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TỔNG HỢP VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN LẠI NHỮNG CÂU


XUẤT HIỆN TRONG ĐỀ THI THPTQG MÔN ANH 2023

NỘI DUNG CHÍNH CÂU MINH HỌA


I. PHÁT ÂM, TRỌNG ÂM (chắc chắn Question 01.
đúng 2 hoặc 3 câu) A. authentic B. through C. tablecloth D. although
1. Làm chắc chắn câu phát âm phụ âm:
+ /th/: Question 2:
+/ch/: A. Hide B. find C. drive D. miss
2. Câu phát âm nguyên âm: A. park. B. tank C. ant D. bad
3. Câu trọng âm
- Với câu 2 âm tiết, lưu ý đến những từ đặc Question 03.
biệt A. beauty. B. allow C. culture D. college
+ V trọng âm rơi vào 2. Trường hợp đặc biệt
rơi vào âm 1: Listen, finish, enter, follow (học
thuộc)
+ N trọng âm rơi vào 1. Đặc biệt rơi vào âm 2:
police, polite, machine, advice, hotel, disease
(học thuộc)
- Với câu 3 âm tiết: dựa vào nguyên tắc Question 04.
đánh trọng âm đã dạy A. intention B. quality C. separate D. applicant

II. NGỮ PHÁP: (chắc chắn đúng 10 câu) Question 05. The children were very tiresome,
1. Câu hỏi đuôi ______?
A. aren’t they B. didn't they
C. don't they D. weren't they

2. Câu so sánh hơn Question 06. The coffee at this cafe is ______ than
- Đáp án: + More… the coffee at the one down the street.
+ Adj_er A. as delicious B. delicious more
+ Less C. most delicious D. more delicious

3. Câu mạo từ: a/an/the Question 07. Carol's father works as ______
electrician.
A. an B. ∅ C. the D. a

4. Câu từ loại: Question 08. We haven’t reached the final ______ on


- Đáp án: xác định vị trí cần điền the funding for scientific research yet.
+ Sau tobe là Adj A. decisively B. decision
+ Sau tính từ là N/ trước N là Adj C. decide D. decisive
+ Sau hoặc trước V là Adv

5. Câu bị động Question 09. The parcel ______ by the postman when
- Đáp án: will be Vpp she returns home.
am/is/are/was/were+Vpp A. delivers B. will deliver
been Vpp C. will be delivered D. was delivering

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6. Câu giới từ: Question 10. Many people in Britain are fond
_________ doing the gardening
A. of B. about C. in D. for

7. Câu To V/ V-ing/ Vinf… Question 11. They invited architects _________ their
designs for a new shopping mall.
A. submitting B. to submitting
C. submit D. to submit
8. Câu Rút gọn MĐQH: Question 12. The theory_________ by Albert
(Cách xác định: Có S và đã có 1 V trong câu) Einstein is still widely accepted.
- Đáp án: A. proposed B. proposes
+ Vpp nếu S là vật (bị động) C. was proposed D. proposing
+ Ving nếu S là người (chủ động)
+ To V nếu có the first/second/last/only

9. Câu kết hợp thì: Hiện tại và tương lai Question 13. : _________, we will take her to our
- Đáp án: V ở hiện tại ( giữ nguyên hoặc them favourite seafood restaurant.
s,es) A. When Sandra was visiting us this coming
- Loại bỏ tất cả những đáp án có V ở quá khứ weekend
hoặc có will B. When Sandra will visit us this coming weekend
C. When Sandra visited us this coming weekend
D. When Sandra visits us this coming weekend
10. Câu kết hợp thì : Quá khứ đơn- QK tiếp diễn
- Trong câu có when/while Question 14. When I came into the office, my boss
- Đáp án: were/was + V-ing ______ for me.
A. waits B. is waitingC. waited D. was waiting

III. Giao tiếp( đúng ít nhất 1 câu) Question 15. Alice and Mary have just finished
- Đọc kỹ câu giao tiếp xem đó là câu khen, câu watching a movie.
xin lỗi, câu cảm ơn hay câu quan điểm - Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “______. It has many beautiful scenes and
two main actors are really involved in their roles.”
A. I’m a huge fan of MarvelB. I don’t like your
saying
C. I didn’t say anything D. I couldn’t agree more

Question 16. John is talking to Peter about the


- 1 câu giao tiếp có thể dùng từ để hỏi như: household chores in his family.
What, when, where, why, how( bằng cách nào), - John: How often does your father do the washing
how far (bao xa), how much( bao nhiêu), how up?
often(thường xuyên như thế nào) - Peter: “________.”
A. Not too expensive B. By hand
C. Not so often D. About 4 kilometers

IV. Bài đọc điền từ: ( làm chắc chắn 2 câu)


1. Câu đại từ quan hệ: Who, whom, which, Two North Americans (17) _____don't know each
that, when, where other

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- Nhìn vào từ đứng ngay trước ô trống cần điền, A. who B. which C. why D. where
xác định xem từ đó chỉ người hay vật, có dấu
phảy/giới từ không

2. Câu lượng từ: nhìn vào từ sau ô trống In (18) ______ cultures the opposite is true.
+ Many, a lot of , few, number, several, all + N A. each B. every C. another D. other
có s
+ Other + N có s
+ Các từ còn lại + N ko s

V. Bài đọc 5 câu ( làm chắc chắn 3 câu): People tend to find comfort in certain books, and
1. Câu NOT MENTION/ EXCEPT: câu hỏi reading habits and genre preferences can change
về ý không được đề cập during periods of stress. This helps to explain why
- Tìm lần lượt từng đáp án xuất hiện trong đoạn much genre fiction has roots in times of significant
văn, đáp án nào không có chính là đáp án social, political or economic upheaval. Gothic
ĐÚNG literature is, in part, a British Protestant response to
the French Revolution.
19. According to paragraph 2, which of the
following is NOT mentioned as a root of much
genre fiction?
A. social upheaval B. political upheaval
C. economic upheaval D. technological upheaval

Our mother is called our first teacher, she teaches us


for day to day activities.

2. Câu hỏi về từ thay thế : It, They, Them, 20. The word “she” in paragraph 3 refers to
Which… ______.
- Xác định từ đó là S hay O A. the teacher B. the mother
+ Nếu là S thì đáp án là S của câu ngay trước nó C. both parents D. knowledge
+ Nếu là O thì đáp án là O của câu ngay trước
nó In Hinduism, children used to start their education
when they were five years old, whereas in Buddhism
they began their education at the age of 8.

3. Câu hỏi ý chi tiết: 21. According to paragraph 2, I Buddhism children


According to paragraph… started their education when _________.
- Dạng câu hỏi này chỉ cần tìm trong đoạn văn A. they were 5 years old
đúng những cụm từ xuất hiện ở câu hỏi, đáp án B. they were 8 years old
chính là những từ giống với bài đọc C. someone motivated them to study
D. people helped them to better their lives

VI. Bài lỗi sai (chắc chắn 2 câu) 22. Jane and Kate flew to Paris to visit her grandma,
1. Sai ở tính từ sở hữu hoặc đại từ and to see Eiffel Tower.
- Đáp án là những từ: its, their, his, her, our, A. flew B. her C. to see D. to visit
your, it, them, him.

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2. Sai ở thì của động từ: 23. My alarm rings at 6 o’clock every morning.
Trong câu thường có các trạng từ thời gian Therefore, I always went to school on time.
- Đáp án là V đứng ngay sau S A. every B. Therefore C. went D. rings

3. Sai từ vựng: 24. If you die without a will, only a husband, wife,
- Đáp án là những từ có đuôi khác nhau hoặc children and blood relations are entitled to inherit
cách phát âm giống nhưng viết khác và nghĩa your property.
khác nhau A. If B. without C. relations D. to inherit

VII. Viết lại câu (chắc chắn đúng 2 câu) 25. The last time she saw the boy was last weekend.
1. Câu có từ “last”: A. She last saw the boy two week ago.
- Đáp án: haven’t/ hasn’t B. She didn’t see the boy last weekend.
C. She hasn’t seen the boy since last weekend.
D. The boy hasn’t seen her since last weekend.

2. Câu gián tiếp dạng câu hỏi: 26: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
- Đáp án : A. My friend asked me where I was studying now.
+ Sau Wh-Q phải là S + V(lùi thì, đổi ngôi, đổi B. My friend asked me where I had been studying at
Adv) that time.
C. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
D. My friend asked him where I were studying then.

3. Câu modal V 27. It’s possible for us to borrow books from the
- Xác định tính từ hoặc cụm từ trong câu gốc school library.
bằng nghĩa với 1 modal V trong đáp án. A. We should borrow books from the school library.
Eg: possible => can/may B. We need to borrow books from the school library.
Mandatory/obligatory/requirement => must C. We can borrow books from the school library.
D. We have to borrow books from the school library.

VIII. Nối câu ( chắc chắn đúng 1 câu) 28. She eats out all the time. She can’t save much
1. Câu điều kiện loại 2 hoặc câu ước money.
- Xác định V của câu gốc A. She could save a lot of money if she ate out all
- Đáp án : the time.
+ Lùi 1 thì so với V câu gốc. B. She could have saved much money if she hadn’t
+ Trái ngược câu gốc ( câu gốc có “not” đáp án eaten out all the time.
ko “not” và ngược lại C. She can’t save much money unless she eats out
all the time.
D. She could save so much money if she did not
eat out all the time.

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ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 04 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. think B. thank C. theater D. therefore
Question 2: A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. Effort B. Effect C. Deafness D. Speaker
Question 4: A. Committee B. Referee C. Employee D. Refugee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The website ______ by the web developer is user-friendly and easy to navigate.
A. develops B. developing C. developed D. is developing
Question 6: Tom is ....... than David.
A. handsome B. the more handsome C. more handsome D. the most handsome
Question 7: John will start studying for the exam _____.
A. after he finished his lunch B. when he finishes his lunch
C. before he finished his lunch D. until he is finishing his lunch
Question 8: The manager is directly responsible ___________ the efficient running of the office
A. about B. for C. at D. in
Question 9: Silly is going to my party, _____?
A. isn’t she B. will she C. won’t she D. doesn’t she
Question 10: We needed ________ house to live in when we were in London.
A. a B. the C. any D. Ø
Question 11: "How was your exam?" "A couple of questions were tricky, but on the . it was pretty easy
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
Question 12: The United States __________ some 150,000 military reservists when the war broke out.
A. came about B. caught on C. called up D. carried out
Question 13: We wish _______ to college next year.
A. go B. to go C. going D. shall go
Question 14: I was left out in the ______ in the annual promotions in the company.
A. rain B. sun C. snow D. cold
Question 15: I ……….TV when the phone rang.
A. was watching B. was watched C. was watch D. is watching
Question 16: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to the demand for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 17: The company hopes that their new product launch ……..by many potential customers.
A. will be attended B. will attend C. was attended D will be attending
Question 18: Mr Lam is a cycle driver in Ho Chi Minh City, who usually has a ________ working day.
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A. business B. busy C. busily D. busying
Question 19. Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20. John and Mary are talking about what to do after class.
John: “______”
Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.”
A. Do you often have time for a drink after class?
B. Would you like to have a drink after class?
C. Do you often go out for a drink after class?
D. Would you like tea or coffee after class?
Question 21. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Those who advocate for doctor-assisted suicide say the terminally ill should not have to
suffer.
A. support B. oppose C. annul D. convict
Question 23. James may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.
A. get into trouble B. fall into disuse C. remain calm D. stay safe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24. American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Question 25. At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind.
A. Never B. Always C. Hardly D. Sometimes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Surely John won't forget his wedding anniversary again.
A. John could have forgotten his wedding anniversary again.
B. John must forget his wedding anniversary again.
C. John may forget his wedding anniversary again.
D. John can't forget his wedding anniversary again.
Question 27:The only time I’ve ever eaten sushi was when I was on a trip to Japan.
A. I haven't eaten sushi since my trip to Japan. B. I often eat sushi on my trips to Japan.
C. When I went to Japan, I was always eating sushi. D. I finally ate sushi when I went to Japan.
Question 28: My mother said to me, "Have you finished your homework yet?"
A. My mother asked me if I had finished my homework
B. My mother told me to finish my homework .
C. My mother reminded me to finish my homework
D. My mother questioned me whether I would finish my homework .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

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Question 29: At the comer of the street is a shop where you can buy something special for your
significantly other.
A. is B. where C. special D. significantly
Question 30: The boy swum the narrow canal in ten minutes to find himself in the base, out of danger.
A. swum B. in ten minutes C. in the base D. out of danger
Question 31: A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their
own.
A. from B. other C. in that D. their
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She doesn’t have a car. She can’t drive to work.
A. Provided that she has a car, she can drive to work. B. If she had a car, she could drive to work.
C. If she has a car, she could drive to work. D. as if she had a car, she can drive to work.
Question 33: I only realized what I had missed when they told me about it later.
A. Only after I had realized what I had missed did they tell me about it later.
B. As soon as they told me about it I realized what I had missed.
C. Only when they told me about it later did I realize what I had missed.
D. They told me about it and I realized what I had missed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In European and North American cultures, body language behaviors can be divided into 2 groups:
open or closed and forward or backward.
Open/closed postures are the easiest to (34)__________. People are open to messages when they
show open hands, face you fully, and have both feet on the ground. This indicates that they are
(35)__________ to listen to what you are saying, even if they are disagreeing with you. When people are
closed to messages, they have their arms folded or their legs crossed, and they may turn their bodies away.
This body language usually means that people are rejecting your message.
Forward or backward behavior reveals an active(36) _________ a passive reaction to what is
being said. If people lean forward with their bodies toward you, they are actively engaged in your
message. They may be accepting or rejecting it, but their minds are on (37)__________ you are saying.
On the other hand, if people lean back in their chairs or look away from you, or perform activities such as
drawing or cleaning their eyeglasses, you know that they are either passively taking in your message or
that they are ignoring it. In other case, they are not very (38)________ engaged in the conversation.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English)
Question 34: A. indicate B. do C. refer D. recognize
Question 35: A. likely B. reluctant C. able D. willing
Question 36: A. or B. but C. and D. so
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. things
Question 38. A.much B. many C. little D. more
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them
going for the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon
became the pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-
called “energy drinks.” These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has
stated in interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink
for athletes. Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer’s body and mind. In order to do
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this, the makers of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their
beverages. The added chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The
vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person
energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show
that all of the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person’s energy level. Another problem is
that there are so many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy
drinks work together.
Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing
all the claims energy drinks make. He says, “It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will
get a good result.” However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on
the body. “We just don’t know at this point,” he says.
(Trích từ đề minh họa lần 1, 2017)
Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink.
B. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy.
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink.
D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks.
Question 40: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. one example B. the company C. Red Bull D. thirst quencher
Question 41: According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an energy drink
gives people energy?
A. Natural chemicals in a person‘s body B. The average age of the consumer
C. The number of beverage makers D. The mixture of various ingredients
Question 42: The word “plausible” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. impossible B. reasonable C. typical D. unlikely
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers.
B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks.
C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work.
D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes
minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on
the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the
plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental
hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria
in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible,
enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when
teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant
to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of
early carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce
your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful
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acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva.
Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth
after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that
scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when
eating sweets
Question 44: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 45: The word “it” refers to_________.
A. dental floss B. bacteria C. removal of plaque D. plaque
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true
EXCEPT_________.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 47: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is_________.
A. It strengthens tooth enamel B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 48: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 49: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your
saliva increases_________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 50: The word "scrape off" is closest in meaning to_________.
A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve

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ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 05 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. Weather B. Sunbathe C. Breathe D. Apathy
Question 2: A. deal B. teach C. break D. clean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. Desert B. Common C. Hotel D. Temple
Question 4: A. Customer B. Stationery C. Furniture D. Deliver
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:The cake ______ by the baker looks delicious and smells amazing.
A. bakes B. baking C. baked D. is baking
Question 6: The food at the new restaurant is ....... than the old one.
A. delicious B. more delicious C. the most delicious D. deliciouser
Question 7: She'll start exercising _____.
A. when she feels better B. after she is feeling better
C. before she will feel better D. until she felt better
Question 8: Her new apartment is different ______ her old one.
A. to B. from C. of D. for
Question 9:These books aren’t yours, ____________?
A. are these B. aren’t these C. are they D. aren’t they
Quetion 10: You are ________ only person whose opinion is of any value to me in the present regrettable
circumstances.
A. Ø B. the C. a D.an
Question 11: Americans believe in 'romantic' marriage - a boy and a girl are to each other, fall
in love, and decide to marry each other.
A. loved B. handed C. attracted D. married
Question 12: Mary met her second husband not long after her first marriage _________________.
A. broke in B. broke down C. broke up D. broke off
Question 13: They decided ___________ to Japan for their summer holiday.
A. going B. to go C. go D. to going
Question 14: The _____ time was a charm for Korea’s Pyeongchang 2018 Winter Olympic bid committee.
A. third B. first C. second D. forth
Question 15. Hanh will finish all her work ________________.
A. as soon as her boss returns B. after her boss had returned
C. while her boss was returning D. before her boss returned
Question 16 :Language belongs to everyone, so most people feel that they have a right to ______ an
opinion about it.
A. express B. have C. hold D. take
Question 17: The new shopping mall _____ next month and a grand opening ceremony is being planned.
A. will be opened B. opened C. will open D. opens

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Question 18:The woman ____________ about her son’s travelling because there is so much traffic on the
narrow and crowded way to school.
A. worrisome B. worrying C. worriment D. worries
Question 19:Removing one's footwear before entering a home or a temple before worship _______ a sign
of respect, humility, and submissiveness.
A. infers B. refers C. denotes D. deduces
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: “How was the game show last night?” - “_______.”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
Question 21: “What did the meeting discuss? I didn’t attend it because of traffic jam.” -
“______________”
A. I didn’t, either. B. That was great.
C. You missed the meeting. D. I’m sorry, I can’t.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. When being interviewed, You should focus on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. to pay no attention to B. be interested in C. be related D. express interested in
Question 23. They've always encouraged me in everything I've wanted to do.
A. unpardoned B. misconstrue C. discouraged D. impaired
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24.We should join hands to protect our environment.
A. take up B. put up C. work together D. make decisions
Question 25. The fact that space exploration has increased dramatically in the past thirty years indicates
that we are very eager to learn all we can about our solar system.
A. seriously B. gradually C. significantly D. doubtfully
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is essential that all students attend the meeting.
A. All students don't have to attend the meeting. B. All students must attend the meeting.
C. All students may attend the meeting. D. All students could attend the meeting.
Question 27: They last visited Paris in 2010.
A. They visited Paris in 2010 for the last time.
B. They didn't visit Paris for the last time in 2010.
C. They haven't visited Paris for the last time in 2010.
D. They have visited Paris for the last time in 2010.
Question 28 My sister asked, "When will you be back from your trip?"
A. My sister asked me when I will be back from my trip.
B. My sister asked me when will I be back from my trip.
C. My sister asked me when I would be back from my trip.
D. My sister asked me when would I be back from my trip..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29:Though formally close friends, they have now been estranged from
A B
each other due to some regrettable misunderstandings.

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C D
Question 30: My close friends spend most of their free time helping the homeless
A B C D
people in the community last year.
Question 31. Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a
small amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines.
A. in the vicinity B. Amount C. ash D. its
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My son really hates Math. Its complicated formulas are the reason.
A. If it were not for the complicated formulas, my son would like Math.
B. Unless Math has complicated formulas, my brother will hate it.
C. Since my son really hates Math, its formulas are complicated.
D. Math’s formulas would be complicated if my son didn’t hate it
Question 33: The outcome of the election was never in doubt.
A. At no time was the outcome of the election in doubt.
B. At no time the outcome of the election was in doubt.
C. Never in doubt was the outcome of the election.
D. By no means was the outcome of the election been suspected.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The joys and tribulations of being a pet owner! During our lifetime most of us have some experience
of either owning a pet or being in close contact with someone who does. Is there such a thing as “the ideal
pet”? If so what characterizes the ideal pet? Various (34) _______ influence one’s choice of pet, from your
reasons for getting a pet to your lifestyle. For example, although quite(35) ______ pets are relatively cheap
to buy, the cost of upkeep can be considerable. Everything must be taken into account, from food (36) __
bedding, to vaccinations and veterinary bills. You must be prepared to spend time on your pet, this involves
shopping for it, cleaning and feeding it. Pets can be demanding and a big responsibility. Are you prepared
to exercise and housetrain an animal or do you prefer a more independent pet? How much spare room do
you have? Is it right to lock an energetic animal into a (37) _______ space? Do you live near a busy road,
(38)_______ may threaten the life of your pet? Pets such as turtles and goldfish can be cheap and
convenient, but if you prefer affectionate pets, a friendly cat or dog would be more appropriate. People get
pets for a number of reasons, for company, security or to teach responsibility to children. Pets can be
affectionate and loyal and an excellent source of company as long as you know what pet suit you and your
lifestyle.
Question 34 A. points B. facets C. factors D. elements
Question 35: A. much B. a few C. little D. a
Question 36: A. upbringing B. maintenance C. raising D. and
Question 37: A. reduced B. detained C. confined D. closed
Question 38: A. which B. what C. that D. this
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the
whale is very huge, it is not hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails that end like
flippers. With just a gentle flick, it can propel itself forward. The skin of a whale is so smooth that it does
not create any friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s breathing hole is located on the top of its
head, so it can breathe without having to completely push its head out of the water. Whales are protected
from the cold seawater by body fat that is called blubber.

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Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviors, they are more similar to humans than fish.
They live in family groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from cooler to warmer
waters. The young stay with their parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales are known not to desert the ill
or injured members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such case
occurred in 1988, when three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter and the sea had
begun to freeze over. Whales are mammals that require oxygen from the air, so the frozen ice was a great
danger to them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for them to breathe through. Volunteers from
all over soon turned up to help these creatures. They cut holes in the ice to provide more breathing holes for
the whales. These holes would also serve as guides for the whales so that they could swim to warmer
waters.
(Trích từ đề minh họa lần 2, 2017)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world.
B. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans.
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures.
D. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water.
Question 40: Whales can move easily in water thanks to their______.
A. tail and blubber B. size and head C. tail and skin D. skin and head
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following to show that whales “are
more similar to humans” EXCEPT _______.
A. they do not desert the ill or injured members
B. they do not migrate from cooler to warmer waters
C. they live in family groups and travel in groups
D. the young stay with their parents for almost fifteen years
Question 42 : The word “tiny” in paragraph 3 probably means________ .
A. very small B. very deep C. very fat D. very ugly
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. guides B. holes C. the whales D. warmer waters
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Nuclear family, also called elementary family, in sociology and anthropology, is a group of people
who are united by ties of partnership and parenthood and consisting of a pair of adults and their socially
recognized children. Typically, but not always, the adults in a nuclear family are married. Although such
couples are most often a man and a woman, the definition of the nuclear family has expanded with the
advent of same-sex marriage. Children in a nuclear family may be the couple’s biological or adopted
offspring.
Thus defined, the nuclear family was once widely held to be the most basic and universal form of
social organization. Anthropological research, however, has illuminated so much variability of this form
that it is safer to assume that what is universal is a “nuclear family complex” in which the roles of husband,
wife, mother, father, son, daughter, brother, and sister are embodied by people whose biological
relationships do not necessarily conform to the Western definitions of these terms. In matrilineal societies,
for example, a child may be the responsibility not of his biological genitor but of his mother’s brother, who
fulfills the roles typical of Western fatherhood.
Closely related in form to the predominant nuclear-family unit are the conjugal family and the
consanguineal family. As its name implies, the conjugal family is knit together primarily by the marriage
tie and consists of mother, father, their children, and some close relatives. The consanguineal family, on the
other hand, typically groups itself around a unlineal descent group known as a lineage, a form that reckons

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kinship through either the father’s or the mother’s line but not both. Whether a culture is patrilineal or
matrilineal, a consanguineal family comprises lineage relatives and consists of parents, their children, and
their children’s children. Rules regarding lineage exogamy are common in these groups; within a given
community, marriages thus create cross-cutting social and political ties between lineages.
The stability of the conjugal family depends on the quality of the marriage of the husband and wife,
a relationship that is more emphasized in the kinds of industrialized, highly mobile societies that frequently
demand that people reside away from their kin groups. The consanguineal family derives its stability from
its corporate nature and its permanence, as its relationships emphasize the perpetuation of the line.
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/)
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The definition of nuclear family B. The types of nuclear family
C. The component of nuclear family D. The relationship of nuclear family
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are members forming a nuclear family, EXCEPT
_________.
A. a man and a woman B. a man and a man
C. a woman and a woman D. children and children
Question 46: The word “illuminated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. changed B. clarified C. improved D. confused
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is TRUE?
A. There are some similarities between conjugal and consanguineous family.
B. The conjugal family depends on marriage to knit its members and close relatives.
C. The consanguineous family relies on both father’s and mother’s line to form its group.
D. The consanguineous family only consists parents and their children.
Question 48: The word “lineage” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ___________.
A. ancestry B. generation C. insertion D. incorporation
Question 49: What does the word “its” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the permanence’s B. the nature’s
C. the stability’s D. the consanguineous family’s
Question 50: What does the author imply in the last paragraph?
A. The married couples must maintain the quality of their marriage to meet the demand of modern
society.
B. Members in each family must preserve their family’s basement to protect their stability.
C. The permanence of the consanguineous family may emphasize its line in society.
D. The industrialized society probably causes many difficulties for the consanguineous family.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 06 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:....................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. thoughtful B. threaten C. therefore D. thin
Question 2. A. idiot B. idea C. idol D. ideal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer

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Question 4. A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The conference _______ by non-governmental organizations was about globalization.
A. plans B. planning C. planned D. is planning
Question 6. He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 7. As soon as he _______ dinner, he will take the children for a walk to a nearby playground.
A. finishes B. will finish C. had finished D. finished
Question 8. Police said the thieves were obviously well acquainted _______ the alarm system at the
department store.
A. with B. to C. of D. in
Question 9. His parents don't approve of what he does, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 10. Air pollution is getting more and more serious in _______ big cities such as Hanoi and
Beijing.
A. the B. a C. an D. x
Question 11. Yesterday the naval authorities _______ the reports in Friday’s newspapers that they had
exploded three bombs near an unknown submarine.
A. published B. confirmed C. re-stated D. agreed
Question 12. She had been depressed all day but she started to _______ after she heard that she was
promoted. Lm,/
A. turn up B. cheer up C. take up D. break up
Question 13. In the sustainable agriculture, farmers try _______ the use of chemicals and fertilizers.
A. to limit B. limiting C. limited D. limit
Question 14. It’s a good idea in theory, but it’s going to be hard to put in into ________.
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 15. Yesterday I _______ in the park when I saw Dick playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. has walked D. has been walking
Question 16. Laura had a blazing _______ with Eddie and stormed out of the house.
A. word B. row C. gossip D. chat
Question 17. The trees _______ more and more in our countryside next year.
A. will plant B. will be planted C. are planted D. plant
Question 18. To many children, playing computer games is a form of _______.
A. relax B. relaxingly C. relaxation D. relaxed
Question 19. An important rule in Tim's family is that they have to pay _______ visits to their
grandparents in the countryside.
A. customary B. normal C. usual D. regular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
- Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.”
- Anne: “Well, _______.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 21. Jack and Peter are talking about their plan for this weekend.
- Jack: “Why don’t we visit the imperial citadel this weekend?”
- Peter: “_______.”
A. To learn more about its history B. That’s a great idea
C. Because it is very old D. I couldn’t agree with you more

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. The ASEAN Foreign Ministers had candid and fruitful discussions on ASEAN's priorities
for the year ahead, as well as deep exchanges on regional and international developments.
A. frank B. personal C. insincere D. dishonest
Question 23. They are always optimistic although they don’t have a penny to their name.
A. are very poor B. are very rich C. are very mean D. are very healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. We can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams: independent living is the
only way to find true satisfaction.
A. amused B. frightened C. satisfied D. tired
Question 25. The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing
solar panels.
A. depleted B. exploited C. devastated D. expressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27. The last time I talked to Rose was three years ago.
A. I didn't talk to Rose three years ago. B. I have talked to Rose for three years.
C. I haven't talked to Rose for three years. D. I hadn't talked to Rose for three years.
Question 28. “Why didn’t you send me the brochure?” Mr. William asked the agent.
A. Mr. William asked the agent why she didn’t send him the brochure.
B. Mr. William asked the agent to send him the brochure.
C. Mr. William asked the agent not to send him the brochure.
D. Mr. William asked the agent why she had not sent him the brochure.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. It will require a collectable effort from the government, providers, and the media to meet our
goals.
A. collectable B. effort C. government D. media
Question 30. Her last book is published in many languages 5 years ago.
A. last B. is C. published D. years
Question 31. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as providing
opportunities for their members.
A. economic growth B. their C. providing D. aims at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He was tired this morning. He stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
A. He wouldn't be tired this morning if he had stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
B. He wouldn't have been tired this morning if he had not stayed up late to watch a football match last
night.
C. If he didn't stay up late to watch a football match last night, he wouldn't be tired this morning
D. He would have been tired this morning if he had stayed up late to watch a football match last night.
Question 33. James started working. He then realized that his decision had not been a good one.
A. No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong.

