(6001CMD30300123001) *6001CMD30300123001* Test Pattern

English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

INTERNAL TEST
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 03-05-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE_PHASE-I
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 24 pages.

Q2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
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fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology. 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A
and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
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mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2023

 2 English

Topic : Physical World, Units And Dimensions & Errors In Measurement, Basic Mathematics Used In Physics
& Vectors (1 To 4).

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 7. If force [F], acceleration [A] and Time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
1. a = 8 ± 0.04, b = 6 ± 0.02 if x = a − b, find Find the dimensions of energy :-
percentage error in x (1) [F] [A–1] [T] (2) [F] [A] [T]
(1) 1% (2) 3% (3) 6% (4) 4.5% (3) [F] [A] [T2] (4) [F] [A] [T–1]
2. Which of the following is not the unit of length : 8. If x = at + bt2 , where x is in metre and t is in
(1) Micron (2) Light year hour(hr) then unit of b will be
(3) Angstrom (4) Radian (1) m2/hr (2) m
3. The units nanometre, fermi, angstrom and (3) m​​/hr (4) m/hr2
attometre, arranged in decreasing order will read
9. Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. The
as :-
corresponding value in ft/s2 is (1m = 3.2 ft)
(1) Angstrom, nanometre, fermi, attometre
(1) 32 (2) 980 (3) 10 (4) 3
(2) Fermi, attometre, angstrom, nanometre
10. Which of the following functions of A and B
(3) Nanometre, angstrom, fermi, attometre may be performed if A and B possess different
(4) Attometre, angstrom, fermi, nanometer dimensions?
(1) A (2) A + B
4. Which one is not a basic physical quantity
B
(1) Temperature (3) A – B (4) None of these
(2) Amount of substance 11. [MLT–1] + [MLT–1] = ......................
(3) Energy (1) [M°L°T°] (2) [MLT–1]
(4) Mass (3) 2[MLT–1] (4) None of these
5. If S = 1 ft3 , 'f' has the dimensions of - (S= 12. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v
3
distance, t = time) =at+ b .
t+c
(1) [ M 0 L−1 T 3 ] (2) [ M 1 L1 T −3 ] The dimensions of a, b, c are respectively
(3) [ M 0 L1 T −3 ] (4) [ M 0 L−1 T −3 ] (1) [LT–2] [L], [T]
6. Find the dimensions of velocity (2) [L2], [T] and [LT2]
(1) [ M 0 L0 T 0 ] (2) [ M 0 L0 T 1 ] (3) [LT2], [LT] and [L]
(3) [ M 0 L1 T −1 ] (4) [ M 0 L1 T −2 ] (4) [L], [LT]and [T2]
13. If the unit of force and length each be increased
by four times, then the unit of energy is
increased by
(1) 16 times (2) 8 times
(3) 2 times (4) 4 times
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14. Which of the following is incorrect statement 21. Correct match for the given table is :-
(1) A dimensionally correct equation may be Resolution of quantity
(A) Accuracy (P)
correct measured.
(2) A dimensionally correct equation may be how close is the
incorrect measured
(B) Precision (Q)
quantity close to true
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be
value
correct
(4) A dimensionally incorrect equation is (1) A → P ; B → Q
incorrect (2) A → Q ; B → P
15. Two physical quantities A and B have different (3) A → Q ; B → Q
dimensions. Which mathematical operation (4) A → P ; B → P
given below is physically possible ?
22. When 10 observations are taken, the random
(1) √ AB (2) A(1 + B)
error is x. When 100 observations are taken, the
(3) A – B (4) A + B random error becomes
16. Number of significant digits in 2.400 × 12.0 is :- (1) x/10 (2) x2
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 10 x (4) √ x

(3) 3 (4) 1 23. Zero error of an instrument introduces

17. dx (1) Systematic errors (2) Random errors
∫ is equal to
x3/2
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
(1) −3 (2) 2
+C +C
2 √x 3 √x 24. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are
(3) −2 measured with percentage errors 1%, 2%, 3%
+C (4) −2√x + C
√ x and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as
18. Which of the following numbers has least a3 b 2
follows P = , percentage error in P is
number of significant figures : cd
(1) 4 % (2) 14 %
(1) 0.80760 (2) 0.80200
(3) 10 % (4) 7 %
(3) 0.08076 (4) 80.267
25. The side of a square is increasing at the rate of
19. After rounding off the number 4621 to 2 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.
significant digits the value becomes :- time is :
(1) 4600 (2) 4500 (1) 0.2 cm/s (2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 4700 (4) 4720 (3) 0.6 cm/s (4) 0.8 cm/s
20. The order of magnitude of 492 is :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

