GEOTEKNIKA SURVEYING AND MAPPING SERVICES

A Subsidiary of J.A.R. MANALOTO & ASSOCIATES

(Geodetic/Civil/Sanitary/Structural & Geotechnical Engineering Consultants)
Real Estate Broker / Land Surveyor / Environmental Planner / Pollution Control Officer

SIMULATED PROBLEMS FOR STRUCTURAL DESIGN

For June 2017 Architecture Licensure Examinations
(PARTS THREE to EIGHT)

Prepared by: J.A.R. MANALOTO, B.S.G.E.,B.S.C.E.,B.S.S.E.,En.P.,M.P.,MtE.,R.E.A.,R.E.B.,M.S.C.E.,Ph.D.

MASCE.,MACI.,MASSE.,MASPE.,MGEP., LMPICE., LMPSSE., MPIEP., MASEP.,MPSPE.,MPCAPI.,
MNAMPAP.,MREBAP.,MPARA.,MIPREA.,MREAP.,LMUPAE.,LMUPAA

The use of these materials is only allowed for those reviewees handled by Prof. J.A.R. MANALOTO and or any
authorized reviewers of J.A.R. MANALOTO & ASSOCIATES Co. Any other use should be with expressed permission of
the Author. All rights reserved. Building Science Laboratory, College of Architecture & Institute of Civil
Engineering, College of Engineering, U.P. Diliman, Quezon City 1101.

Part Three

____ 1. The effective area in resisting shear of rolled and fabricated shaped may be taken as:
a. overall depth times the web thickness c. flange width times overall depth
b. overall depth times the flange thickness d. overall flange thickness times width of
flange

____ 2. Piles that are driven at an inclination to resist forces that are not vertical are called:
a. batter piles c. slanting piles
b. spur piles d. all of the above

____ 3. A buried plate or block tied to and forming an anchorage for sheet piling or for a retaining wall is a:
a. Anchor Plate c. Dead Man
b. Block Plate d. NOTA

____ 4. A method used advantageously in driving piles in sand, gravel or soft packed clay due to high
resistance offered by this material to piles driven by hammer is called:
a. Splitting c. Steam Hammer
b. Jetting d. NOTA

____ 5. The most important factor affecting the strength of concrete is:
a. Water-Cement Ratio c. Quantity of Cement
b. Void-Cement Ratio d. All of the above

____ 6. The milky layer composed of cement and fine aggregate on the upper surface of the concrete mass
during curing process due to an excess amount of water used:
a. Laittance c. Mortar
b. Grout d. Plaster

____ 7. The stresses that cause cracks in reinforced concrete beams that are vertical at the center of the
span and become more inclined as they approach the supports where they slope at an angle of
about 45 degrees:
a. Shear Stress c. Vertical Stress
b. Diagonal Tension d. Torsional Stress

____ 8. A type of pressure in an upward direction against the bottom of a structure, or a dam, a road, slab, or
a basement floor:
a. Buoyancy c. Uplift Pressure
b. Hydraulic Pressure d. Active Pressure
____ 9. A bearing pile surrounded by earth and supported entirely by friction; carries no load at its end:
a. Load Bearing Pile c. Raymond Pile
b. Friction Pile d. Pre-cast Pile

____ 10. The slow volume reduction of a cohesive soil (clayey soil) under applied loads as in foundation:
a. Settlement c. Consolidation
b. Creep d. NOTA

____ 11. The filling of waste spaces, embankments or construction cavities by sediment or debris carried by
water or a pipe or a flume:
a. Tremie c. Hydraulic Fill
b. Plastic Flow of Concrete d. NOTA

____ 12. The moisture content of a soil at which a given amount of compaction produces the highest value of
dry density:
a. Plastic Limit c. Elastic Limit
b. Optimum moisture content d. Plasticity Index

____ 13. Have the effect of delaying the onset of hardening and usually also of reducing the rate of the
reaction when it does start:
a. Retardant c. Plasticizer
b. Pozzolan d. NOTA

