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57. Error rate for DNA polymerase is ------- 1000 mutation/ division
58. How many linkage groups are present in humans? 23
59. Binds the enzyme at non active site causes a conformational change prevents enzyme from
binding its substrate. Non- competitive inhibitors
60. The formula for calculating the diversity of proteins is ------ 20n
61. Formation of NH3 molecule from H2 and N2 is carried out at ------- temperature. 450-
500 °C
62. Very low amount of DNA can be measured by using ------ PCR
63. If reporter and quencher are adjacent to each other they ------ produce light. Small
amount of light produced
64. -------- Molecules provide barrier to the hydrophobic materials across the membrane.
Lipid
65. Lipids in the membrane are present in ----- form. Phospholipids
66. Agarose is a ---- material. Carbohydrate
67. RNA polymerase opens ------base pairs at a time. 25 bp
68. Cells are too small to maintain----- ratio. Large surface area to volume, volume to mass
& charge to mass, all of these.
69. The reverse of a condensation reaction is ----- Hydrolysis
70. How many types of bacterial colony were used by Frederick Griffith in his experiment? 2
71. ----- Vitamins act as receptor for light and present in eyes. Vitamin A
72. A nucleotide is ---- Sugar and Nitrogenous base
73. ----- is the first product of transcription in eukaryotes. Pre mRNA
74. Ribosomes consist of RNA and ---- molecules. Protein
75. Cutting of plasmid and inserting foreign gene into it is ------- Genetic engineering
76. After 30 cycles almost ----- number of copies are formed. 16 billion
77. Which of the following steps for the production of RNA is not regulated by enhancers?
Termination
78. ------- passes the message to the next signaling component in the chain.
79. The degradation of mRNA begins, when its tail reduces to ----- residues. 30
80. Genes are located in----- Chromosomes
81. The catalytic unit of RNA polymerase when placed properly during initiation is just over ---
--- +1 site
82. ------ Type of transport does not require any input of energy to drive the process. Passive
transport
83. Redundant in codon means----- One codon specify more than one amino acids
84. Transition consists of ---------steps 3
85. Genes are located in the nucleus and tangled chromatin material wrapped around histone is -
-------- Eukaryotes
86. Alkaptonuria is more prevalent in case of cousin marriages and has percentage------ 12.5%
87. --------- Site on ribosome where changed tRNA lands with the help of transfer factor. T
site
88. An excision repair mechanism removes abnormal bases formed by ----- Chemical damage
89. Mendel studies how many characters of Pisum Sativum 7
90. RFLP involves------- Used of identify a specific DNA
91. Examples of polysaccharides are ----- Rice & Wheat
92. Central dogma is ------- DNA-RNA-proteins
93. Dye which monitor the migration of DNA in gel electrophoresis: Bromophenol Blue
94. When was the operation mechanism of a bacterial operon first elucidated? 1961
95. The channel that allows the exit of the coding strand is known as -------- NTP channel
96. In an experiment you use RNA polymerase without its sigma factor for transcription. What
will be the result that you observe? Less transcription
97. Which of these is not a part of RNA polymerase elongation machinery? RNA entry
channel
98. PCR can detect ------- HCV virus, HBV virus & HIV virus, All mentioned
99. Taqman is probe present in ------- Nested PCR
100. -------- diseases has no excision repair system and persons may have severe sunburn, dry
skin Xeroderma pigment sum
101. ------ are a group of related motor proteins that use a microtubule track in movement