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26. In main scale of a vernier callipers 1 cm divided 32. Value of 4° is equal to -

into 10 equal divisions. The vernier scale has 10 (1) π rad (2) 240°
equal divisions that correspond to 9 main scale 90
divisions. The measured value by this callipers is (3) π (4) None of these
( ) rad
45
33. Find distance between A(1,2,3) & B(2, 3, 4) :-
(1) √ 2 (2) √ 5
(1) 2.82 cm (2) 2.83 cm
(3) 2.87 cm (4) 2.89 cm (3) √ 3 (4) √ 6

34. 1 dy
27. Distance moved by a screw in 5 rotation is 5 mm If y = , find
x dx
and total number of circular divisions is 100. The 1
(1) (2) 1
least count of the screw guage is :- −
x2 x
(1) 1 mm (2) 0.001 cm (3) 1 (4) 1
−
x x2
(3) 0.0001 cm (4) 0.001 mm
35. Slope of the given line is
28. Which of following is correct
(1) sin 8° > sin 7° > sin 6°
(2) cos 8° < cos 7° < cos 6°
(3) tan 72° > tan 71° > tan 70° (2) 1
(1) √ 3
√ 3
(4) All
(3) 1 (4) 0
29. The value of (tan 45° – tan 37°) is :-
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
(1) 1 (2) 3
4 4
36. Equation of straight line passing from point (1,
(3) 1 (4) 3
2 2
2) & (2, 3) is
30. Which of following is possible :- (1) y = x–1 (2) y = 2x + 2
(1) sin θ ⩾ 1; sin θ ⩽ −1 (3) y = x + 1 (4) y = x–3
(2) sin θ ⩾ −1; sin θ ⩽ 1 37. A particle moves along the straight line 3y = x +
(3) sin θ ⩾ ∞; sin θ ⩽ −∞
5. Which coordinate changes at a faster rate?

(4) None of these (1) x-coordinate

31. Value of cos 105° is (2) y-coordinate

(1) (2) (3) Both x and y coordinates

1 + √3 1 − √3
2 √2 √ 2 (4) Data insufficient
(3) 1 − √3
(4) None of these
2 √2

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38. Calculate slope of shown line :- 44. Evaluate ∫ e−2x dx

(1) e– 2x + c (2) e−2x

+c
−2
(3) –2e–2x + c (4) None of these
45. ∫ ( cos2 x − sin2 x) dx is equal to

(1) x2 + C (2) x + C
(3) sin 2x (4) sin 2x
−3 −4 +C − +C
(1) (2) 2 2
4 3 46. π /2

(3) 0 (4) 3 Value of ∫ ( sin2 x + cos2 x) dx is :-

4
0
39. 3 2 ds
If s = 3t – 2t + 2t – 7 , find at t = 3. (1) 2 (2) 1
dt
(1) 71 (2) 72 (3) π (4) 0
2
(3) 73 (4) 74 47. dy
If y = tan x. Find
40. Which function remain unchanged after dx
differentiation :- (1) tan2 x (2) sec2 x

(1) e24 (2) ex (3) cot x (4) sin x

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these 48. dy
If x = at4 and y = bt3 . Find
dx
41. dy
If y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8. Then will be : (1) 4a (2) 3b
dx 3bt 4at
(1) 3x2 + 2x + 15 (2) 3x2 + 4x + 7 (3) 3a (4) 3b
(3) x3 + 2x2 + 15 (4) x3 + 4x + 7 4bt 2at
49. Determine the average value of y = 2x +3 in the
42. 1 dy
y= , then value of is :- interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 1.
(3x + 4) dx
(1) 1 (2) −3 (1) 1 (2) 5
2 2
(3x + 4) (3x + 4) (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3
2
(4) log (3x + 4) 50. If unit of time is doubled then how many times
(3x + 4) the unit of length must be changed so that
43. 5 acceleration due to gravity does not change?
∫ dx is
x m
( g= )
(2) 5 s2
(1) 5 ln x + c − +c
x2 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) ln x
+c (4) 5x2 + c
5 (3) 8 (4) √ 2