____ 14. Used to give plasticity or cohesion, mainly to mortars, but sometimes also to concrete. They function
by entraining large amount of air and they therefore reduce strength:
a. Plasticizer c. Air Entrainment
b. Pozzolana d. NOTA

____ 15. Means of spreading foundation loads over a wide are thus minimizing bearing pressures and limiting
settlements:
a. Strap Foundation c. Combined Foundation
b. Matt Foundation d. NOTA

____ 16. A measure of the size of mineral particles of the soil or rock; a physical characteristic of the particles
of the soil which affects its mechanical properties; used in classification and identification of soils:
a. Index Properties c. Mechanical Analysis
b. Sieve analysis d. NOTA

____ 17. It is the maximum angle which soil particles make with the horizontal without causing it to slide:
a. Angle of Repose c. Angle of Friction
b. Angle of Internal Friction d. Angle of Shearing Resistance

____ 18. In the general column formula, the term L/r IS KNOWN AS:
a. Poisson’s Ratio c. Rigidity Factor
b. Slenderness Ratio d. Stiffness Ratio

____ 19. The total lateral force or base shear V given by V = ZIKCSW where Z is a numerical coefficient that
depends on the seismic zone in which the structure is located. The Philippines is in Zone 4 where Z
has the value of:
a. 3/16 c. 3/8
b. 1.0 d. 1-1/4

____ 20. The following are non destructive tests in concrete EXCEPT:
a. Pulse velocity c. Rebound Hammer
b. Pull-out test d. Penetration

____ 21. In a long column (slenderness ratio > 160) which of the following has the greatest influence on its
tendency to buckle under a compressive load?
a. modulus of elasticity c. length of column
b. compressive strength of the material d.Radius of gyration of the column
____ 22. Honey comb in concrete can be limited by the :
a. use of chlordane chemical c. use of vibrator
b. use of admixtures in concrete mix d. NOTA

____ 23. A column of gravel or sand punched through less pervious material to permit water to bleed off:
a. Filter drain c. Sand drain
b. Column drain d. Capillary drain

____ 24. Flexural members will overall depth to clear span of ratios greater than 2/5 for continuous spans, 4/5
simple spans, is known as and should be designed as:
a. Spandrel beams c. Deep beams
b. Upstand beams d. Cross girders

____ 25. The state of liquidity occuring generally in granular soils:

a. Shrinkage c. Lahar
b. Creep d. Liquefaction

Part Four

____ 1. For spreading the color particles over large surfaces, the ground oil stain color is thinned with what
material?
a. thinner c. turpentine
b. lacquer thinner d. drier

____ 2. Tests performed on soils passing the No. 40 sieve are called
a. Atterberg Limits c. Plastic Limit
b. Liquid Limit d. None of the above

____ 3. The term defined as the Liquid Limit minus the Plastic Limit: LL – PL = PI, that is the range of water
content over which sediment behaves is called:
a. Plastic Limit c. None of the Above
b. Plastic Index d. All of the Above

____ 4. Any soil, crushed stone, and sand used to raise an existing grade, or as a man-made-deposit,
generally used under spread footings, pavers, or concrete slabs on grade is called:
a. Fill materials c. Borrow fill
b. Granular fill d. All of the above

____ 5. A method of protecting the ferrous materials like steel, iron from rusting or corrosion
a. Rustproofing c. Chrome Plating
b. Galvanizing d. Painting

____ 6. These are hard durable fragments of stone and filler of sand or other finely divided mineral matter,
free from vegetable matter and lumps of clay, complying with the AASHTO METHODS T-11 and T-
26 Grading Requirements:
a. Base course materials c. all of the above
b. Borrow fill materials d. none of the above

____ 7. The Tagalog equivalent of earth fill is:

a. estaka c. escombro
b. banda y banda d. larga masa

____ 8. The horizontal boards usually of lumber used to establish the height of the finish foundation and to
support the guidelines for the excavation of the footing trenches is called:
a. batter boards c. level boards
b. stake outs d. none of the above
____ 9. This is used on all non-painted concrete, synthetic finishes, rubble, and wash-out finishes as a
protection from absorption of water and prevents moss, alkali, fungi to appear on the surface is
known as
a. Silicone water repellant c. Elastomeric Paint
b. Waterproofing paint d. none of the above