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B. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one.
C. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one.
D. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Testing games
How lucky can you be? Twelve-year-old Eloise Noakes has got the best job in the world – (34) -
_______ out new games. A leading company held a competition to find young testers and Eloise was
selected to test games (35) _______ are about to be launched onto the market. Each week she is given a
different game to play before recording her thoughts on a form designed by the company. As the company
director said, “What better way to find out about games than to put them in the hands of the customers who
will make most use of them?” Eloise is (36) _______ with her new job but she also takes it very seriously.
She is allowed to keep the games after testing them. (37) _______, she has decided instead to give them
away to children less fortunate than herself. “I’ve got (38) _______ of games and some children don’t have
any,” she explained.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools 1, 2015)
Question 34. A. doing B. trying C. carrying D. finding
Question 35. A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 36. A. amused B. proud C. thankful D. delighted
Question 37. A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 38. A. many B. plenty C. several D. much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Ostriches
Ostriches are the largest and heaviest birds on earth. They can grow to be as tall as 9 feet and can
weigh as much as 250 pounds. Even though they have wings, they cannot fly. Instead, ostriches have long,
powerful legs that help them to run very fast when they feel threatened. Ostriches use their wings to move
themselves forward and to help them change direction.
Ostriches are native to Africa, where they still live in desert areas and dry, open grasslands called
savannahs. Ostriches can also be found in zoos all over the world. Humans have domesticated ostriches, so
now ostriches live on farms in over a dozen countries, including the United States, China, India, Japan,
Brazil and Costa Rica. They are raised for their meat, skin, and feathers.
Ostriches like to live in small groups called herds. The male ostrich is called a rooster; the female, a
hen. Baby ostriches are called chicks. The female ostrich lays the eggs, but both the male and the female
take turns sitting on the eggs to keep them warm.
(Adapted from Readtheory.org website)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the male and female ostriches B. all about eggs of ostriches
C. distribution and habitat of ostriches D. facts about ostriches and their habits
Question 40. The word “threatened” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stolen B. consumed C. saved D. endangered
Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. male B. eggs C. ostriches D. female
Question 42. According to the passage, ostriches use their wings to _______.
A. fly faster than most other birds B. move forward and change direction
C. keep their eggs warm in the nest D. scare potential predators away
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as the purpose of raising ostriches?
A. meat B. skin C. medicine D. feather

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is
changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and
their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however,
the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they
reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an
alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from
the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no they cost and with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the
amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building
stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally
responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things:
the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lessen the negative environmental
impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced
by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to
green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army
housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than
conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar
panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire
neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas
in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 44. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Successful green building projects all over the world
B. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
D. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
Question 45. The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. devices that monitor changes in temperature
B. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
C. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
D. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
Question 46. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity
Question 47. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially
considered unrealistic presumably because _______.
A. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time

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B. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
C. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
D. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE?
A. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens
B. They have only been built in technologically developed countries
C. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world
D. They are more economical and produce no pollution
Question 49. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. green builders B. recycled materials C. rays of the sun D. solar panels
Question 50. The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means _______.
A. being inspected B. being certified C. being notified D. being launched

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 07 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. than B. thumb C. thank D. think
Question 2: A. habitat B. campfire C. survive D. wildlife
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. hacker B. evolve C. software D. marvel
Question 4: A. economics B. philosophy C. experiment D. biology
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:The movie ______ by the producer will be released next month.
A. produces B. producing C. produced D. is producing
Question 6: Learning a new language is _______ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. difficult B. most difficult C. the most difficult D. more difficult
Question 7: _______, we will leave for the conference at the City Hall.
A. As soon as it stops raining B. Once it stopped raining
C. When it had stopped raining D. While it was stopping raining
Question 8:He was amazed ______ the beauty of the sunset.
A. in B. by C. with D. of
Question 9: Michael returned to his hometown last summer, _______?
A. won't he B. doesn't he C. didn't he D. hasn't he
Question 10: I bought ___ new shirt yesterday. It was very nice.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: You’ll get a better _______ of exchange at another bank.
A. worth B. value C. rate D. charge
Question 12: I could not _______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. take in C. make off D. get along
Question 13: Sarah said she would like _________ Paris someday to see the Eiffel Tower.
A. visit B. to visit C. visiting D. visited
Question 14: I always get ________ in my stomach before visiting the dentist. This is really hard for me.

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A. worms B. mosquitoes C. crabs D. butterflies
Question 15: While he_________ into the house to steal things, he was bitten by a dog.
A. broke B. breaking C. was breaking D. has broken
Question 16: It is important to ________ in mind that these financial consequences have remained largely
hidden
A. know B. give C. hold D. bear
Question 17: My close friend ________ a new tablet on her birthday last week.
A. was given B. was giving C. gives D. has given
Question 18: Her ________ has declined since her return from exile two years ago.
A. popularity B. popularly C. popularize D. popular
Question 19: There is a ________ mood everywhere in in the world on New Year's Day.
A. optimistic B. constant C. popular D. festive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Minh is talking to Thomas after his test.
- Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected."
- Thomas: " _______ "
A. Good Heavens! B. Never mind, better job next time!
C. That's brilliant enough! D. It's okay. Don't worry.
Question 21: Ann and John is talking about social network.
- Ann: "Today social network plays an important role in communication.”
- John: “ ________ ”
A. It's rubbish B. I'm afraid I don't know
C. I don't agree with you D. I agree with you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment,
A. consideration B. worry C. ease D. speculation
Question 23: My brother has become a bit of couch potato since he stopped playing football.
A. a nice person B. a kind person C. a live wire D. a lazy person
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. dishonest B. healthy C. Loving D. hateful
Question 25: According to the officials of the MOET, reopening schools is inevitable since the vaccine
rate is high now.
A. unlikely B. doubtful C. unavoidable D. dispensable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: She started driving to work one month ago.
A. She has driven to work since one month. B. It is one month when she started driving to work.
C. She has driven to work for one month. D. It was one month after she started driving to work.
Question 27: It’s important that you pay attention to the lecture.
A. You must pay attention to the lecture. B. You shouldn’t pay attention to the lecture.
C. You can pay attention to the lecture. D. You needn’t pay attention to the lecture.
Question 28: “I had lunch with my friends last month,” Jean said.
A. Jean said that she had had lunch with her friends the previous month.
B. Jean said that I had had lunch with my friends the previous month.

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C. Jean said that I had lunch with her friends last month.
D. Jean said that she would have lunch with her friends last month.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The main cause of the strike was the management’s refusal to give further consideration
A B
to the question of pay differences.
C D
Question 30: A turtle differs from all other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of
A B
their own.
C D
Question 31: Last Sunday is so beautiful a day that we took a drive in the country.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people in her
community,
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
Question 33: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn't have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.
B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn't help me with the assignments.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The outbreak of COVID-19 is an unprecedented public health crisis, touching nearly all countries
and (34) ________ across the world. The health impacts of COVID-19 are devastating and, rightly, in the
forefront of our minds, cross our media, and impacting people's lives and livelihoods across the world.
One of the most tangible outcomes of COVID-19 is the ever-increasing socio-economic gap between
learners. Over 365 million children are missing out on important school feeding programmes (35)
________ keep them healthy and motivated to learn. Moreover, families may be pushed to (36) ________
to negative coping mechanisms to meet their needs, including child labour or reducing the number and
quality of meals at a time when staying healthy and keeping a strong immune system is particularly
important.
Home learning may itself be a source of stress for families and learners, with pressure to take on new
responsibilities. (37) ________ children are suffering from anxiety, living without access to the internet or
other means required to benefit from distance learning. Some older children are stressed about missing
months of education (38) ________ they have to care for younger children in the home while parents and
caregivers are working.
(Adapted from https://en.unesco.org/news)

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Question 34: A. basics B. communities C. backgrounds D. contexts
Question 35: A. why B. who C. when D. which
Question 36: A. mitigate B. resort C. offer D. worry
Question 37: A. Every B. Others C. Much D. Many
Question 38: A. although B. however C. because D. therefore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or
course tutor will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they
work out which one is the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if
something goes wrong and seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth.
This means that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend
the reasons for that point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealise the idea of treating
everyone equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names.
This concern with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are
even ready to joke about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a
consequence, some students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study.
Australian notions of privacy mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are
only discussed with close friends. While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone
actually asking them unless the friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to
ask someone what they earn.
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A story about Australia B. Australian culture shock
C. Things to do in Australia D. Australian culture
Question 40: The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. circumstances B. Australians C. options D. students
Question 41: In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because _______.
A. Australians are difficult to remember people's surnames
B. Australians restrict class discrimination
C. Australians get on well with each other
D. Calling each other by their first names makes them friendlier
Question 42: The word "critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. faultfinding B. grateful C. complimentary D. appreciative
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Asking someone what they earn is considered fairly polite.
B. Australians are prepared to accept a range of opinions.
C. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
D. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50
There have been many famous detectives in literature. But one of the first-and certainly the most
famous is Sherlock Holmes. Holmes was created by the British writer Sir Arthur Conan Doyle in the late
nineteenth century.
Sherlock Holmes made his first appearance in the work A Study in Scarlet, which was published in
1887. Holmes instantly became a popular literary figure with the general populace, who demanded that

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Doyle write more stories involving him. Doyle compiled and eventually wound up writing fifty-six short
stories and four novels that featured Holmes. While he took a break of several years from creating stories
about Holmes, Doyle continued to write Holmes stories until 1927. Among the most famous of all the
works featuring Holmes are The Hound of the Baskervilles, The Blue Carbuncle, and A Scandal in
Bohemia.
One of the reasons that Sherlock Holmes was so popular concerns the method he employs to solve
his cases: logic. Together with his partner, Dr. Watson, Holmes uses his powers of observation to detect
clues that can help him solve the cases he accepts. Holmes has an incredibly sharp mind that enables him
to determine who the guilty party is or what the problem is. Holmes also is a master of disguise, which he
proves many times, and he is skilled at boxing as well as sword fighting.
While Holmes often solves cases that are unrelated to one another, he has a nemesis with whom he
comes into both direct and indirect conflict in several stories. That person is Professor Moriarty, the leader
of a crime ring in London. In one of the stories, The Final Problem, Holmes and Moriarty fight one
another and fall to their deaths by plunging down a steep cliff near a waterfall. When he wrote that story,
Doyle had tired of Holmes and wanted to kill off the character. He then refrained from writing about
Holmes for many years but public demand for more detective stories induced him to bring Holmes back
from the dead and to continue writing.
(Adapted from Reading Intermediate)
Question 44: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle: The Creator of Sherlock Holmes
B. The Most Famous Detectives in the World
C. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson
D. A Brief Biography of Sherlock Holmes
Question 45: The word “him” in paragraph 2 refers to ________
A. Sherlock Holmes B. criminal C. children D. populace
Question 46: In paragraph 4, the word “nemesis” is closest in meaning to ________
A. competitor B. rival C. peer D. partner
Question 47: According to the passage, which is NOT TRUE about Sherlock Holmes?
A. He was fluent in several foreign languages.
B. He often resorted to fighting during his investigations.
C. He relied upon logic to solve various mysteries.
D. He discouraged Dr. Watson to become more observant.
Question 48: In paragraph 4, the phrase “refrained from” is closest in meaning to ________
A. continued B. resumed C. postponed D. stopped
Question 49: What does the author imply about Professor Moriarty?
A. There is an unknown reason why he engaged in a life of crime.
B. Critics consider him to be the greatest literary villain in history,
C. Sherlock Holmes and he are related to one another.
D. He fails to encounter Holmes in some stories he is involved in.
Question 50: Why did Doyle kill Sherlock Holmes in one of his stories?
A. He had no desire to write about Holmes anymore.
B. Killing Holmes would help Doyle increase his sales.
C. It was too difficult for him to come up with new storylines.
D. His fans demanded that Holmes be killed off.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 08 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

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Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. scholar B. charity C. chemistry D. chaos
Question 2: A. intend B. compete C. medal D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purchase B. ladder C. forest D. police
Question 4: A. organize B. devastate C. sacrifice D. deliver
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5:Mr Robert _________ from the company, is now facing legal charges.
A. was fired B. fired C. firing D. was firing
Question 6: Playing basketball is _______ than playing badminton.
A. easier B. most easy C. the easiest D. more easy
Question 7: You will receive an automatic email notification ________.
A. as soon as you completed your online profile B. once your profile is available online
C. after your profile will be available online D. when you finished your online profile
Question 8: I'm not really interested _______ watching horror movies.
A. in B. on C. about D. of
Question 9: The number of rare animals is decreasing so rapidly, ________ ?
A. is it B. isn't it C. doesn't it D. does it
Question 10: She needs __________ new phone because her old one was broken.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 8% _______ annually.
A. interest B. profit C. money D. income
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn't ________ what they were saying.
A. bring about B. turn up C. try out D. make out
Question 13: John is planning ___________ to the gym after work today.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
Question 14: Could I pick your _______ on the subject before the meeting?
A. intellect B. head C. mind D. brains
Question 15: When the old man ________ past the park, he saw some children playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. walked D. walks
Question 16: I didn’t _______ to see my aunt when I was in Paris.
A. take B. make C. get D. meet
Question 17: The application form ________ to the university before May 31st.
A. must send B. must be sending C. sent D. must be sent
Question 18: Rapid ________ happened during the period of industrialization in Europe and North
America the 19th and early 20" centuries.
A. urbanized B. urbanize C. urbanization D. urbanizing
Question 19: The judge _______ the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. charged C. sued D. blamed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”

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- Alex: “ ________ . It's really worrying.”
A. I don't think so. B. I'll think about that.
C. I don't agree D. I can't agree with you more.
Question 21: A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
- Librarian: “ ________ ”
A. Certainly, what's the fax number? B. It's very kind of you to say so.
C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable
limits.
A. joy B. boredom C. confidence D. apprehension
Question 23: He was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. full of sincerity B. full of experience
C. without money D. lack of responsibility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The natives were angry when the foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. tourists B. migrants C. members D. locals
Question 25: I am now reconciled with two of my estranged siblings - not just my older brother, but my
sister, whom I hadn't spoken to for 17 years,
A. opposed B. contactable C. truthful D. harmonized
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: I am pretty sure Dan is at home because the lights are on
A. Dan may be at home because the lights are on
B. Dan needn't be at home because the lights are on.
C. Dan can't be at home because the lights are on
D. Dan must be at home because the lights are on
Question 27: We last visited my uncle two years ago
A. We have two years to visit my uncle. B. We have visited my uncle for two years,
C. We haven't visited my uncle for two years. D. We didn't visit my uncle two years ago.
Question 28: "I met her two days ago," said Tim
A. Tim said that he had met her two days before. B. Tim said that he had met her two days ago
C. Tim said that I met her two days before D. Tim said that I met her two days ago
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Most workers seem to be happy with its new working conditions.
A B C D
Question 30: My mother and her friends always went out together every weekend.
A B C D
Question 31: The party has won a historical victory at the polls.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father wants to help me with the assignments. He doesn't have time.
A. If my father had had time, he could help me with the assignments.

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B. Provided my father has time, he cannot help me with the assignments.
C. My father wishes he had time so that he could help me with the assignments.
D. If only my father had time, he couldn't help me with the assignments.
Question 33: She tested positive for Covid-19. She isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
A. Had she tested positive for Covid-19, she would have isolated herself to protect other people in her
community,
B. Not only did she test positive for Covid-19 but she also isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
C. Only when had she tested positive for Covid-19, she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
D. No sooner had she tested positive for Covid-19 than she isolated herself to protect other people in her
community.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CITIES GOING GREEN
As more and more people concentrate in cities, planners are looking for ways to transform cities into
better living spaces, (34) ________ can be done by improving existing infrastructure while also creating
more public (35) ________ that are both beautiful and green. This can be hard to accomplish, especially
in cities with a haphazard fashion. Some cities have been created with the idea of a green city as the goal.
One such city, Masdar City in the United Arab Emirates, aims to become a model for (36) ________
cities to follow. It is being known as a truly green city that relies strictly on renewable sources such as
solar energy to provide all of its energy needs. (37) ________ , it will be a zero waste city in which
everything that is used can be recycled. Whether it will truly (38) ________ its goal remains to be seen,
but it will also act as an experiment for environmentally friendly areas to be tested.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/
Question 34: A. why B. when C. which D. that
Question 35: A. rooms B. places C. spaces D. breaks
Question 36: A. other B. every C. one D. another
Question 37: A. Therefore B. In addition C. although D. However
Question 38: A. accompany B. access C. account D. accomplish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or
improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own,
we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a
fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other
cultures; however, having our own judgment could lead us to discriminate other cultural values which are
different from our own because we do not understand them.
Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and school increasingly consist of
various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level
of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about
other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps
dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.
In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect "ways of being" that are not necessarily
our own, so that we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across
cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from

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diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different
experiences.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. How can we learn from culture? B. What is the function of culture?
C. How do people use own culture? D. Why is cultural diversity a "good thing"?
Question 40: The word "which" in paragraph 1 refers to ________
A. cultural values B. other cultures C. judgment D. standard
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE about the main reason for discrimination?
A. Making judgment B. Immersed in a culture
C. Valuating everything D. Contacting with a different culture
Question 42: The word "dispel" in paragraph 2 mostly means ________
A. realize B. remove C. contain D. discuss
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following do people from diverse cultures NOT
contribute to a country?
A. new ways of thinking B. a more interesting place
C. language skills D. different experiences
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history,
enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to
the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In
addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have
succeeded out of water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes
and centipedes, spiders and various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior
invasion of the land, none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and
reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned
their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way
back. They show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as
whales and dugongs. Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close
cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their
remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never
developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea
a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in
one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on
beaches.
There is evidence that all modem turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before
most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis
talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modem
turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water,
especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian
contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they
surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by
measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
B. The reasons why species had to change their living place.

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C. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 45: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least
completely?
A. Manatees B. Whales C. Dugongs D. Turtles
Question 46: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. got familiar B. soon became
C. stopped happening or existing D. began to happen or exist
Question 47: The word “incarnation” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. evolution B. ancestor C. natural selection D. embodiment
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land.
B. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
C. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
D. Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis appear to be close to the ancestry of all
modern turtles and tortoise.
Question 49: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dolphins B. fragments C. ichthyosaurs D. turtles
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. it’s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found
B. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and marine species
C. turtles’ ancestor and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily
D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have the similar appearances with dolphins

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 10 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wine B. cinema C. diner D. ninth
Question 2. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. meaningful B. suitable C. attentive D. courteous
Question 4. A. detect B. conclude C. instruct D. contact
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5.The experiment ______ by the scientist yielded unexpected results.
A. conducts B. conducting C. conducted D. is conducting
Question 6.He is ....... about his work than his hobbies.
A. more serious B. serious C. the most serious D. seriouser
Question 7. Peter will wear this suit _______.
A. when he attends his friend’s wedding B. once he attended his friend’s wedding
C. as he was attending his friend’s wedding D. after he had attended his friend’s wedding
Question 8. Many workers are still unaware_________the importance of following safety procedures.
A. of B. about C. with D. in
Question 9. This room is very hot, _______?

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A. wasn’t it B. is it C. isn’t it D. hasn’t it
Question 10:______number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know the exact number of
them.
A. A B. The C. no article D. An
Question 11: We have decided to________our research into environmental waste to ensure high health
standards in this city.
A. broaden B. outweigh C. exaggerate D. boost
Question 12. Peter was bitterly disappointed at the test result, but I think he’ll soon _______ it.
A. put through B. get over C. make up D. turn into
Question 13. In order to avoid having unexpected problems on the road, car owners are
advised________out regular maintenance on their vehicles.
A. carrying B. carry C. carried D. to carry
Question 14. Reading the article about damages caused by the heavy storm really brought a lump to my
_______
A. teeth B. throat C. eye D. lip
Question 15. Katherine _______ an essay when someone knocked the door.
A. was writing B. has written C. writes D. is writing
Question 16. They _______ a big row about how to raise their child last night.
A. paid B. took C. gave D. had
Question 17 she hopes that the document ……….by a professional translator.
A. translated. B. will be translated C. has translated D. was translating
Question 18. Nam is _______ at learning new information.
A. quickly B. quicken C. quick D. quickness
Question 19. Thousands of _______ flock to the British Museum every year.
A. audience B. eyewitnesses C. onlookers D. sightseers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Jack and Linda are at the school gate.
- Jack: ‘Have a nice weekend!”
- Linda: “_______”
A. You’re welcome. B. Never mind. C. Same to you! D. Here you are.
Question 21. Hung is inviting Lan to join the youth club.
- Hung: “Would you like to join our youth club?”
- Lan: “_______”
A. Thanks a lot! B. My pleasure. C. Yes. I’d love to! D. No worries!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Mitchell appeared at the door, asking me to lend him some money.
A. saw B. arrived C. knew D. smiled
Question 23. The addition of some features made these smartphones more appealing to consumers.
A. attractive B. boring C. modem D. old
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The details of the celebrity’s death were finally revealed by her mother.
A. created B. renewed C. hid D. opened
Question 25. His life hung in the balance when he had a massive stroke.
A. was certain B. worsened a lot C. was unsuccessful D. changed quickly

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. You’re not allowed to record the programme.
A. You shouldn’t record the programme. B. You mustn’t record the programme.
C. You can’t record the programme. D. You needn’t record the programme.
Question 27. He hasn’t changed his Facebook profile picture for 2 years.
A. He had 2 years to change his Facebook profile picture.
B. He has changed his Facebook profile picture for 2 years.
C. He didn’t change his Facebook profile picture 2 years ago.
D. The last time he changed his Facebook profile picture was 2 years ago.
Question 28. “I am attending an online class,” Martin said.
A. Martin said he had attended an online class. B. Martin said he wasn’t attending an online class.
C. Martin said he was attending an online class. D. Martin said he hadn’t attended an online class.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Her uncle comes to visit her family last summer holiday.
A B C D
Question 30. Young children are advised to participate in community activities to improve his
A B C D
social skills.
Question 31. The citizens were seething with contentment over the municipal authority’s recent
A B C
changes to the transport system.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 32: The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.
B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 33: I had just arrived home. I was called immediately back to the head office 10 kilometers away
A. Hardly had I arrived home when I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
B. Because I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
C. Should I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
D. Whenever I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CULTURE SHOCK FOR LANGUAGE EXCHANGE STUDENTS
Students going to stay with a host family in another country usually have to make a number of cultural
adjustments. They may find it difficult to (34) _______ friendships with the children in the family and they
will certainly have to get used to a variety of new things, including food, the climate and the language. An
extra difficulty may be the different expectations (35) _______ the host parents have of them in
comparison with their own parents.
They may be (36) _______ for the fact that they are expected to help with the housework, or come home
earlier in the evenings than they ever would at home. They may not have as (37) _______ independence as
they are used to, and they may sometimes be surprised by the behaviour of the children in the family who,

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although usually friendly and welcoming may sometimes seem a little immature. (38) _______, language
exchange students generally enjoy themselves and often form lasting friendships.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Guy Brook-Hart and Helen Tiliouine)
Question 34. A. force B. shape C. form D. land
Question 35. A. whose B. which C. whom D. where
Question 36. A. illegal B. irresponsible C. impolite D. unprepared
Question 37. A. many B. a few C. each D. much
Question 38. A. However B. Therefore C. Otherwise D. For example
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Florists, personal trainers, professors, and nutritionists all have healthy jobs according to research. There
are many reasons for this. A florist, for example, sells flowers and plants to customers. This is very
relaxing work. A personal trainer, on the other hand, is usually very fit. He or she trains other people to
lose weight and to keep fit.
However, research also shows that some jobs are 'unhealthy'. They cause a lot of stress and worry. For
example, a taxi driver drives all day. He often faces traffic jams and difficult passengers too. A firefighter
puts out dangerous fires and sometimes saves people from burning buildings.
Most people are looking for the perfect job. They want a job that is interesting, with a good salary and not
much stress. However, it is difficult to get everything. Healthy, relaxing jobs are usually not very well paid.
On the other hand, people with stressful jobs often get good salaries. For example, the head of a big
company gets a lot of money, but he or she does not always have good health, or the time to enjoy life.
(Adapted from New Headway Academic Skills by Richard Harrison)
Question 39. What does the passage mainly about?
A. Ways to find a healthy job B. New evidence about stress
C. Work and stress D. Jobs with good salaries
Question 40. The word ‘trains’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. shares B. copies C. sings D. teaches
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, unhealthy jobs _______.
A. make people stressed B. aren’t very dangerous
C. are quite relaxing D. cause traffic congestion
Question 42. The word ‘They’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Jobs B. Salaries C. People D. Buildings
Question 43. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. A personal trainer always follows a healthy diet.
B. Only difficult passengers travel by taxi.
C. People with relaxing jobs often get high salaries.
D. A president of a large company often have insufficient free time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The next time you're out in a public place, like a park or a restaurant, look around you. What is
happening? Some people are surfing the internet on their phones. Others are wearing headphones, listening
to music on their MP3 players. That's just the way life is today. We all spend a fair amount of our time
connected to technology.
Now imagine living in a world without smartphones, tablets or any of the electronic gadgets we
take for granted these days. There's no internet and you go to the library and look at a book when you want
to find anything out. You play outside with friends in the real world instead of playing online video games
in virtual worlds. There are no texts, no DVDs and no email. Welcome to 1986!

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That's the world the McMillan family from Ontario, Canada, decided to live in for a year. Blair, 27,
Morgan, 28, and their two sons Trey and Denton, aged five and three, got rid of their cable TV,
smartphones, internet, new games console, digital camera, DVD player and sat nav, and instead used an old
TV, a radio, old telephones, a VHS video player, an old games console and maps. They decided to try it
after seeing how their young children were becoming dependent on technology. They aren't alone. More
and more parents today worry about the effect technology is having on their children, particularly very
young children.
The McMillans decided to get back to basics to see how things have changed. So how did they find
their year without modem technology? ‘I thought Blair was mad when he suggested doing this whole
thing,’ says Morgan, but it's made me realise how much time we wasted. We seem much more relaxed
now, not checking in on email or Facebook all the time.’ The McMillans are now back in the present with a
different attitude to today's technology. Blair said, ‘I'm not anti-technology. I wanted to taste, and I wanted
my kids to taste what it would be like without it, and to see if we could actually do it.”
(Adapted from Optimise by Malcolm Mann and Steve Taylore-Knowles)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Year without Technology B. The Fresh Era of New Technology
C. A Day of Living without Your Phone D. Technology in Times of Change
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, people nowadays _______.
A. tend to stroll around public parks frequently B. are only keen on reading news on the Internet
C. lead an easier life D. are addicted to using technology
Question 46. The word ‘fair’ in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. limited B. equal C. pretty small D. quite large
Question 47. The word ‘dependent’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. reliant B. stuck C. pessimistic D. confused
Question 48. The word ‘They’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Electronic gadgets B. The McMillans C. Modem parents D. Young children
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Life today is better and healthier than life in the past.
B. The McMillan family changed their forms of entertainment in their experiment.
C. Trey and Denton were very hooked on modern technology.
D. Many parents nowadays share the same concern as the McMillans.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Blair was crazy about a life dominated by modern technology.
B. Life with lots of electronic gadgets might make the McMillans quite stressful.
C. Morgan attributed the success of her family’s experiment to Blair’s willingness.
D. The McMillans returned to the present because they’re fed up the life in 1986.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 11 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. fame B. baby C. many D. plane
Question 2. A. theory B. therefore C. neither D. weather
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. approve B. perform C. finish D. believe

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Question 4. A. assignment B. library C. paragraph D. sympathy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5.The painting ______ by the artist captures the beauty of the landscape.
A. paints B. painting C. painted D. is painting
Question 6. Bao Yen sings________than this singer.
A. well B. bad C. better D. more good
Question 7. She will find a bunch of flowers in front of her house _______.
A. once she opened the door B. after she had opened the door
C. as soon as she opened the door D. when she opens the door
Question 8. My laptop keeps shutting down randomly. There must be something wrong_________it.
A. from B. of C. at D. with
Question 9. The library is very quiet, _______?
A. wasn’t it B. isn’t it C. has it D. is it
Question 10. In most social situations, informality is appreciated.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 11. The local clubs are making every _______ to interest more young people.
A. volunteer B. effort C. donation D. fund
Question 12. The firefighters arrived at the scene just in time to _______ the fire.
A. call back B. stand up C. count on D. put out
Question 13: I’m sure you’ll have no difficulty_________ the exam.
A. pass B. to pass C. passed D. passing
Question 14. He just ran round like a headless _______ when he tried to work on too many projects but
ended up not achieving anything.
A. snake B. horse C. chicken D. duck
Question 15. Laura _______ her bedroom when she found her missing diary.
A. cleans B. has cleaned C. was cleaning D. is cleaning
Question 16. High schools across the country should _______ hands to address the problem of
cyberbullying.
A. hold B. shake C. lend D. join
Question 17. All the figures and calculations________carefully before you hand in the report.
A. should check B. should be checking
C. should be checked D. should have been checked
Question 18. Parents should be _______ of their children’s decisions on future career.
A. support B. supporting C. supportively D. supportive
Question 19. Candidates applying for this position must have a master’s _______ in science.
A. diploma B. degree C. licence D. certificate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tim and David are at the zoo.
- Tim: “Can I touch the monkey?”
- David: “_______. It warns ‘No touching animals’.”
A. I’m quite sure about that B. I don’t think you’re right
C. Of course you can D. I’m afraid not
Question 21. Hoa is talking to Nam at her birthday party.
- Hoa: “Thanks for the bag. I’ve been looking for it for months.”
- Nam: “_______”
A. I like your bag. B. You can say that again.

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C. I’m glad you like it. D. Thank you for looking for it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Her reputation as a top actress was damaged when she was caught causing an accident.
A. fame B. interest C. blame D. support
Question 23. With an increasing number of people vaccinated against coronavirus, another wave of
infection can be prevented.
A. built B. opened C. explored D. stopped
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Thomas was like a bear with a sore head when he wasn’t chosen for the football team.
A. totally disappointed B. in a bad mood
C. in an angry state D. extremely delighted
Question 25. The heavy storm that hit the city last night caused serious damage to property estimated at $5
million.
A. extreme B. slight C. slow D. quick
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. Passengers are not permitted to use their mobile phones during the flight.
A. Passengers needn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
B. Passengers mustn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
C. Passengers shouldn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
D. Passengers wouldn’t use their mobile phones during the flight.
Question 27. Tony started working as a volunteer in 2010.
A. Tony hasn’t been working as a volunteer since 2010.
B. Tony didn’t get used to working as a volunteer in 2010.
C. Tony used to work as a volunteer in 2010.
D. Tony has worked as a volunteer since 2010.
Question 28. He said: “What time will you get up tomorrow morning, Melda?”
A. He asked Melda what time would she get up tomorrow morning?
B. He asked Melda what time she will get up tomorrow morning.
C. He asked Melda what time she would get up tomorrow morning.
D. He asks Melda what time she would get up tomorrow morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Thanks to the municipal authority’s endeavours to combat crime, the city’s incident
A B C
of juvenile delinquency has been falling.
D
Question 30. Tiana forgets to bring her notebook to the biology class yesterday morning.
A B C D
Question 31. Her laptop crashed ten minutes ago and she still hasn’t been able to turn them on.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 32: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.