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Topic : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 58. Which of the following pairs of gases contains

the same numbers of molecules :-
51. 16 g of SOx occupies 5.6 litre at STP Assuming (1) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2
ideal gas nature, the value of x is :-
(2) 8g of O2 and 22g of CO2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 28g of N2 and 22g of CO2
(3) 3 (4) None of these
(4) 16g of O2 and 14g of N2
52. 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weight 1.15
gm The atomic mass of the element is:- 59. Choose the wrong statement
(1) 10 a.m.u (2) 2.3 a.m.u (1) 1 mole means 6.022 × 1023 particles
(3) 35.5 a.m.u (4) 23 a.m.u. (2) gram molar mass is the mass of one
molecule
53. What will be the molecular formula of
hydrocarbon that contains 80% carbon. (3) gram molar mass is mass of one mole of a
substance
(1) CH4 (2) C3H9
(4) Gram molar mass is molar mass expressed
(3) C2H4 (4) C2H2 in grams.
54. "Equal volume of all gases contain equal number 60. The actual weight of a molecule of water is -
of molecules at same temperature and pressure"
above statement represent :- (1) 18 g
(1) Law of multiple proportion (2) 2.99 × 10–23 g
(2) Gay Lussac's law (3) both (1) & (2) are correct
(3) Berzilius law (4) 1.66 × 10–24 g
(4) Avogadro's law 61. Which of the following example of a
homogeneous mixture :-
55. A gaseous mixture contains O2 and N2 in the
ratio of 1 : 4 by weight. The ratio of their (1) water + alcohol (2) water + sand
number of molecules is : (3) water + oil (4) All of these
(1) 32 : 7 (2) 1 : 8 (3) 7 : 32 (4) 3 : 16 62. Which of the following contains the greatest
56. 288 k is equal to number of atoms ?
(1) 288°C (2) 273°C (1) 1.0 g of butane (C4H10)
(3) 561°F (4) 15°C (2) 1.0 g of nitrogen (N2)
57. A compound contains two elements 'X' and 'Y' in (3) 1.0 g of silver (Ag)
the ratio of 50% each by mass. Atomic mass of (4) 1.0 g of water (H2O)
'X' is 20 and 'Y' is 40. What can be its simplest
formula :-
(1) XY (2) X2Y (3) XY2 (4) X2Y3

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63. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 68. Equal masses of H2,O2 and methane have been
0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1L, taken in a container of volume V at temperature
of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the 27°C in identical conditions. The ratio of the
same conditions:- volume of gases H2: O2: methane would be :
(1) 5 L (2) 10 L (1) 8 : 16 : 1 (2) 16 : 8 : 1
(3) 7 L (4) 6L (3) 16 : 1 : 2 (4) 8 : 1 : 2
64. Air contains 20% O2 by volume. How much 69. What will be the mass of one C-12 atom.
volume of air will be required for complete (2) 12
combustion of 200 cc of acetylene (C2H2) ? (1) 12 g
6.02 × 1023
(1) 2500 cc (2) 250 cc (3) 12 × 6.02 × 1023 g (4) 1 g
(3) 212.8 cc (4) 1250 cc 70. Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in 39 gm
of benzene (C6H6) mixture with 15.4 gm of
65. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form
carbontetrachloride (CCl4 /mass of Cl = 35.5g)?
two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 (1) 0.7 (2) 0.83 (3) 0.17 (4) 0.5
weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are 71. If law of conservation of mass was to hold true,
(1) 20, 30 (2) 30, 20 then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of
H2SO4 will produce 7.3 g of HCl and BaSO4
(3) 40, 30 (4) 60, 40
equal to :-
66. Volume occupied by one molecule of water
(1) 11.65 g (2) 23.3 g
(density = 1 gcm-3) is :-
(3) 25.5 g (4) 30.6 g
(1) 3.0 × 10−23 cm3
72. 50 g NaOH present in 450 g of H2O then find %
(2) 5.5 × 10−23 cm3
w/w of NaOH solution ?
(3) 9.0 × 10−23 cm3
(1) 11.11%(2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 20%
(4) 6.023 × 10−23 cm3
73. Assertion : - 16 g each of O2 and O3 contains
67. Assume that 4 g of I2(s) are allowed to react with NA
and NA atoms respectively
4 g of Mg(s) according to the following chemical 2 3
equation: (mass of Iodine atom = 127 g) Reason : - 16 g O2 and O3 contains same no. of
Mg(s) + I2(s) → MgI2(s) molecules.

(1) Mg is the limiting reagent (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) I2 is the limiting reagent Assertion.
(3) none of the reagent i.e. Mg or I2 is left (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(4) none of these Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