Kinesins
102. Stitching two different DNAs together is ------- Genetic engineering
103. Oligosaccharides have ------ monomers. 3-20
104. Autotrophs means media in which additional supplements are ----- Added
105. In alkaptonuria ------ enzyme is missing. Home genetic acid oxidase
106. Overall error rate in DNA polymerase 1 is ------ in eukaryotes. 1 in 10 power 10
107. Delta G (Target free)tells us the ------- equilibrium point of the reaction
108. The lac operon is under positive control, a phenomenon called ------- Mutation
109. The first recombinant DNA molecule was synthesized in the year ---- 1972
110. Heme, Flavin and Retinal are ------ Co enzymes
111. Cells that don’t divide are usually arrest I ------ phase G0
112. The most important product of central dogma is ----- that perform number of functions in
the body. Proteins
113. Active site is present in the ------- Enzyme
114. Protein containing vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum transfer substance to the -----
- Cis region of Golgi apparatus
115. DNA wraps around protein forming ----- structure. Nucleosome
116. In a bacterial operon, which is located downstream of the structural gene? Operator
117. Which cation is placed in the catalytic subunit of RNA polymerase? Mg2+
118. An enzyme that can separate the two DNA strand is ----- Helicase
119. How many dollars were spent on human genome sequence? 2.7 billion U.S. dollar
31. The lipids molecules held together by weak interactions and ----- Van der Waals
forces
32. Beta blockers are involved in mimicking the function of a hormone.
33. Initiation site of transcription Promoter
34. Sex related disorders are X- related
35. Function of G protein in vision may ---- Activation of Phospholipase c- Beta
36. Ran GTpase is a molecular switch that exits in 2 states
37. Dendritic cells use on which of the following signal to guide helper T cells to effector T
cells ------- IL- 2
38. The small subunits of ribosomes are bind to mRNA this sequence is called? Shine-
Dalgarno sequence
39. After translation, ---- can be removed? Methionine
40. rRNA in small subunit stabilizes ----- between m and rRNA? H- binding
41. Large subunits break bond between? tRNA
42. Protein folding information is a function of ----- sequences? AA
43. The signal sequences for the action of proteins is present in -------? Polypeptide chains
44. Proteins sequences begin on -------? Free ribosomes
45. An NLS is necessary for import of proteins into the ------? Nucleus
46. Which mutation passes on the daughter cells after the mitosis? Somatic mutation
47. Point mutation has base pair? Single
48. No charge in amino acid sequence in ------? Silent mutation
49. A protein that carries oxygen in humans? Red blood cells
50. ------- is the study of the heritable changes in gene expression? Epigenetics