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C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Question 33: Harry had packed his luggage. After that, he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
A. Packing his luggage, Harry loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
B. Only after Harry had packed his luggage, did he load it into the car and set off for the airport.
C. No sooner had Harry packed his luggage when he loaded it into the car and set off for the airport.
D. Not until had Harry packed his luggage did he load it into the car and set off for the airport
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
COPING WITH TRAFFIC
Many large cities around the world have struggled to keep up with the increase in traffic in recent times.
Densely populated areas, growing car ownership, as well as narrow roads brought for much lower volumes
of traffic all (34) _______ to this. In 1975, Singapore decided to introduce a congestion charge - a (35)
_______ paid by drivers entering the most traffic-heavy zones of the city. London introduced a congestion
charge in 2003.
Public opinion was initially opposed to the idea, (36) _______ people soon became more supportive of
the scheme. Despite this, its first decade brought mixed success, and the (37) _______ of cars in the city fell
by only 10%. However, the scheme proved massively profitable, (38) _______ allowed the city council to
invest in other measures aimed at improving traffic conditions in London. These included cycle lanes,
pedestrianized areas and better road surfaces.
(Adapted from Oxford Exam Trainer by Helen Weale)
Question 34. A. result B. cause C. induce D. contribute
Question 35. A. fine B. fee C. pension D. wage
Question 36. A. or B. but C. so D. and
Question 37. A. number B. amount C. other C. little
Question 38. A. that B. whose C. who D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 42.
Have you ever felt that there aren’t enough hours in the day? These days we have to do our jobs, look
after our homes, save energy to help the environment, and do exercise to stay healthy! Like many of us,
Alex Gadsden never had enough time. He ran a business and a home and needed to lose weight. So he
decided to do something about it. He invented the cycle washer. The 29-year-old now starts each day with a
45-minute cycle ride. He not only feels healthier but he saves on his energy bills and does the washing too.
He said, “It gives the user a good workout. I’ve only used it for two weeks but I’ve already noticed a
difference.” “I tend to get up at around six-thirty now and get straight on the cycle washer. I keep it in the
garden, so it’s nice to get out in the fresh air. Afterwards, I feel full of energy. Then I generally have
breakfast and a shower and I really feel ready to start the day.” The green washing machine uses 25 litres of
water a wash, and takes enough clothes to fill a carrier bag. He normally cycles for 25 minutes to wash the
clothes, and then for another 20 minutes to dry them. And it doesn’t use any electricity, of course.
Mr Gadsden, the boss of a cleaning company, believes his machine could become very popular. With an
invention which cleans your clothes, keeps you fit and reduces your electricity bill, he may well be right.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Alex Tilbury et al.)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The importance of daily exercise B. Ways to do the washing properly
C. Cycling makes you healthier D. A fascinating invention
Question 40. The word ran in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. allowed C. managed D. changed

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Question 41. According to paragraph 1, what does Alex Gadsden achieve with the invention of the cycle
washer?
A. His electricity bills are reduced. B. He puts on weight.
C. He helps his wife with the washing-up. D. He becomes more involved in recycling.
Question 42. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. difference B. the cycle washer C. the fresh air D. workout
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Alex Gadsden is positive about the success of the cycle washer.
B. The cycle washer can help you to remain strong and healthy.
C. It doesn’t require any electricity to run the cycle washer.
D. Alex’s machine isn’t effective in terms of cleaning the clothes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow
up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old- fashioned
ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging questions for
parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what
these stereotypes are: A "feminine" girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little illogical in
her thinking. A "masculine" boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and competitive. How
are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers David and Myra Sadker of the
American University of Washington, D.C., boys and girls are often treated differently in the
classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers usually offer constructive comments,
when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on the behavior. It's more important how the girls act rather
than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For
example, few people would give pink baby's clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later, many of
us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and construction sets.
There's nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities are deemed appropriate
for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.D., director of the National
Resource Center for Girls, Inc., this kind of practice prevents boys and girls from acquiring important
skills for their future lives.
"The fact is," says Nicholson, "that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding
gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of boys earned
money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of boys but only three
percent of girls earned money doing lawn work". If we are serious about educating a generation to be
good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of the
messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect ideas. To
counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their children, and to
encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society's fixed ideas about differences of sext are.
(Source: https://en.isicollective.com)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.

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Question 45: According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American University of
Washington, D.C found that_____.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys' behavior and girls' manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong, unemotional,
aggressive, and competitive.
Question 46: What does the word "that" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and construction
sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 47: The word "deemed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D. established
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally quite early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 49: The result of a recent survey showed that the number of girls at the age of eight paid for
babysitting was .
A. 58% B. 27% C. 6% D. 3%
Question 50: The word "counteract" in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 12 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. government B. gentleman C. geography D. gymnastic
Question 2: A. manly B. danger C. capable D. ancient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A travel B. suggest C. sustain D. involve
Question 4: A. develop B. proposal C. urbanize D. variety
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The book __________ by MP has sold millions of copies worldwide.
A. was written B. written C. writing D. writes
Question 6: The performance of the new employee is _______than the performance of the previous
employee who held the same position.
A. better B. more better C. best D. the best
Question 7: ________ to the nearest city, we will have driven for 5 days.
A. When we will get B. While we are getting

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C. As soon as we got D. By the time we get
Question 8: I'm not very good _______ playing video games.
A. at B. on C. with D. of
Question 9: The journey soon became tedious, ________
A. won't it B. wasn't it C. didn't it D. doesn't it
Question 10: My friend plays ___________guitar beautifully in a popular local band.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 11: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into ________
A. influence B. effect C. impact D. affect
Question 12: You will be brought before the disciplinary panel to ________ your behavior.
A. turn down B. take up C. account for D. put down
Question 13: They decided ____________ to the beach for their vacation.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
Question 14: Be honest! Don't let success go to your ________
A. head B. mouth C. hairs D. eyes
Question 15: She came while I ________ my homework.
A. have done B. am doing C. was done D. was doing
Question 16: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to ________ their own
culture.
A. conserve B. reserve C. maintain D. preserve
Question 17: We hopes that the movie ____ at the cinema next month.
A. will show B. showed C. will be shown D. is showing
Question 18: The map of the top ten most densely ________ countries in the world includes Monaco,
Singapore, Bahrain, Malta, and Bangladesh.
A. population B. popularly C. populated D. populate
Question 19: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ________ of physiotherapy after she broke her leg
in an accident.
A. stage B. course C. chapter D. episode
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.
- Peter: "Using social networks may have negative effects on students.
- Mary: “ ________ It distracts them from their studies."
A. That's quite true B. I don't quite agree
C. You're wrong D. I'm not sure about that
Question 21: A customer is talking to a shop assistant about the sweater he has chosen.
- Customer: “That's nice. Could I try it on?"
- Shop assistant: " ________ ”
A. Yes, of course, but you must pay the bill first
B. Certainly, the changing rooms are over there.
C. That's right. You must try it before buying.
D. Oh, sorry. We don't have this room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: School uniform is compulsory in most Vietnamese schools.
A. dependent B. optional C. obligatory D. required
Question 23: We racked our brains but we couldn't come up with a solution.
A. positively changed B. thought very hard

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C. thought quickly D. considered carefully
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: It is found that endangered species are often concentrated in areas that are poor and densely
populated such as much of Asia and Africa.
A. increased B. reduced C. threatened D. disappeared
Question 25: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.
A. questions B. communities C. opportunities D. productions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Using a cell phone in the examination room is strictly prohibited.
A. You can use a cell phone in the examination room.
B. You need to use a cell phone in the examination room.
C. Using a cell phone in the examination room is allowed.
D. You mustn't use a cell phone in the examination room.
Question 27: They last ate raw fish two weeks ago.
A. They have eaten raw fish for two weeks. B. They ate raw fish since two weeks.
C. They haven't eaten raw fish for two weeks. D. They didn't eat raw fish since two weeks.
Question 28: “We can go to the airport by taxi this morning", they said.
A. They said they could go to the airport by taxi that morning.
B. They said they can go to the airport by taxi that morning.
C. They said we can go to the airport by taxi this morning.
D. They said we could go to the airport by taxi that morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: An octopus has three hearts to pump blood throughout their body.
A B C D
Question 30: Although ostriches and penguins cannot fly, they had other abilities like swimming and
A B C D
running.
Question 31: After the social science lecture, all students were invited to take part in a discussion on the
A B C
issues which were risen in the talk.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: I did not follow the Health Ministry's 5K message. I got infected with the Corona virus.
A. If I had followed the Health Ministry's 5K message, I would never get infected with the Corona virus.
B. If only I had followed the Health Ministry's SK message, I would get infected with the Corona virus.
C. I wish I hadn't followed the Health Ministry's 5K message and would have got infected with the
Corona virus.
D. I wish I had followed the Health Ministry's 5K message and wouldn't have got infected with the
Corona virus.
Question 33: My cousin was too ill. He couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week.
A. So ill was my cousin that he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week.
B. Had my cousin been too ill, he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week.
C. But for my cousin's illness, he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week.
D. Such ill was my cousin that he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
It's the end of the school year and the exam period is approaching. Undoubtedly, exams
(34)________pressure on both students and parents alike. (35)_________parents would like to see their
children succeeding academically, as they believe a good education gives them an added advantage in life.
They want to see their children settled in a rewarding job and be financially well-off. But is that what their
children have planned for themselves? Apparently it is not. Most students either can't think that far ahead or
have no intention of doing so. They would rather aim low so as not to be disappointed if they get low
marks.However, child psychologists, who have been consulted on the matter, stress that students should aim
high, but at the same time have a variety of other options. (36)_______, students will not have to worry
about grades and in the long term they will have better chances of succeeding. On the whole, there are many
practical and invaluable things (37)_________parents can do for their children.Apart from being people
their children can turn to, parents can plan a reasonable schedule that both they and their children agree on.
According to psychologists' (38)_________, this schedule should include no more than eight hours of
studying, three proper meals a day and some exercise. Above all, prior to each exam, parents need to
reassure their children that everything will be fine whatever the result.
Question 34: A. force B. set C. put D. bring
Question 35: A. Most B. Much C. Lot of D. Almost
Question 36: A. As a result B. Moreover C. However D. In contrast
Question 37: A. whom B. who C. why D. that
Question 38: A. clues B. announcements C. instructions D. qualities
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
American jazz is a mixture of sounds borrowed from such varied sources as American and African folk
music, European classical music, and Christian gospel songs. One of the recognizable characteristics of jazz
is its use of improvisation: certain parts of the music are written out and played the same way by various
performers, and other improvised parts are created spontaneously during a performance and vary widely
from performer to performer.
The earliest form of jazz was ragtime, lively songs or rags performed on the piano, and the best-known
of the ragtime performers and composers was Scott Joplin. Bom in 1868 to former slaves, Scott Joplin
earned his living from a very early age playing the piano in bars along the Mississippi. One of his regular
jobs was in the Maple Leaf Club in Sedalia, Missouri. It was there that he began writing the more than 500
compositions that he was to produce, the most famous of which was “The Maple Leaf Rag.”
Question 39: This passage is about _________.
A. the life of Scott Joplin B. the major characteristics of jazz
C. jazz in general and one specific type of jazz D. the various sources of jazz
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT a source of American jazz?
A. Christian gospel songs B. European folk songs
C. European classical music D. American and African folk music
Question 41: According to the passage, ragtime was _______.
A. performed only at the Maple Leaf Club in Sedalia
B. generally performed on a variety of instruments
C. the first type of jazz
D. extremely soothing and sedate
Question 42: The word “living” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. money B. enjoyment C. life-style D. health
Question 43: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the Maple Leaf club B. regular jobs

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C. over 500 compositions D. Sedalia, Missouri
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
We are a planet of seven billion people, and this number is growing by about 370,000 people every day.
This is putting a huge strain on the planet's natural resources. For many governments and environmental
organizations, the race is on to drastically reduce our consumption of resources before they run out.
Water is one of our most precious resources. Our quality of life, as well as life itself, depends on the
availability of clean, fresh water. It is the most widely used resource in industry, and plays a major role in
energy production. Although 70 percent of the world is covered in water, only 2.5 percent of that is fresh
water, and less than one percent of that freshwater is readily available to us. Yet we often overestimate how
much water we have, and reduce it further through pollution or inefficient use. Some 92 percent of all fresh
water used annually is dedicated to growing plants and raising animals for food. This means that if water
runs out, our food supply might follow. In India, it is estimated that future water shortages could reduce
grain harvests by 25%. In a country where the population exceeds 1.2 billion people and is growing rapidly
every year, this is a huge concern. India, like many developing countries, is already struggling to provide for
its population. While most people in developed countries can get water at the turn of a tap, nearly four
billion people elsewhere lack access to safe water, according to United Nations Development Report.
Rain forests are another endangered-resource. While rain forests are critically important to humanity,
they are rapidly being destroyed by human activities. The biggest cause of deforestation is conversion of
forest land for agriculture. Often called the "Lungs of the Planet”, rain forests once covered 14 percent of the
Earth's land surface, but this has shrunk to only six percent. Every second, an area of rain forest, the size of a
football field, is destroyed at this rate. Rain forests will possibly disappear completely in less than 40 years.
(Adapted from: Active Reading)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Human and environment B. Resources for the future
C. Sustainability of resources D. Awareness of conservation
Question 45: The word "strain" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________
A. contradiction B. depletion C. harmony D. pressure
Question 46: The word "overestimate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________
A. increase B. reduce C. maintain D. exaggerate
Question 47: In paragraph 2, water is one of our most precious resources because
A. Most parts of the world is covered in fresh water
B. Our quality of life relies on the availability of fresh water.
C. Fresh water is hardly used for energy production.
D. All freshwater on earth is readily available to us.
Question 48: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________
A. human activities B. rain forests C. resources D. humanity
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The shrink in forest area has been caused mainly by conversion of forest land for agriculture.
B. Most of the fresh water is used to grow plants and raise animals for food.
C. The availability of clean, fresh water greatly affects our quality of life.
D. Our forests, the so called the "Lungs of the Planet”, are expanding steadily.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. "The Lung of our Planet" once covered most of the Earth's surface.
B. Rain forests are unlimited resources.
C. Rain forests may disappear in the near future due to the interference of human beings.
D. The government must be responsible for the shrink of rain forests

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ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 14 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 0 4 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. grammar B. damage C. mammal D. drama
Question 2. A. switch B. stomach C. match D. catch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. nervous B. active C. patient D. aware
Question 4. A. candidate B. holiday C. experience D. tourism
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tommy is on the way to his friend's birthday party, carrying a gift box _____ colourful paper.
A. were wrapped B. having wrapped C. wrapped D. wrapping
Question 6. Monkeys are_______learners than elephants.
A. faster B. very fast C. more faster D. more fast
Question 7. Richard will look for a job __________.
A. after he had passed his exams B. before he passed his exams
C. while he was passing his exams D. as soon as he passes his exams
Question 8. His choice of future career is quite similar______mine.
A. at B. with C. for D. to
Question 9. Your sister seldom cooks meals,___________?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 10. My brother has been playing piano since he was a small child.
A. the B. a C. no article D. an
Question 11. Due to lacking ___________, they couldn’t open a new shop as scheduled.
A. interest rates B. expenses C. shares D. funds
Question 12. He’s a widower who _______ three children.
A. takes after B. makes off C. cuts down D. brings up
Question 13. Tom hopes __________ a solution soon.
A. to find B. finding C. find D. found
Question 14. He’s really got the bit between his _______ so that he can pass the exam with flying colours.
A. neck B. eyes C. teeth D. hands
Question 15. When I returned from work, my dad _______ with his childhood friends.
A. have played B. was playing C. will be playing D. is playing
Question 16. He _______ sorry and we became friends again.
A. paid B. called C. talked D. said
Question 17: The river ________ with toxic waste from local factories for a long time.
A. pollutes B. has been polluted C. are being polluted D. is polluting
Question 18. You should ask for Henry’s advice; he is very _______ about gardening.
A. know B. knowledge C. knowledgeable D. knowledgeably
Question 19: They haven't found a cure for the disease yet, but they are on the ________ track.
A. right B. exact C. correct D. precise

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Mary is talking to Linda over the phone.
- Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party."
- Linda: " ________ "
A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world
C. I'm afraid not D. Of course not
Question 21: Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
Tom: "Why don't we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?"
Susan: " ________ "
A. No, they are not available. B. You should agree with us.
C. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! D. I'm sorry to hear that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Hieu is writing an email to apply for the position of Sales Director.
A. situation B. job C. fund D. partner
Question 23. Taking a year out to travel can broaden your experience and teach you new skills.
A. limit B. produce C. interest D. increase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. It’s very difficult to talk to our new classmate; she’s such a cold fish.
A. a pleasant person B. a person who is allergic to fish
C. a person who enjoy eating fish D. an unfriendly person
Question 25. The company should allow flexible working hours so that its employees can avoid traffic
congestion.
A. careful B. dangerous C. fixed D. changeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. It’s not a good idea for us to swim in this lake.
A. We can swim in this lake. B. We must swim in this lake.
C. We shouldn’t swim in this lake. D. We wouldn’t swim in this lake.
Question 27. He began to drive a motorbike last year.
A. He hasn’t driven a motorbike since last year. B. He used to drive a motorbike last year.
C. He got used to driving a motorbike last year. D. He has driven a motorbike since last year.
Question 28: "Did you pay for the tickets, Laura?", Peter asked.
A. Peter asked Laura if she paid for the tickets.
B. Peter asked Laura if she had paid for the tickets.
C. Peter asked Laura if she was paid for the tickets.
D. Peter asked Laura if she would pay for the tickets.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some animals are in danger of extinction as humans are hunting it for meat.
A B C D
Question 30. There is a heavy storm hitting our village last Sunday evening.
A B C D
Question 31. It is not advisory to make travel arrangements during this time when the Covid-19
A B
pandemic is still spreading at an unprecedented rate.

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C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: I filled my glass. Then I noticed that it was broken.
A. No sooner had I noticed that my glass was broken than I filled it.
B. Not until I filled my glass did I notice that it was broken.
C. Only when I filled my glass had I noticed that it was broken.
D. Hardly had I filled my glass then I noticed that it was broken.
Question 33: They cannot continue the work. They are too tired.
A. If they are not too tired, they can continue the work.
B. If they hadn't been too tired, they could continue the work.
C. If they hadn't been too tired, they could have continued the work.
D. If they were not too tired, they could continue the work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
WHAT IS HAPPINESS?
People have been asking this question for centuries, but only recently have scientists and
psychologists joined the debate. Apparently, our genes play a big part in how happy we feel. And while
money and material possessions can (34) _______ our spirits for a short time, it seems the real key to
happiness is life experiences. Buying new clothes or the latest electronic device may make us feel on top of
the world for a short time, but after a while, the feeling starts to fade. We get used to seeing our (35)
_______ and our happiness loses its shine.
What's more, we tend to compare ourselves to (36) _______ and if we see someone with a better or
newer version of what we've bought, it can leave us down in the dumps. Life experiences, on the other
hand, are more satisfying and bring more lasting happiness. Apart from the enjoyment of the actual
experience, they give us memories (37) _______ we keep our whole lifetime. Life experiences bring us
closer to people, too. (38) _______ the next time you're tempted to spend money on material possessions,
try saving the cash for a life experience instead. As you look back on your life, you'll be grateful.
(Adapted from Gateway by David Spencer and Gill Hooley)
Question 34. A. climb B. increase C. lift D. soar
Question 35. A. backgrounds B. possessions C. abilities D. emotions
Question 36. A. others B. each C. a little D. almost
Question 37. A. where B. what C. whose D. that
Question 38. A. So B. But C. Therefore D. Furthermore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 42.
Many universities around the world are proud to have long histories and strong traditions. However,
very few universities can claim to be among the oldest in the world.
Nalanda University, in Bihar, India, was established around 600 BC. It was most likely the world's
first university. In the past, scholars came from Europe, China, and all over India to learn about science,
medicine, the Buddhist religion, and other subjects. The university is in ruins now, but at one time it was an
impressive school with temples, classrooms, libraries, and dormitories.
According to the Guinness Book of World Records, the University of AI-Karaouine in Fes,
Morocco, is the oldest surviving university in the world. It was probably founded in 859 and became a
famous place to study natural sciences. The first university in Europe is definitely the University of
Bologna, in Italy. It was one of the few universities in Europe that were not influenced by religion.
Professors were forbidden from teaching outside the university, and so students came from all over Europe
to study with its famous teachers.

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(Adapted from Active Skills for Reading by Neil J Anderson)
Question 39. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Students at the most famous universities B. The world’s oldest universities
C. Subjects that are taught at universities D. Foreign students at ancient universities
Question 40. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. religion B. medicine D. science D. university
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, Nalanda University _______.
A. was the first university in the world B. only taught science subjects
C. was destroyed D. invited scholars from different countries to teach
Question 42. The word founded in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. damaged B. created C. recovered D. renamed
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The University of AI-Karaouine still exists in the modern world.
B. Teachers at Bologna University weren’t allowed to teach outside.
C. Natural science subjects aren’t taught at the University of AI-Karaouine.
D. Students could learn religion at the University of Nalanda.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Los Angeles dancer, Brian Perez, was eating out with his friends one evening when suddenly
everyone went quiet. To his horror, he saw that the reason for this was that people were checking their
phones. Realising he had to do something to stop this, Brian made a rather daring suggestion. What if they
all put their gadgets in a pile in the middle of the table until they had finished the meal? If anyone picked
up their phone, that person would have to pay the whole bill. And so, it is said, the game of 'phone stacking'
was bom.
The necessity for action like this highlights a major problem in today's society: our inability to disconnect
from technology. But while Brian's idea deals with the obsession in a social context, measures also need to
be taken at home. Some people drop their smartphones into a box the moment they arrive home, which
gives them the chance to interact with the people they live with. The fact that the phone cannot be heard - it
is on silent - nor seen - the flashing lights are hidden by the box - means that they are no longer tempted to
use it.
A less drastic solution is to ban electronic devices at certain times of day when the whole family is likely
to be together, for example at meal times. This can be hard for everyone, from teenagers desperate to text
friends to parents unable to switch off from work. On a normal day, however, dinner takes less than an
hour, and the benefits of exchanging opinions and anecdotes with the rest of the family certainly makes up
for the time spent offline.
Taking a break from technology is one thing, but knowing when to turn off a device is another.
Time seems to stand still in the virtual world, and before you know it, you find that it is three o'clock in the
morning. This is where a digital curfew comes in handy, a set time when all devices must be put away.
Evenings without technology are usually nice and peaceful and make a more agreeable end to the day.
And then it's time for bed. One of the best ways of ensuring you can sleep at night is to ban
electronic devices altogether from the bedroom. Lying next to a machine bursting with information is far
from relaxing, and the sounds it emits during the night can easily wake you up. With technology out of the
room, a line has been drawn between daytime and sleep time, which enables us to switch off ourselves and
drift off to sleep.
(Adapted from Solutions 3rd Edition by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Too Much Dependence on Technology: Time for Change!
B. Getting Rid of Your Mobiles: For Better or Worse?

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C. Shocking News: Technology Shapes Our Mind!
D. Addiction to Technology: Storm in a Teacup
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, Brian Perez was shocked to find that _______.
A. people were willing to remove all their gadgets B. the prices for food were too expensive
C. people were glued to their phones D. everyone seemed quiet by nature
Question 46. The word highlights in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. tackles B. expects C. proposes D. emphasizes
Question 47. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. fact B. phone C. light D. box
Question 48. The word drastic in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _______.
A. simple B. effective C. important D. severe
Question 49. Which of the following statements is true, according to the passage?
A. People choose not to use their phones at home so that they can talk to other members.
B. Meal times are the most suitable for the whole family to use phones together.
C. Teenagers can find it easier to turn off their phones compared to their parents.
D. Brian’s idea is not new in terms of making people less dependent on technology.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Having a conversation at dinner definitely strengthens the bonds among family members.
B. Using electronic gadgets at bedtime is likely to deprive yourself of having a good sleep.
C. People are more pleasant to talk with when they use technology in the evenings.
D. The line between daytime and sleep time has become increasingly blurred.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 15 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A.parachute B. machine C. champange D.chaos
Question 2. A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. achieve B. happen C. detect D. enroll
Question 4. A. politics B. division C. policemen D. reflection
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Hoi An Ancient town, __________in Viet Nam’s central Quang Nam Province, comprises 30
ha and it has a buffer zone of 280 ha.
A. locating B. located C. to locate D. which located
Question 6. The prices of Japanese cars are _______ than those of Chinese ones.
A.expensive B. most expensive C. the most expensive D. more expensive
Question 7. _______, they will have done their homework.
A. By the time you finish cooking B. By the time you finished cooking
C. When you finish cooking D. While you finish cooking
Question 8. They were taught that families were strong, and everybody should stick together ________
adversity.
A. with B. To C. of D. in
Question 9. Nobody called me yesterday, ________?
A. did they B. are they C. is he D. isn’t she

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Question 10.First our team should identify a specific need in the community and then carry out a project to
address ________ need.
A. an B. Ø C. a D. the
Question 11. Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve through hospitals
and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.
A. diploma B. Certificate C. license D. degree
Question 12: Peter is not a modest boy since he often _______his prizes.
A.boasts for B. takes pride C. shows off D. appriciates with
Question 13. My mother wanted my teeth _____.
A. examine B. to examine C. examining D. to be examined
Question 14.Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough ________ but I think I’m going to like him once I
get used to him.
A. stone B. Rock C. diamond D. pearl
Question 15. We _______ about the future when the teacher came in.
A. were discussing B. will discuss C. has discussed D. had discussed
Question 16.We _______ full advantage of the fine weather and had a day out.
A. took B. Created C. Did D. made
Question 17. A new textbook _______ by that company next year.
A. will publish B. will be published C. are published D. publish
Question 18. Lessons from the ___ developed countries are worth learning to save our time.
A. economically B. economic C. economize D. economical
Question 19. In this job, experience accounts for more than paper_____
A. background B. certificates C. quality D. qualifications
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20 - "Mom, I've received an offer for a summer internship in Singapore!”
- “____”
A. Really? Good luck! B. Oh, that's great! Congratulations!
C. I couldn't agree more. D. Oh, I'm sorry to hear that.
Question 21.“Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “………….”.
A. No, thanks B. Yes, I am so glad
C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted B. Enlightened C. angry D. upset
Question 23. The Internet is a treasure trove of information, which offers knowledge on any given topic
under the sun.
A. densely B. scarcely C. abundantly D. undoubtedly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. At last, Huong made a single-minded effort to get a scholarship so that he could have chance
to study overseas.
A.dogged B. serious C. unresolved D. necessary
Question 25.These are all stars, professional teams composed of 22 players each.
A. stupid B. Ugly C. Amateurish D. ill
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.

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Question 26.It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A.The company needs accept his application. B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application. D. The company should accept his application.
Question 27. I last ate this kind of food five years ago.
A.I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years. B. I ate this kind of food for five years.
C. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago. D. I have eaten this kind of food for five years.
Question 28. “What did you take part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for ? ” she said to
me.
A. She asked me what had you ever taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for.
B. She wanted to know what I have taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for.
C. She wanted to know what I took part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for.
D. She asked me what I had taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia for.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. His parents are satisfied with his result when he was at high school yesterday.
A.His B.are C.with D.was
Question 30. Her weight has increased remarkably since they began receiving treatment.
A.Her weight B. remarkably C.they D. receiving
Question 31.Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.
A.Alike B.waves C.may be D.concentrated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. John cannot see off his sister at the airport because he is seriously ill.
A. John’s sister wishes he hadn’t been seriously ill so that he couldn’t see her off at the airport.
B. As long as John could see his sister off at the airport, he couldn’t be seriously ill.
C. If John hasn’t been seriously ill, he can see off her sister at the airport.
D. If John weren’t seriously ill , he could see off his sister at the airport.
Question 33.He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
In the near term, the goal of keeping AI’s impact on society beneficial motivates research in many areas,
from economics and law to technical topics such as verification, validity, security and control. Whereas it
may be little more than a minor nuisance if your laptop crashes or gets hacked, it becomes all the more
important that an AI system does what you want it to do if it controls your car, your airplane, your
pacemaker, your automated trading system or your power grid. Another short-term challenge is preventing
a devastating arms race in lethal autonomous weapons.
In the long term, an important question is what will happen if the quest for strong AI succeeds and an AI
system becomes better than humans at all cognitive tasks. Such a system could potentially undergo
recursive self-improvement, triggering an intelligence explosion leaving human intellect far behind. By
inventing revolutionary new technologies, such a super-intelligence might help us eradicate war, disease,
and poverty, and so the creation of strong AI might be the biggest event in human history. Some experts
have expressed concern, though, that it might also be the last, unless we learn to align the goals of the AI
with ours before it becomes super-intelligent.