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74. Assertion :- Volume occupied by 1 mol H2O(ℓ) is 79. The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is
equals to 22400 cc at NTP. 1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the solution is
Reason :- 1 mol of any substance occupies 22.4 [Given that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g
L volume at N.T.P. mol-1]
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) 1.32 m (2) 1.20 m
the reason is a correct explanation of the (3) 1.56 m (4) 1.67 m
Assertion.
80. How many grams of 10% pure CaCO3 will
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but produce 5.6 L CO2 at NTP?
Reason is not a correct explanation of the CaCO3(s) —→ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Assertion.
(1) 100 g (2) 250 g
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
(3) 200 g (4) 150 g
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
81. In a reaction 3A + B2 → A3 B2 . If 180 atoms of
75. In the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2 NH3, ratio by
A and 100 molecules of B react, then
volume of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This
illustrates law of - (1) B is limiting reactant and 100 molecules of
A3B2 will be formed
(1) Difinite proportion
(2) A is limiting reactant and 60 molecules of
(2) Multiple proportion
A3B2 will be formed
(3) Reciprocal proportion
(3) A is limiting reactant and 180 molecules of
(4) Gaseous volumes A3B2 will be formed
76. Mass of 0.1 mol of gas is 10 g its V.D. is : (4) B is limiting reactant and 60 molecules of
(1) 100 (2) 10 (3) 50 (4) 5 A3B2 will be formed
77. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 82. Assertion :- 44 g of CO2, 28 g of CO have same
6.022 × 1023 mol−1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol−1 , this volume at STP.
would change : Reason :- Both CO2 and CO are formed by C
and oxygen.
(1) The ratio of chemical species to each other
in a balanced equation (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) The ratio of elements to each other in a Assertion.
compound
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(3) The definition of mass in units of grams Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) The mass of one mole of carbon Assertion.
78. Which of the following pairs of compounds does (3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
illustrate the law of multiple proportions ? (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) SO2 and SO3 (2) NO2 and N2O
(3) NO and N2O5 (4) All of these

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83. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a 89. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C,
and how much (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16) :- 38.71% and H, 9.67% and O, 51.62%. The
(1) Mg, 0.44 g (2) O2, 0.28 g empirical formula of the compound would be :-
(3) Mg, 0.16 g (4) O2, 0.16 g (1) CHO (2) CH4O (3) CH3O (4) CH2O

84. The equation : 90. How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 0.4
3 mol oxygen atoms ?
2Al(S) + O2(g) → Al2 O3(S) shows that :-
2 (1) 0.05 mol (2) 0.5 mol
(1) 2 mole of Al reacts with 3
mole of O2 to (3) 8 mol (4) 4 mol
2
7
produce
2
mole of Al2O3 91. From 2.2 mg of CO2, if 6 × 1017 molecules are
(2) 2g of Al reacts with 3 removed. How many moles of CO2 are left?
g of O2 to produce
2 (1) 4.9 × 10–5 (2) 4.9 × 10–3
one mole of Al2O3
3
(3) 6 × 10–4 (4) 5 × 10–2
(3) 2 g mole of Al reacts with litre of O2 to
2 92. Caffine has a molecular weight of 194. It
produce 1 mole of Al2O3
contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen Number of
(4) 2 mole of Al reacts with 3 atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of it -
mole of O2 to
2
produce 1 mole of Al2O3 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
85. The volume of oxygen required for complete 93. Volume of 0.01 mol of CH4 at STP is :
combustion of 2 L methane at NTP is :- (1) 0.224 L (2) 224 ml
(1) 12.25 L (2) 4 L
(3) 2240 × 10−1 cm3 (4) All of these
(3) 1 L (4) 3 L
94. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 2
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) molal aqueous solution ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 55.5 (4) 2
86. Total no. of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are :- 56.5 55.5 57.5 57.5
(1) 3 NA (2) 20 NA 95. Assertion :- The balancing of chemical equations
is based on law of conservation of mass.
(3) 24 NA (4) None
Reason :- Total mass of reactants is equal to total
87. Calculate the weight of oxygen required for mass of products in a chemical reaction.
complete combustion of 15gm C2H6
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) 5.6 gm (2) 44 gm the reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) 56gm (4) 32gm Assertion.
88. In a given reaction 9 g of Al will react with (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
2Al + 3 O2 → Al2 O3
2 Assertion.
(1) 6 g O2 (2) 8 g O2 (3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
(3) 9 g O2 (4) 4 g O2 (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
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96. Assertion :- The mass of the products formed in 98. Which of the following molecule has highest
a reaction depends upon the limiting reactant. percentage of oxygen by mass ?
Reason :- Limiting reactant reacts completely in (1) H2O (2) CO2
the reaction.
(3) CaCO3 (4) C2H5OH
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the 99. Statement -1 : Gram molecular weight of O2 is
Assertion. 32 g.
Statement - 2 : Relative atomic weight of oxygen
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but is 32.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False (2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Statement 1 is correct but Statement -2 is
incorrect
97. Copper has two naturally occurring isotopes
63
Cu and 65 Cu. If the average atomic mass of (4) Statement - 1 is incorrect but Statement - 2
copper is 63.546 u, then natural abundance of is correct
lighter isotope of Cu will be 100. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when
(1) 46.4% (2) 27.3% 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed
with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution ?
(3) 54.2% (4) 72.7% (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
(1) 7g (2) 14 g
(3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g

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Topic : Cell-Unit Of Life

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 107. Which of the following contains lytic enzymes ?