51. Cluster of genes with ------ promoter is called operon? 1
52. Tryptophan blocks RNA polymerase from ------? Binding and transcribing genes
53. Which regulatory molecule enhances transcription? CRP-cAMP
54. An operon is regulated by ------? Activated protein
55. DNA is highly ordered around positively charged -----? Histone proteins
56. Which groups reduces positive charge when add to histones? Acetyl
57. Promoter has ----- essential sequences? Two
58. TATA box where ---- begins to denature? DNA
59. Eukaryotic promoter have TATA box, which is located----? 25bp
60. The first transcription factor is -----? TF11D
61. Many genes have enhancer away ---- nucleotide? 1000
62. During RNA maturation introns are ----? Removed
63. RNA has complimentary bases that bind CS at ------ exon- introns boundary? 5’
64. The active X makes RNAi anti Xist gene approximately called ----? Tsix
65. Which attract chromosomal proteins? Methylation & Histone DE acetylation
66. Multicellular organisms cells are specialized for the support ----- / Brain sugar
67. Our sense organs allow us to chemical respond to -----? Taste
68. Signal detection to final response is called---? Signal transduction pathway
69. Which signal receptors on the cells that secrete them? Autocrine signal
70. Cell behavior in an environment flooded with ------ of Ligands Hundred
71. Inactive ICR may be ----- bond? DNA
72. How many types of Proteins? 8
73. Wich protin spread signal from one pathway to another? Bifurcation
74. Which protein produce intracellular mediatores? Amplifier
75. Many cells use --- proteins to enhance porteins? Scaffold
76. ----- are produced by in response to signal received by the receptor? SCIMs
77. Helices ------ that participate in against binding? 3,5 & 6
78. Ligand activates --- proteins? G
79. cAMP can bind ----- to open them? Ion channels
80. One receptor----- active Gs? 100
81. Per receptor-hormone complex are produced by ----- cAMP? Hundred
82. Release of glucose fuels ----- response? Flight or fight
83. AKA cAMP depend protein -----? Kinase
84. The PKAs are -----? Tetramerase
85. PDE1 receptor interacts with -----? G1
86. The G protein the synthesis of cAMP by -----? Adenylyl cyclase
87. One rhodopsin molecule absorbs ----- proton? One
88. Calmodulin binds 4 Ca 2+ allosteric (PKA) ----? 1%
89. Tired brain produces-----? Adenosine
90. Extracellular ligands binding domain on ----- segments? 1 trans membrane
91. Most numerous receptors tyrosine ------? Kinases
92. EGF activated MAPK stays active for ---- minute? 5
93. ---- Genes encode kinases? 2%
94. ----- Proteins are phosphorylated? 1/3
95. Activated RAF is phosphorylates many molecules of -----? MEK
96. APC gene mutation occurs in human colon cancer -----? 80%
97. Proteolysis means protein ------? Breaking
98. APC adheres junctions scaffold protein called -----? Axin
99. BTK and PLC –Y to the cytoplasmic face of the -----? Plasma membrane
100. ABL protein preventing ----? Binding
101. Stimulation of milk production is due to -----? Prolaction
102. Bruton’s tyrosine mutation is associated protein kinase B? X linked
103. Which signal cells indirectly activating protein kinase B? Pl 3
104. Intracellular protease cleaves off the cytoplasmic tail of ----- when it binds ----?
Notch, delta
105. Activated protein is -----? PKB
106. Which receptor required for signaling? Type 1- TGF beta & Type 2 TGF
beta, Both
107. Smad complex move into ------- for association of other gene regulatory proteins?
Nucleus
108. ----- Protein called Disheveled is activated when Wnt is present. Cytoplasmic
signaling
109. Which is the primary source due to the skin is lost? Injury infection
110. Pathogens may cause infection of ----? Digestive system
111. Our tears and saliva have enzymes that destroy ----? Microorganisms
112. Steps of immune system? 4
113. Histamine diffuses into ----? Capillaries
114. Phagocytes engulf ---- and dead cells? Bactria
115. Erythrocytes transport oxygen and ---? Carbon dioxide
116. Which cells release histamine when damaged? Mast cells
117. T cells mature in ----? Thymus
118. Lymph nodes contain ----? WBCs
119. AIS have ---- components? 2
120. B lymphocytes kill pathogens ----? 20%
121. How many lymphocytes in human body? 2×1012
122. Substances that activate AIS are called ----? Antigens
123. The rates were unable to mount? AIR
124. B cells develop in ----? Bone marrow
125. Immunoglobin domain is ---- long? 110 AA
126. Polyvalent ---- times stronger than monovalent? 100
127. Which is the first class of Ab to appear on the cells surface? lgM
128. How many classes of antibodies? 5
129. Which chain is required for pen tamer formation? J chain
130. lgG is monomer it is only -----? Ab
131. Which receptors are located on the mast cells? lgE Fc
132. A myeloma cell is fused with a B cells to form? Hybridoma
133. In the absence of the antigen human can make more than ---- different antibody
molecule? 1012
134. Number of Human gene is ----? 30,000
135. Immunoglobin genes have relatively ----- mutation rate? High
136. Effector helper T cells stimulate the responses of other cells? Phagocytic
macrophages, B cells
137. T cells receptor recognizes processed antigen of other cells? MHC protein
138. How many proteins are not immunoglobin? 1
139. Antigen is -----? Peptide fragment
140. A virus infected cell in the case of -----? Cytotoxic C cell
141. How many types of MHC molecules? 2
142. APC expresses major histocompatibility complex -----? MHC genes
143. How many genes are present in MHC classes? 6
144. 3 genes for class 1 proteins -----? HLA-A,B,C
145. Class 11 can ------pair up? α&β
146. MHC rove can accommodate an extended peptide about ----- long? 8-10 amino
acids
147. Each class 1 MHC protein can bind a peptide of -----? Diverse sequences
148. Which terminal bonds to invariant pockets? C,N
149. Cytotoxic T cells provide protection against -----? Intracellular pathogen
150. Which cell form a clone? Tc
151. How many steps are present in protein depending killing? 4
152. Helper T cells activated by an ---- cell to become an affecter cell? Antigen
cell
153. How many types of effector cells? 2
154. TH2 cells mainly help activate -------? B cells
155. APCs provide ---- types of signals? 2
156. Signal 1 is produced by ---? Peptide bond
157. B 7 proteins are -----? CD80- Cd86
158. Which protein is present on the surface of T cells? CD28
159. The compliment system consists of ----- proteins? 30
160. The complement proteins are account for about ----- of the globulin? 5%
161. C1 complex consists of ---- molecules? 6
162. Which molecule binding the surface of pathogens? C1q
163. The complex of C4b, 2b is called -----? C3
164. Macrophages and neutrophils have receptor for -----? C3b
165. Cleavage of CS by the -----? C3/C
166. C3b binds to a protein is called? Factor B
167. C3 converts into ----- form? 3
168. The MBL associated serine proteases-----? MASP-1, MASP-2, MASp-3
169. Factor 1 is inactivates -----? C3b
170. C1 inhibitor binds to sites on activated -----? C11NH
171. A proto- oncogene code for -----? Protein
172. Proto- oncogenes are involved in signal ------? Transduction
173. How many classes of oncogenes? 4
174. Autonomous cell growth is present in ----- cell? Cancer
175. Many glioblastomas secrete -----? PDGF
176. EGF receptor ERBB1 is over expressed in ------ of SCC of lung? 80%
177. ERBB/HER2 is amplified in the ------ of the cancer? 25%-30%
178. Mutation of RAS is present approximately -----in all humans? 30%
179. BCR-ABL hybrid gene activates -----? RAC
180. MYC assembles own a specific DNA sequence and drive ----- of genes?
Transcription
181. MYC binds with -----? DNA
182. MYC gene encoding the -----? Cyclin D
217. Homotypic fusion and heterotypic fusion requires a set of matching -----?
SNAREs
218. Resident ER membrane protein consists of ----- lysine? 2
219. Lysosomes contain ------ types of hydrolytic enzymes? 40
220. Lysosome contains pH ----? 5.0
221. Lysosomes hydrolysis carries a unique marker in the form of ----- groups? M6P
222. How many classes of WBCs in mammals? 3
223. All organs have limited ability to regenerate ----? 1cm
224. Human blood discovered? Austrian Karl Landsteiner
225. Phagocytosis involves the digestion of ----? Microorganisms
226. Skin regenerate every -------? two weeks
227. Every ---- a person dies from a disease that can be treated with tissue transplant?
30 sec
228. In ----- Bogdanov blood transfusion experiment? 1924
229. Which cells don’t cause e rejection? Adult stem cells