____ 10. The specie of the timber usually used for piles is:
a. kamagong c. apitong
b. lauan d. narra

____ 11. Before staking and lay-outing, the first thing to do is:
a. check slope c. check elevation
b. check points d. check road elevation

____ 12. These are stone-filled wire baskets used to stabilize soil and prevent erosion:
a. geo-synthetics c. gabions
b. geonets d. geomembranes

____ 13. Also known as rock lining placed to prevent erosion, scouring or sloughing of a structure or
embankment:
a. riprap c. all of the above
b. gabion system d. none of the above

____ 14. The three methods of levelling batterboards are the following:
a. By using transit, a line level or a carpenter’s level c. all of the above
b. By using a plumb bob, level hose, or mason’s level d. none of the above

____ 15. To determine the bearing capacity of the foundation-bed, the following are applied
a. test pits c. load tests
b. test borings d. all of the above

____ 16. The soil material not recommended for foundation-bed because of the danger of flowing or moving
is
a. sand c. loose rock
b. decayed rock d. quicksand

____ 17. What is the vertical location of a ground surface often used as a reference point with respect to
vertical height?
a. batter board c. elevation
b. grade d. bench mark

____ 18. This is the process of increasing soil density by reducing the volume of air within the soil mass:
a. soil compaction c. soil tempering
b. soil screeding d. soil contracting

____ 19. What is the usual degree of repose of soil materials lo lessen the probability of erosion:
a. 45 c. 32
b. 60 d. 25

____ 20. What is the minimum depth of excavation of soil from its natural level?
a. 1.00 m c. 0.40 m
b. 0.60 m d. 0.90 m

____ 21. A paint defect by discoloration of a coat caused by soluble color in the underlying surface
a. spotting c. deadening
b. blistering d. bleeding
____ 22. In party walls, the correct installation of glass blocks is
a. 9 mm reinforcements every block and c. 10 mm reinforcement every block and course
course
b. 10 mm reinforcement every block and every d. none of the above
third course

____ 23. These are metal or concrete rigid posts that can be arranged in a line to close off a road or path to
vehicles above a certain width and to separate traffic from the pedestrians:
a. fence c. bollards
b. railings d. none of the above

____ 24. A bank of earth placed against one or more exterior wall of a building which serves as a protection
against extremes in temperature is called:
a. drum wall c. berm
b. trombe wall d. sun control

____ 25. What is the excavation or filling of earth or of any sound material or combination thereof in
preparation for a finishing surface such as paving?
a. cut & fill c. site preparation
b. grading d. benching

Part Five

____ 1. Splice are not allowed for timber piles shorter than:
a. 10 ft c. 25 ft
b. 10 m d. 25 m

____ 2. Woods that come from the conifers which have needles for leaves are called:
a. hardwood c. sapwood
b. softwood d. heartwood

____ 3. Which is not a brand name of a medium density fibreboard (mdf)?

a. Celotex c. Masonite
b. Hamosote d. Bonotex

____ 4. Also known as tusk or slew nailing where the nail is hammered obliquely to the surface being joined
is called
a. face nailing c. blind nailing
b. toe nailing d. none of the above

____ 5. What do you call the perforated disks of metals, rubber or plastic placed under the head of a nut or
bolt or at a joint to distribute pressure, prevent leakage, relieve friction or insulate incompatible
materials?
a. Rubber inserts c. washers
b. locks d. fenders

____ 6. An invisible hinge that is so constructed that no parts are exposed when the door is closed is also
known as
a. Soss hinge c. Loose pin hinge
b. Paumelle hinge d. Olive-knuckle hinge