(1) Lysosome (2) Centrosome
101. Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and
Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells (3) Chromosome (4) Mitochondria
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell 108. Lysosomal enzymes are active at pH :-
theory to give it a final shape ?
(1) 5 (2) 7
(1) R. Hooke (2) R. Virchow
(3) 8 (4) Variable
(3) Mendel (4) C.P. Swanson
109. Molecules which are transported across the
102. Which maintains cell shape, is associated with membrane against their concentration gradient.
cellular movements and intracellular transport ? Such a transport is called :–
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Golgibody (1) Active transport, e.g., diffusion
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) ER (2) Passive transport, e.g., diffusion
103. Which of the following is largest isolated cell (3) Active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ pump
(according to diameter) ?
(4) Osmosis, a type of simple diffusion
(1) Nerve cell (2) Ostrich egg
110. Which cell organelle connects nuclear envelope
(3) RBC (4) Mycoplasma with cell membrane ?
104. A plant cell differs from animal cell in the (1) Lysosome
absence of :-
(2) Golgi body
(1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosomes
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) ER (4) Centrioles
(4) Mitochondrion
105. Which of the following cellular structures are not
111. Identify A, B, C and D from the following
surrounded by any membrane ?
diagram
(1) Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Nucleus
(2) Lysosome, Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi
body
(3) Ribosome, Basal body, Centriole
(4) Ribosome, Lysosome, Peroxisome (A) (B) (C) (D)
106. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the Central Plasma Interdoublet Radial
1
following in an ascending order of their size. sheath membrane bridge spoke
Choose the correct option among the following:- 2
Central Plasma Peripheral Interdoublet
(i) Mycoplasma (ii) Ostrich eggs microtubule membrane microtubule bridge
(iii) Human RBC (iv) Bacteria Central Plasma Peripheral Radial
3
sheath membrane microtubule spoke
(1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) i, iv, iii, ii Central Central Interdoublet
4 Linker
(3) ii, i, iii, iv (4) iii, ii,i, iv microtubule sheath bridge

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112. From the following figure, label-A is 115. Which of the following set of cell organelles
representing which of the following contain DNA?
(1) Mitochondria, vacuole
(2) Plasma membrane, ribosome
(3) Mitochondria, chloroplast
(1) Cristae (2) Tubules (4) Chloroplast, dictysome
(3) Cisternae (4) Columns 116. Observe the given type of chromosomes and
choose the wrong statement from the following
113. The given diagram shows the sectional view of a options:
chloroplast. In which of the following all the
four parts labelled as A,B,C,D are correctly
identified ?

A B C D (1) B is the telocentric chromosome and has a

terminal centromere
1 Cytoplasm Thylakoid Stroma Granum
Stroma
(2) C is the submetacentric chromosome
2 Stroma Christae Thylakoid
lamella (3) A is the telocentric chromosome
Stroma (4) D chromosome has two equal arms in each
3 Stroma Thylakoid Granum
lamella chromatid
Stroma
4 Cytoplasm Granum Thylakoid 117. Factory of ribosome in a cell is :-
lamella
(1) RER (2) Nucleolus
114. Which is not the function of cell wall :-
I Provides shape to the cell (3) Mitochondria (4) SER

Protect the cell from mechanical 118. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select
II the correct option from the codes given below.
damage and infection.
Column-I Column-II
III Help in the cell to cell interaction.
A Chloroplasts (i) Colourless plastids
Provides barrier to undersirable
IV Yellow, orange or red
macromolecules B Chromoplasts (ii)
coloured plastids
V ATP formation C Leucoplasts (iii) Green plastids
(1) only III (2) only IV (1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(3) only II, III and IV (4) only V (2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)

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119. Statement-I : The smooth endoplasmic reticulum 122. Intake of solid food particle by cell is known as:-
is the major site for synthesis of proteins. (1) Epigenesis (2) Pinocytosis
Statement-II : In animal cells lipid-like steroidal
hormones are synthesised in RER. (3) Exo-cytosis (4) Phagocytosis
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct 123. Tonoplast is a :
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect (1) Covering layer of Golgi complex