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There are some who question whether strong AI will ever be achieved, and others who insist that the
creation of super-intelligent AI is guaranteed to be beneficial. At FLI we recognize both of these
possibilities, but also recognize the potential for an artificial intelligence system to intentionally or
unintentionally cause great harm. We believe research today will help us better prepare for and prevent
such potentially negative consequences in the future, thus enjoying the benefits of AI while avoiding
pitfalls.
(source: https://www.beyondteaching.com/)
Question 34. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Transcending complacency on super-intelligent machines.
B. No time like the present for AI safety work.
C. The importance of researching AI safety.
D. Challenges to ensuring the safety of AI systems.
Question 35. According to paragraph 1, what is NOT mentioned as a potential benefit of AI?
A. Facilitating the identification system. B. Managing the electricity in homes.
C. Controlling vehicles and gadgets. D. Curing life-threatening diseases.
Question 36. The word “recursive” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. powerful B. repeated C. impossible D. monotonous
Question 37. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. event B. human C. history D. poverty
Question 38. According to paragraph 3, which information is incorrect about the future of AI?
A. We cannot deny the likelihood of AI turning on its creator – the human.
B. The emergence of super-intelligence will yield valuable benefits for human.
C. One of the focus of AI system nowadays should be preparation and preventive measures.
D. The probability of malicious artificial intelligence is an unexpected zero.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
We need to attend to the tree loss because of the following tree benefits. Firstly, trees provide shade for
homes, office buildings, parks and roadways, cooling surface temperatures. They also take in and evaporate
water, (39) ______ cools the air around them. Secondly, trees absorb carbon and remove pollutants from
the atmosphere. Trees also reduce energy costs by $4 billion a year, according to Nowak's study. "The
shading of those trees on buildings (40) ______ your air conditioning costs. Take those trees away; now
your buildings are heating up, you're running your air conditioning more, and you're burning more fuel
from the power plants, so the pollution and emissions go up." (41) ______, trees act as water filters, taking
in dirty surface water and absorbing nitrogen and phosphorus into the soil. Last but not least, (42)______
studies have found connections between exposure to nature and better mental and physical health. Some
hospitals have added tree views and plantings for patients as a result of these studies. Doctors are even
prescribing walks in nature for children and families due to evidence that nature exposure lowers blood
(43) ______ and stress hormones. And studies have associated living near green areas with lower death
rates.
Question 39. A. which B. whose C. that D. what
Question 40. A. reduces B. increases C. pays D. values
Question 41. A. However B. Consequently C. Besides D. Afterwards
Question 42. A. much B. every C. each D. many
Question 43. A. stream B. pressure C. line D. drop
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from

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Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still
has one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the
age of 18.
Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest
families marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who
drop out of school and earn little money.
Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat
are more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows
that 91% of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.
Dowry is also common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as
possible because the money they have to pay to the groom’s family is higher if their daughter is older.
Since 2010, the legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent,
according to the Nepalese Country Code.
The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine
of up to 10,000 rupees (£102). But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied. There has been quite a lot
of progress in Nepal over the past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage
and civil society cooperation. The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently
developing Nepal’s first national strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls
Not Brides Nepal. However, the post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is
slow and the national strategy has been delayed.
(Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality.
B. Child marriage - A completely tractable problem in Nepal.
C. Nepal’s strategies to child protection programming.
D. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage.
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families ________.
A. play an important role in bolstering their household finances
B. have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families
C. can get married two years later than those are from poor families
D. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money
Question 46: The word "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. girls B. families C. years D. rates
Question 47: The word "burden” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. issue B. potency C. load D. cargo
Question 48: According to the last paragraph, Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
how many years will a rule-breaker spend in jail?
A. A rule-breaker will spend exactly three years in jail.
B. A rule-breaker will spend over three years in jail.
C. A rule-breaker will spend from one to three years in jail .
D. A rule-breaker will spend about two years in jail.
Question 49.The word "imprisonment” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _________.
A. detention B. custody C. salvation D. emblem
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage _________.
A. The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage
B. Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world
C. Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money
D. The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage

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ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 16 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. though B. these C. there D. breath
Question 2. A. online B. drive C. include D. life
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. turtle B. hotel C. robot D. money
Question 4. A. positive B. relevant C. enormous D. typical
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other things, _______
the explosion.
A. causing B. which caused by C. caused by D. which caused
Question 6. Rolls Royce cars are _______ than Toyota ones.
A. expensive B. the most expensive C. more expensive D. most expensive
Question 7. _______, I will have worked at this school for 30 years.
A. Before I had reached 55 years old B. When I reached 55 years old
C. Until I will reach 55 years old D. By the time I reach 55 years old
Question 8. The manager is directly responsible _______ the efficient running of the office
A. about B. for C. at D. in
Question 9. Donald John Trump is the 45th President of the United States, _______?
A. is he B. is not he C. isn’t it D. isn’t he
Question 10. Nguyen Thuc Thuy Tien became _______ first Vietnamese contestant to win the title Miss
Grand International 2021 in Thailand.
A. a B. Ø C. the D. an
Question 11. Adam is a(n) _______ of his; they both took part in the robbery.
A. accomplice B. acquaintance C. contact D. understudy
Question 12. Coach Park Hang-Seo’s contract _______ at the end of January 2023, but the team couldn’t
win the AFF Cup title as a parting gift for Park.
A. called off B. broke down C. ran out D. gave back
Question 13. The college principal promised _______ into the matter.
A. to look B. look C. looking D. looked
Question 14. Rescuers have _______ to pull survivors out from under debris caused by the devastating
earthquake that rocked Turkey and Syria on February, 2nd.
A. taken their time B. made good time
C. kept up with the times D. raced against time
Question 15. Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _______ along the street.
A. would walk B. was walking C. walked D. had walked
Question 16. I don't think we should _______ a decision right now; we should wait until we examine
everything.
A. create B. make C. get D. do
Question 17. Next year, this new plaza building _______.
A. was completed B. will be completed C. will completed D. complete

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Question 18. The COVID-19 pandemic remains highly _______ in the world due to the emergence of
Omicron.
A. unpredictable B. predict C. prediction D. predictably
Question 19. The young man was ______ for his bravery when he risked his life saving the child from the
fire.
A. painted B. decorated C. beautified D. adorned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20. Jack and David are talking about social networks.
- Jack: “I think using social networks may have negative effects on students.”
- David: “_______. It distracts them from their studies.”
A. That’s quite true B. I don’t quite agree
C. You’re wrong D. I’m not sure about that
Question 21. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
- Linda: “Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months.”
- Daniel: “_______”
A. Thank you for looking for it. B. You can say that again.
C. I'm glad you like it. D. I like reading books.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. He thought Janet's response seemed a bit fishy, so he did a bit of investigation into her role in
the company.
A. suspicious B. unfaithful C. loyal D. honest
Question 23. He really seems to have fallen on his feet. He got a new job and found a flat within a week
of arriving in the city.
A. have been successful B. have been satisfied
C. have been unlucky D. have been disappointed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. Fierce storms have been hampering rescue efforts and there is now little chance of finding
more survivors.
A. allowing B. preventing C. encouraging D. promoting
Question 25. Cambridge is the ideal place to learn English; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with
institutions for high quality linguistic teaching.
A. noticeable B. natural C. friendly D. ugly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 27. Mrs. Brown last went on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
A. Mrs. Brown has gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
B. Mrs. Brown didn't go on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
C. Mrs. Brown has two years to go on a trip to Hanoi.
D. Mrs. Brown hasn't gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
Question 28. "What is the name of your latest album?", Tom asked Helen.

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A. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album is.
B. Tom asked Helen what was the name of her latest album.
C. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album would be.
D. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album was.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. Every employee is expected to be competent and industrial because wage rates depend on
levels of productivity.
A. employee B. competent C. industrial D. productivity
Question 30. My former friend, together with his wife, pays a visit to my family last Sunday.
A. former B. with C. pays D. Sunday
Question 31. When children experience too much frustration, its behavior ceases to be integrated.
A. too much B. experience C. its D. ceases
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He isn't qualified. He is not given important tasks.
A. If only he were qualified and wouldn't be given important tasks.
B. If he were qualified, he would be given important tasks.
C. If he were qualified, he would not be given important tasks.
D. Provided he is qualified, he will be given important tasks.
Question 33. The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. No sooner has the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
B. Hardly had the passengers rushed towards it when the train arrived at the station.
C. Scarcely had the train arrived at the station when the passengers rushed towards it.
D. Not until the train arrived at the station did the passengers rush towards it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Berrak: A Pianist
A typical day now involves a couple of hours practice in the morning before going into college and
attending classes. I spend a lot of time in the library, listening to music, trying to learn and become (34)
______ with new pieces of music. One downside to choosing to study and pursue a career in music is that
you end up spending hours and hours by yourself. (35) ______, I also try to spend time at college, meeting
other people and networking. The more musicians I know, the more likely I am to be asked to play for (36)
______. The more I play, the better known I become and in the music business it's all about recognition
and getting your name out there. Ultimately, if I am asked to play and get given a job it means that
someone else loses work and sometimes it feels like a constant battle. You can't help being drawn into an
artificial world (37) ______ you are constantly comparing yourself to others and are always worried about
what others think of your performances. In the real world outside of college, your (38) ______ is much
wider.
(Adapted from “FCE Practice Test” by Karen Dyer and Dave Harwood)
Question 34. A. familiar B. similar C. alike D. related
Question 35. A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. other B. each C. another D. others
Question 37. A. where B. which C. that D. whom
Question 38. A. witness B. spectator C. audience D. visitor
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.

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When he was nine years old, Felix Finkbeiner gave a class presentation on climate change. The young
German spoke about deforestation and its effect on the planet. At the end of his talk, he challenged the
people of his country to help by planting one million trees. Nobody thought much would come of a nine-
year-old’s school project. Before he was 20, however, Finkbeiner’s efforts had resulted in the planting of
more than 14 billion trees around the world.
Finkbeiner and his classmates began the project - named “Plant-for-the-Planet” - by planting the first tree
outside their school. Other schools followed the example, and news of the one-million challenge spread. As
a result, Finkbeiner was asked to speak at the European Parliament. Other invitations soon followed, and
when he was just 13, he spoke at a United Nations conference in New York. “We cannot trust that adults
alone will save our future,” he said in the speech. “We have to take our future in our hands.”
Finkbeiner is now in his twenties, and Plant-for-the-Planet is an organization with around 70,000
members. It works to teach people about climate change and to encourage the planting of more trees.
Germany’s one millionth tree was planted long ago. The goal now is one trillion - 150 for every person on
Earth.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer by Becky Tarver Chase and David Bohlke)
Question 39. What is the reading mainly about?
A. the problems deforestation can cause for our planet
B. the reasons of climate change
C. how planting trees can help the environment
D. how a young person has made a big difference to the environment
Question 40. The word “deforestation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. afforestation B. defecation
C. the cutting down of trees D. devastation
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, what first happened to Finkbeiner after the widespread impact of
the “Plant-for-the -Planet” project?
A. He discussed the problem of climate change with world leaders.
B. He made a presentation at a United Nations conference in New York.
C. He received an offer to make a speech at the European Parliament.
D. He had to confront many challenges.
Question 42. In the third paragraph, what does the word “It” refer to?
A. Plant-for-the-Planet B. Germany's one millionth tree
C. Climate change D. Planting trees
Question 43. What is NOT true about Plant-for-the Planet today?
A. It teaches people about climate change. B. It has many thousands of members.
C. Its aim is to plant one billion trees. D. It encourages people to afforest.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The Globe
Shakespeare's Globe Theatre is a popular topic for people interested in theater and history. However, the
Globe Theatre as we know it today is not the same building that was used originally. In fact, the Globe was
situated in many different places during its long history.
When the rental agreement on the original location ended, one of the actors bought a theater called the
Blackfriars, which was located in another part of town. However, many complaints from neighbors and the
town council led to the creation of a petition that requested that the acting group move their company out of
town. Upset with this news, the actors returned to the original theater, took most of it apart, and then moved
the materials across the Thames River to Bankside, where they proceeded to construct the next version of
the Globe.

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This endeavor, though, did not go so smoothly. The owner of the original Globe Theatre, who had rented
it to the actors, took the acting group to court. He wanted the actors to pay for the damage they had done to
his building. In the end, however, the actors won the case and continued to construct their “newly-
acquired” theater. Later, the actors split their plays between the original theater and the new Globe.
In 1643, the original Globe Theatre burned to the ground. How did this happen? Historians believe that a
cannon that was shot during a performance of the play Henry Vill started a large fire. Yet, the Globe
Theatre still survived. A new Globe was later completed on the same site before Shakespeare's death.
However, it was shut down by the Puritans in 1642 and later destroyed during the English Civil War of
1643.
In May of 1997, Queen Elizabeth II officially opened a newly constructed version of the Globe with a
production of Henry V. This is the Globe Theatre that people visit today. The queen wanted the new theater
to be much like the old one. The new model is very similar to the original theater. For instance, it is also a
three-story building. Also, it has seating for 1,500 people. It also has an area called the “yard” on the lower
level. In its first season, the theater attracted 210,000 people.
(Adapted from “Developing Skills for the TOEFL iBT intermediate”)
Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The history of the Globe Theatre B. The renovation of the Globe Theare
C. The construction of the Globe Theare D. Acting at the Globe Theare
Question 45. The word “proceeded” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continued B. began C. marched D. hurried
Question 46. The word “acquired” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced with which of the following?
A. stolen B. bought C. discovered D. obtained
Question 47. According to the passage, what is TRUE of the original Globe Theatre?
A. It was not popular at first. B. It had three levels.
C. It was in downtown London. D. The tickets were not very expensive.
Question 48. What is NOT mentioned in the passage about the Globe Theatre?
A. There was controversy surrounding the Globe when it was first in operation.
B. The new version of the Globe is much like the Globe as it was hundreds of years ago.
C. All visitors to the new Globe will find the theater accommodating and pleasurable.
D. Theater-goers should understand that the Globe is not like other modern theaters.
Question 49. Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the Puritans?
A. They loved Shakespeare. B. They lived in America.
C. They did not like plays. D. They wore black clothes.
Question 50. The word “its” in paragraph 5 refers to _______.
A. the season B. the program C. the theater D. the play

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 17 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.A.garbage B. subtle C. climbing D.debtror
Question 2. A. fare B. Black C. Match D. calcium
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. Prevent B. Receive C. Recent D. remote
Question 4. A. Dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Phong Nha - Ke Bang National Park, __________ by the UNESCO as Natural World
Heritage for the criteria of geology and geomorphology in 2003, is one of the favorite destinations In
Vietnam.
A. to recognize B. to be recognized C. recognized D. recognizing
Question 6. The population of China is much_______than that of any countries in the world.
A.large B. more large C. the most large D. larger
Question 7. ________ the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets
C. After John has goT D. until John is getting
Question 8. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to take ________ the company I am working
for.
A. on B. up C. off D. over
Question 9. Let's go for a long walk, ________ ?
A. will we B. shall we C. don't you D. do you
Question 10.In ________ Phillipines 23.7% of the population lived below the national poverty line in 2021
A. an B. Ø C. a D. the
Question 11. Some students enter other__________such as arts administration.
A. qualifications B. Professions C. Certificates D. campuses
Question 12: She believes that all countries should_________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
Question 13. Park Hang Seo decided _____ the national football team after his contract expired on January
31th 2023
A. leave B. to leave C. leaving D. to leave
Question 14.I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s ________.
A.on the tip of brain B.on the tip of tongue
C.on the tip of mind D. on the tip of memory
Question 15. Mike _________ his favourite program on TV when the lights went out.
A. was watching B. is watching C. watched D. watches
Question 16.We _______ full use of the fine weather and had a day out.
A. took B. Created C. Did D. made
Question 17. The revised Land Law of Vietnam _______ by the National Assembly in its upcoming
October and May sessions and approved in the October 2023 session
A. will discuss B. will be discussed C. are discuss D. discuss
Question 18. Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the ________ birthmark on his face.
A. normal B. Abnormal C. Abnormality D. abnormally
Question 19. Penryn itself is unspoilt, and its old and narrow streets are under a__________order.
A. sanctuary B. Excavation C. Preservation D. heritage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there.
- Waiter: "Here's your bill, sir" - Customer: "________."
A. Don't mention it B. Can I pay by credit card?
C. What do you have? D. You're welcome
Question 21: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Oh, that's a problem B. I can't agree with you more
C. Not at all D. You can make it

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A.didn’t want to see B. showed surprise C. wasn’t happy D. didn’t care
Question 23. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. Disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. My original statement has been completely distorted by the media.
A. wrong B. evil C. deform D. harm
Question 25.Each year about fifty hundred species of plants and animals are already being eliminated.
A. dropped B. Removed C. Kicked D. tossed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26.It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A.You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B.You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C.You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D.You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Question 27. The last time we met Nguyen Quang Hai football player was two months ago.
A.I haven’t met Nguyen Quang Hai football player for two months.
B. I met Nguyen Quang Hai football player for two months.
C. I didn’t met Nguyen Quang Hai football player for two months ago.
D. I haven’t met Nguyen Quang Hai football player was for two months.
Question 28. “How many lessons are you going to learn next month?", he asked me.
A.She asked me how many lessons was I going to learn the next month.
B.She wanted to know how many lessons I am going to learn the next month.
C.She wondered what how many lessons I were going to learn the next month.
D. She asked me what how many lessons I was going to learn the next month.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A.asked B.help C. has D.homework
Question 30. In his speech on taking office, President Võ Văn Thưởng thanked the NA for the trust and for
giving them the chance to serve the Fatherland and the people in this position.
A.his speech B. thanked C.them D. this position
Question 31. You can make informed decisions if you are informative
A. You B. make C. decisions D. informative
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. Jack’s watch was ten minutes slow. That was why he was late for his interview
A. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview
B. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t have been late for his interview
C. If Jack hadn’t been late for his interview, his watch wouldn’t have been ten minutes slow
D. If only Jack’s watch weren’t ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview
Question 33. Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
B. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.

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C. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
D. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Although bear-like, koalas are not bears. They are mammals, so feed their young milk and are
marsupials, which means that their babies are born immature and they develop further in the safety of a
pouch. They are tree-dwelling, herbivorous marsupials, which average about 9kg in weight and live on gum
leaves. Their fur is thick and usually ash grey with a tinge of brown in places. Koalas in the southern parts of
Australia are considerably larger and have thicker fur than those in the north. This is thought to be an
adaptation to keep them warm in the colder southern winters.
Younger breeding females usually give birth to one joey each year, depending on a range of factors.
The joey stays in its mother’s pouch for about 6 or 7 months, drinking only milk. After venturing out of the
pouch, the joey rides on its mother’s abdomen or back, although it continues to return to her pouch for milk
until it is too big to fit inside. The joey leaves its mother’s home range between 1 and 3 years old, depending
on when the mother has her next joey.
Koalas are mostly nocturnal. They sleep for part of the night and also sometimes move about in the
daytime. They often sleep for up to 18-20 hours each day. There is a myth that koalas sleep a lot because
they ‘get drunk’ on gum leaves. However, most of their time is spent sleeping because it requires a lot of
energy to digest their toxic, fibrous, low-nutrition diet and sleeping is the best way to conserve energy.
The koala gets its name from an ancient Aboriginal word meaning “no drink” because it receives over 90%
of its hydration from the eucalyptus leaves (also known as gum leaves) it eats, and only drinks when ill or
times when there is not enough moisture in the leaves i.e. during droughts, etc.
Question 34: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A.Koalas’ Breeding. B. The Origin Of The Koala’s Name And Its Eating Habits.
C.Koalas Are Mammals, Not Bears. D.The Real Story About Koalas.
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, how do younger mother koalas usually breed ?
A.They give birth to one joey biannually.
B. They give birth to one offspring annually.
C.They don’t give birth until the females reach 6 or 7 months.
D. They don’t breed during the day.
Question 36: The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. a mother B. a joey C. a pouch D. back
Question 37: The word nocturnal in paragraph 3 is ______.
A.sleepy all day and night B. awake at daytime C. sleepy at night D. active at night
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage ?
A. Koalas drink a lot of water during the meals in order to digest gum leaves.
B. Koalas spend up to twenty hours sleeping each day.
C. Koalas do not drink water normally.
D. Koalas are herbivorous and tree-dwelling.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Choosing a career is one of the most important decisions you will make in life. It's about so
(39)_____ more than deciding (40)_____ you will do to make a living. To start with, think about the amount
of time we spend at work. We are on the job approximately 71% of every year. Over our lifetimes, this
comes to roughly31½ years out of the 45 years most of us spend (41)_____ , from the beginning of our
careers until retirement.The importance of selecting a career with which we are cannot be satisfied
overemphasized.(42)_____some people are lucky enough to just know what they want to do and end up in
satisfying careers without giving it much thought, most of us are not. Many people don't put enough

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(43)_____ into choosing occupations or pick them for the wrong reasons. Maybe they choose careers that
seem secure or pay well. They then end up unhappy. The best way to make sure that doesn't happen to you is
to make a well-thought out decision.
(Adapted from https://www.qualifax.ie)
39. A. many B. plenty C. several D. much
40. A. which B. when C. what D. why
41. A. to work B. work C. worked D. working
42. A. Whether B. But C. While D. Because
43. A. money B. effort C. time D. love
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Artificial intelligence (AI) and related technologies are increasingly prevalent in business and society;
besides, they have been applied to education. These technologies have the potential to transform many
aspects of the teaching - learning process.
Basic activities in education like grading can be automated with the help of AI. At educational institutes,
marking a large number of tests and assignments is tedious work. Teachers often find that grading takes up
a considerable amount of time which can be used to interact with students and prepare for class. AI, at
present, may not be able to actually replace human grading; however, it's getting pretty close. Nearly all
kinds of multiple choice and fill-in-the blank testing can now be performed by Al-driven machines, and
automated grading of student writing may not be far behind. Essay-grading softwares are still in their
infancy, yet they will be fully developed over the coming years, allowing teachers to focus more on
classroom activities and professional development.
Learners can also get additional support from AI. For instance, tutoring programs based on artificial
intelligence already exist to help students with basic courses of mathematics, writing, foreign language, etc.
With the rapid pace of technological advancement in recent years, sophisticated tutoring systems which can
help students learn high order thinking and stimulate their creativity will not be a pipe dream. Moreover, Al
programs can give learners useful feedback and assistance. Some schools, especially those with online
courses, are using AI systems to monitor students' progress. These systems not only offer students advice on
individual courses but also help students choose majors in accordance with areas where they succeed or
struggle.
For better or worse, AI systems have taken place in certain types of classroom activities. In the next
decades, their influences will extend significantly, which offers both teacher and students a much wider
range of services.
(Adapted from https://www.qualifax.ie)
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The various forms of AI B. The potential of applying technologies to teaching
C. The changes made by AI in education D. Artificial intelligence and related technologies
Question 45: The word "tedious" in paragraph 2, is CLOSEST in meaning to ___________
A. boring B. admirable C. economical D. costly
Question 46: As stated in paragraph 2, machines which are driven by AI can now___________
A. find out all the mistakes in students' papers
B. grade almost all types of fill-in-the-blank questions
C. mark student writing automatically
D. be fully developed by teachers
Question 47: The word "a pipe dream" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________
A. an expression B. a phenomenon C. an illusion D. a denotation
Question 48: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to___________
A. machines B. grading softwares C. essays D. classroom activities

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Question 49: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Teachers focus more on classroom activities than professional development.
B. All kinds of multiple-choice questions are graded by machines.
C. Teachers are lack of time to interact with students and prepare for class.
D. Learners can receive useful feedback and help from AI programs.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. AI will play a more important role in education in the future
B. AI technology is expected to dominate in every classroom in the next few decades.
C. AI may pose a threat to every field except for education.
D. Teachers gain more benefits from AI than students.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 18 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. than B. thumb C. thank D. think
Question 2. A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attempt B. effort C. action D. product
Question 4. A. economics B. philosophy C. experiment D. biology
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. There have been surveys ________ in many countries to study people’s attitudes towards
robots, with a particular focus on domestic use.
A. conducted B. are conducted C. conducting D. which conducted
Question 6. Learning a new language is ________ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. difficult B. most difficult C. the most difficult D. more difficult
Question 7. ________, she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 8. Some people tend to wrongly believe that men are not as good ________ children as women.
A. with B. as C. at D. on
Question 9. Michael returned to his hometown with his family last summer, ________?
A. won't he B. doesn't he C. didn't he D. hasn't he
Question 10. I have left my book in ________ kitchen and I would like you to get it for me.
A. the B. a C. ∅ D. an
Question 11. The police were baffled by the attack as there seemed to be no apparent ________.
A. design B. principle C. motive D. plot
Question 12. Luckily, they successfully ________ the fire and saved all of the children.
A. took out B. put out C. took off D. put off
Question 13. They arranged ________ a surprise party for their grandparents' anniversary last Sunday.
A. throw B. to throw C. throwing D. throws
Question 14. Janny was left to carry a ________ when the project ended in failure although she didn’t have
to take any responsibility for this project.
A. bucket B. bag C. tray D. can
Question 15. While the thief ________ into the house to steal things, he was bitten by a dog.

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A. broke B. breaking C. was breaking D. has broken
Question 16. The teacher ________ her compliments on her students’ excellent performance on the topic of
environmental pollution.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17. Every day, Peter’s mother drives him to school. However, today, he ________ to school by his
father.
A. takes B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 18. Mark is very set in his ways, but John has a more ________ attitude to life.
A. flexible B. flexibly C. flexibility D. flexify
Question 19. I hate the beginning of each year when all the ________ start coming in and I have to find the
money to pay them all.
A. bills B. accounts C. receipts D. estimates
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Ann and John is talking about social network.
- Ann: "Today social network plays an important role in communication.”
- John: “________”
A. It's rubbish B. I'm afraid I don't know
C. I don't agree with you D. You can say that again
Question 21. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “________”
A. That’d be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now. D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. The industrial revolution caused a complete upheaval of the textile industry, with manual
labor being replaced by mechanization and mass production.
A. stability B. catastrophe C. establishment D. disturbance
Question 23. The teacher will see red when he finds out you haven't done your homework again!
A. be maddened B. annoy C. make things difficult D. be calm
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. According to the officials of the MOET, reopening schools is inevitable since the vaccine rate
is high now.
A. unlikely B. doubtful C. unavoidable D. dispensable
Question 25. That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office of chief
inspector.
A. secret B. fascinating C. important D. alarming
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. It is possible that Nancy will come to the fashion show.
A. Nancy may come to the fashion show. B. Nancy should come to the fashion show.
C. Nancy needn’t come to the fashion show. D. Nancy mustn’t come to the fashion show.
Question 27. She started driving to work one month ago.
A. She has driven to work since one month. B. It is one month when she started driving to work.
C. She has driven to work for one month. D. It was one month after she started driving to work.
Question 28. Tom said: “Why do you keep staring at me, Janet?”
A. Tom asked Janet why did she keep staring at him.

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B. Tom asked Janet why she keeps staring at him.
C. Tom asked Janet why she had kept staring at him.
D. Tom asked Janet why she kept staring at him.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. It is essential to provide high school students with adequate career orientation, so they can
make more informative decisions about their future major.
A. essential B. orientation C. informative D. major
Question 30. Neither the Minister nor his colleagues has given an explanation for the chaos in the financial
market last week.
A. Neither B. has given C. for D. financial
Question 31. A turtle differs from all other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their
own.
A. from B. other C. encased D. their
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He is short-sighted. Therefore, he has to wear the glasses.
A. If only he were short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear the glasses.
B. If he hadn’t been short-sighted, he wouldn’t have had to wear the glasses,
C. If he weren’t short-sighted, he wouldn’t have to wear the glasses.
D. Should he not be short-sighted, he won’t have to wear the glasses.
Question 33. Laura thought she wouldn’t be able to pass the final exam. She didn’t have much
preparation for it.
A. Not for a moment did Laura think she would be able to pass the final exam as she didn’t have much
preparation for it.
B. Under no circumstances did Laura think that she could pass the final exam though she had much
preparation for it.
C. By no means did Laura think that she wouldn’t be able to pass the final exam because she didn’t
have much preparation for it.
D. No sooner had Laura thought she wouldn’t be able to pass the final exam than she didn’t have much
preparation for it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental well-being.
A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to (34) ______ our lives.
The study concentrated on the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than
70 years. The participants were asked how much contact they had with friends, children, relatives and
acquaintances. Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (35) ______ to a far
greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these
friends had moved away to (36) ______ city and was independent of factors such as socioeconomic status,
health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships with people to (37) ______
one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health. Stress and tendency towards depression
are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health, such as smoking and drinking, occur less
frequently. (38)_______, our support networks, in times of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and
feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges.
(Source: Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O’Dell)
Question 34. A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand
Question 35. A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance

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Question 36. A. another B. other C. many D. others
Question 37. A. who B. whom C. what D. that
Question 38. A. Otherwise B. For example C. Moreover D. However
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview before reading.
Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which often needs jumping forward
or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another. Also, they activate
and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to
change strategies. Last, they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in
comprehension.
Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They
tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to monitor their
studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content; they may
not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they show little evidence of looking back, or employing “fix-
up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle with learning new information seem to
be unaware that they must extent effort beyond simply reading the content to understand and remember it.
Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of their studying. Their studying may be
disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges with personal organization as well. They
often have difficulty keeping track of materials and assignments, following directions, and completing work
on time. Unlike good studiers who employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-
achieving students use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are
important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all learning tasks,
ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway)
Question 39. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Successful and low-academic achieving students
B. Successful learners and their learning strategies
C. Study skills for high school students
D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning
Question 40. The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to ______?
A. important B. earlier C. forward D. good
Question 41. Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?
A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content
C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs
Question 42. In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use _______.
A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills
C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways
Question 43. The underlined pronoun “They” in the last sentence refers to _______.
A. study strategies B. study skills
C. low-achieving students D. good studiers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Modern civilization is heavily dependent on energy. Without reliable power sources, we couldn’t operate
machines, use transportation, communicate via the Internet, or do many other things. Although everyone
recognizes the importance of energy, deciding what kind of energy the world should use in the future is not a
simple task. The two leading candidates for this role are green energy and nuclear energy.

