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AIATS JEE (A) 2020 Test-1 P-2 (Code-C) 21-06-2020 FINAL
AIATS JEE (A) 2020 Test-1 P-2 (Code-C) 21-06-2020 FINAL
JEE (Advanced)-2021
TEST No. 1A (Paper-2)
(XII Studying Students)
1. Read each question carefully. (iii) Section-2: This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each
circle in the answer sheet. question has only one correct answer and carries +4 marks for correct
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. (iv) Section-3: This section contains 4 multiple choice questions which
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the (v) Section-4: This section contains 2 questions. Each question has two
test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. Columns. Column-I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Each entry in Column-I may
check that Roll No., Centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and match with one or more entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I
marked correctly. carries +2 marks for correct answer and no negative marks for
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer wrong answer.
sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
(vi) Section-5: This section contains 3 questions. The answers to each of
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
the question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. If the correct
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics). Each part has 5 sections. answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 5 multiple choice questions which respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively. Each
have one or more than one correct answers. Each question carries +4 question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
marks for correct answer and no negative marks for wrong answer. answer.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
1. A wire having a uniform linear charge density λ is bent in the form of a ring of radius R. Consider an arbitrary
point P, somewhere inside the ring in its plane (not at the centre). Two elements of ring x and y having
lengths l1 and l2 respectively, subtend a small same angle at point P. Their mean distance from point P is r1
and r2 (> r1) respectively. Then choose the correct option(s).
(C) The direction of net electric field produced by the elements x and y at P is towards element y
(D) Net electric field at point P due to elements x and y is zero
–
2. An infinite dielectric sheet having surface charge density (+σ) has a hole of radius R in it. An electron (e ) is
released from rest on the axis of the hole at a distance 3R from its centre. Then choose the correct
option(s). (mass of electron = m, charge on electron = e)
σeR
(A) The electron crosses the centre with speed
mε 0
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3. Consider a system of four large parallel plates A, B, C and D. Plates A and C are connected to each other
with the help of a conducting wire. Plates B and D can be connected to ground with the help of switch
arrangement S1 and S2. Separation between consecutive plates is equal to d. Initially plates A and B are
having charge Q0 each, and plate D is having charge +2Q0. Both switches are closed simultaneously. Then
magnitude of charge flown through switch
5Q0
(A) S1 is (B) S1 is Q0
3
7Q0
(C) S2 is (D) S2 is 2Q0
3
4. Two smooth spherical non-conducting shells A and B each of radius R, having uniformly distributed charge
Q and –Q on their surfaces are released from rest on a smooth non-conducting surface, when distance
between their centre is 10R. The mass of A is m and that of B is 2m. Choose the correct statement(s).
1
(Neglecting gravitational attraction), K =
4πε0
8KQ 2 4KQ 2
(A) Speed of A just before collision is (B) Speed of A just before collision is
15mR 15mR
2KQ 2 KQ 2
(C) Speed of B just before collision is (D) Speed of B just before collision is
15mR 15mR
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
5. An ellipsoidal cavity is carved within a conductor and a positive point charge q is placed at the centre of
cavity. Points A and B are at the surface of cavity. Then
(A) Electric field near A in the cavity must be equal to that near B in the cavity
(B) Charge density at A must be equal to charge density at B
(C) Potential at A must be equal to potential at B
q
(D) Total flux through closed surface inside the cavity enclosing charge q is
ε0
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 6 to 8
In nature it is often observed that isolated charge are not seen, rather we deal with a system of charges in which
few charge are of opposite polarity to each other. Such a system in which we take two charges of equal
magnitude, but opposite polarity has been named as electric dipole. In the figure shown an electric dipole is
placed of distance x from O on the axis of a charged ring of radius R and charge uniformly distributed over it. If
total charge on ring is Q then answer the following questions. (x >> a)
(Assume mass of each charge +q and –q are m)
Qqa R 2 – 2 x 2 Qqa R 2 – 2 x 2
(A) 3
(B) 5
2πε0 2 2πε0 2
(R + x )2 (R + x )2
2 2
Qqa [R 2 ]
(C) 3
(D) Zero
2πε0 [R 2 + ]
x2 2
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7. The work done to rotate the dipole by 180° so that position of charges are interchanged, is
Qqax Qqax
(A) 3
(B) 3
πε0 [R 2 + ]
x2 2 2πε0 [R 2 + x 2 ] 2
Qqax
(C) 3
(D) Zero
4πε0 [R 2 + x 2 ] 2
8. If charges are connected by massless rigid rod and pivoted at center of mass, then time period of dipole for
small oscillation, is
3 3
4π2 ε0 ma 32π2 ε0 ma
(A) (R 2 + x 2 )2 (B) (R2 + x 2 )2
qQx qQx
3
16π3 ε0 ma 3
π2 ε0 ma ( R 2 + x 2 ) 2
(C) (R 2
+ x )
2 2
(D)
qQx qQx
Four capacitors of capacitance C, 2C, 3C and 4C respectively are connected as shown in figure. Battery is ideal.