____ 7. The oldest type of latch that is simple to install but difficult to adjust and is usually padlocked is
a. Rim latch c. mortise latch
b. Tubular latch d. thumb latch
____ 8. A type of mortise and tenon wood construction joint where the tongue and groove meets halfway
making the connection clean of joint traces
a. Ship or open c. keyed
b. through d. blind and stub

____ 9. Wall boards or plywood may be applied over studs and also over masonry wall by using
a. wood battens c. sheathing
b. studs d. furrings

____ 10. In a heavy panel door, what is the most appropriate hardware to use so that the door will close
automatically without pushing or pulling
a. gravity hinge c. key operated lock
b. door closer d. automatic door controller

____ 11. What sealant is usually used for self-tapping screws?

a. Epoxy c. Polybutylene
b. Silicon d. Vulcaseal

____ 12. In connecting an 8”x 8” wood post to a 12”x 12” concrete pedestal, what rough hardware will you
use?
a. anchor bolts c. carriage bolts
b. WI straps with bolts d. none of the above

____ 13. This is use to fasten drywall to wood studs

a. tekscrew c. screw anchors
b. drywall screw d. wood screw

____ 14. This is the coating laid on floors to receive finishes like tiles, marbles, carpet, etc.:
a. cement screed c. cement plaster
b. cement render d. cement mortar

____ 15. A masonry finish using pure cement mixed with flexible synthetic latex-based additive like Plexibond
to form a tacky consistency applied by using an applicator roller to give a remarkable finish is
a. plain cement finish c. anay finish
b. stucco finish d. cement textured finish

____ 16. These types of brick have smooth outer surface with a dull satin or high gloss finish, are load
bearing, fire resisting, and impervious and are usually formed with vertical hollow cores through the
body with scouring on the back
a. Glazed brick c. Common brick
b. Structural brick d. Fire brick

____ 17. Stone delivered from the quarries in rough and irregular shape that has at least one good face for
exposure in wall is called
a. dimension stone c. ashlar
b. rubble stone d. none of the above

____ 18. Roofing tile that has the shape of an “S” laid on its side is a
a. mission tile c. French tile
b. pantile d. none of the above

____ 19. The brand name of sheet metal roofing includes the following
a. Steeltech c. Archidex
b. Metalex d. Gyproc

____ 20. In welding stainless steel, the type of rod to used shall be
a. SS welding rod c. WI welding rod
b. GI welding rod d. BI welding rod
____ 21. Ga. 26 is the standard specification for metal roofing, but what is the preferred gauge for use in
actual construction?
a. Ga. 32 c. Ga. 30
b. Ga. 24 d. Ga. 22

____ 22. The delivery of concrete from the mixer to the forms must not exceed
a. 15 mins. c. 45 mins.
b. 30 mins. d. 60 mins.

____ 23. What is the usual time for concrete to initially set after mixing?
a. 3-120 mins. c. 15-60 mins.
b. 6-180 mins. d. 1-15 mins.

____ 24. Which of the following is not a brand of an integral waterproofing compound?
a. SAHARA c. FLINT-COTE
b. AQUELLA d. ZILICON

____ 25. A type of glass used in constructing a vision type of door, which must be shatter-proof so as to be
accident-free
a. figured wire glass c. clear plate glass
b. bevel wire glass d. laminated glass

Part Six

____ 1. 3/16” is equivalent to:

a. 6 mm c. 2 mm
b. 8 mm d. 4.5 mm

____ 2. Which of the following is not applicable as cementing material?

a. Portland Cement c. Gypsum
b. Lime d. None of the choices

____ 3. What is the appropriate size of aggregates for the reinforced concrete columns?
a. G-1 c. neither of the choices
b. ¾” crushed gravel d. either of the choices

____ 4. A bag of cement is equivalent to

a. 1 cuf c. 46 kg
b. 1 cum d. all of the above

____ 5. Most common type of cement used in the Philippine construction industry nowadays
a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. Type IV

____ 6. Glass blocks are included in what Division of the Master Specs?
a. Masonry c. Thermal & Moisture Protection
b. Wood & Plastics d. Glazing