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Currently, most of the energy we use is derived from fossil fuels. Although this energy source has got us
this far, there are several problems with it. For starters, it is a finite resource which is quickly running out.
Some analysts have even estimated that the Earth could run out of coal and oil within the next 50 years.
Burning fossil fuels also creates large amount of pollution, which is harmful to the environment. Although
fossil fuels still provide the majority of our power, governments are seeking better energy sources to use
going forward.
Green energy is one option that is becoming increasingly attractive. It includes technologies such as solar,
wind, and hydro power. These are seen as clean sources of energy because they cause very little pollution. In
addition, they are completely renewable, so there is no danger that it will run out. The major disadvantage
with green energy sources is that they are not cheap.
The other alternative is nuclear power. Like green energy, it is also a renewable source of power that will
not run out, and it also doesn’t produce air pollution. In addition, nuclear power is more reliable than green
energy, as it doesn’t depend on sunshine, rain, or wind to operate. The major issues with nuclear power are
safety concerns and nuclear waste. Nuclear power plants create a considerable amount of nuclear waste
which is extremely hazardous to people’s health. If they happen to have a meltdown, this could destroy the
surrounding area for years to come.
The recent nuclear disaster in Fukushima, Japan brought this reality into the spotlight once again. In
response, Germany announced it would close down eight of its nuclear plants immediately, and close the
rest by 2022. Meanwhile, other nations refuse to give up on nuclear power, stating that these disasters are
rare. The debate of whether to use green or nuclear power will likely continue for some time. In the end, it is
quite possible that both energy sources will be used to fuel our planet.
(Adapted from Intensive Reading Comprehension Skills)
Question 44. What is the main focus of the passage?
A. Why energy is important B. The energy sources used in the past
C. Comparing future energy solutions D. Discussing how disasters affect power sources
Question 45. The word “finite” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. abundant B. limited C. insufficient D. replaceable
Question 46. According to the passage, what is the main problem with green energy?
A. It creates lots of pollution. B. It costs more money than other solutions.
C. No one is interested in using it. D. It won’t work at all in many nations.
Question 47. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. source of power B. alternative power C. green energy D. nuclear power
Question 48. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Fossil fuels will continue to be the best choice for the future.
B. Nuclear energy will outweigh green energy in the near future.
C. It is easy to decide on the energy solution for the future.
D. A mix of different energy sources will be used in the future.
Question 49. The word “spotlight” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. concern B. attention C. danger D. area of light
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. nuclear power is more expensive than other sources
B. nuclear energy is renewable because it can be replenished
C. nations have different viewpoints about the utility of nuclear power
D. the nuclear disaster in Fukushima made other countries give up on nuclear power

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 19 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

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Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. biologist B. generation C. gender D. argument
Question 2. A. parachutist B. space C. donation D. destination
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. pursuit B. advice C. career D. ticket
Question 4. A. adequate B. upmarket C. tedious D. envious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I really like all the characters in his last film, ________ on a true story about a group of
university students in his hometown.
A. is based B. basing C. based D. is basing
Question 6. My students do the mini-tests __________ with fewer mistakes than the previous term.
A. carefully B. most carefully C. more carefully D. the most carefully
Question 7._________________, they will buy a new house in the countryside.
A. When my parents retired B. As soon as my parents retires
C. After my parents had retired D. Since my parents retired
Question 8. They take all the precaution to _______ their children healthy and strong.
A. bring over B. bring back C. bring together D. bring up
Question 9. She usually spends every afternoon after school on the phone with her friends, _________?
A. doesn’t she B. doesn’t he C. won’t she D. isn’t she
Question 10. ______ women who set up the first women’s refuges in the UK in the 1970s changed the
world.
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø
Question 11. When Mrs. Maxwell died, Mr. Maxwell became a ___________
A. house husband B. grass widow C. widower D. widow
Question 12. The province’s personnel administration department announces to award prizes to the staff
who can ____________ good solution
A. come up with B. catch up with C. go through with D. live up to
Question 13. After leaving for school, my younger sister decided ___________ abroad.
A. to work B. working C. work D. to working
Question 14. A: "Just let me know if there is anything else I can do you for you in case of need, Janet."
B: "Thanks, Mary. I can count on you to help; You've always been a __________.”
A. good deal B. good whip C. close call D. good egg
Question 15. More than fourty people ____ the highest tower when the bomb exploded in one of the
dustbins.
A. visited B. were visiting C. visit D. are visiting
Question 16. You can ask Joekys anything about algebra. He actually has a quite good _____ for a dead-on
calculation.
A. understanding B. head C. knowledge D. ability
Question 17. A new supermarket _______________ in our neighbourhood in June 2024.
A. build B. will be built C. builds D. be built
Question 18. At companies like Google, Apple, Facebook, Amazon, and Netflix, they aim at developing
long-term plans and digital___________.
A. interacts B. interactive C. interactions D. interactional

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Question 19. The technological revolutions and economic development of the 19th century had a
considerable _____ on workers.
A. cause B. efect C. consequence D. impact
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Anne: “Excuse me, would you please tell me ______?”
Johnson: “Certainly. Go straight along here; it’s next to a hospital.”
A. how could we get to the post office B. how can we get to the post office
C. how get to the post office D. how we can get to the post office
Question 21. Jisoo: “I think that the youth are high-flying but inexperienced - Rose: “_____________.”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. Certainly.
C. Are you kidding me? D. It’s a nice of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Because the boss had a bad day, he made an impetuous decision that no one could eat lunch
at their desk.
A. rash B. cautious C. reckless D. temperamental
Question 23. The new manager put the cat among the pigeons by suggesting that the staff might have to
come to work earlier than usual.
A. made a lot of people satisfied B. made a lot of people annoyed
C. made other people disappointed D. made other people nervous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. One of the clearest differences between depression and melancholy is that depression is an
emotional state of resignation, whereas melancholy is something we even desire as it provides this time out
for losing in reflection.
A. mellifluous B. happy C. mournful D. unpleasant
Question 25. The increase in life expectancy can be attributed to healthier lifestyle, better nutrition, and
advances in medical science and technology.
A. deterioration B. breakthroughs C. stealth D. subsidies
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in the meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26. It is possible that she wasn’t in a confused state of mind.
A. She may not be in a confused state of mind.
B. She must not have been in a confused state of mind.
C. She should have been in a confused state of mind.
D. She may not have been in a confused state of mind.
Question 27. I last bought one thing with bitcoin two years ago, which looks like a USB to secure my
funds.
A. I have two years to buy one thing with bitcoin, which look like a USB to secure my funds.
B. I didn’t buy one thing with bitcoin two years ago, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
C. I have bought one thing with bitcoin for two years, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
D. I haven’t bought one thing with bitcoin for two years, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
Question 28. “What are you going to give the name to this cat?”, asked my wife.
A. My wife asked me what was I going to give the name to that cat.
B. My wife asked me what you are going to give the name to this cat.
C. My wife asked me what I was going to give the name to that cat.
D. My wife asked me what you were going to give the name to that cat.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Management has promised to facsimile an easy transition to the new ownership structure.
A. facsimile B. ownership C. to D. has
Question 30. I thought we would talk about how life is so much different for teens today than it is for our
generation in the old days.
A. generation B. it is C. talk about D. different
Question 31. It was Charles Goodyear who began the modern-day plastic revolution when they vulcanized
rubber in 1839, paving the way for the tire.
A. wass B. they C. the way D. who
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. Hoa doesn’t come to class today. She contracts a serious illness
A. If Hoa didn’t contract a serious illness, she would come to class today.
B. In case Hoa didn’t contract a serious illness, she wouldn’t come to class today.
C. If Hoa contracted a serious illness, she won’t come to class today.
D. If Hoa contracted a serious illness, she would come to class today.
Question 33 I noticed that I’d seen her before only after she turned up at the meeting.
A. Only after she turned up at the meeting did I notice that I’d seen her before.
B. No sooner had I noticed that I’d seen her before than she turned up at the meeting.
C. Only after did I notice that I’d seen her before she turned up at the meeting.
D. Only after I noticed that I’d seen her before did she turn up at the meeting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
WHAT IS AI?
Artificial intelligence is the technology that allows machines to possess human-like intelligence. It
means creating intelligence (34) __________. The machines or robots are programmed (35) __________
they think like humans and act like them. It is believed that machines can be programmed to possess
cognitive abilities. AI robots can think, make the most appropriate decisions and learn from past
experiences without any human intervention. This concept is called machine learning (36) ________ is a
sub-branch of artificial intelligence.
Artificial intelligence can be (37) __________ into two different types, namely - weak AI and strong
AI. Weak AI involves performing some tasks like answering questions and performing basic tasks like
setting the alarm, playing music, or making a call. Strong AI refers to performing (38) __________ that
involve problem-solving and decision-making without human intervention. This type of AI is found in
smart robots, self-driving cars.
(Adapted from universal-robots.com)
Question 34. A. articulately B. arduously C. artificially D. immediately
Question 35. A. until B. because C. although D. so that
Question 36. A. which B. who C. where D. what
Question 37. A. controlled B. classified C. generated D. analyzed
Question 38. A. others B. the others C. other D. the other
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43
In the early days of sea travel, seamen on long voyages lived exclusively on salted meat and
biscuits. Many of them died of scurvy, a disease of the blood which causes swollen gums, livid white spots
on the flesh and general exhaustion.

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On one occasion, in 1535, an English ship arrived in Newfoundland with its crew desperately ill.
The men's lives were saved by Iroquois Indians who gave them vegetable leaves to eat. Gradually it came
to be realized that scurvy was caused by some lack in the sailors' diet and Captain Cook, on his long
voyages of discovery to Australia and New Zealand, established the fact that scurvy could be warded off
by the provision of fresh fruit for the sailors.
Nowadays it is understood that a diet which contains nothing harmful may yet result in serious
disease if certain important elements are missing. These elements are called 'vitamins '. Quite a number of
such substances are known and they are given letters to identify them, A, B, C, D, and so on. Different
diseases are associated with deficiencies of particular vitamins.
Even a slight lack of Vitamin C, for example, the vitamin most plentiful in fresh fruit and
vegetables, is thought to increase significantly our susceptibility to colds and influenza.
The vitamins necessary for a healthy body are normally supplied by a good mixed diet, including a
variety of fruit and green vegetables. It is only when people try to live on a very restricted diet, say during
extended periods of religious fasting, or when trying to lose weight, that it is necessary to make special
provision to supply the missing vitamins.
(Adaped from the book Practical Faster Reading)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Oxygen is important to the body.
B. An English ship’s crew were saved in 1535.
C. Supplementing with the necessary vitamins makes sense.
D. Vitamin C is necessary for a healthy body because it is the vitamin most plentiful in fresh fruit and
vegetables.
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, fresh fruit and vegetables ______________
A. increase our susceptibility to influenza. B. contain every kind of vitamin.
C. contain more vitamin C than any other food. D. decrease our resistance to colds.
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Even a good mixed diet, with a variety of fruit and green vegetables, requires to be supplemented with
the necessary vitamins.
B. Iroquois Indians saved the men's lives by giving them vegetable leaves to eat.
C. Dietary deficiencies were discovered to result in scurvy, which was further established by Captain
Cook's successful attempt to counter the disease with supplies of fresh fruit.
D. Even an apparently harmless diet may be very unhealthy if it is not comprehensive enough.
Question 42. The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to _______
A. Newfoundland B. an English ship C. a disease D. exhaustion
Question 43. The word “warded off” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _______
A. kept from hospital wards B. washed off
C. encouraged D. avoided
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50
Due to the nature of our business, it's sometimes necessary that our staff work at night. Night shifts
can be particularly demanding on employee wellbeing and health. This can include disruption to the body
clock, fatigue, sleeping difficulties, disturbed appetite and digestion, reliance on sedatives or stimulants,
social and domestic problems and other symptoms of ill health. To combat this, we do not have employees
on night shifts for extended periods. This is because workers’ bodies will just have started to adapt to the
new pattern.
We find rotation shifts every two to three days are best for workers and weekly or fortnightly
rotations are the least comfortable for workers. Forward-rotating programs (moving from morning to
afternoon to night shifts) are better than backward-rotating ones in terms of sleep loss and tiredness.

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If someone works at night, there are rules covering the hours they work. Night time working hours
are usually between 11 p.m. and 6 a.m. – but this can be flexible and should be discussed between you and
us. To qualify as night working, the night time period must be no more than 8 hours long and include the
period between midnight and 5 a.m. Any of our staff under 18 years are not allowed to be night workers.
We must make sure that you don't work more than an average of 8 hours in a 24-hour period. By law, you
can't opt out of this working limit. We must also keep records of any night workers’ working hours to
prove they aren't exceeding night working limits, and we must keep the records for at least 2 years. These
records can be inspected by you at any time on request.
Our usual limits and regulations for night workers do not apply to self-employed workers. This does
not include agency workers, who are treated as normal workers with us.
If you agree to working at night for us, the agreement will be put in writing. If you are to begin
working at night, we must perform a health assessment before you become a night worker and on a regular
basis after that. Usually, this is just done with a questionnaire, which was created in collaboration with
qualified health professionals. If there are any health questions regarding your health and night work, we
will offer you a follow-up examination by a health professional if you still wish to work nights.
Adapted from IELTS 5 practice Tests
Question 44. Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?
A. Night shifts have great impacts on workers’ wellbeing and health
B. Notes for Employees Considering Night Time Working
C. What should we do when going on business?
D. Rules for Considering Time Working.
Question 45. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______
A. the hours B. someone works at night C. rules D. Night time working hours
Question 46. The word “sedatives” in the paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _______
A. tranquillisers B. drug addictions C. tiredness D. weariness
Question 47. In paragraph 6, who were consulted when creating the health assessment questionnaire?
A. night workers B. a health assessment
C. lead assessors D. qualified health professionals
Question 48. The word “opt out of” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______
A. reject B. pay a visit C. choose not to join D. work overtime
Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The company must retain records relating to night workers’ hours for leastwise 2 years.
B. Under existing regulations, night time working hours are required to be from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m.
C. The maximum length of a night shift at the company is 24 hours.
D. Backward-rotating shift schedules are best for minimising employees’ fatigue.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Night working can be available at any time on workers’ request.
B. It is reasonable for us to work on a night shift in order that we can get extra income.
C. We should take part in many programs in which we can work on night shifts for a long time.
D. We should look into specific regulations relating to night workers if we want to work on a night shift.

ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 20 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:……………………………………………… Số báo danh:............................................

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. eleven B. elephant C. Examine D. exact
Question 2. A. position B. oasis C. Desert D. resort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. airplane B. remark C. worry D. music
Question 4. A. popular B. disabled C. negative D. accurate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. We have just visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage _______in Bac Ninh Province.
A. located B. locating C. which locates D. to locate
Question 6: I think spring is_______than summer..
A. beautiful B. very beautifu C. more beautiful D. the most beautiful
Question 7. _______, she will have graduated from university.
A. By the time she turns 23 B. Once she turned 23
C. After she had turned 23 D. When she will turn 23
Question 8: The children are highly excited______the coming summer holiday.
A. with B. To C. For D. about
Question 9. This report is due today, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. hasn’t it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it
Question 10. In most developed countries, up to 50% of population enters higher education at some
time in their lives.
A. the B. a C. no article D. an
Question 11. Mary tends to _______ a deep tone when she’s very serious about something.
A. embrace B. adopt C. accept D. approve
Question 12. Everyone in the class _______ when the teacher comes in.
A. turns down B. stands up C. gets on D. looks into
Question 13: They decided ___________ to Japan for their summer holiday.
A. going B. to go C. go D. to going
Question 14. Don’t believe in what they say; their predictions are always _______ of the mark.
A. big B. low C. high D. wide
Question 15. When the thief broke in, Harry _______ the dishes in the kitchen.
A. has washed B. washes C. is washing D. was washing
Question 16. If we didn't_______any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever.
A. use B. make C. take D. do
Question 17. Students _______ with necessary skills for future career during this course.
A. have equipped B. had equipped C. will be equipped D. are equipping
Question 18. Her latest book is totally _______ the previous ones.
A. differ B. difference C. different D. differently
Question 19. Patients at highest ______ of complications can be detected based on artificial intelligence
techniques.
A. danger B. risk C. chance D. threat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Paul and Sam are having a barbecue.
- Paul: “Can you give me the knife?” - Sam: “_______”
A. No, thanks. B. Never mind. C. I’m sorry. D. Here you are.

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Question 21. Lam is talking to Mai about tonight’s plan.
- Lam: “Let’s eat out!” - Mai: “_______”
A. You’re welcome. B. Why not? C. Thanks so much. D. Not too bad.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The bank robbers were arrested by the police after 3 days.
A. hit B. caught C. avoided D. offered
Question 23. We had a lovely summer holiday in Rome with fantastic weather.
A. ugly B. clever C. great D. cold
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. With lack of fresh water and poor sanitation, people living in this small area face a threat of
developing infectious diseases.
A. safety B. promise C. possibility D. danger
Question 25. We didn’t make plans in advance; we just did everything on the spur of the moment.
A. rapidly B. intentionally C. slowly D. suddenly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. It’s a good idea for you to practice speaking English every day.
A. You must practice speaking English every day. B. You should practice speaking English every day.
C. You can practice speaking English every day. D. You will practice speaking English every day.
Question 27. The last time I updated my Facebook status was 6 months ago.
A. I haven’t updated my Facebook status for 6 months. B. I have 6 months to update my Facebook status.
C. I started updating my Facebook status 6 months ago. D. I have updated my Facebook status for 6
months.
Question 28. “What have you done to your hair?” she said to her son.
A. She asked her son what to do to his hair.
B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair.
C. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair.
D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Farmers are concerned that their food-bearing plants may be subjective to the rigours of a
harsh winter. A B C D
Question 30. These clothes are being sold at a discount, but few people buy it.
A B C D
Question 31. It’s expected that printed books have been replaced by e-books in the future.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: I didn't pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson.
A. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson.
B. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teache.
C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.
D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.
Question 33: Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting.

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C. Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
WATER: OUR MOST PRECIOUS RESOURCE
There are (34) _______ people around the world who do not have enough water for their daily
needs. And as the world’s population increases, so does the demand for water. Today, nearly 20% of the
world's population live in areas (35) _______ there isn't sufficient fresh water. Not only that, but 25% live
in developing countries that suffer from frequent water (36) _______. They lack the systems necessary to
carry the water from the rivers to where it would be used.
If there is not enough clean water to drink, people will drink water of poor quality. This can increase
the risk of (37) _______ diseases such as cholera and dysentery. Water is a precious resource, but in
countries with above-average rainfall, like the UK or Holland, it is often taken for granted. (38 ) _______,
with anticipated increase in global temperatures in years to come, we should all learn to be less wasteful.
(Adapted from Oxford Exam Trainer by Helen Weale)
Question 34. A. much B. a little C. another D. a lot of
Question 35. A. which B. where C. whose D. when
Question 36. A. habitats B. nutrients C. shortages D. threats
Question 37. A. conducting B. contracting C. concluding D. containing
Question 38. A. However B. Therefore C. For example D. Besides
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
RoboCup is a football competition that has taken place every year since 1997. But the players are
not human; they are robots. The competition's full name is ‘Robot Soccer World Cup’, and the aim is to
create, by the middle of the 21st century, a team of robot footballers that are able to play against and beat
the winners of the real World Cup.
In order for robots to play football, robotics companies have had to develop special technologies. A
robot can't just run onto the field and start kicking the ball. So each robot is fitted with a webcam which is
connected to a computer inside the robot. The robot is able to see where the other players are, where the
goal is and, most importantly, where the ball is. They are programmed to make their own decisions and
during the match the robots' creators are not allowed to tell them what to do. The robots are, however, able
to communicate with other members of their team, via a wireless network.
There is a long way to go before robots will be able to compete against humans. They need to
become more intelligent and become able to react more quickly and anticipate the game. But the
technologies that are being developed for scoring goals have other uses as well. It may be possible to
develop robots that can be used in search and rescue, for example, finding people trapped in buildings after
earthquakes. They may not be as fun to watch as real footballers, but at least they don't demand enormous
salaries!
(Adapted from Solutions 3rd Edition by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A normal football competition B. Robots that play football
C. Robots that are useful for search and rescue D. Footballers and their average salaries
Question 40. According to paragraph 1, what is special about the Robot Soccer World Cup?
A. All of the players are robots. B. Robots help footballers to score goals.
C. It’s created to promote the real World Cup. D. The World Cup’s champions are invited to play there.
Question 41. The word They in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Decisions B. Creators C. Members D. Robots
Question 42. The word react in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

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A. prepare B. support C. respond D. understand
Question 43. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The robots can’t talk with other members or people during the match.
B. The movement of each robot is controlled by the captain of the team.
C. Robot footballers are more exciting than professional players to watch.
D. Robots need increased intelligence and better movements to play against humans.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
A diver descends into an underwater cave, a scientist researches a dangerous disease, and an
entrepreneur invests in a new business. Each time we try something new, we take a risk. Sometimes, like
the diver or the businessman, we take big risks, usually for obvious reasons-for fame, for money, or to save
lives. Most people will take some risk to achieve one of these goals. But as the danger increases, the
number of people willing to go forward decreases. Only extreme risk-takers continue on. The question is:
What exactly drives these people to go on when others would stop?
To answer this question, scientists are studying the biological factors involved in risk-taking. Their
research focuses on certain chemicals in the brain. An important chemical in risk-taking is dopamine. It
motivates us to seek out and learn new things, and it helps us process emotions like anxiety and fear. When
we accomplish a task, dopamine produces a feeling of satisfaction; it makes us feel good. The riskier the
task, the more dopamine we produce, and the better we feel.
Dopamine production may make us feel good, but being in a high-risk situation for an extended
period of time is also stressful and can be dangerous. Successful risk-takers must learn to deal with the fear
associated with high-risk situations to reduce stress and stay safe. In reality, adapting to risk is something
we all learn to do. Take, for example, learning to drive a car. At first, a new driver may be afraid to travel
on freeways. In time, though, as the driver gains experience, he or she will move comfortably into speeding
traffic and will worry less about the danger. The work that marine biologist and deep-sea diver Rhian
Waller does illustrates this well. She studies life in some of the deepest and coldest waters on Earth. How
does Waller control her fear and stay safe in these high-risk situations? "It comes with practice," she says.
"It's knowing exactly what to do when something goes wrong. We prepare well for each of our expeditions,
and we try to minimize the number of risks we take."
Of course, a person doesn't have to be a deep-sea diver to be a risk-taker. Taking risks is part of
being human. We are all motivated to experience new things. In order to do so, we have to take chances
and, of course, we may fail.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer by Nancy Douglas and David Bohlke)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Does Taking Risks Really Help Us Grow? B. Mysteries of Dopamine - A Recipe for Success
C. Being a Risk-Taker: Are You Brave Enough? D. The Nature of Taking Risks
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, one reason why we take large risks is to _______.
A. find people trapped in dangerous situations B. become famous
C. donate money to charity D. help people in need
Question 46. The word drives in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. encourages B. limits C. invites D. prevents
Question 47. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. research B. dopamine C. emotion D. task
Question 48. The word associated in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _______.
A. avoided B. unexpected C. depended D. connected
Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Fewer people are ready to take risks when situations are becoming more dangerous.
B. Dopamine is useful in terms of helping us deal with fear when doing something risky.

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C. In order to get over worry in stressful situations, we have to take some risks.
D. Running a car for the first time can be a frightening experience for new drivers.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Practicing a risky activity can actually reduce the fear of it.
B. Rhian Waller can overcome shyness because she’s an experienced diver.
C. The daunting prospect of failure will certainly deter some people from taking risks.
D. Success is always linked with the desire for trying new things.

DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2023 – MÔN TIẾNG ANH

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 401

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. authentic B. through C. tablecloth D. although
Question 2: A. hide B. find C. drive D. miss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. confirm B. achieve C. apply D. shorten
Question 4: A. justify B. determine C. advertise D. dedicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: When the boss came into the office yesterday, his secretary ______ the document.
A. is typing B. was typing C. has typed D. typed
Question 6: Everyone needs to join hands to build a better ______ .
A. publicity B. diversity C. charity D. community
Question 7: The parcel ______ by the postman when she returns home.
A. delivers B. will deliver
C. will be delivered D. was delivering
Question 8: Carol's father works as ______ electrician.
A. an B. ∅ (no article) C. the D. a
Question 9: A news _______ is broadcasting over a television in the waiting room about natural disasters
occurring nation-wide.
A. journalist B. anchor C. columnist D. correspondent
Question 10: Teenagers nowadays are fascinated ______ computer games.
A. about B. for C. with D. in
Question 11: Henry is thinking of ______ golf but the equipment is too expensive.
A. turning up B. running up C. looking up D. taking up
Question 12: The coffee at this cafe is ______ than the coffee at the one down the street.
A. as delicious B. delicious more C. most delicious D. more delicious
Question 13: He was offered the job thanks to his ______ performance during his job interview.
A. impression B. impress C. impressive D. impressively
Question 14: I can't pretend ______ this complicated math problem.

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A. understanding B. to understand
C. understand D. to understanding
Question 15: Your second essay ______ improvements on the first one.
A. showed B. made C. presented D. cast
Question 16: We’re having milk for our breakfast, ______ ?
A. were we B. do we C. aren’t we D. can we
Question 17: He will book the movie ticket ______ .
A. after she has accepted his invitation B. when she had accepted his invitation
C. while she was accepting his invitation D. once she accepted his invitation
Question 18: My cousin really seems to land on his ______ having won the lottery. He’s never bought any
lottery tickets before.
A. feet B. face C. finger D. hand
Question 19: The book, first ______ in 1970, has sold over a million copies.
A. was publishing B. publishing C. published D. was published
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter is giving compliments on Bill’s new hairstyle.
- Peter: “You look so cool with this hairstyle.”
- Bill: “______”
A. Oh, please say it again! B. I can’t agree with you.
C. Thanks. I had it done yesterday. D. Well, never mind.
Question 21: Sophie and Peter are talking about social distancing.
- Sophie: “I think social distancing helps to reduce and slow the transmission of disease."
- Peter: “______ . Everyone stays at home, so there will be less contact to get infected.”
A. Oh, I don’t know B. I don't think that's a good idea
C. I couldn’t agree more D. I'm not so sure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There's a correlation between smoking and cancer. The more we smoke, the more likely we
are to suffer from lung cancer.
A. concern B. imbalance C. connection D. difference
Question 23: The growing economic disparity between the rich and the poor has become a major social
and political issue in many countries.
A. similarity B. inequality C. opportunity D. sector
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The president was a lame duck during the end of his second term because he pushed his
country into a financial crisis.
A. an important person B. a successful person
C. a famous person D. a polite person
Question 25: The mischievous cat knocked over the vase and then darted away, leaving its owner to clean
up the mess.
A. obedient B. scary C. stubborn D. intelligent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: He started learning French six years ago.
A. He last learned French for six years. B. He has learnt French for six years.
C. He has started learning French for six years. D. He didn’t learn French six years ago.

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Question 27: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
B. My friend asked me where was I studying at that time.
C. My friend asked me where I were studying then.
D. My friend asked me where are you studying now.
Question 28: It is unnecessary for us to worry about our final exam results.
A. We needn’t worry about our final exam results. B. We must worry about our final exam results.
C. We would worry about our final exam results. D. We can’t worry about our final exam results.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: When fuels burn, it produce smoke and invisible gases that mix with clouds.
A. it B. fuels C. invisible D. mix
Question 30: When I see her yesterday, I invited her to come to my house.
A. invited B. house C. to D. see
Question 31: While he provides interesting examples from the past and present to support his views, the
argument is often lost in the torturous language.
A. interesting B. argument C. lost D. torturous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Pauline was interested in the project. It was not abandoned.
A. No sooner had Pauline been interested in the project than it was abandoned.
B. Only when Pauline was interested in the project was it abandoned.
C. Not until Pauline was interested in the project that it was abandoned.
D. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
Question 33: Our favourite restaurant is full. We can't get a table right now.
A. If our favourite restaurant were not full, we could get a table right now.
B. If someone leaves our favourite restaurant, we could get a table.
C. Provided that our favourite restaurant is full, we can't get a table right now.
D. If our favourite restaurant is not full, we will be able to get a table right now.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Testing games
How lucky can you be? Twelve-year-old Eloise Noakes has got the best job in the world – trying out (34)
______ new games. A leading company held a competition to find young testers and Eloise was selected to
test games which are about to be (35) ______ onto the market. Each week she is given a different game to
play before recording her thoughts on a form (36) ______ was designed by the company. As the company
director said, “What better way to find out about games than to put them in the hands of the customers who
will make most use of them?” Eloise is delighted with her new job, but she also takes it very seriously. She
is allowed to keep the games after testing them. (37) ______, she has decided instead to give them away to
children less (38) ______ than herself. “I’ve got plenty of games and some children don’t have any,” she
explained.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools 1, 2015)
Question 34: A. many B. every C. each D. much
Question 35: A. broadcasted B. launched C. produced D. announced
Question 36: A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 37: A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 38: A. impoverished B. fortunate C. disadvantageous D. retarded

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Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Ostriches are the largest and heaviest birds on earth. They can grow to be as tall as 9 feet and can
weigh as much as 250 pounds. Even though they have wings, they cannot fly. Instead, ostriches have long,
powerful legs that help them to run very fast when they feel threatened. Ostriches use their wings to move
themselves forward and to help them change direction.
Ostriches are native to Africa, where they still live in desert areas and dry, open grasslands called
savannah. Ostriches can also be found in zoos all over the world. Humans have domesticated ostriches, so
now ostriches live on farms in over a dozen countries, including the United States, China, India, Japan,
Brazil and Costa Rica. They are raised for their meat, skin, and feathers.
Ostriches like to live in small groups called herds. The male ostrich is called a rooster; the female, a
hen. Baby ostriches are called chicks. The female ostrich lays the eggs, but both the male and the female
take turns sitting on the eggs to keep them warm.
(Adapted from Readtheory.org website)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the male and female ostriches B. the reproduction habit of ostriches
C. distribution and habitat of ostriches D. facts about ostriches and their habits
Question 40. The word threatened in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______ .
A. happy B. bored C. safe D. scared
Question 41. The word them in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. chicks B. eggs C. ostriches D. herds
Question 42. According to the passage, ostriches use their wings to______.
A. fly faster than most other birds B. move forward and change direction
C. keep their eggs warm in the nest D. scare potential predators away
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about ostriches?
A. No birds on the earth are as large as ostriches B. Ostriches are raised for different purposes
C. They have wings to fly like other birds D. They live in many different places now
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50 .
The invention of the airplane , like many great inventions, was initially met with ridicule and disbelief.
Although many people who heard about the first powered flight on December 17, 1903, were excited and
impressed, others reacted with peals of laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive to some people.
Although Orville and Wilbur Wright, the inventors of the first flying machine, were called impulsive fools,
the Wrights continued their experiments in aviation.
Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and mechanics. As
young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and mechanical toys. Later, they designed a
newspaper-folding machine, built a printing press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when they
read about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brother's interest in flight grew into a compulsion.
Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled his gliders by shifting his body in the desired
direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright brothers, however, and they searched for more efficient
methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900 and 1901, the Wrights tested numerous gliders
and developed control techniques. The brothers' inability to obtain enough lift power for the gliders almost
led them to abandon their efforts.
After studying and experimenting with model wings in a wind tunnel, the Wright brothers designed
their first airplane in 1903 for less than one thousand dollars. They even designed and built their own
lightweight gasoline engine. On December 17, they successfully flew the plane for twelve seconds and 120
feet, despite a turbulent start.