Initially the switch S is open. At t = 0 switch S is closed
CE
(A) CE (B)
2
CE CE
(C) (D)
5 3
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
CE 2 2CE 2
(A) (B)
5 105
CE 2 CE 2
(C) (D)
105 35
11. Heat generated in the circuit after closing the switch is
CE 2 2CE 2
(A) (B)
105 105
CE 2 CE 2
(C) (D)
5 35
SECTION - 3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
12. Three dipoles each of dipole moment P are placed tangentially on a circle of radius R (in its) plane,
positioned at equal angles from each other as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at
1
the centre of the circle will be k =
4πε0
4kP 2kP
(A) 3
(B)
R R3
3kP
(C) (D) Zero
R3
= yiˆ + xjˆ . The shape of equipotential surface is
13. Electric field function in a region of space is given as E
(A) Circle (B) Ellipse
(C) Straight line (D) Hyperbola
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14. An arbitrarily shaped hollow conductor encloses a charge q and is surrounded by a thick conducting
spherical shell as shown in figure. Four different region (1, 2, 3 and 4) are indicated in the diagram. Choose
the correct statement.
(C) The surface charge density on the outer surface of the shell is always uniform irrespective of position of
charge q in region-1
SECTION - 4
Matching Column Type
This section contains two questions. Each question contains two Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I
has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Match the entries in
Column I with the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
The OMR contains a 4 × 5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in Column I
matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the OMR. Similarly, for entries (B), (C)
and (D).
(A) (P) F = 0
(B) (Q) F ≠ 0
(C) (R) τ = 0
(D) (S) τ ≠ 0
(T) u < 0
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17. Consider a capacitive circuit shown in the figure. Match column-I with column-II (magnitude only)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Potential of point B (in volt) (P) Zero
20
(B) Potential of point D (in volt) (Q)
9
40
(C) Charge on 1 F capacitor (in C) (R)
9
10
(D) Charge on 3 F capacitor (in C) (S)
3
50
(T)
9
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples-
If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in
OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
18. A charge +Q is distributed uniformly throughout the volume of a fixed non-conducting sphere of radius R.
R
Sphere is placed in a gravity free space and a narrow tunnel is made into it upto depth . Outside the
2
tunnel there is a spring of spring constant k. A small test charge of mass m and charge q is placed at the
aQq
bottom of the tunnel at rest and is set free. The maximum compression of the spring is , a is
16πε0 kR
19. Two large non-conducting sheets having surface charge densities + σ and –σ respectively are fixed d
distance apart. A small test charge q having mass m is attached to two non-conducting springs each of
spring constant k as shown in figure. The two springs are of identical lengths and separation between the
parallel plates is d. The charge q is released from rest with both springs undeformed. Neglecting gravity, the
σq
amplitude of small oscillation of the charge q is . Value of b is
bk ε0
20. A thin circular ring of radius r is uniformly charged over its length. Consider two points, the centre of
ring O, and a point P on the axis of the ring at a distance a from the centre of the ring. If ratio of potential
Vo 10 a
at points O and P is = , then value of is
VP 1 r
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2+ a
(D) The shortest distance between two Zn ion in ZnS crystal is (where a is the edge length
2
of unit cell)
22. An ionic compound AB has rock salt type structure. Identify the correct statements about it.
nd +
(A) The 2 co-ordination number of A is 12
nd + 3a
(B) The distance of 2 co-ordination from A is
2
–
(C) The first co-ordination number of B is 6
23. A metal crystallises in bcc lattice. If all the atoms from body centre of each unit cell are removed then identify
the correct statements.