____ 7. For a concrete mix used for a structural beam, how many bags of cement is needed for a 1 cubic
meter volume of concrete (using Class A mixture)
a. 11 c. 7
b. 9 d. 6

____ 8. What is the disadvantage of using steel scaffolding over wood scaffolding?
a. more expensive c. takes longer time to assemble
b. requires more space d. can only support to light loadings
____ 9. Roofing truss system shall be exposed and will be used as an interior element, which fastening
system should you use?
a. bolts c. full weld
b. gussets d. rivets

____ 10. Which is not a commercial length of a steel reinforcing bar?

a. 10 m c. 6 m
b. 9 m d. 7.5 m

____ 11. When used in the construction site, “retaso” means:

a. excess, cut-out materials from wood c. additional mortar or concrete or cement
composites, lumber, tiles, etc.
b. removal of existing lumber d. pulling of strings

____ 12. Purpose of CHB cells

a. to make it lightweight c. to make it cheaper
b. to make it stronger d. to allow heat insulation

____ 13. A concrete is already mixed in the plant, but there is an anticipated rain, what is the best thing to do?
a. put tarpaulin on concrete after pouring c. reschedule the pouring
b. add enhancers d. purchase pre-cast members at the local
hardware

____ 14. A R3 maximum residential is built on a former rice field. On what strata should the foundation have
to rest on?
a. soft to very soft c. hard to very hard
b. soft to medium d. medium to hard

____ 15. Most economical material

a. Italian granite slab c. Chinese granite tiles
b. Roman granite slab d. Romblon marble

____ 16. Studs are for

a. wall framing c. slip form
b. floor framing d. ceiling framing

____ 17. What is the size of a column at the ground floor of a 15-storey building with a beam span at around
8.5-10m?
a. 2.25 c. 1.25
b. 1.60 d. 0.80

____ 18. Which comes first when constructing a slab on fill?

a. FDT c. Temperature bars
b. Concrete mixing d. BLM

____ 19. Which comes first when constructing a gypsum board finished ceiling?
a. Wall angle installation c. Board installation
b. MEPF Roughing-in completion d. Metal studs

____ 20. Color code for PS Grade 275 Deformed bar

a. Green c. Red
b. Yellow d. Any of the above

____ 21. What is important when installing aluminum door or window frames?
a. opening must be square and plumb c. finish of the aluminum frame
b. thickness of glass d. cost
____ 22. Who will shoulder the cost of the retrofitting of a structural column if the compressive testing of the
ready mixed concrete failed to meet its minimum strength?
a. General Contractor c. Ready-mix concrete supplier
b. Structural Engineer who approved the d. Site Architect who oversaw the concrete
concrete mixing and placing methodology pouring of the structural column

____ 23. Which comes first when finishing a reinforced concrete main staircase
a. stainless baluster with bottom flange c. mortar topping
b. stair tread and riser finish d. stair waist stainless skirting

____ 24. What is the disadvantage of using skim coats?

a. cost c. takes longer time to apply
b. plastering must be finished smooth d. needs more time for curing

____ 25. Who is responsible for the MEPF perforations on moisture resistant acoustic boards?
a. MEPF subcontractors c. Owner
b. Acoustic board subcontractor d. Architect in-charge of the over-all construction
of the project

Part Seven

____ 1. A circuit breaker in which the interruption occurs in air

a. Thermal CB c. Air Circuit Breaker
b. Magnetic CB d. Air Switch

____ 2. A synchronous generator of alternating current that changes mechanical power into electrical power
a. Motor c. Alternator
b. UPS d. Accelerator

____ 3. An electromagnetically operated signaling apparatus that indicates whether a current is flowing or
has flowed in one or more circuits
a. Buzzer c. Annunciator
b. Pager d. Arrester

____ 4. A cable provided with a metal wrapping of metal usually steel wires, primarily for the purpose of
mechanical protection
a. NMC c. BX
b. BX d. Armored Cable

____ 5. A feeder designed for installation below the surface of the ground, or for installation in an
underground duct
a. Cable Tray c. Underground feeder
b. Underground cable d. BX