(3) Only Statement-I is correct (2) Covering layer of vacuoles

(4) Only Statement-II is correct (3) Covering layer of microbodies

120. Assertion : Mitochondria are considered as (4) Non-living cytoplasmic content
prokaryotic endosymbiont of cell. 124. The given diagram represents a chromosome.
Reason : Genetic system of mitochondria is Identify the structure A, B & type of
similar to prokaryotes. chromosome C :-
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) A–Satellite, B–Primary constriction,
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. C–Acrocentric
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False. (2) A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction,
C–Metacentric
121.
(3) A–Satellite, B–Centromere,
C–Telocentric
(4) A–Satellite, B–Centromere,
C–Submetacentric
125. The marker enzyme "Catalase" is generally
found in :-
Identify the cells given in above diagram :- (1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes
(1) A = Mesophyll cells , B = White blood (3) Peroxisomes (4) Glyoxysomes
cells, C = Nerve cell, D = Tracheid 126. Which cell organelle is the important site for
(2) A = Red blood cells, B = Nerve cell, formation of glycoproteins & glycolipids ?
C = White blood cells, D = Tracheid (1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole
(3) A = Red blood cells, B = White blood cells, (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria
C = Mesophyll cells, D = Nerve cell
(4) A = White blood cells, B = Tracheid,
C = Red blood cells, D = Nerve cell

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127. Select the correct statement regarding cell 131. How many of the following are not included in
membrane : endomembrane system?
(1) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex,
Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast,
proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
Vacuoles, Peroxisomes
(2) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell
membrane by simple diffusion (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

(3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar 132. Cilia & Flagella emerge from centriole like
heads towards the inner part structure called the :-

(4) Proteins show flip flop movement very (1) Basal body
often (2) Massules
128. Assertion :- Cell is the fundamental, structural (3) Centrosphere
and functional unit of all living organisms. (4) Dynein Protein
Reason :- Anything less than a complete
structure of a cell does not ensure independent 133. Function of centriole is :
living. (1) Formation of spindle fibres
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (2) Formation of nucleolus
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) Initiation of cell division
Assertion.
(4) Formation of cell plate
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the 134. Zone of exclusion is associated with :
Assertion. (1) Golgi complex
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) Mitochondria
129. Cell membrane of R.B.C. composed by (4) Chloroplast
(1) Protein 52%, Lipid 8%, carbohydrate 135. The main arena of various types of activities of a
(2) Protein 52%, Lipid 40%, carbohydrate cell in
(3) Protein 52%, Lipid 30%, carbohydrate (1) Nucleus (2) Plasma membrane
(4) Protein 60%, Lipid 20%, carbohydrate (3) Mitochondrion (4) Cytoplasm
130. Which is near to the plasma membrane? SECTION-B ( BOTANY )
(1) Secondary cell wall
136. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles
(2) Middle lamella from the ER fuse with the ______
(3) Primary cell wall (1) Cis-face of the golgi apparatus.
(4) Tonoplast (2) Convex face of the golgi apparatus.
(3) Maturing face of the golgi apparatus.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
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137. Polysome is a chain of:- 143. Match the column-I and column-II and choose
(1) Pinosomes (2) Phagosomes correct option:-
Column-I Column-II
(3) Microsomes (4) Ribosomes
Plasma Helps in cell division of
138. In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy upto A I
membrane animal cells
...............% of the volume of the cell :-
B Centriole II Protein synthesis
(1) 30 (2) 20
Not present in animal
(3) 10 (4) 90 C Ribosomes III
cell
139. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell D Plastids IV Polymorphic organelle
vacuoles are :-
Barrier between
(1) Xanthophylls (2) Chlorophylls cytoplasm and outer
E Lysosome V
(3) Carotenoids (4) Anthocyanins environment, in an
animal cell.
140. Ribosome is made of :-
(1) rRNA + protein (1) A-V,B-I,C-II,D-III,E-IV
(2) rRNA + mRNA + protein (2) A-V,B-III,C-II,D-I,E-IV
(3) mRNA + protein (3) A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I,E-V
(4) rRNA + tRNA + protein (4) A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I,E-V
141. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a 144. Statement-I : Chloroplast and mitochondria are
critical ion level of :- semi-autonomous organelle.
Statement-II : Chloroplast and mitochondria
(1) Calcium (2) Copper have 70S ribosomes.
(3) Managanese (4) Mangesium (1) Both statement I and Statement II are
142. Nucleolus is formed by : correct
(1) Mitochondria (2) Both statement I and Statement II are
(2) Nucleus and Ribosome incorrect

(3) Chloroplast (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

incorrect
(4) Secondary constriction/NOR
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct

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145. Assertion : Lysosomes help in digestion of 148. Enzyme for dark reaction is found in
foreign particles in the animal cells. (1) Stroma of chloroplast
Reason : They have respiratory enzymes.
(2) Matrix of mitochnodria
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of (3) Nucleoplasm
Assertion. (4) Peri-mitochondrial space
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but 149. Studies of the cell membrane showed that, it is
Reason is not the correct explanation of composed of lipids which are:-
Assertion.
(1) Arranged in unilayer
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(2) Arranged in protein bilayer
(4) Reason is True but Assertion is False.
(3) Arranged in bilayer
146. Find out the odd one (with reference to number
(4) Arranged in multilayer
of cell membrane) :-
150. Elaioplasts help in storage of :-
(1) Mitochondria (2) Nucleus
(1) Fats and oils (2) Proteins
(3) Chloroplast (4) E.R.
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acids
147. Cell theory is not applicable to :-
(1) Algae (2) Fungus
(3) Viruses (4) Bryophytes

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Topic : Chemical Coordination & Integration.

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 157. Diabetes insipidus occurs due to hyposecretion of

(1) Thymosin (2) Oxytocin
151. Hormones are :-
(3) Insulin (4) Vasopressin
(1) Intra cellular, nutritive substance
158. Which of the following is not a steroidal
(2) Intercellular, Non nutritive substance hormone ?
(3) Maximum secreted always (1) Progesterone (2) Insulin
(4) Species specific, Non nutritive substance (3) Testosterone (4) Cortisol
152. Which one is a group of steroid hormones:- 159. Endocrine glands are those glands which pour
(1) Adrenaline and nor adrenaline their secretion directly into-
(2) Cortisol and Aldosterone (1) Ducts (2) Substrate
(3) Glucagon and insulin (3) Blood (4) All of the above
(4) Thyroxine and cortisol 160. Which of the following is an
temporary accumulation and release centre of
153. Thyroid gland is :- Neurohormones ?
(1) Bilobed gland (1) Anterior Pituitary lobe
(2) Endodermal in origin (2) Neurohypophysis
(3) Largest endocrine gland (3) Pars intermedia
(4) All of the above (4) Hypothalamus
154. Low secretion of Thyroxine in child results in 161. BMR and temperature of body is controlled by
(1) Myxoedema which endocrine gland ?
(2) Gigantism (1) Adrenal cortex (2) Thyroid

(3) Cretinism (3) Thymus (4) Pituitary

(4) Pituitary dwarfism 162. Aldosterone is secreted by :

155. Which hormone does not act through secondary (1) Zona glomerulosa
messenger? (2) Zona fasciculata
(1) FSH (2) ADH (3) Zona reticularis
(3) Prostaglandin (4) Cortisol (4) Zona pellucida
156. Secretion of which of the following is under 163. LH and FSH are collectively called :
neurosecretory nerve axons ?
(1) Oxytocin
(1) Pineal
(2) Somatotrophins
(2) Adrenal cortex
(3) Luteotrophic
(3) Anterior pituitary
(4) Gonadotrophins
(4) Posterior pituitary
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164. Which one supports red blood cell formation :- 169. Name of a peptide hormone secreted by pumping
(a) Thyroxine (b) Cortisol station of body, which decrease blood pressure:-
(c) PTH (d) ACTH (1) Atrial Natriuretic factor
(1) (c), (d) (2) (b), (d) (2) Aldosterone
(3) (a), (b) (4) (b), (c) (3) Vasopressin
165. Which one of the following is under direct (4) GIP
neural regulation ?
170.
(1) Pars distalis and Adrenal cortex
(2) Pars nervosa and adrenal cortex
(3) Pars nervosa and adrenal medulla
(4) Pars intermedia and Pineal gland
166. A growing baby leading to stunted growth, Observe the following diagram and find out
mental retardation and deaf mutism. Perhaps it is correct option for (A) :-
affected by (1) Androgen, FSH, LH
(1) Hyper thyroidism during pregnancy (2) Cortisol, Thyroxine, Androgen
(2) Hyposecretion of thyroxine in mother (3) Oestrogen, Thyroxine, PTH
during pregnancy
(4) Cortisol, ADH, Thyroxine
(3) Abnormal secretion of oxytocin &
171. Which is not a secondary messenger?
Prostaglandin during uterine contraction.
(1) cAMP (2) IP3
(4) Over secretion of dopamine inhibits
oxytocin and PRL release. (3) Calcium (4) Sodium
167. Gall bladder is stimulated to pour bile by :- 172. Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to the
formation of a :-
(1) Secretin
(1) Secondary messenger
(2) Enterogasterone
(2) Primary messenger
(3) Enterokinase
(3) Hormone-receptor complex
(4) Cholecystokinin
(4) Intracellular messenger
168. Out of following identify the correct
matching pair ? 173. Hormone receptors present on the cell membrane
of the target cells are called :-
(1) Liver-Endocrine gland
(1) Hormone-receptor complex
(2) Thyroid - Exocrine gland
(2) Intercelluar receptor
(3) Pancreas - Mixed gland
(3) Intracellular receptor
(4) Goblet cell - Multicellular gland
(4) Membrane bound receptor