(A) Density of metal decreases by 50%
(B) Packing efficiency of the metal decreases by 50%
(C) Percentage increase in voids is 50%
(D) Number of atoms per unit cell decreases by 50%
24. Which of the following doesn’t affect the vapour pressure of a binary solution containing non-volatile solute?
(A) Temperature (B) Surface area
(C) Addition of solvent (D) Addition of solute
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
25. A liquid has boiling point 300 K and enthalpy of vaporisation is 4.606 kcal/ mol then find out temperature at
which vapour pressure of liquid is 7.6 mm Hg.
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 26 to 28
If a cubic crystal is formed by AAA type packing in 3-D and layer A is arranged in given pattern as shown below.
26. What will be packing efficiency if above pattern converts in 3-D as AAA…..type packing?
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 6 (D) 14
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Two immiscible liquid A and B having vapour pressure 100 mm Hg and 30 mm Hg respectively are poured in
separating funnel in equal molar ratio. Liquid A have density more than B and 0.01 mole of solute XY is mixed in
liquid and funnel is shaked very well. XY ionises in liquid A and dimerises in liquid B. After equilibrium 20 mol % of
XY reaches in liquid A if the degree of dissociation in liquid A is 8%, but lowering in vapour pressure of A and B
are equal.
31. If we open the nob of separating funnel then which liquid came out first?
SECTION - 3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
32. The following diagram gives the unit cell as packing arrangement of lattice points in a 2D solid. Calculate its
packing efficiency.
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
33. In NaCl structure, which one of the following operations will change the formula of NaCl?
(A) Removal of all ions present at one of the body diagonal plane
(B) Removal of all ions present at one of C3-axis of symmetry
(C) Removal of all ions present at one of rectangular plane of symmetry
(D) Removal of all ions present at one of C4-axis of symmetry
34. In a pickle, high concentration of salt is used to preserve it for a long time. The micro-organism died when
they came in contact with pickle. Which of the following reason is responsible for it?
(A) End-osmosis (B) Exosmosis
(C) Electroosmosis (D) Reverse osmosis
35. If 0.1 M aqueous solution of NaCl has osmotic pressure 2.5 atm at particular temperature and 0.2 M acetic
acid has osmotic pressure 4.5 atm at same temperature then the pH of acetic acid solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.7
(C) 0.8 (D) 1
SECTION - 4
36. Match the ionic crystalline solids given in column-I with the arrangement of their cations/anions in the space
lattice.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Rock salt type (P) Anion form ccp lattice
(B) Zinc blende type (Q) Cation form ccp lattice
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37. Match the concentration terms given in column-I with their characteristics given in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
SECTION - 5
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples-
If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 06, 00 and 09 in
OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. Boron element exists as icosahedron molecular form. It has ‘X’ number of triangular faces and ‘Y’ number of
corner. What is the value of (X – Y)?
39. A solute A2B3 20% ionises, 20% tetramerises and 60% precipitates in a solvent and the value of
40. If the freezing point of 0.01 molal aqueous solution cobalt (III) chlorideammonia complex (CoCl3.yNH3) is
–1
–0.0558°C.The value of vant Hoff’s factor is [kf = 1.86 K kg mol ]
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
1 1 1 1
(A) sin–1 = tan–1 has 1 real root (B) sin–1 = cos –1 has 1 real root
x x x x
1 1 1 1
(C) sin–1 = cosec –1 has 2 real root (D) sin–1 = cot –1 has 1 real root
x x x x
42. Let f ( x )
= sin–1 x – cos –1 x , g ( x )
= tan–1 x – cot –1 x and h ( x ) = sec –1 x – cos –1 x then which of the
1
(C) Domain of (g + f) (x) is , 1 (D) Domain of (g + h + f) (x) is {1}
2
+ + 2 2
43. Let f be a function defined from R → R . If (f(xy)) = x(f(y)) for all positive numbers x and y and f(2) = 6 then
x 3 – 3x 2
44. If f ( x ) =cos x + cos then
–1 –1
+
2 2
π 10π π 5π
(A) Range of f(x) is , (B) Range of f(x) is ,
3 3 3 3
1 1
(C) f(x) is one-one for x ∈ –1, (D) f(x) is one-one for x ∈ , 1
2 2
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π π
45. Let f : – , → R be given by f ( x ) =(log ( sec x + tan x ) )n +1 ; n ∈ N then
2 2
(A) f(x) is an odd function if n is even (B) f(x) is an even function if n is odd
(C) f(x) is one-one and into function if n is even (D) f(x) is one-one and onto function if n is even
SECTION - 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Six questions relate to two
paragraphs with three questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer
among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 46 to 48
x – 1
Let f : R –{0, 1} → R be a function satisfying the relation f ( x ) + f =x for all x ∈ R –{0, 1}. Based on this
x
answer the following questions.