____ 6. A thin-walled steel raceway of circular form with a corrosion-resistant coating for protection of wire or
cables
a. slate c. BX
b. conduit d. EMT

____ 7. Also called “transfer box”

a. junction box c. outlet box
b. pull box d. cut-out box

____ 8. A device that operates by electromagnetic induction with a tapped winding, or two or more separate
windings, usually on a iron core, for the purpose of stepping voltage or current up and down
a. Generator c. Transformer
b. Circuit breaker d. Delta transformer

____ 9. A device for making, or breaking, or rearranging the connections of an electric circuit
a. switch c. switchgear
b. switchboard d. all of the above
____ 10. A transient variation in current and/or voltage at a given point in a circuit
a. potential difference c. lighting
b. surge d. short circuit

____ 11. A fault path for current in a circuit that conducts excessive current ; if the fault has appreciable
resistance, it is termed “leakage path”
a. surge c. potential difference
b. lighting d. short circuit

____ 12. A protective covering applied to a cable

a. Insulator c. Sheath, Cable
b. Raceway d. Romex

____ 13. The conductors and equipment for supplying electrical energy from the main of feeder, or from the
transformer to the area served
a. Entrance Cable c. Service
b. Auxiliary d. None of the above

____ 14. What type of elevator is best used in hospitals and hotels?
a. Freight and Passenger Elevator c. Freight and Dumbwaiter
b. Passenger Elevator and Dumbwaiter d. Passenger Elevators only

____ 15. Which is a better option in the selection of an elevator for a high rise building?
a. Hydraulic Elevator c. Geared Traction Electric Elevator
b. Gearless Traction Electric Elevator d. Scenic Elevator

____ 16. Which is a better option in considering the placement of elevators in a high rise building?
a. at service core c. at building envelope particularly at the sides
b. at center of building d. at the rear of the building

____ 17. What type of escalator pattern is appropriate for a mall?

a. parallel arrangement c. combination
b. criss-cross pattern d. does not matter

____ 18. What is best to employ in an airport?

a. conveyor and escalator c. moving walk and moving ramp
b. conveyor and moving walk d. moving walk and escalator

____ 19. The air curtain is installed and located at the building’s entry/exit for what reason?
a. to enhance the cooling system of ACs c. to serve as an exhaust for mechanical
ventilation
b. to maintain cooling system inside a room d. to act as ventilator

____ 20. What should be installed at the outside perimeter of an air conditioning duct to lessen noise and
vibration?
a. vibration isolator c. foam insulation
b. paint d. concrete pad

____ 21. Dampers are installed inside air boot fitting to

a. to remove excess airflow c. to redirect air flow
b. to stop air flow d. regulate the amount of cool air for even
distribution to outlets
____ 22. A Variable Air Volume (VAV) unit is used for
a. cooling a room c. cooling several rooms from one unit
b. cooling indoor parking areas d. cooling mechanical equipments

____ 23. A type of air register used in ceiling with four-way output is
a. exhaust fan c. diffuser
b. duct d. cassette type register
____ 24. A cooling tower is located at
a. roof deck c. basement
b. parapet d. pump room

____ 25. The condenser of a split type airconditioner is best placed on

a. outside of a building adjacent to the c. inside the building placed at AHU room
evaporator
b. at parapet away from view d. at roof deck

Part Eight

____ 1. A T&B layouted in one wall is considered

a. economical c. functionally interrelated
b. less problematic in installation d. none of the above

____ 2. A plumbing sheet requires a water supply layout and a sanitary layout to
a. complete the drawings needed for securing a plumbing permit
b. to detail the necessary specifications and proper design and installation of the plumbing system
c. to enable the master plumber to understand the drawing
d. all of the above

____ 3. A gooseneck is installed in the individual water supply system

a. if there is less pressure from the main c. if the flow of water to the water distribution
pipe need to be throttled
b. if there is a need to increase the pressure from d. if the water source is inefficient to supply
the main the branches