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By 1905 the Wrights had perfected the first airplane that could turn, circle, and remain airborne for
half an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons or in hang gliders, but the Wright brothers were the first
to build a full-size machine that could fly under its own power. As the contributors of one of the most
outstanding engineering achievements in history, the Wright brothers are accurately called the fathers of
aviation.
(Adapted from https://www.testprepreview.com/modules/reading1.htm)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Life of the Wright Brothers B. Exceptional Inventions in the World
C. The Invention of the Airplane D. The History of Aviation
Question 45: The word repulsive in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. boring B. unacceptable C. exciting D. ambitious
Question 46: The Wright brothers searched for ways to control the balance of airborne machines by ______.
A. shifting body in the desired direction B. creating enough lifts power for the gliders
C. making numerous gliders with light wings D. developing techniques of hang-gliding
Question 47: The noun compulsion in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ______.
A. problem B. plan C. need D. thought
Question 48: The word them in paragraph 3 refer to ______.
A. gliders B. the Wright brothers C. techniques D. vehicles
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The Wright brothers didn’t like Lilienthal’s idea about controlling gliders.
B. The Wright brothers earned their living by designing and selling kites and toys.
C. The Wright brothers' first airplane could fly 120 feet in 1905.
D. The Wright brothers didn’t give up when their first gliders failed to function properly.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The invention of the airplane wasn’t welcomed at first.
B. Lilienthal’s idea helped the Wright brothers build their airplane.
C. The Wright brothers failed to find out methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles.
D. The experiment of the Wright brothers did not enable them to design a flying machine.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 402

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. school B. charm C. child D. choose
Question 2: A. sane B. plan C. came D. blame
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. relieve B. promise C. describe D. distract
Question 4: A. expensive B. important C. popular D. financial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following

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questions.
Question 5: The documents ______ to the government agency when the secretary finishes copying them.
A. will have submitted B. will be submitted
C. have submitted D. will submit
Question 6: Much to our ______, we had to wait for over an hour to purchase the tickets.
A. disappointment B. anger C. protest D. annoyance
Question 7: Our outstanding players made ______ work of Thailand to earn their first AFF U23 Youth
Championship title.
A. wide B. long C. large D. short
Question 8: The teacher ______ the students to do the assignment efficiently.
A. instructions B. instructive C. instructed D. instructor
Question 9: The mother ______ her son’s temperature to see if he had a fever.
A. took B. did C. made D. ran
Question 10: The company will fail ______ if it doesn't adapt to market changes.
A. to succeeding B. to succeed C. succeeding D. succeed
Question 11: The magician is ______ than the assistant.
A. talented B. the most talented
C. more talented D. as talented
Question 12: I believe they are about to ______ a law that bans people from public places if they're
smoking.
A. cut out B. set in C. bring in D. turn on
Question 13: When I entered the room, my daughter ______ the Internet.
A. has surfed B. was surfing C. is surfing D. surfed
Question 14: The company ______ by a larger corporation, is now a subsidiary.
A. acquired B. was acquired C. acquiring D. acquires
Question 15: Our task is too difficult to accomplish, ______?
A. was it B. wasn’t it C. is it D. isn’t it
Question 16: My son is excited ______ going to the zoo with his classmates.
A. on B. of C. in D. about
Question 17: Investigators usually assess the crime ______, collect evidence, prepare reports and testify in
court.
A. vision B. sight C. view D. scene
Question 18: I will contact you ______.
A. as soon as I get the information about the course
B. as soon as I was getting the information about the course
C. as soon as I had got the information about the course
D. as soon as I got the information about the course
Question 19: ______ European Union has implemented new policies to address climate change.
A. The B. ∅ (no article) C. An D. A
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Jennie is inviting Jason to join her volunteer group this summer.
- Jennie: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer, Jason?”
- Jason: “______”
A. Yes, I’d love to. B. Sorry I am busy now.
C. Well done. D. Me neither.
Question 21: Ted and Kate are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."

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- Kate: “______. It is an essential life skill.”
A. I couldn't agree with you more B. You can make it
C. Oh, that's a problem D. Not at all
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: It was really difficult for him to determine whether to take part in the race or not.
A. believe B. decide C. examine D. think
Question 23: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the inner cities.
A. solve B. pose C. encounter D. cause
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Some of the passengers looked green around the gills after the trip! Their faces turned pale.
A. felt a sharp pain in their feet B. became very exhausted
C. were in need of sleep D. had a lot of energy
Question 25: Skills can be enhanced by the appropriate use of technology in certain circumstances.
A. irregular B. regular
C. extensive D. unsuitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
B. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
C. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
D. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
Question 27: I last went to the cinema six months ago.
A. I didn’t go to the cinema for six months. B. I haven’t gone to the cinema for six months.
C. I have gone to the cinema for six months. D. I went to the cinema for six months.
Question 28: It is not necessary for you to wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
A. You shouldn’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
B. You would wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
C. You must wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
D. You needn’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My former friend, together with his wife, pays a visit to my family last Sunday.
A. Sunday B. former C. pays D. with
Question 30: The comic books include numerate colour photographs, but many of them are not sharp or
their colours are washed out.
A. comic B. sharp C. numerate D. washed out
Question 31: The native teachers used the advanced English vocabulary in his presentation, so students
don’t understand the lesson.
A. lesson B. so C. his D. advanced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: If Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
A. Only when Pauline hadn’t been interested would the project not have been abandoned.
B. Not until Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project wouldn’t have been abandoned.
C. No sooner had Pauline had been interested than the project would have been abandoned.

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D. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
Question 33: They don’t have enough money. They can’t buy a new car.
A. If they had had enough money, they could have bought a new car.
B. If they had enough money, they could buy a new car.
C. Provided they have a lot of money, they can’t buy a new car.
D. If they had enough money, they couldn’t buy a new car.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Berrak: A Pianist
A typical day now involves a couple of hours practice in the morning before going into college and
attending classes. I spend a lot of time in the library, listening to music, trying to learn and become familiar
with new pieces of music. One downside to choosing to study and (34) ______ a career in music is that you
end up spending hours and hours by yourself. However, I also try to spend time at college meeting other
people and networking. The more musicians I know, the more likely I am to be asked to play for others. The
more I play, the better known I become and in the music business it's all about recognition and getting your
name out there. (35) ______, it's important to get involved in as many performances as possible and take
part in competitions so that as many people as possible see you perform and know who you are. It’s a very
(36) ______ industry. Ultimately, if I am asked to play and get given a job it means that someone else loses
work and sometimes it feels like a constant battle. You can't help being drawn into an artificial world (37)
______ you are constantly comparing yourself to others and are always worried about what (38) ______
think of your performances. In the real world outside of college your audience is much wider.
(Adapted from “FCE Practice Test” by Karen Dyer and Dave Harwood)
Question 34: A. pursue B. catch C. look D. retreat
Question 35: A. Moreover B. But C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36: A. relaxing B. aggressive C. entertaining D. competitive
Question 37: A. where B. which C. that D. whom
Question 38: A. another B. much C. others D. many

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Lifelong learning is now becoming a must for everyone in the modern world. Many people, however,
find it overwhelming, as being lifelong learners means they will have to keep studying for their entire life.
The following are several strategies to promote lifelong learning.
First, start with a clear purpose. Study something that you will likely have many uses in the future.
Design learning goals that should serve you in your career path, as well as in your personal interests. You
will need to think of the learning experience as continuous investment rather than a one-off endeavor.
Second, choose something that is really enjoyable for you. You will need to have fun all through the
pursuit of knowledge and skills, which will be an endless journey. The ‘fun' part will always keep you
motivated, even during the hard times.
Third, lifelong learning is not just about keeping on studying; you will need to think through what you
have learned, and find out how to apply it in your work and personal life. Don't read too much and use your
brain too little. Think more often; meditate on the ideas that you feel might make your work and/or life
better.
Those are the key strategies to make sure your lifelong learning is studying smart rather than studying
hard. Remember, the lifelong learning movement is unstoppable.
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Strategies to promote lifelong learning B. How to choose something to study
C. How to keep on studying all the time D. Education – the preparation for life

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Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. clear purpose B. entire life C. modern world D. lifelong learning
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, to become a smart lifelong learner, you should ______.
A. define a specific objective B. avoid designing a learning goal
C. study anything you like D. neglect the learning experience
Question 42: The word “motivated” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. discouraged B. inspired C. scared D. amused
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about strategies for lifelong learning?
A. We should motivate ourselves to learn effectively
B. We should choose something that we have an interest in
C. We should use our brain in a lot of reading
D. We should apply our knowledge in work and life
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
People who daydream are often thought of in negative terms, such as being lazy or not doing what they
should be doing. However, scientists who study the brain have learned many interesting things, especially
from studying the brains of daydreamers. In fact, far from being a waste of time, some scientists believe that
daydreaming is a healthy and useful activity for all of our brains.
In order to study the brain, scientists use special devices that scan the brain and show pictures of which
parts of the brain are active at certain times. When a person is daydreaming, the device will show a distinct
pattern of activity in the brain called the “default” mode of thinking. In the default mode, the top or outside
part of the brain is very active. Actually, several regions of the brain are interacting in this mode. Some
scientists describe this mode as a time when the brain focuses on itself rather than focusing on the
environment around the person. Typically, this occurs when a person is doing simple, tedious work or
performing routine actions that don’t need much attention, like walking to school or cooking simple foods.
People tend to daydream during such activities.
The importance of daydreaming lies in developing both creative and social skills. When the mind is not
engaged in dealing with one’s immediate situation or problem, then it is free to wander. A time of
wandering allows the mind to create things. New inventions may be imagined, or possible solutions to a
problem can be planned. For example, solutions for problems in relationships with other people may come
to mind. In fact, most daydreams involve situations with others. Perhaps these are daydreams based on
memories of the past, or daydreams of what might be in the future. In either case, daydreams help us
develop the appropriate skills we can use in real interactions with others.
As a neurologist, Dr. Marcus Raichle of Washington University explains: “When you don’t use a
muscle, that muscle really isn’t doing much. But when your brain is supposedly doing nothing and
daydreaming, it’s really doing a tremendous amount.” During the so-called “resting state” the brain isn’t
resting at all!
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 3, Second edition, by Casey Malarcher & Anderea Janzen)
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
A. How to Avoid Daydreaming and Stay Focused
B. Negative Effects of Daydreaming on the Brain
C. Daydreaming: A Waste of Time or a Useful Activity?
D. The Benefits of Daydreaming on Brain Development
Question 45: The word distinct in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. stable B. changing C. complex D. particular
Question 46: In order to research the brain, the scientists ______.
A. employ unique scanning instruments B. observe people while they sleep
C. scan the “default” mode of thinking D. create a distinct pattern of its activity

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Question 47: The word it in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. daydreaming B. the mind C. the problem D. situation
Question 48: The word tremendous in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. adequate B. enormous C. limited D. deficient
Question 49: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The brain concentrates more on the external environment than itself in the default mode.
B. Several regions of the brain are working together in default mode.
C. Daydreamers may come up with a solution to a complicated problem.
D. A person with straightforward, monotonous labor is prone to daydreaming.
Question 50: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. Daydreaming is a good measure to reduce the stresses of everyday life.
B. People who often daydream are often seen as being unproductive or lazy.
C. The brain is active when a person is performing complex tasks.
D. The brain is constantly active even when we are not consciously using it.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 403

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cell B. coach C. come D. cook
Question 2: A. soft B. note C. close D. comb
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. urban B. intact C. legal D. early
Question 4: A. appearance B. requirement C. position D. livelihood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The singer is _________than the dancer.
A. the most talkative B. more talkative C. as talkative D. talkative
Question 6: Most of the employees in the company couldn’t _________ the point of joining further training
courses in August.
A. take B. see C. mind D. have
Question 7: The successful applicant for the _________ will be a well-motivated self-starter who has
excellent communication skills.
A. situation B. position C. condition D. location
Question 8: The postcards _________ to you as soon as you arrive in London.
A. will send B. will be sent C. sent D. have sent
Question 9: The children _________ football happily in the yard when a boy suddenly cried out.
A. have played B. are playing C. played D. were playing
Question 10: They invited architects _________ their designs for a new shopping mall.

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A. submitting B. to submitting C. submit D. to submit
Question 11: _________, we will take her to our favourite seafood restaurant.
A. When Sandra was visiting us this coming weekend
B. When Sandra will visit us this coming weekend
C. When Sandra visited us this coming weekend
D. When Sandra visits us this coming weekend
Question 12: Squid Game is not appropriate for kids under the age of 17, _________.
A. doesn’t it B. isn’t it C. is it D. does it
Question 13: The theory_________ by Albert Einstein is still widely accepted.
A. proposed B. proposes C. was proposed D. proposing
Question 14: Red is the symbol of danger because it _________ among other colours.
A. stands out B. stands by C. takes off D. settles down
Question 15: Because of the _________ and the power of their numbers, these organizations command
deep loyalty from the workers.
A. habit B. routine C. manner D. tradition
Question 16: I think that up to now there has not been a real _________ between men and women.
A. equality B. equal C. equally D. equalize
Question 17: Can you give me _________ piece of paper, please?
A. ∅ (no article) B. an C. a D. the
Question 18: Many people in Britain are fond _________ doing the gardening
A. of B. about C. in D. for
Question 19: My father has turned over a new _________and he is not smoking anymore.
A. leaf B. branch C. flower D. book
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter is talking to Jack about his homework.
- Peter: This homework is really hard. Can you help me, Jack?
- Jack: _________. I’ve just finished it.
A. Don’t mention it B. Sorry
C. Sure D. I’d like to
Question 21: Suri is talking to her roommate about the Olympic Games.
- Suri: Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?
- Kate: ______ . We can’t afford such a big event.
A. You can say that again B. Yes, you’re right
C. I can’t agree with you more D. No, I don’t think so
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She wondered if the diverse butterflies she saw in the yard were among the species her dad
had imported.
A. colorful B. beautiful C. different D. similar
Question 23: Sarah is very outgoing; however, her brother is quite reserved. He rarely shows his feelings
or thoughts to others.
A. calm B. open C. shy D. gentle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Our pianist had fallen ill, and then, at the eleventh hour, when we thought we'd have to
cancel the performance, Jill offered to replace him.
A. at midnight B. at the first moment C. at the last moment D. at the end

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Question 25: Basically, everything is the same; however, there may be some minor changes to the
schedule.
A. major B. slight C. small D. gradual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where I was studying now.
B. My friend asked me where I had been studying at that time.
C. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
D. My friend asked him where I were studying then.
Question 27: She started working for this company many years ago.
A. She has started working for this company for many years
B. She has been working for this company for many years.
C. She hasn’t worked for this company for many years.
D. She didn’t work for this company for many years.
Question 28: My parents don’t allow me to stay up late watching TV.
A. I needn’t stay up late watching TV. B. I don’t have to stay up late watching TV.
C. I mustn’t stay up late watching TV. D. I shouldn’t stay up late watching TV.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Many parents are concerned about the health hazards of having his children spend so many
hours staring at a screen.
A. staring B. his C. concerned D. hazards
Question 30: As soon as I will finish this project, I’ll take a vacation to relax.
A. As soon as B. take C. will finish D. to relax
Question 31: After Peter left school, he had the narrowest escape possible of intruding himself into
another place of accommodation for distinguishable people.
A. narrowest B. accommodation
C. possible D. distinguishable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Pauline was interested in the project. It was not abandoned.
A. No sooner had Pauline been interested in the project than it was abandoned.
B. Only when Pauline was interested in the project was it abandoned.
C. Not until Pauline was interested in the project that it was abandoned.
D. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
Question 33: She eats out all the time. She can’t save much money.
A. She could save a lot of money if she ate out all the time.
B. She could have saved much money if she hadn’t eaten out all the time.
C. She can’t save much money unless she eats out all the time.
D. She could save so much money if she did not eat out all the time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Miracle liquid
There is a long and rich history of using honey as medicine, especially in ancient times. Some
records show that people have used honey as a balm, an inebriant, a psychoactive substance, or as a poison.
Multiple contemporary studies suggest that honeys from honeybees and stingless bees have antimicrobial,
anti-inflammatory, and wound-healing (34) _________ .

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Stingless bees make honey with chemicals (35) _________ ward off microbial and fungal growth, an
adaptation to keep the substance from spoiling in the tropics. Given the wide variety of plant biodiversity in
the Amazon, and the incredible range of botanical chemicals the bees mix into their honeys and wax, it’s
also no surprise it has medicinal value. Indeed, some call such honey a miracle liquid.
Already, people in the tropics use (36) _________ types of stingless bee honeys and wax from their
hives to treat upper respiratory infections, skin conditions, gastrointestinal problems, and even to treat
diabetes and cancer. (37) _________ research has begun providing a hint of support for some of these uses,
much of it is still preliminary. More investigations into the honey’s medicinal benefits is (38) _________
needed, says David Roubik, an expert on stingless bees at the Smithsonian Tropical Research Institute in
Panama.
Question 34: A. qualifications B. properties C. distinctions D. skills
Question 35: A. who B. whose C. which D. when
Question 36: A. every B. another C. others D. many
Question 37: A. Though B. However C. Moreover D. Because
Question 38: A. questionably B. urgently C. blissfully D. doubtingly
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
When he was nine years old, Felix Finkbeiner gave a class presentation on climate change. The
young German spoke about deforestation and its effect on the planet. At the end of his talk, he challenged
the people of his country to help by planting one million trees. Nobody thought much would come of a nine-
year-old’s school project. Before he was 20, however, Finkbeiner’s efforts had resulted in the planting of
more than 14 billion trees around the world.
Finkbeiner and his classmates began the project - named ‘Plant-for-the-Planet’ - by planting the first
tree outside their school. Other schools followed the example, and news of the one-million challenge spread.
As a result, Finkbeiner was asked to speak at the European Parliament. Other invitations soon followed, and
when he was just 13, he spoke at a United Nations conference in New York. “We cannot trust that adults
alone will save our future,” he said in the speech. “We have to take our future in our hands.”
Finkbeiner is now in his twenties, and Plant-for-the-Planet is an organization with around 70,000
members. It works to teach people about climate change and to encourage the planting of more trees.
Germany’s one millionth tree was planted long ago. The goal now is one trillion - 150 for every person on
Earth.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer by Becky Tarver Chase and David Bohlke)
Question 39: What is the reading mainly about?
A. The problems that deforestation can cause for our planet
B. The effects climate change has on our planet
C. How planting trees can help the environment
D. How a young person has made a big difference to the environment
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what happened to Finkbeiner after his “Plant-for-the -Planet”
project had a widespread impact?
A. He discussed the problem of climate change with world leaders.
B. He made a presentation at a United Nations conference in New York.
C. He received an offer to make a speech at the European Parliament.
D. He had to confront many challenges.
Question 41: In the third paragraph, what does the word It refer to?
A. “Plant-for-the-Planet” organization B. Germany's one millionth tree
C. Climate change D. Goal
Question 42: The word deforestation in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______
A. the increase of temperature B. the planting of trees

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C. the cutting down of trees D. the decrease of temperature
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Felix Finkbeiner delivered a class presentation on climate change.
B. “Plant-for-the-Planet” encourages people to plant more trees.
C. Germany’s one trillionth tree was planted when Felix was nine years old.
D. The first tree of the project was planted outside Felix’s school.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Over the last several decades, environmental specialists have proposed various strategies aimed at
slowing down this process of deforestation in developing countries. Many of these proposals are indeed
valuable ideas in that they are realistic attempts to address some of the causes of deforestation, such as
farming, cattle ranching, and commercial logging. All of them rely on government involvement of some
kind.
There are three broad categories of solutions: state economic policies, internal agreements, and
international programs. Economic policies generally attempt to limit the activity of small farmers through
government action. Government actions can include the clear proper definition and enforcement of property
rights, meaning that squatting, or illegally setting on land, would be more difficult. Subsidies can be used to
encourage conservation. That is, money may be paid to supplement the income of those farmers who make
an effort to reduce the usual amount of damage to the forest that their farms cause. In addition, taxes can act
as a deterrent to undesirable land use.
An internal agreement may be made between governments and indigenous or native people living in the
moist rainforests and open woodlands of the tropics, where the vast majority of this deforestation is
occurring. Such an agreement would allow people to carry on traditional activities adapted for some
economic benefit.
Finally, international agreements usually involve the exchanges of monetary aid in return for
government action to protect its forests. One such plan seeks to help pay a nation’s debt in exchange for
restrictions on certain kinds of activities in rainforests. Instead of selling logging concessions to pay down
that obligation, the government receives money for banning or restricting logging in its forests. There is also
the proposal of a global fund created in order to grant money to countries that choose to protect their
environments.
It is clear that something must be done to protect the forests of the world. If the current rate of
deforestation continues, the world’s rainforests will vanish within 100 years, causing numerous adverse
effects on the global climate and eliminating the majority of plant and animal species on the planet.
(Adapted from Mastering skills TOEFL IBT Advanced)
Question 44: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Suggestions for indigenous peoples and governments to modern environmental situations.
B. Several plans for minimizing the adverse environmental effects of deforestation.
C. Environmental experts have been concerned about the impact of deforestation.
D. Governments should provide economic incentives for responsible land use.
Question 45: The word them in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the causes of deforestation B. decades
C. developing countries D. proposals
Question 46: The word deterrent in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. punishment B. incentive C. hindrance D. improvement
Question 47: According to paragraph 4, an international agreement is ______.
A. between countries B. more effective than an internal agreement
C. among indigenous groups D. in state economic policies
Question 48: The word vanish in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.

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A. disappear B. develop C. flourish D. remain
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. All of the proposals count on government participation.
B. State economic policies can be one of three broad categories of solutions.
C. Internal agreements are likely to help poor countries to pay national debt.
D. Government can offer subsidies to enhance preservation.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. State economic policies are more effective than international agreements.
B. Indigenous people in the tropics depend on forestry to make money.
C. The three types of solutions mentioned will save the rainforests.
D. Deforestation is not a very serious problem.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 404

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. three B. think C. truth D. bathe
Question 2: A. shake B. hand C. blame D. mate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. abundant B. primary C. popular D. various
Question 4: A. capture B. exchange C. improve D. upgrade
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Some people often say that using cars is ______ than using motorbikes.
A. more convenient B. convenient
C. as convenient D. the most convenient
Question 6: I will call you immediately ______.
A. when I had landed at the airport B. when I land at the airport
C. when I landed at the airport D. when I will land at the airport
Question 7: Vietnam ______ many millions of dollars a year from coffee exports.
A. takes B. wins C. gains D. earns
Question 8: When the international students have any problems, they ______by their teachers.
A. will be helped B. were helped C. are helping D. will help
Question 9: His accountant had been cooking the ______ for years so he was finally caught and sent to
prison.
A. leaflets B. books C. newspapers D. magazines
Question 10: The police arrived at the ______ of the accident within minutes.
A. view B. scenery C. scene D. vision
Question 11: She ate ______ bread with butter in the morning.
A. an B. the C. ∅ (no article) D. a

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Question 12: I ______ my bike in the countryside when I caught sight of a long snake.
A. rode B. am riding C. ride D. was riding
Question 13: Your sister dedicates herself to her career, ______ ?
A. isn't she B. won't she C. didn't she D. doesn't she
Question 14: The video appears ______ a global class learning a foreign language.
A. showing B. show C. to show D. to showing
Question 15: The students are supposed to describe the ______ that they find most useful for learning
English.
A. application B. applicable C. applicably D. apply
Question 16: The salad is made ______ a combination of greens and other veggies.
A. of B. by C. from D. in
Question 17: It is standard ______ for the company to refuse to give refunds without a receipt.
A. practice B. routine C. custom D. habit
Question 18: Air France’s jets, ______ specially for the World Cup with designs featuring football stars,
transported the various teams around the France during the event
A. painting B. were painted C. were painting D. painted
Question 19: This guide will help the learners ______ their difficult exam with flying colours.
A. go up B. get along C. ask out D. get through
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Selena is asking for permission.
- Selena: “Would you mind if I stayed a few more minutes?”
- Katy: “______”
A. I’m afraid that it is possible. B. I’m not sure.
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it. D. No, of course not.
Question 21: Peter and his mother are talking about his job in the future.
- Mother: “I think you should work as a teacher of English in the future.”
- Peter: “______ . I want to go to medical school and become a surgeon.”
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I didn’t say anything
C. I’m afraid I disagree D. Yes. It’s very exciting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many consumers are dubious about the reliability of the cars so they want to check before
taking them on a long trip.
A. curious B. certain C. suspicious D. excited
Question 23: In Roman times, a sophisticated technology brought running water into private homes and
public bathhouses.
A. terrible B. complicated C. funny D. modern
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: To learn to speak a language properly, you have to live in the country where that language is
spoken.
A. appropriately B. attentively C. decisively D. incorrectly
Question 25: Peter seems bossy, but in fact his wife wears the trousers in their relation.
A. is active B. is honest C. is passive D. is dangerous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It’s obligatory for teachers to change their teaching methods.

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A. Teachers should change their teaching methods.
B. Teachers must change their teaching methods.
C. Teachers may change their teaching methods.
D. Teachers need to change their teaching methods.
Question 27: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
B. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
C. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
D. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
Question 28: Ms. Hoa started working as a career consultant ten years ago.
A. Ms Hoa last worked as a career consultant for ten years.
B. Ms. Hoa has been working as a career consultant for ten years.
C. Ms. Hoa hasn’t worked as a career consultant for ten years.
D. Ms. Hoa didn’t work as a career consultant for ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: In South Korea, the national government built English immersion schools all
over the country so far.
A. built B. immersion C. South Korea D. over
Question 30: On April 15, the Health Ministry of Viet Nam issued vaccine passports that the general
public can use to travel in line with their schedule.
A. On B. their C. issued D. general
Question 31: The current restructuring of the advisable service provides a timely opportunity to address
some of these issues
A. address B. current C. advisable D. opportunity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: If Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
A. Not until Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project wouldn’t have been abandoned.
B. Only when Pauline hadn’t been interested would the project not have been abandoned.
C. No sooner had Pauline had been interested than the project would have been abandoned.
D. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
Question 33: The office is closed. We can't get any work done today.
A. Provided that the office is open, we can't get any work done today.
B. If the office were open, we could get some work done today.
C. If the office were open, we wouldn't be able to get any work done today.
D. If the office is not closed, we can get some work done today.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Initially seen purely as centres of entertainment, zoos were often heavily criticised in society for
keeping animals captive. Nowadays, however, zoos have a lot more to offer than perhaps some people
realise. Good zoos have changed their focus and are now (34) ______ to environmental problems, such as
the decline in wildlife and loss of habitat. Indeed, scientists believe that a third of (35) ______ animal and
plant species on Earth risk extinction within this century.
The modern zoo, (36) ______, has developed dramatically as a major force in conserving
biodiversity worldwide. Zoos linked with the Association of Zoos and Aquariums participate in Species
Survival Plan Programmes, (37) ______ involve captive breeding, reintroduction programmes and public
education to ensure the survival of many of the planet's threatened and endangered species.

