certain group of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C

62. Freedom of control from others in matters affecting the quality of work.
A. Autonomy C. authority
B. esprit de corps D. discipline E. projection

63. It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that
impose segregation to a group of people.
A. Entry into Community C. Community Study
B. Area Selection D. Integration E. both C & D.

64. It is an objective mathematical description of a diagnosis based on carefully determined criteria

under s specified conditions.
A. indices B. prevalence C. incidence D. epidemiology E. none of these.

65. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. experimental epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these.

66. Refers to the resistance offered by the amalgam to the forces of condensation used in
placement.
A. Filling C. Compression
 B. Condensation pressure D. Packability E. none of these

67. Minimal surface cavitation with involvement of dentin just beyond treatment by
remineralisation alone.
A. Size 0 C. Size 2
B. Size 1 D. Size 3 E. Size 4

68. A minimally invasive method for the removal of advanced dentin caries during cavity
preparation. Specifically, this method targets the outer layer, generally referred to as the
infected or necrotic zone of the caries lesion.
A. rotary cutting instruments preparation D. air abrasion
B. pulsed erbium lasers preparation E. none of the choices
C. chemo-mechanical caries removal

69. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology
E. none of these.

70. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention

71. Are activities that are aimed at the early diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease in order to
prevent sequelae.
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention.

72. Detained analysis of the working of the organization:

A. standing order C. organizational chart
B. records D. budgeting E. procedure manual.

73. Wear caused by endogenous material such as microfine particles of enamel prisms caught
between two opposing tooth surfaces.
A. Attrition B. erosion C. abrasion D. abfraction

74. In healthy teeth without fluoride supplement, what is the amount of fluoride ion present in
enamel and dentin?
A. 1,000ppm B. 1,500ppm C. 2,000ppm D. 2,500ppm

75. This theory suggest that caries results from a shift in the balance of the resident microflora
driven by modifications in local environment conditions.
A. Non specific plaque hypothesis C. Ecological plaque hypothesis
B. Specific plaque hypothesis D. none of the choices

76. This theory suggest that only few species of the organisms found in plaque contribute to the
disease process so therefore plaque, per se, is not pathogenic.
A. Non specific plaque hypothesis C. Ecological plaque hypothesis
B. Specific plaque hypothesis D. none of the choices

77. Defined as the total complex formed when pellicle adheres to the tooth surface and becomes
populated with bacteria and their extracecullar products.
A. Plaque B. biofilm C. oral biofilm D. both A & B E. all of them

78. The CPTIN index assessment is based on the evaluation of specified index teeth for:
A. gingival inflammation C. presence of supra/-subgingival calculus
B. depth of periodontal pockets D. both A & B
E. all of the above.

79. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.
80. Fluorosis index was formulated by:
A. Greene and Vermillion C. Gayford
B. Dean D. Hussy E. none of them.
81. It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community’s water supply to an optimal level for
the prevention of dental caries.
A. fluoride supplements C. fluoride mouthrinse program
B. school water fluoridation D. none of these E. all of these.

82. Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___community:

A. mature B. immature C. progressive D. organize E. none of these

83. It is a set of educational economic and environmental incentives to support behavioral changes
that lead to a better level of health .
A. health promotion C. preventive dentistry
B. public health D. all of these E. none of these.

84. Evident of damage to the odontoblastic process.

A. Zone 1 (Normal Dentin) D. Zone 4 ( Turbid Dentin)
B. Zone 2 (Sub-transparent dentin) E. Zone 5 (Infected Dentin)
C. Zone 3 (Transparent Dentin)

85. No recognizable structure to the dentin and absence of collagen and mineral.
A. Zone 1 (Normal Dentin) D. Zone 4 ( Turbid Dentin)
B. Zone 2 (Sub-transparent dentin) E. Zone 5 (Infected Dentin)
C. Zone 3 (Transparent Dentin)

86. tubules with odontoblastic processes that is smooth and no crystals in the lumen
A. Zone 1 (Normal Dentin) D. Zone 4 ( Turbid Dentin)
B. Zone 2 (Sub-transparent dentin) E. Zone 5 (Infected Dentin)
C. Zone 3 (Transparent Dentin)

87. Zone of bacterial invasion with marked widening or distortion of tubules.

A. Zone 1 (Normal Dentin) D. Zone 4 ( Turbid Dentin)
B. Zone 2 (Sub-transparent dentin) E. Zone 5 (Infected Dentin)
C. Zone 3 (Transparent Dentin)

88. Zone of carious dentin that is softer than normal dentin.

A. Zone 1 (Normal Dentin) D. Zone 4 ( Turbid Dentin)
B. Zone 2 (Sub-transparent dentin) E. Zone 5 (Infected Dentin)
C. Zone 3 (Transparent Dentin)

89. Unaffected by caries attack

A. Zone 1 (Translucent Zone) C. Zone 3 ( Body of the Lesion)
B. Zone 2 (Dark zone) D. Zone 4 (Surface Lesion)

90. represents the advancing front of the enamel lesion.

A. Zone 1 (Translucent Zone) C. Zone 3 ( Body of the Lesion)
B. Zone 2 (Dark zone) D. Zone 4 (Surface Lesion)

91. Presence of bacteria invading between the enamel rods.

A. Zone 1 (Translucent Zone) C. Zone 3 ( Body of the Lesion)
B. Zone 2 (Dark zone) D. Zone 4 (Surface Lesion)

92. loss of crystalline structure suggestive of the process of demineralization and remineralization
A. Zone 1 (Translucent Zone) C. Zone 3 ( Body of the Lesion)
B. Zone 2 (Dark zone) D. Zone 4 (Surface Lesion)

For numbers 93 - 95, the following are the choices:

93. Formed by replacement of ofodntoblast in response to moderate to level irritants such as

attrition, abrasion, erosion, etc.
A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin C. Tertiary dentin
94. Formed on the internal aspects of the pulp cavity.
A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin C. Tertiary dentin

95. Form the initial shape of the tooth and is usually completed 3 years after eruption.
A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin C. Tertiary dentin

96. Streptococcus mutans:

A. can be transmitted from mother to child
B. can colonise the predentate mouth
C. will stimulate early childhood caries
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III E. III only

97. Regarded as the “gold standard” mouthrinse or topical treatment for suppressing S. mutans:
A. triclosan C. chlorhexidine
B. fluoride D. essential oil mouthrinse E. none of these.
98. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human populations and
those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury:
A. epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. dental epidemiology D. experimental epidemiology E. none of these.

99. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:

A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology
E. none of these

100. “In union there is strength” is the principle of:

A. autonomy C. esprit de corps
B. organization D. dental health E. centralization