____ 4. Air is needed to ventilate the VSTR; this is important so that

a. pressure inside the vent pipe normalize c. pressure build up inside the pipe
b. pressure can penetrate the vacuum of air present d. none of the above
inside the pipe

____ 5. Plastic pipes are favored as against the other pipe materials because
a. they are easily installed c. they do not corrode
b. they are lightweight d. they offer wide variety of choices

____ 6. The installation of certain parts (CWL roughing-in) of the plumbing system is done before installation
of the
a. structural system c. sanitary roughing-in
b. electrical roughing-in d. mechanical roughing-in

____ 7. Pipe cleanout is a requirement

a. at the upper end of the fixture branch c. for every degree change of slope gradient
b. at every turn of a sanitary horizontal branch d. for situation ‘b’ most of the time

____ 8. What is the waste outlet size of a wash basin?

a. 1-1/2” c. 1-1/4”
b. 1-1/8” d. 1-3/4”

____ 9. The code that prescribed regulations on the quality or potability of water is
a. National Building Code c. Water Code of the Philippines
b. National Plumbing Code d. National Standard for Drinking Water

____ 10. The code that prescribes regulations on water piping installations inside buildings and premises is
the
a. National Building Code c. Water Code of the Philippines
b. National Plumbing Code d. National Standard for Drinking Water

____ 11. Used for closing the end of a pipe through the use of bolts
a. Cap c. Union
b. Plug d. Blind Flange
____ 12. A window installed for toilet room ventilation should be placed
a. near the shower area c. near the lavatory
b. near the water closet d. at the ceiling

____ 13. A branch vent embedded in the wall should have a height of
a. 1.50 m c. 1.80 m
b. 1.20 m d. 1.40 m

____ 14. Water for rural domestic use is usually obtained from
a. wells c. city mains
b. springs d. artesian wells

____ 15. Septic tank digestive chamber requires

a. a cleanout c. an air space
b. a manhole d. all of the above

____ 16. The nominal commercial designation, normally the inside diameter of the pipe is applicable for use in
a. brass pipe c. cast iron pipe
b. copper pipe d. polyethylene pipe

____ 17. The total developed length of a pipeline is being applied

a. when there’s a need to offset the alignment of c. when sprinkler pipings are suspended from
other utility systems the slab having differential elevations
b. if air conditioning duct increase or decrease in d. none of the above
size

____ 18. The level at which water begins to overflow a lavatory is at

a. the edge of the lavatory apron c. at the hole located upfront the rim
b. at the edge of the counter top d. none of the above

____ 19. An installed water pipe or fitting that forms an angle of less than 45 degrees with the horizontal
a. grade line c. stack
b. riser d. horizontal pipe

____ 20. A fixture unit, equal to one cubic foot per minute is
a. used for sizing plumbing jobs in a plumbing c. used to size fixture vent
system fixture
b. used to know the flow of waste d. used to know the gpm of water

____ 21. A sewage ejector is used to elevate

a. effluent from the leaching chamber c. storm water from catch basin
b. sewage and liquid wastes from a lower level to a d. liquid wastes from STP
point of discharge

____ 22. The main soil and waste vent of a sanitary system is primarily used for
a. liquid and solid waste c. wet venting
b. dry venting d. effluent discharge

____ 23. The principal vent pipe of a system to which vent connections can be made
a. Branch vent c. Main
b. Main vent d. Yoke Vent

____ 24. All of the drainage piping within a building that conveys and other to a legal point of disposal
exclusive of public and private exterior pipe lines or systems
a. rainwater c. sewage
b. liquid wastes d. all of the above

____ 25. All water supply, drainage, and venting system and all fixtures and their traps complete with their
connections
a. plumbing system c. plumbing layout
b. drainage system d. sanitary layout
 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________
In all pursuits the most important thing that we have and can control is our attitude and mindset
affirmed in our trust of ourselves and our Creator.
Be always inspired and challenged.
In time we will be what we envisioned ourselves to be in God’s will
____________________________________________________________________________________________________