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Captive breeding is the process of breeding animals outside their natural environment in (38)______
conditions such as farms, zoos or other closed areas. It is a method used to increase the populations of
endangered species, in order to prevent extinction. One of the main challenges facing captive breeding
programmes, however, is maintaining genetic diversity.
(Adapted from Cambridge English - Mindset for IELTS 2 )
Question 34: A. responding B. reacting C. replying D. returning
Question 35: A. much B. every C. all D. few
Question 36: A. however B. otherwise C. for example D. therefore
Question 37: A. which B. that C. who D. where
Question 38: A. limited B. restricted C. constrained D. reduced
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
When you flush the toilet or take a shower, the water goes down the drain. But then what happens?
Does it go directly into the rivers or the sea? No. The wastewater needs special treatment to make it clean
and usable again. Let’s follow the journey of wastewater.
Once wastewater goes down the drain, it enters a sewer pipe underground. The pipe takes the
wastewater to a sewage treatment plant. The first step of the sewage treatment process is to remove large
objects from the water. After that, the wastewater is sent to large tanks, where the solid waste sinks to the
bottom. Then, the solid waste is separated from the water until only tiny bits remain.
The water is then moved to the next treatment area. Here, air is pumped into the water. The air helps
bacteria eat the tiny bits of solid waste. Finally, some chemicals are added to kill the harmful bugs you can’t
see.
The water is clean now and ready to be released and sent back into the water supply. It can be used for
everything from watering gardens to filling swimming pools. It’s even used to make drinking water! At last,
the water has returned to us once again.
(Adapted from Subject links Level 4 by Build & Grow)
Question 39: What is this passage mainly about?
A. The importance of clean water B. The use of water in cleaning
C. The way to stop wasting water D. The process of cleaning wastewater
Question 40: What is the final step in treating wastewater?
A. Add chemicals to kill the harmful bugs B. Pump air into the water at the next treatment area
C. Remove solid waste from the water D. Eliminate large objects from the water
Question 41: The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. wastewater B. drain C. sewer pipe D. treatment plant
Question 42:The phrase At last in the last paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. Firstly B. Finally C. Immediately D. Initially
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Wastewater goes through treatment before it can be reused.
B. Treated water is so clean that it can be drunk without boiling.
C. Chemicals are removed from wastewater during the treatment process.
D. Large objects are the first things to be removed from wastewater .
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
While the written word has done much to preserve history, pictures are necessary to supplement the
printed page. No other section of the American frontier has been so richly endowed with a pictorial record of
its past as has the area encompassed by the headwaters of the Missouri River and its tributary, the
Yellowstone. For almost a century, beginning in the 1830s, artists with pencil and brush added to this

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record. Although paintings and drawings often provide a very valuable record, when pictures are considered
from the standpoint of exactness, the work of the photographer must come first.
In the spring of 1886, a 30-year-old sodbuster who had worked briefly as a photographer back East hit
upon the idea of producing an album of his fellow settlers. For the next 15 years, as the pioneer era drew to a
close, Solomon Butcher crisscrossed Custer County, Nebraska, in a wagon that served as his studio. He
announced his forays with notices in the local newspaper: "Farmers, have your farm photos taken for
Butchery Pioneer History." The fact that Butcher was himself a farmer provided rapport with his subjects.
But his genius as a photographer lay in allowing them to pose as they wished, against scenes of their own
choosing. The portraits that resulted convey the dignity of pioneers in challenging circumstances, and they
remain a classic record of a resolute breed.
Another pictorial account of the American frontier was left by L. Huffman, a young man of pioneer
stock who arrived in the Montana Territory in 1878 to work as a post photographer. When he died in 1931,
Huffman left a priceless collection of pictures of Indians in the last days of buffalo-skin tepees, the buffalo
hunters in the days of the open range, the lonely life of the sheepherder, the growth of the range towns, the
coming of the railroads, and the final infiltration of the "plow man."
(Source: The Heineman Toefl Preparation Course)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Enterprising Young Frontiersmen in America B. Photographic Accounts of the American Frontier
C. A story of Butchery Pioneer History D. Art Development in America
Question 45: The word "rapport" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______.
A. spontaneous entertainment B. mutual understanding
C. slight acquaintance D. artistic skill
Question 46: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to______.
A. the scenes B. the circumstances C. the portraits D. the pioneers
Question 47: According to the passage, Butcher was most noted for______.
A. his advertising techniques B. his compatibility with his clients
C. the poses and settings of his portraits D. the technical ability he demonstrated in photography
Question 48: The word "priceless" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______.
A. expensive B. limited C. rustic D. valuable
Question 49: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the photographers?
A. Butcher traveled around Custer County in his own vehicle.
B. Butcher’s photography was generally unrealistic.
C. Huffman began his career in the Montana Territory in the late 1870s.
D. Indians’ life was depicted in many of Huffman’s photos.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph about life on the western
frontier during Huffman's lifetime?
A. It changed greatly. B. It was very romantic.
C. It was industrially based. D. It attracted national attention.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 405

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shine B. wish C. mice D. light
Question 2: A. hospital B. hope C. hospitable D. honest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. sacrifice B. chemistry C. energy D. employment
Question 4: A. begin B. complain C. ensure D. manage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Do you think that it is going to rain heavily? – I think it is in the ______ .
A. cards B. clear C. dark D. back
Question 6: Exercising regularly is ______ than sitting for long periods of time in front of a screen.
A. as beneficial B. most beneficial
C. more beneficial D. the most beneficial
Question 7: The results of the inquiry may lend ______ to the claims made by the scientist.
A. weight B. depth C. gravity D. pressure
Question 8: Have you ever eaten ______ oysters before?
A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. a
Question 9: The old shopping centre was ______ to make room for an international university.
A. taken back B. brushed down C. pulled down D. put down
Question 10: You will find something useful for your project ______ .
A. when you read that book B. before you will read that book
C. while you were reading that book D. after you had read that book
Question 11: Don't forget ______ the goldfish in the tank when I am on holiday.
A. to feeding B. feed C. to feed D. feeding
Question 12: The Hydro-Ram is a wonderful ______ which makes it easier for firemen to get people out
of crashed cars.
A. inventively B. invention C. inventive D. invent
Question 13: The new illness, ______ by a doctor in Nigeria, has not yet been named.
A. was discovered B. discovering
C. to be discovered D. discovered
Question 14: The students were worried that they wouldn't be able to ______ the deadline for the
assignment.
A. beat B. match C. answer D. meet
Question 15: Your mother is an English teacher, ______ ?
A. isn’t she B. was she C. is she D. does she
Question 16: The gate ______when my father has free time.
A. was repaired B. is going to repair
C. will be repaired D. repairs
Question 17: I enjoy talking to people who have a good ______ of humour.
A. sense B. personality C. quality D. characteristic
Question 18: Chat GPT is famous ______ its quick finding of any questions.
A. of B. for C. about D. with
Question 19: We ______ through the park when we heard the bomb explode.
A. have run B. ran C. were running D. are running
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.

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Question 20: Mary and John are talking about drinking water at night.
-Marry: “I don’t think we should drink too much water at night”.
-John: “______ . This can interrupt your sleep cycle and negatively impact heart health.”
A. I have no idea B. I’m afraid that I can’t agree with you
C. You can say it again D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 21: Ann is new in Hanoi and she is on the road now.
- Ann: “Excuse me, is there a supermarket near here?”
- Pedestrian: “______”
A. It’s over there. B. It’s alright.
C. Yes, you’ll go. D. It’s not nice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The school implemented a new grading system to provide students with more detailed
feedback on their assignments.
A. changed B. applied C. ignored D. improved
Question 23: The student service center will try its best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job.
A. employ B. support C. allow D. protect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: After getting lost in the unfamiliar city, he lost his bearings and had no idea how to get back
to his hotel.
A. found his hotel B. regained his sense of direction
C. was unable to determine the direction D. behaved impolitely
Question 25: There were hilarious scenes when the cow ran into the shop and the shop assistant didn’t
know what to do.
A. strange B. humorous
C. amusing D. boring
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: She last met him when she graduated from high school.
A. She has not met him since she graduated from high school.
B. She last met him since she graduated from high school.
C. The last time she met him since she graduated from high school
D. She didn’t meet him when she graduated from high school.
Question 27: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
B. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
C. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
D. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
Question 28: It is necessary for you to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.
A. You may object to educating yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and
travel articles.
B. You don’t have to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and
travel articles.
C. You should educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and travel
articles.

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D. You mustn’t be required to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading
guidebooks and travel articles.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The poor old man was unable to explain what was going on to their family.
A. explain what B. their C. poor old D. going on
Question 30: Though the exact death toll is not known, it is considered the deathliest tropical cyclone on
record.
A. known B. record C. deathliest D. death toll
Question 31: My friends get lost on the campus of their university a few days ago.
A. university B. days C. campus D. get
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Laura can’t take part in the marathon. She is badly injured in a car accident.
A. If Laura weren’t badly injured in a car accident, she could take part in the marathon.
B. If only Laura hadn’t been badly injured in a car accident, she could have taken part in the marathon.
C. Laura could take part in the marathon in case she were badly injured in a car accident.
D. Without her bad injury in a car accident, Laura couldn’t take part in the marathon.
Question 33: If Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
A. No sooner had Pauline had been interested than the project would have been abandoned.
B. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
C. Only when Pauline hadn’t been interested would the project not have been abandoned.
D. Not until Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project wouldn’t have been abandoned.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Like people, animals have their own personality, talent and achieve fame. Some of them become
famous through films, TV or advertisements, and others through their work. (34) _______, they rescue
people or play a role in a war. Still others have done something special or been the first to do something.
There have been (35) _______ famous dogs in history. One of them is Hachiko, a dog that is
remembered for his (36) _______ to his owner. Hachiko was born in Japan in 1923 and was owned by
Hidesaburō Ueno, a professor at Tokyo University. Every day, Hachiko waited for Ueno at Shibuya station
and the pair walked home together. One day in May 1925, Ueno died suddenly at work. For the next nine
years, nine months and 15 days, his faithful dog continued to meet the train (37) _______ his owner used to
take every day. At first the station staff did not welcome him, but gradually people understood and began
giving him food and treats. Hachiko did not stop waiting for Ueno until his own death in 1935. There have
been films and books about Hachiko. Every year, there is a/ an (38) _______ to commemorate him at the
railway station in Tokyo, where he waited for his owner so faithfully.
(Adapted from Mindset for IELTS Level 1 by Cambridge English)
Question 34: A. However B. Moreover C. For example D. Otherwise
Question 35: A. much B. every C. each D. many
Question 36: A. attempt B. loyalty C. dream D. promise
Question 37: A. where B. which C. who D. when
Question 38: A. anniversary B. festival C. holiday D. ceremony
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
In the past, cell phones were big and heavy. In the future, telephones will still be big. The good news is
that people will be able to fold them in half to make them smaller. The “foldable phone" is now in
development.

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One company has come up with a smartphone and tablet in one. This device can fold down to the size of
a regular cellphone to make it “pocket-size.” The foldable phone has a larger screen, keyboard, and high-
quality speakers. This makes it easy to use. The flexible display can go from smartphone to tablet just by
unfolding it. The interior screen is so big that it can run three different apps at the same time. People can
watch a video, talk about it, and browse websites online. There are also two batteries inside the phone - one
on each side.
Many companies have been looking for ways to improve smartphones. The foldable phone is unlike
anything else that has come before it. This powerful machine is a smartphone, computer, and camera all in
one. There is a current race to get foldable phones on the market. But we’ll have to wait and see how well
these new smartphones work. If people like them, maybe one day we will be able to fold and even stretch
our phone.
(Adapted from 2000 core English words by Jenna Myers and Thomas Hong)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Evolution of Cell Phones B. The Features of Foldable Phones
C. The Superiority of Large Smartphones D. The Future of Pocket-Sized Technology
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why is the foldable phone user-friendly?
A. It has a larger screen, keyboard, and high-quality speakers.
B. It can run more than three different apps at the same time.
C. It is a regular cell phone with two batteries inside.
D. It can be folded or stretched at any time.
Question 41:The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. video B. device C. keyboard D. screen
Question 42: The word run in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. operate B. install C. download D. move
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Cell phones used to be big and heavy in the past.
B. The foldable phone is a combination of a smartphone, computer and camera.
C. A large number of companies have been searching for ways to upgrade smartphones.
D. The foldable phone is currently on the market.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50 .
There are many theories of aging, actually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become
less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could all produce
characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers are looking
for evidence at the cellular and subcellular level. It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts
(generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer
cells seem immortal in this respect.) Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken
from an adult. Thus some researchers believe that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's
genetic makeup. Any event disturbing the cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in
the cell's environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus
bring on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes.
Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is usually measured in years.
While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is a poor
indicator of an individual person's status because there is a tremendous amount of variation from one
individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For example, on average,
aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly
individuals are excellent marathon runners.

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Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age, including changes in the body and in other aspects of a person's appearance, such as the style
of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like chronological aging, it is
frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have occurred. However, it is an
inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals and because a person's
appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness, poor nutrition, and
exposure to sunlight.
(Source: The Heinemann Toefl Preparation
Course)
Question 44. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Theories of aging and their limitations B. Symptoms of the aging process
C. How to slow down aging D. Comparison of two aging theories
Question 45. The word vein in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. part of the body B. point of view
C. blood vessel D. cellular level
Question 46. The author of the article points out that cancer cells ______.
A. divide infinitely B. divide and then die
C. divide more in adults than in embryos D. bring on aging
Question 47. The word measured in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reduced B. calculated C. defined D. developed
Question 48. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the style of hair and clothing B. a person's appearance
C. cosmetic aging D. chronological aging
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Cosmetic aging refers to how our look changes as we grow old.
B. Chronological aging proves to be more precise than other theories.
C. Each theory deals with a different process in the body.
D. It is believed that our body starts aging when cells stop dividing.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred about cosmetic aging?
A. It occurs at the same rate for all people.
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age.
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur.
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 406

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. choice B. change C. chorus D. chore
Question 2: A. shake B. game C. land D. mate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

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Question 3: A. effort B. advice C. culture D. banner
Question 4: A. challenging B. forgetful C. terrific D. expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: ______ Moby-Dick is a classic novel written by Herman Melville.
A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. a D. an
Question 6: Music seems ______ psychological well-being and mental states significantly.
A. to influencing B. influence C. influencing D. to influence
Question 7: The guests should tell the receptionist in advance if they have any ______ diets.
A. specialty B. special C. specially D. specialize
Question 8: Your first son was born in America, ______?
A. didn’t he B. is he C. was he D. wasn’t he
Question 9: I will take Louisiana out to eat ______.
A. before she won the game B. while she was winning the game
C. as soon as she had won the game D. after she wins the game
Question 10: He has ______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school
A. caused B. created C. done D. made
Question 11: Children are taught to be polite ______ everyone around them, especially the elderly.
A. with B. to C. on D. in
Question 12: The concert last night was ______ than I expected it to be.
A. most exciting B. the most exciting C. as exciting D. more exciting
Question 13: The Apple II computer, ______ in 1977, was designed by Steve Wozniak.
A. created B. to be created C. was created D. creating
Question 14: He demanded, with some justice, that he should be given a/an ______ to express his views.
A. opportunity B. occasion C. event D. chance
Question 15: Some of the ______ of exercising are that it relieves stress and puts you in a good mood.
A. convenience B. advantages C. profits D. benefits
Question 16: I found these photos while I ______ out my cupboards.
A. is cleaning B. have cleaned C. was cleaning D. cleaned
Question 17: When they return, the room ______ with colorful flowers.
A. had been decorated B. decorates C. was decorated D. will be decorated
Question 18: Despite the fact that his paintings lack style and imagination, he persists on working as a
professional painter. He’s always chasing ______ .
A. shadows B. rainbows C. the dragon D. his tail
Question 19: While shopping undercover at some of the top jewellers, the journalists ______ sales pitches
filled with false claims.
A. took after B. turned out C. came across D. made up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter and Jenny are talking about the city where they live.
- Peter: "The air quality in this city is getting worse and worse".
- Jenny: "______. I can't see anything in the morning because of too much smog."
A. You can say that again B. I don't quite agree
C. That's not a matter D. I don't really think so
Question 21: Thomas is asking Tom to hand him a book in the library.
- Thomas: “Would you mind handing me the book over there?”
- Tom: “______”
A. Yes, I’m busy. B. That’s great. C. Not at all. D. Yes, go ahead.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When it came to getting ready for a role, the actor was quite cautious in his preparation.
A. careful B. sensitive C. neglectful D. careless
Question 23: Despite her extensive preparation and experience, she felt apprehensive before the important
job interview, as she knew the outcome could have a significant impact on her career path.
A. passionate B. overconfident C. anxious D. excited
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: She was always optimistic, even when things were at their worst.
A. pessimistic B. enthusiastic C. energetic D. excited
Question 25: Although Jack loves playing sports, he is too long in the tooth to try out skydiving.
A. young B. cruel C. friendly D. humorous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is good for students to take the IELTS exam during high school.
A. Students should take the IELTS exam during high school.
B. Students mustn’t take the IELTS exam during high school.
C. Students needn’t take the IELTS exam during high school.
D. Students can take the IELTS exam during high school.
Question 27: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
B. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
C. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
D. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
Question 28: The last time they went camping was a month ago.
A. They went camping for a month. B. They haven’t gone camping for a month.
C. They didn’t go camping for a month. D. They have gone camping for a month.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: There is comprehension that there may be an adverse effect on the number of patients
treated
A. adverse B. number C. treated D. comprehension
Question 30: Jane visits Trang An Scenic complex with her family last summer.
A. summer B. her C. visits D. Scenic
Question 31: Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in athletics.
A. regional throne B. her C. determined D. Vietnamese
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: If Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
A. Only when Pauline hadn’t been interested would the project not have been abandoned.
B. Not until Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project wouldn’t have been abandoned.
C. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
D. No sooner had Pauline had been interested than the project would have been abandoned.
Question 33: Chris doesn’t have enough time. He can’t travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
A. Provided Chris has enough time, he can travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
B. If Chris had enough time, he could travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
C. If only Chris had had enough time, he could have traveled to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.

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D. Chris can travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday in case he doesn’t have enough time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Trees protect the soil beneath them; thus, tree loss can affect soil integrity. (34) ______, the
rainforest floor, home to myriad plant life as well as insects, worms, reptiles and amphibians, and small
mammals, relies on a dense canopy of branches and leaves to keep it healthy and intact. Tree roots also
stabilize the soil and help prevent erosion. In exchange a healthy soil encourages root development and
microbial activity, (35) ______ contribute to tree growth and well-being. A major factor in logging-related
soil damage comes from road building, with trucks and other heavy equipment compressing the spongy soil,
creating furrows where water collects, and disrupting the underground water flow. Eventually, the topsoil
wears away, leaving behind a (36) ______ layer of rocks and hard clay.
Logging can also damage aquatic habitats. Vegetation along rivers and stream banks helps (37) ______ a
steady water flow by blocking the entry of soil and other residue, and trees shade inhibits the growth of
algae. Removing trees obliterates these benefits. When eroding soil flows into waterways, the organic matter
within it consumes more oxygen, which can lead to oxygen depletion in the water, killing fish and
(38) ______ aquatic wildlife.
(Adapted from Essential words for the IELTS by Dr. Lin Lougheed)
Question 34: A. However B. For example C. Moreover D. Although
Question 35: A. that B. whom C. which D. who
Question 36: A. fruitless B. sterile C. fertile D. nutrient
Question 37: A. save B. destroy C. spoil D. maintain
Question 38: A. other B. many C. few D. others
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Aimee Fuller was born in England but now lives in the USA. She moved to the east coast of the
United States at the age of 12 because she knew she wanted to be a professional snowboarder. It wasn’t
possible to train properly in her hometown because it hardly ever snowed. There was a dry ski slope in her
town, where she learnt how to ski and snowboard, but there weren’t any mountains with snow to practice the
sport.
Aimee quickly found sponsors and a coach when she arrived in the USA, and she is now a
successful and well-known snowboarding star. She has done really well in many national competitions and
her dream is to win an Olympic gold medal one day.
During her free time, Aimee likes to spend time at home, switch off her phone and laptop and hang
out with her friends and family. Aimee spends most of her time practicing on the snow, and trains in the
gym four to five times a week. She also goes cycling and running. Aimee says it is very important to keep fit
because that helps her stay safe when she is doing snowboarding tricks and jumps. Her advice to people who
want to learn how to do jumps, is to start small and only do bigger jumps when they feel ready.
(Adapted from Mindset for IELTS foundation)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?
A. Preparation for Olympic Games B. U.S Immigrant Lives
C. Women’s Snowboarding Qualifications D. A Snowboarding Star
Question 40: According to the passage, Aimee enjoys ______ in her free time.
A. spending time at home B. using her phone
C. surfing the Internet D. hanging out with her coach
Question 41: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. people keeping fit B. people cycling
C. people giving advice D. people learning to jump
Question 42: The word coach in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.

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A. donor B. opponent C. referee D. trainer
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Aimee thinks being unfit is dangerous for snowboarding.
B. There was no snow in her hometown.
C. Aimee spent a short time finding a coach in the USA.
D. Aimee has won an Olympic gold medal.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
On a boat near Costa Rica, a team of marine biologists is helping a turtle. The animal is having
trouble breathing, and the team discovers why—there is something inside its nose. A scientist tries to
extract the object, but the turtle cries in pain. Finally, after eight long minutes, a 10-centimeter plastic straw
is pulled out.
The video of the turtle’s rescue has been viewed millions of times on YouTube. It has helped raise
awareness of a growing problem: The world’s seas are full of plastic. Since 2000, there has been a huge
increase in worldwide plastic production, but we recycle less than one-fifth of it. A lot of this plastic waste
ends up in the ocean. Today, scientists think about 8.1 billion kilograms goes into the sea every year from
coastal regions. Most of this plastic will never biodegrade.
This ocean plastic hurts millions of sea animals every year. Some fish eat plastic because it is
covered with sea plants, and it looks and smells like food. Typically, eating plastic leads to constant hunger.
“Imagine you ate lunch and then just felt weak … and hungry all day,” says marine biologist Matthew
Savoca. “That would be very confusing.” In some cases, eating sharp pieces of plastic can seriously hurt sea
animals and even result in death.
Plastic is useful to people because it is strong and lasts a long time—but this is bad news for sea
creatures who eat or get stuck in it. According to Savoca, “Single-use plastics are the worst.” These are
items that are used only once before we throw them away. Some common examples include straws, water
bottles, and plastic bags. About 700 sea species (including the turtle from the video) have been caught in or
have eaten this kind of plastic. Luckily, the turtle survived and was released back into the ocean.
How will plastic affect sea animals in the long term? “I think we’ll know the answers in 5 to 10
years’ time,” says Debra Lee Magadini from Columbia University. But by then, another 25 million tons of
plastic will already be in the ocean.
(Extracted from Reading Explorer 1, National Geographic)
Question 44. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Work of Marine Biologists B. Dangers Facing Sea Turtles
C. How Plastic Harms Sea Creatures D. How Plastic Dilute into Oceans.
Question 45. The word extract in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. remove B. reform C. examine D. discover
Question 46. The word It in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the video B. the turtle C. YouTube D. the world
Question 47. The word constant in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. extreme B. satisfying C. temporary D. frequent
Question 48. According to paragraph 4, single-use plastics are harmful to sea creatures because ______.
A. They are made of toxic materials.
B. They are not durable.
C. They are frequently disposed of in the ocean.
D. Sea creatures mistake them for food or get entangled in them.
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Many people have watched the video of the turtle on YouTube.
B. Most of the plastic can change back to a harmless natural state.

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C. We recycle less than 20 per cent of plastic products.
D. The turtle in the video was one of 700 sea species having eaten single-use plastics.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Each year, coastal areas dump 8.1 billion kg of plastic waste into the ocean.
B. The plastic waste in the ocean hurts sea animals and can even kill them.
C. Scientists will have a clear understanding of the ocean’s plastic problem in 5 to 10 years’ time.
D. Having watched the video of the turtle’s rescue, millions of people stopped using plastics.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 407

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shut B. pull C. brush D. much
Question 2: A. climb B. club C. bless D. boost
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. example B. occasion C. allowance D. company
Question 4: A. option B. nature C. costume D. approach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She ________ a feeble effort to smile, then started crying again.
A. took B. made C. gave D. did
Question 6: So how long have you been married ________ Nicky?
A. for B. to C. with D. of
Question 7: Bob’s friends have had a positive influence on him and his ________ have improved.
A. results B. outcomes C. consequences D. products
Question 8: Many people are very concerned about the ________ of the rainforests.
A. pollution B. destruction C. extinction D. exploitation
Question 9: The house with a garden is ________ than the house without a garden.
A. the most beautiful B. as beautiful C. more beautiful D. beautiful
Question 10: The project ________ by researchers as soon as it is invested.
A. will be carried out B. has carried out C. carries out D. was carried out
Question 11: Mr. Richardson was a sympathetic listener, ________?
A. was he B. did he C. didn’t he D. wasn’t he
Question 12: The World Health Organization would like to stress that taking care of your mental health is
as vital as ________ your physical health.
A. looking after B. looking into C. looking for D. getting over
Question 13: If you want to rent a 4-bedroom house for only two, you must pay through the ________ for it.
A. mouth B. ear C. nose D. eye
Question 14: My mother ________ music magazines in her room when there was a knock at the door.
A. has read B. was reading C. read D. is reading

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Question 15: The main elements ________ for survival are food, fire, shelter and water.
A. required B. requiring C. is required D. require
Question 16: We will submit our proposal ________.
A. after we will complete the last part B. after we completed the last part
C. after we had completed the last part D. after we have completed the last part
Question 17: Nam commanded me ________ the door
A. to opening B. open C. opening D. to open
Question 18: The city zoo is looking for some ________ that work at the weekend.
A. voluntary B. voluntarily C. volunteers D. voluntarism
Question 19: She stayed to wash ________ dishes after his birthday party.
A. a B. ∅ (no article) C. the D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter and Louis are talking about the weather.
- Peter: “This weather is perfect for a picnic.”
- Louis: “________, especially when we are free and have just gone through a hard exam period.”
A. We need to consider what to do B. That’s a good idea
C. Yes. It’s very exciting D. I don’t know
Question 21: Ellen and Don are arranging to go downtown for lunch.
- Ellen: “Why don’t we get on a bus to go downtown for lunch?”
- Don: “________.”
A. That sounds great B. Not at all
C. It's kind of you to say so D. Wow! I didn't realize that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The student service center will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable
part-time job.
A. allow B. support C. employ D. protect
Question 23: Sarah is very outgoing; however, her brother is quite reserved. He rarely shows his feelings or
thoughts to others.
A. shy B. open C. calm D. gentle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: When business gets into the groove, he will probably offer permanent jobs to the most valued
employees.
A. grows successfully B. goes into straight line
C. makes improvement D. becomes worse
Question 25: In order to boost agricultural productivity, many farmers have to change plant varieties and
improve machines.
A. raise B. reduce C. increase D. improve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is impossible for all the students to submit their assignments after Tuesday.
A. All the students may submit their assignments after Tuesday.
B. All the students needn't submit their assignments after Tuesday.
C. All the students can't submit their assignments after Tuesday.
D. All the students must submit their assignments after Tuesday.
Question 27: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.

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A. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
B. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
C. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
D. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
Question 28: Nam last cleaned his car three weeks ago.
A. Nam hasn’t cleaned his car for three weeks. B. Nam spent three weeks cleaning his car.
C. Nam hadn’t cleaned his car for three weeks. D. Nam didn’t clean his car three weeks ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: During the sixth century, the inhabitants of Gujarat have developed a method of gaining
A B C
access to clean water.
D
Question 30: A comprehensive study revealed that even among biological relatives there are significant
A B C
differences in temperance.
D
Question 31: The company should allow flexible working hours so that their employees can avoid traffic congestion.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Kathy wants to join the singing contest. However, she doesn’t have a beautiful voice.
A. Unless Mary has a more beautiful voice, she can join the singing contest.
B. Mary wishes she became more beautiful to join the singing contest.
C. If Kathy had a beautiful voice, she would join the singing contest.
D. If only Kathy had had a more beautiful voice, she would have joined the singing contest.
Question 33: ChatGPT Application was introduced a few weeks ago. People were all interested in trying it
right after that.
A. Hardly had ChatGPT Application been introduced when people were all interested in trying it.
B. Not until people were all interested in trying ChatGPT Application was it introduced a few weeks ago.
C. Only after people had been all interested in trying ChatGPT Application was it introduced a few weeks ago.
D. No sooner had people been all interested in trying ChatGPT Application than it was introduced a few
weeks ago.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The life span of an elephant that dies from natural causes is about sixty-five years. Of course, an elephant
can perish from a number of “unnatural causes”; e.g., it can be killed by hunters, most probably for the valuable
ivory in its tusks; it can die from diseases that spread throughout an elephant herd; or it can die from drought or
from the lack of food (34) ________ almost certainly accompanies the inadequate supply of water.
If, (35) ________, an elephant survives these disasters, it falls grey to old age in its mid-sixties. Around
this age, the (36) ________ of death is attributed to the loss of the final set of molars. When this last set of
teeth is gone, the elephant dies from malnutrition because it is unable to obtain adequate (37) ________. In old
age, elephants tend to search out a final home where there is shade for comfort from the sun and soft
vegetation for cushioning; the bones of (38) ________ old elephants have been found in such places.
(Adapted from Longman Complete course for the TOEFL Test- Deborah Phillip)
Question 34: A. who B. whose C. what D. that
Question 35: A. therefore B. in addition C. however D. otherwise
Question 36: A. reason B. cause C. factor D. effect

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Question 37: A. nourishment B. drink C. refreshment D. meal
Question 38: A. much B. many C. each D. every
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Big Bend National Park in the southwest of Texas is one of the most majestic desert areas in the
United States. It is part of the Chihuahua, which is one of the largest deserts in North America and stretches
over both America and Mexico.
Big Bend Park is home to mountains, rivers, basins, valleys, as well as many plants and animals. It is
not as popular a national park as some others. This may be because it takes an extremely long time to get
there. Big Bend National Park is hundreds of miles from the nearest legitimate town or airport. When people
go there, they need to make sure that their cars have plenty of gas. There is a large risk of running out.
When visitors get to the park, they are usually happy that they drove all the way. The park is 1,252
square miles of desert beauty. There are beautiful cactus blooms as well as glorious sunsets. The hiking
trails are magnificent. Visitors can stay in a lodge that is run by the park or camp with their own equipment.
However, visitors should be careful. Even though the park is incredibly hot during the day, the lack of
moisture in the air makes the heat dissipate at night. The nights at Big Bend are surprisingly cold so it’s
important to bring a warm sleeping bag.
(Adapted from Master TOEFL Junior Advanced- Reading Comprehension)
Question 39: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. A Place of Desert Flowers B. A Popular Tourist Attraction
C. A National Park Worth Visiting D. A Desert in America
Question 40: Which can be a reason why Big Bend Park isn’t as popular as some others?
A. It is too cold for most visitors. B. A lot of people don’t want to visit Texas.
C. Most cars aren’t strong enough to get there. D. It is very far away from a town or an airport.
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. cars B. people C. visitors D. miles
Question 42: The word “lodge” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. tent B. cottage C. hotel D. restaurant
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about Big Bend?
A. Lodge is the only accommodation there.
B. Sights in the Big Bend are worth traveling a long distance .
C. Visitors can bring their own camping equipment to sleep outside.
D. People can not sleep well without a warm sleeping bag.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
UN warns over impact of rapidly ageing populations. The world needs to do more to prepare for the
impact of a rapidly ageing population, the UN has warned - particularly in developing countries. Within 10
years the number of people aged over 60 will pass one billion, a report by the UN Population Fund said. The
demographic shift will present huge challenges to countries' welfare, pension and healthcare systems. The
UN agency also said more had to be done to tackle “abuse, neglect and violence against older persons”.
The number of older people worldwide is growing faster than any other age group. The report, Ageing
in the 21st Century: A Celebration and a Challenge, estimates that one in nine people around the world are
older than 60. The elderly population is expected to swell by 200 million in the next decade to surpass one
billion, and reach two billion by 2050. This rising proportion of older people is a consequence of success -
improved nutrition, sanitation, healthcare, education and economic well-being are contributing factors, the
report says.
But the UN and a charity that also contributed to the report, HelpAge International, say the ageing
population is being widely mismanaged. "In many developing countries with large populations of young

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people, the challenge is that governments have not put policies and practices in place to support their current
older populations or made enough preparations for 2050," the agencies said in a joint statement.
The report warns that the skills and experience of older people are being wasted, with many under-
employed and vulnerable to discrimination. HelpAge said more countries needed to introduce pension
schemes to ensure economic independence and reduce poverty in old age. It stressed that it was not enough
to simply pass legislation - the new schemes needed to be funded properly.
(Adapted from https://www.ieltsbuddy.com)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The causes of the rise in elderly people.
B. The quick decrease of the elderly people.
C. The benefits brought by the ageing population.
D. The difficulties caused by the ageing population.
Question 45: The word impact in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. damage B. benefit C. influence D. praise
Question 46: The word surpass in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to ______.
A. exceed B. decrease C. respect D. comprise
Question 47: The word It in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. HelpAge B. independence C. poverty D. old age
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, to ensure economic independence and reduce poverty in old age,
countries need to ______.
A. make pension plans B. enact laws for old people
C. raise funds for public activities D. support older populations
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true about older people?
A. Of all the age groups, the elderly are growing the fastest.
B. Countries' welfare, pension and healthcare systems will be pressurized by older people.
C. By 2050, the number of older people may increase to 2 billion.
D. The ageing population is under control.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Rapidly ageing populations bring a lot of benefits to the society.
B. Countries are preparing so many new policies for the future.
C. Ageing populations will be a burden to many countries.
D. Ageing populations are the consequence of wars.
------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 408