46. f(x) is equal to
1 1 x – 1 1 1 x – 1
(A) x+ – (B) x– +
2 1– x x
2 1– x x
1 1 x – 1 1 1 x – 1
(C) x– – (D) x+ +
2 1– x x
2 1– x x
3 –3
(A) (B)
4 4
5 –5
(C) (D)
4 4
1
48. f is equal to
2
5 –7
(A) (B)
4 4
7 9
(C) (D)
4 4
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
π3 π3 π3 π3
(A) , (B) ,
7 2 32 8
π3 π3 π3 π3
(C) , (D) ,
40 10 32 8
π2 π2
(A) (B)
10 12
π2 π2
(C) (D)
8 4
λ – µπ
51. If least value of A is λ and minimum value of B is µ. Then cot –1 cot is
µ
7π π
(A) – (B) –
8 8
π 7π
(C) (D)
4 8
SECTION - 3
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
( )
( x ) log2 2 + 2 + 2 + ....∞ ⋅ log3 1 + f x and
52. If a polynomial function ‘f’ satisfies the relation log2 f =
3 9 f 1
x
f(5) = 126 then the value of f(10) is
(A) 1002 (B) 999
(C) 1000 (D) 1001
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n r – r – 1
53. ∑ sin–1 is equal to
r =1 r ( r + 1)
π
(A) tan–1 n (B) tan–1 ( n + 1) –
4
π
(C) tan–1 ( n ) – (D) tan–1 n + 1
4
( x3 – 3x + 6) ( x – α )
54. The range of α such that range of f ( x ) = be always complete set R, is
2( x – α)
x –1 1
55. If the range of function f ( x ) = does not contain any values belonging in –1, – then the set of
2
p – x +1 3
values of p is
1
(A) (–∞, –1) (B) – ∞, –
4
SECTION - 4
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Test -1A (Paper-2) (Code-C) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2021
56. Match the entries of column-I with entries in column-II, where [.], {.} and sgn(.) represent greatest integer,
fractional part and signum functions respectively.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Let f : [–1, 1] → R be defined by (P) Odd
f (=
x) 3
x + sin–1 x then f(x) is
(B) f : R → {–1, 0, 1} be defined as (Q) Even
1– | x |
f ( x ) = sgn then f(x) is
1+ | x |
(C) Let f : [–4, 2] → [0, 3] defined by (R) Onto
f ( x ) = 8 – 2 x – x 2 then f(x) is
(D) Let f : R → R defined by (S) One-one
[x]
2–
f (x) = – 2|x| then f(x) is
2{ x }
(T) Many-one
57. Match the following.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Let f : R → R satisfies (P) Even
f(x + y) + f(x – y) = 2f(x) f(y) ∀ x, y ∈ R
e|x| – e – x
(B) Let f : R → R is defined by f ( x ) = , (Q) Odd
ex + e– x
then f(x) is
(C) Let f : R → R be a polynomial function (R) Into
1 1
satisfying f ( x ) f = f ( x ) + f and
x x
f(3) = 28 then f(x) is
(D) Let f : R → R is defined by f(x) = 2x + sinx, (S) Many-one
then f(x) is
(T) Bijective
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SECTION - 5
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1
1 9
If f ( x ) 4cos4 x + 2cos2 x – cos 4 x – 2sin2 x – x 9 then the value of f(f(2)) is equal to
58. =
2
3 sin 2α –1 tan α λα π π
59. If tan–1 + tan = , where – < α < then value of λ is
5 + 3cos 2α 4 4 2 2
x y
60. Let a function f : R → R be such that f(1) = 2 and f(x + y) = 2 f(y) + 4 f(x), ∀ x, y ∈ R. If f′ (2) = kln2, then
number of divisors of k, is
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