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. kiss B. kite C. hit D. pink
Question 2: A. though B. throw C. thumb D. thin
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. knowledge B. fiction C. campaign D. trailer

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Question 4: A. attraction B. appearance C. apartment D. applicant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He is capable ______ playing chess at an international level.
A. about B. to C. at D. of
Question 6: What do you want for dinner? I need you to ______ a decision so that I can start cooking.
A. make B. have C. go D. do
Question 7: The concert ______ by thousands of people as I predict.
A. is attending B. will be attended
C. will have attended D. attended
Question 8: Shakespeare wrote “Romeo and Juliet” in 1605, ______?
A. didn't he B. doesn't he C. hasn't be D. won't he
Question 9: My mother lost her purse when she ______ in a crowded street.
A. is crossing B. crossed C. crosses D. was crossing
Question 10: ______, we will travel to Da Nang.
A. When the epidemic is over B. When the epidemic will be over
C. When the epidemic had been over D. When the epidemic was over
Question 11: It was the only available restaurant in the area but he turned his nose ______ because he
thought it was not good enough for him.
A. up B. down C. on D. above
Question 12: The museum’s collection of paintings is often ______ than its collection of sculptures.
A. most impressive B. the most impressive
C. impressive D. more impressive
Question 13: Vietnam Airlines regretted ______ the cancellation of the flight VA270887 to Ho Chi Minh
city.
A. announcing B. to announce C. announce D. to announcing
Question 14: The police officers have ______ the search for the missing baby until dawn tomorrow.
A. put out B. brought on C. put off D. looked after
Question 15: An ______ system of fuel must be found to save the environment.
A. economy B. economically C. economical D. economics
Question 16: Ferdinand Marcos, ______ to leave the Philippines after allegations of stealing foreign aid
and treasury money, died in exile in Hawaii.
A. was forced B. forced C. having forced D. was forcing
Question 17: There will be a brief ______ in the proceedings while the piano is moved into place.
A. pause B. blank C. fall D. wait
Question 18: Despite how troublesome they could be, my uncle's always had a ______ spot for his
children.
A. warm B. kind C. good D. soft
Question 19: The couple's first dance was a beautiful expression of ______ love for each other.
A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. a
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Mrs. Mai is at the bookstore. She is asking to see the latest novel.
- Mrs. Mai: “Could I see that latest novel?” - The shopkeeper: “______”
A. No, thanks. B. You are so kidding!
C. Certainly! madam. D. It is expensive.
Question 21: Jim and Laura are talking about how to keep fit.
- Jim: “Do you agree that physical exercises can keep our body fit?”
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- Laura: “______”
A. Of course not. B. I’m not with you there.
C. There’s no doubt about that. D. That’s very surprising.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I knew he just made several flattering remarks on me because he wanted to borrow some
money.
A. teasing B. discouraging C. praising D. threatening
Question 23: Living in a big city has some drawbacks like pollution, traffic, crime, and high costs.
A. benefits B. disadvantages C. conveniences D. specialties
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: One of the main goals of ASEAN is to promote peace and stability through the establishment
of fair and equitable relationships between countries in the region.
A. injustice B. mutual C. broken D. uneasy
Question 25: Although she was new to the company, she wasn't afraid to make waves and speak up about
the unfair treatment of her coworkers, ultimately leading to positive changes in the workplace.
A. obey her new boss B. have an argument
C. ask for a pay rise D. keep quiet
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It’s forbidden to touch the statues in the museum.
A. You should touch the statues in the museum. B. You mustn’t touch the statues in the museum.
C. You can’t touch the statues in the museum. D. You need to touch the statues in the museum.
Question 27: The last time I traveled abroad was last summer.
A. I didn’t travel abroad last summer. B. It’s last summer since I didn’t travel abroad.
C. I have traveled abroad since last summer. D. I have not traveled abroad since last summer.
Question 28: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
B. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
C. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
D. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Scarecrows help farmers save their crops from hungry birds in ancient times.
A. save B. from C. help D. times
Question 30: The students should review the regulations of the exam before sitting for them.
A. review B. sitting C. regulations D. them
Question 31: Confusion and certainty are the major characteristics of the permissible society according to
the conservative historians.
A. permissible B. conservative C. Confusion D. certainty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: I don’t have a spare ticket. I can’t take you to the concert.
A. As long as I have a spare ticket, I can take you to the concert.
B. If I had had a spare ticket, I could have taken you to the concert.
C. If I had a spare ticket, I could take you to the concert.
D. If I have a spare ticket, I can take you to the concert.

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Question 33: If Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
A. No sooner had Pauline had been interested than the project would have been abandoned.
B. Only when Pauline hadn’t been interested would the project not have been abandoned.
C. Not until Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project wouldn’t have been abandoned.
D. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Flea Markets
When asked where they prefer to shop, (34) _______ students replied that they are keen on flea markets.
You can pick up a large variety of items: clothes, antiques, plants, second-hand furniture, rugs- just about
anything you can think of. For example, you can find fabulous vintage clothing at very low prices, so you
come away feeling you’ve found a great bargain worth much more than what you paid.
Beware, (35) _______, as you have to pay in cash and you are often not given a receipt for the items you
buy. This can be a problem if the item is faulty as you will not have a (36) _______. Of course, you often get
great value for money but if you want to return an item for some reason, the (37) _______ are rarely willing
to give you a refund. As there is no price tag on the item (38) _______ you buy, the seller can’t be expected
to remember how much they sold it to you.
(Adapted from Active Your Grammar & Vocabulary B2 Exam)
Question 34: A. each B. many C. much D. every
Question 35: A. however B. therefore C. although D. otherwise
Question 36: A. protection B. guarantee C. quality D. diversity
Question 37: A. buyers B. customers C. guests D. vendors
Question 38: A. where B. when C. which D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
A gift card is a card that is issued by a particular store. It’s worth a certain amount of money. It looks
like a credit card, but it actually works like cash. A gift-card holder can spend the amount of money noted on
the card in the store that issued it. These cards are big money makers for retail companies. One reason is that
when gift-card holders go to the store, they often see other things to buy, and they end up spending more
money than the gift card is worth. Unused cards are another big source of revenue. Companies make
millions of dollars because large numbers of people never use their cards. They either lose them, forget
about them, or decide that it’s not worth the effort.
Gift cards are becoming extremely popular in many countries around the world. In the United States,
they are one of the most popular types of gifts. Why? People love the convenience – cards are easy to buy
and easy to use, either in the store or online. The recipient can select his or her own gift, and the giver does
not have to worry about finding just the right thing.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading 1)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Facts about gift cards B. How to use credit cards
C. Why gift cards are popular D. Another form of cash
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. It is convenient to give and use gift cards.
B. Gift cards are gaining popularity in the world.
C. Companies make large profits from gift cards.
D. Unused cards are considered worthless.
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. Gift-card holders B. Unused cards C. Companies D. Credit cards

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Question 42: Which of the following can be an explanation for the popularity of gift cards?
A. People appreciate the convenience. B. Cards are not easy to buy.
C. Gift cards can only be bought online. D. The givers can choose their own gifts.
Question 43: The word recipient in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. receiver B. sender C. buyer D. donor
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
When we think of the Hawaiian Islands, they often bring to mind a thriving tourist destination with
white sandy beaches and palm trees. However, on one of the most northern islands, you will not find any
tourists or holiday activities. The island of Niihau is characterized by an extinct volcano, a delicate wetland
and thriving forests. It is also the home to various endangered species such as the Hawaiian monk seal. The
island belongs to the Robinson family who bought it from the King of Hawaii back in 1864 with the
promise to maintain the traditional Hawaiian culture and language of the natives living there. In order to
keep this promise, the family over time began to limit visitors to the island. Today, contact with the native
Niihauans on the island is forbidden except by invitation. Therefore, until recently, the natives knew very
little about the outside world.
A walk through the main village of the island shows how Niihau appears to be frozen in time. There
are no cars, shops, restaurants or police. The only means of transport are horses and bicycles. There is no
running water, power or telephone lines. All of the 130 permanent residents are native Hawaiians and speak
Hawaiian as their first language. They don’t pay rent and live by fishing and farming. It’s a lifestyle far
different from residents on the other Hawaiian islands.
The children of Niihau may not have TV or electronics like other children, but they attend a small
school that relies entirely on solar power for electricity. The school is one of the few schools in the USA
that is completely solar powered. The school teaches the Hawaiian traditions and values of living off the
land and ocean, and at the same time offers the children the opportunity to learn how to use computers and
connect with the outside world.
Oneway outsiders can connect with Niihau is to purchase the islanders’ handicrafts such as their
shell jewelry. These products are on sale in other islands. Although few have the chance to visit this
forbidden land, its mystery continues to fascinate tourists.
(Adapted from On Screen B1 plus by Virginia Evans and Jenny Dooley)
Question 44. What is the best title of the text?
A. A Tourist Attraction B. The Niihauans’ Lifestyle
C. A Forbidden Island D. Education on Hawaii Islands
Question 45. The word “thriving” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. glorious B. unsuccessful C. rich D. developing
Question 46. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. island B. the King C. monk seal D. volcano
Question 47. Tourists are not allowed to visit Niihau because ______.
A. the owners promised to preserve native Hawaiian culture and language alive
B. the King wanted to protect the island’s sensitive ecosystem
C. the owners of the island didn’t like outsiders
D. the natives are afraid that visitors will destroy the island
Question 48. The word “entirely” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. partially B. completely C. perfectly D. relatively
Question 49. According to the text, which of the following statements is NOT true about the text?
A. Horses and bikes are the sole means of transportation available.
B. Various endangered species can be found on the island of Niihau.
C. The native Niihauans’ way of life is similar to inhabitants on the other Hawaiian Islands.

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D. Visitors can buy the Niihauans’ handicrafts in other islands.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. At no time do students have a chance to communicate with the rest of the world.
B. Education on the island tries to balance tradition with technology.
C. Children of Niihau are equipped with modern electronic devices for schooling.
D. A small school in Niihau Island uses various renewable energy sources for electricity.

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 409

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shrine B. drink C. uncle D. blanket
Question 2: A. stand B. ban C. fame D. mad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. maintain B. protect C. install D. happen
Question 4: A. hospital B. solution C. memory D. furniture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I will tell Mike to call you ______.
A. when I see him B. when I am seeing him
C. when I saw him D. when I will see him
Question 6: The books ______ to the library when my students finish reading them.
A. will return B. will be returned
C. will have returned D. have returned
Question 7: You'd better ______ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis.
A. make B. do C. pull D. promise
Question 8: I'm surprised ______ the way you behave like that in front of the kids.
A. to B. at C. for D. about
Question 9: There are usually at least two ______ of looking at every question.
A. directions B. views C. opinions D. ways
Question 10: The Measure app of the new Apple iPhone 14 Pro enables us ______ someone's height.
A. measuring B. measure C. to measuring D. to measure
Question 11: The buildings ______ in the 2023 earthquake in Turkey were not built to withstand such a
disaster.
A. were destroyed B. destroying C. were destroying D. destroyed
Question 12: Did you get married after leaving ______ university
A. an B. ∅ (no article) C. the D. a
Question 13: He was convicted of causing ______ to other road users.
A. danger B. dangerously C. endanger D. dangerous

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Question 14: That party was a lot of fun, but I drank a bit too much and had quite a ______ head the next
morning!
A. big B. thick C. long D. thin
Question 15: Everybody in town likes to visit my mother's lavender garden, which ______ a pleasant
smell.
A. takes after B. turns up C. gets over D. gives off
Question 16: There was a friendly match between Vietnam and Myanmar national teams last week,
______?
A. hadn’t there B. wasn’t there C. didn’t there D. isn’t there
Question 17: Art-related subjects are ______ than science classes.
A. the most appealing B. most appealing
C. more appealing D. as appealing
Question 18: Minh Huy ______ his assignments when his parents came back home from work.
A. are completing B. completed C. was completing D. has completed
Question 19: Our volunteer club received large ______ from the students and their parents.
A. donations B. benefits C. advantages D. experiences
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Tim and his friend had a quarrel last week, and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
- Tom: "I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent."
- Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. I'm not wrong B. That's a great idea
C. That's not a good idea D. Yes, I think much
Question 21: Lan has come to granny and grandpa’s house for lunch.
- Grandpa: “ Hello, my little one! Would you like to pick some vegetables from the garden for lunch?”
- Lan: “______”
A. Of course you can. B. No, thanks. I love salad.
C. Yes, please! Let’s make salad. D. You’re welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The way animal wastes are used and stored has significant effects on human health and the
environment.
A. beneficial B. adverse C. enormous D. negative
Question 23: Despite the warnings advised by the authorities, the driver continued to speed recklessly
down the narrow and winding road, putting not only himself but also the lives of his passengers and other
drivers in danger.
A. carelessly B. carefully C. irresponsibly D. dangerously
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Wet weather always depresses me. I don’t have the pleasure of doing anything special then.
A. saddens B. delights C. encourages D. surprises
Question 25: I would need to be humble with her. I don’t want to burn my bridges with her.
A. build relationships B. build bridges
C. destroy relationships D. ruin the relationship
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.

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B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We should discuss this matter in great detail.
D. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27: I last talked to my grandparents three months ago.
A. I have talked to my grandparents for three months .
B. I talked to my grandparents for three months.
C. I didn’t talk to my grandparents for three months.
D. I haven’t talked to my grandparents for three months.
Question 28: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
B. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
C. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
D. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: In this study, the searches for life expectation data were particularly successful in terms of
offering a relatively high precision.
A. particularly B. precision C. relatively D. expectation
Question 30: It was not until the late 1970s that these country people enjoy the benefits of electricity.
A. these country people B. benefits
C. enjoy D. not until
Question 31: When a virus attacks you for the first time, your body doesn’t know how to combat them
and you become ill.
A. attacks B. body C. them D. combat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She doesn’t know a foreign language. She can’t get a job easily.
A. If she knew a foreign language, she could get a job easily.
B. Provided that she knows a foreign language, she can’t get a job easily.
C. If she had known a foreign language, she could have gotten a job easily.
D. If she knew a foreign language, she couldn’t get a job easily.
Question 33: If Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
A. Not until Pauline hadn’t been interested, the project wouldn’t have been abandoned.
B. No sooner had Pauline had been interested than the project would have been abandoned.
C. Only when Pauline hadn’t been interested would the project not have been abandoned.
D. Had Pauline not been interested, the project would have been abandoned.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Reality shows have been around for longer than most of us can remember. TV producers find them
cheaper to produce than soap operas or dramas. And the format seems to be as popular as ever. (34) ______
shows are so addictive that people can’t resist tuning in to them week after week. But why? Do viewers
know how ‘real’ reality TV actually is? Of course, some shows are better than others. When Romeo Met
Juliet, (35)______, was convincing enough for us to believe what went on in the show. But other shows are
less real. (36) ______ are more likely to tell contestants what to say and do than you may realize and the sob
stories (37) ______ we hear each week are more planned than ‘real’. Nevertheless, it seems that the more we
watch reality TV, the more tempted we are to believe it's all true. Is that such a bad thing? Well, one
(38)______ could be that there is a lot more gossiping and bullying on some shows than seems good for
anybody.

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(Adapted from Gold Experience by Edwards and Stephens)
Question 34: A. Much B. Little C. Many D. Each
Question 35: A. however B. for example C. therefore D. in addition
Question 36: A. Producers B. Creators C. Constructors D. Inventors
Question 37: A. where B. who C. when D. which
Question 38: A. advantage B. credit C. problem D. solution
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In the past, people tended to classify things as either worth something or worthless. Household,
office, and industrial waste, seen as worthless, was usually burned or buried in landfills. However, as
landfills fill up, the planet heats up, and energy and raw material prices go up, we are rethinking what we
consider" waste" and "pollution." New technologies are making it possible to reuse waste materials, and
businesses are finding ways to not only throw away less, but to turn trash into cash.
Recycling is the most widespread form of waste reuse. Not only does it save governments money by
reducing spending on landfills, but it also helps companies and individuals lower garbage disposal costs.
Another type of waste, organic material, has a clear economic value. Scientists have developed ways to turn
vegetables, grains into biofuel. Through creative efforts, other waste materials are being turned into
completely new products. An interesting example is EaKo, a UK- based company which makes beautiful
bags and wallets from used fire hoses. On the other side of the world, a local government effort in the
Philippines to turn old plastic bags and other materials into construction blocks.
Even factories are finding opportunities to increase profits in Earth-friendly ways. As goods are
produced, factories often generate large amounts of heat and gas, which are then released into the air. Yet
by refitting a plant, it is possible to capture these materials and turn them into energy, which the factory can
then reuse. Excess energy can even be sold to power companies for a profit. Recaptured energy from US
factories could meet 20% of the country's power needs.
( Source: Adapted from Reading fusion)
Question 39: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Turning Waste into Wealth. B. Reducing waste of all types
C. Making Profit from Goods D. Treating waste with new technologies
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. recycling B. waste C. spending D. money
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Some governments, factories and companies are applying earth-friendly methods.
B. Waste used to be considered as valueless.
C. Technologies enable people to burn waste more effectively.
D. Scientists have been successful in turning organic materials into biofuel.
Question 42: The word “generate ” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. produce B. absorb C. consume D. conserve
Question 43: Why would factories want to capture gas before it is released into the air?
A. To use the gas again. B. To refit the plant.
C. To turn it into products. D. To generate more heat.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions front 44 to 50.
Shakespeare's Globe Theatre is a popular topic for people interested in theater and history. However,
the Globe Theatre as we know it today is not the same building that was used originally. In fact, the Globe
was situated in many different places during its long history.
When the rental agreement on the original location ended, one of the actors bought a theater called the
Blackfriars, which was located in another part of town. However, many complaints from neighbors and the

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town council led to the creation of a petition that requested that the acting group move their company out of
town. Upset with this news, the actors returned to the original theater, took most of it apart, and then moved
the materials across the Thames River to Bankside, where they proceeded to construct the next version of
the Globe.
This endeavor, though, did not go so smoothly. The owner of the original Globe Theatre, who had
rented it to the actors, took the acting group to court. He wanted the actors to pay for the damage they had
done to his building. In the end, however, the actors won the case and continued to construct their “newly-
acquired” theater. Later, the actors split their plays between the original theater and the new Globe.
In 1643, the original Globe Theatre burned to the ground. Historians believe that a cannon that was
shot during a performance of the play Henry Vill started a large fire. Yet, the Globe Theatre still survived. A
new Globe was later completed on the same site before Shakespeare's death. However, it was shut down by
the Puritans in 1642 because it could not sell tickets and later destroyed during the English Civil War of
1643.
In May of 1997, Queen Elizabeth II officially opened a newly constructed version of the Globe with a
production of Henry V. This is the Globe Theatre that people visit today. The queen wanted the new theater
to be much like the old one. The new model is very similar to the original theater. For instance, it is also a
three-story building. Also, it has seating for 1,500 people and an area called the “yard” on the lower level. In
its first season, the theater attracted 210,000 people.
(Adapted from “Developing Skills for the TOEFL iBT Intermediate”)
Question 44: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The history of the Globe Theatre B. The renovation of the Globe Theatre
C. The construction of the Globe Theatre D. Acting at the Globe Theatre
Question 45: Performers built the new Globe in Bankside because ______.
A. the council forced them to upgrade the theater for better services.
B. the theater was sold and they did not have any place for their performance.
C. The town council proposed to relocate it for a more magnificent view.
D. They were outraged about the town council’s decision on relocation.
Question 46: The word proceeded in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caught B. began C. marched D. hurried
Question 47: The word acquired in paragraph 3 could be best replaced with which of the following?
A. stolen B. bought C. discovered D. obtained
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There was controversy surrounding the Globe when it was first in operation.
B. The new version of the Globe is much like the Globe as it was hundreds of years ago.
C. Today the original Globe Theatre stands in its original location.
D. Theater-goers should understand that the Globe is not like other modern theaters.
Question 49: Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the Puritans?
A. They loved Shakespeare. B. They lived in America.
C. They did not like plays. D. They wore black clothes.
Question 50: The word its in paragraph 5 refers to _______.
A. the season’s B. the program’s C. the theater’s D. the play’s

------ HẾT ------

DỰ ÁN TIẾNG ANH 2023 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

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Họ tên : ……………………………….. Lớp : ………. Mã đề 410

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wrap B. wreath C. write D. want
Question 2: A. show B. go C. shop D. no
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. determine B. encourage C. analyze D. consider
Question 4: A. access B. promote C. expand D. invent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: This bus is always on time, ______?
A. do it B. does it C. isn’t it D. is it
Question 6: ______, I will have finished all my tasks.
A. By the time you were getting back B. By the time you had got back
C. By the time you got back D. By the time you get back
Question 7: Everyone tends ______ with their favorite color throughout their lives.
A. stick B. to sticking C. to stick D. sticking
Question 8: The vote of no ______ was the final humiliation for a government that had been clinging to
office.
A. belief B. knowledge C. thought D. confidence
Question 9: ______ amusement park was bustling with families enjoying rides and attractions.
A. An B. The C. ∅ (no article) D. A
Question 10: She inherited a fortune from her beloved grandmother and suddenly ______ a bundle.
A. did B. made C. became D. turned
Question 11: For the last 20 years, we have witnessed ______ changes in the world of technology.
A. significance B. significant C. significantly D. signification
Question 12: Everybody should leave the property immediately if the fire alarm ______.
A. goes off B. goes up C. comes off D. comes across
Question 13: Tom hurt his knee when he ______ the wooden stairs.
A. was climbing B. climbs C. climbed D. is climbing
Question 14: Reading a book is ______ than playing a video game.
A. as educational B. most educational
C. the most educational D. more educational
Question 15: They should give up trying to argue with the boss on that subject. They’re beating a dead
______.
A. sheep B. horse C. buffalo D. cow
Question 16: Once almost extinct, the silver gray Hawaiian Monk Seal, ______ since 1909, now lives in
large numbers in an area Northwest of Hawaii.
A. protected B. has been protecting
C. has been protected D. having protected
Question 17: The police are not satisfied ______ the answers they have received.
A. on B. by C. to D. with
Question 18: The skirt ______ when she comes tomorrow.
A. shortens B. was shortened
C. will be shortened D. will shorten

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Question 19: My professor gave me a second ______ to retake the exams.
A. time B. occasion C. opportunity D. chance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Harry and Eric are talking about Facebook.
- Harry: “I think Facebook is an effective platform for online trading.”
- Eric: “______. Facebook violates users' privacy and information security to run ads and find customers for
online shops.”
A. I don’t think you are right B. I like your idea
C. Exactly D. You are right
Question 21: Jennie is talking to a waitress in a restaurant.
- Jennie: “Can I have the bill, please?”
- Waiter: “______.”
A. Of course. I'll just go and get it for you B. It’s a tough question
C. Let’s do it then D. You are very kind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She teaches the students to have respect for races and value the diversity of other cultures.
A. quality B. benefit C. variety D. similarity
Question 23: She was a truly remarkable woman who accomplished so much as a strong woman in a
man’s world.
A. famous B. attractive C. interesting D. exceptional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: This train will terminate at the final stop, which means that it will no longer continue on its
route and all passengers will be required to exit.
A. complete B. start C. conclude D. end
Question 25: He is not allowed to drive car, but he sometimes uses her mother’s car on the sly.
A. secretly B. carelessly C. carefully D. publicly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: I am sure Dan is at home because the lights are on.
A. Dan must be at home because the lights are on.
B. Dan needn’t be at home because the lights are on.
C. Dan can’t be at home because the lights are on.
D. Dan may be at home because the lights are on.
Question 27: "Where are you studying now?" asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me where she had been studying at that time.
B. My friend asked me where I was studying then.
C. My friend asked him where you were studying then.
D. My friend asked me where he was studying now.
Question 28: She started using this washing machine two years ago.
A. She has used this washing machine for two years.
B. She used this washing machine for two years.
C. She used this washing machine since two years.
D. She hasn’t used this washing machine in two years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

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Question 29: There has been an appreciative decline in the number of unemployed people since the new
government came to power.
A. government B. appreciative C. power D. unemployed
Question 30: My family usually go to the same place for dinner when we lived in Hai Phong.
A. same B. for C. in D. go
Question 31: It’s a shame that the apartment hasn’t got their own parking space.
A. hasn’t got B. a shame C. their D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. No sooner had the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
B. Hardly had the passengers rushed towards the train when it arrived at the station.
C. Scarcely had the passengers rushed towards the train when it arrived at the station.
D. Not until the passengers rushed towards the train did it arrive at the station.
Question 33: The store near our building is closed. We can't buy groceries right now.
A. If the store near our building were open, we wouldn't be able to buy groceries right now.
B. Provided that the store near our building is open, we can't buy groceries right now.
C. If the store near our building were open, we could buy groceries right now.
D. If the store near our building is open, we could buy groceries.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Deserts are not uninhabited places as many people believe. (34) ______ the daytime air temperature
may reach an unbearable 58oC and the surface temperature 77oC, many animals live in these conditions.
Their survival, however, is dependent on them being able to get water they need. Observation of desert
animals has revealed a lot about the strategies they (35) ______ to achieve this. Researchers have found that
beetles, for example, get their daily (36) ______ of water after waiting for the moisture from fog to condense
on their bodies and drip down into the mouth. Larger desert animals have come up with (37) ______
solution to the problem of finding a source of water. For example, creatures like hares or rats get their
supply by eating considerable amounts of desert vegetation, (38) ______ contains the water they require.
However extreme the conditions may be, desert animals somehow manage to obtain water.
(Adapted from Use of English B2 for all exams by E. Moutsou)
Question 34: A. Although B. However C. Because D. Moreover
Question 35: A. adjust B. employ C. adapt D. engage
Question 36: A. demands B. obligations C. requirements D. expectations
Question 37: A. other B. many C. few D. another
Question 38: A. that B. which C. who D. when
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Leonardo da Vinci began painting the Mona Lisa, one of the most famous paintings of all time, in 1503.
He was working on a special painting for a church at the time, but it was not going well. The woman who
can be seen in the Mona Lisa is said to be Madonna Lisa del Giocondo. She was the wife of an Italian
businessman who asked da Vinci to paint a portrait of her.
After Leonardo da Vinci finished the painting in 1506, he was invited by the French King, Francois I, to
visit France, and he took the painting with him. Today, the Mona Lisa is kept in the Louvre, an art museum
in Paris, and it is seen by about six million visitors a year.
The painting measures only 77 centimeters by 53 centimeters and is painted with oil on wood. In 1911, it
was stolen by a worker at the Louvre, Vincenzo Peruggia, who took it out of the museum by hiding it under
his coat. Two years later, police found the painting under Peruggia's bed after he tried to sell it.

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In 1962, the Mona Lisa was taken to Washington and New York for an exhibition. For the journey, it was
insured for 100 million dollars, making it the most valuable painting ever!
(Source: Reading Advantage)
Question 39: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Leonardo da Vinci - A Famous Painter
B. The Louvre - An Art Museum
C. Vincenzo Peruggia - the Man Who Stole the Mona Lisa
D. The Mona Lisa - the Valuable Painting of All Time
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. the Louvre B. an art museum C. the Mona Lisa D. France
Question 41: The word “hiding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. covering B. revealing C. showing D. taking
Question 42: According to the passage, Leonardo da Vinci ______.
A. spent 3 years completing the Mona Lisa B. painted the portrait of his wife
C. sold the Mona Lisa to the French King. D. painted the Mona Lisa for a church
Question 43: What is NOT true about Vincenzo Peruggia?
A. He worked in an art museum. B. He stole the Mona Lisa.
C. He sold the painting. D. He hid the painting under his bed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Globalisation has affected most aspects of our lives. One area which has changed is education. More
and more people move to different countries for their studies. At the same time, more people stay at home
and study by distance learning. It is now easy to learn without attending a college or university, or attending
less often. ‘Blended learning’ means studying partly in a traditional way in the classroom and partly online
or via email.
Different countries have benefited from the globalisation of education in different ways. Students
can get an internationally recognised degree at a much cheaper price than going abroad and so can improve
their chances of getting a good job. At the same time, those in the countries providing world-class degrees
also benefit. They have greater access to ideas and knowledge from all over the world and having
international students enrich their universities. However, it is not good news for everyone in some
developing countries. It is usually the elite who are prosperous enough to have access to international
education. Many people in rural areas have not even had a primary education. Also, those areas usually do
not have reliable internet connections and most people do not own a computer. It will take a bit more time
for international opportunities to reach everyone in developing countries. Unfortunately, one concern people
have about globalisation is that it can start to mean 'westernisation'. In other words, local knowledge can be
lost and money seen as more important than culture.
Educational institutions have changed their focus due to globalisation. There are so many benefits of
having overseas students that universities are competing for them, using strategies from the world of
business. There is also more emphasis on the student experience. There is more focus on customer care,
especially helping international students to settle in, improve their English and understand the academic
culture of the host country.
(Adapted from Mindset for IELTS by Greg Archer and Lucy Passmore)
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Impact of Globalisation on Education B. Globalisation as a Means to Economic Development
C. Globalisation and its Advantages D. Challenges of Globalisation
Question 45: The phrase blended learning in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. life-long learning B. online learning C. multi-method learning D. distance learning
Question 46: The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

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A. knowledge B. westernisation C. one concern D. globalisation
Question 47: The word care in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. service B. competition C. difficulty D. difference
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true about the advantages of globalised education?
A. Students have more chances of getting good jobs.
B. Students can get their degrees at a cheaper price.
C. Universities benefit from international students.
D. Culture is appreciated more than anything else.
Question 49: Who benefits from globalised education in developing countries?
A. almost everyone in those countries B. mainly those who are well-off
C. people in rural areas D. only those who own a computer
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Academic culture of the host country must be learnt before attending any institutions.
B. Teachers in some educational institutions are not committed to their students.
C. Students are more like clients due to the influence of globalization on education.
D. Educational institutions only receive foreign students.

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