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174. Androgens act on the ...A... and influence the 180. Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults
male sexual behaviour called ...B... . These result in :-
hormones produce ...C.. effect on protein and (1) Gigantism (2) Acromegaly
carbohydrate metabolism. Choose the correct
combination of A, B and C :- (3) Dwarfism (4) Cretinism
(1) A-PNS, B-libido, C-catabolic 181. The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones
called adrenaline or epinephrine and
(2) A-ANS, B-libido C-catabolic noradrenaline or norepinephrine. These are
(3) A-CNS, B-libido, C-anabolic commonly called :-
(4) A-CNS, B-libido, C-catabolic (1) Corticoids (2) Catecholamines
175. Which hormone has anti insulin effect :- (3) Gonadotrophins (4) Mineralocorticoids
(1) Melatonin (2) Oxytocin 182. The adrenal cortex can be divided into three
(3) Aldosterone (4) Glucagon layers. The arrangement of these layers from
outer to inner side is :-
176. Which is largest endocrine gland :-
(1) Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and
(1) Thyroid (2) Liver zona reticularis.
(3) Pituitary (4) Thymus (2) Zona reticularis, zona fasciculata and zona
177. The secretin promotes the release of glomerulosa
(1) HCl and sodium carbonate ions (3) Zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis, zona
fasciculata
(2) HCl and bicarbonate ions in gastric juice
(4) Zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa, zona
(3) Water and bicarbonate ions in pancreatic
reticularis
juice
183. Which of the following is termed as '4S' gland ?
(4) Pancreatic enzymes and mucus
(1) Thymus (2) Pineal
178. I. GH II. PRL
III. TSH IV. ACTH (3) Thyroid (4) Adrenal gland
V. LH VI. Oxytocin 184. Assertion : Hormones produce their effects on
Which of the above hormones are released by target tissues only.
anterior lobe of pituitary ? Reason : Hormone receptors located in the target
(1) I, II, III , IV and V tissues only.
(2) III, IV, V and VI (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) I, II, V and VI
Assertion.
(4) I, II, III, IV and VI
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
179. Which hormone is responsible for milk synthesis ? Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Oxytocin (2) Progesterone Assertion.
(3) Prolactin (4) Estrogen (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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185. Statement A :- The neural system provide 190. Which of the following are effects of Cortisol?
unorganised network of point to point (1) Anti-inflammatory
connection.
Statement B :- Endocrine system provides (2) Immunosuppressant
chemical integration. (3) Increases RBC production
(1) Both statement A and B are correct (4) All of these
(2) Only statement A is correct 191. Match the following columns.
(3) Only statement B is correct Column I
Column II
(Hormones of
(4) Both statement are incorrect (Functions)
adrenal gland)
SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY ) Suppresses
Mineralocorticoids
A I. immune
186. Ca+2 homeostasis is maintained by a group of (Aldosterone)
response
hormones. Which hormone increases Ca+2 in
bones ? Growth of
pubic hair and
(1) Collip's hormone (2) Calcitonin B Cortisol II.
axial hair
(3) Thyroxine (4) Growth hormone during puberty
187. Water soluble hormone act :- Increased blood
Androgenic steroids
(1) Faster for long duration. C III. glucose
of adrenal cortex
concentration
(2) Slower for short duration.
Regulates
(3) Faster for short duration. D Catecholamine IV. balance of H2O
(4) Slower for long duration. and electrolytes
188. Besides cAMP, which one of the following
molecules acts as a secondary messenger in A B C D
biological system ? (1) III IV I II
2+
(1) Ca (2) ATP (2) II III IV I
(3) cDNA (4) cGTP (3) IV I II III
189. On seeing a Tiger, the heart beat and blood (4) I II III IV
pressure increase due to release of hormone :-
192. "Sella tursica" is a :-
(1) Adrenaline (2) Thyroxine
(1) Depression in skull enclosing pituitary
(3) Parathormone (4) Corticoids
(2) Cavity of skull enclosing ears
(3) Covering of testis
(4) Kind of endocrine gland

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193. Assertion : Thymus is degenerated in old 196. Identify the hormones, labelled as A, B and C in
individual resulting in a decreased production of the following figure :-
thymosins. As a result, the immune responses of
old persons become weak.
Reason : The thymus plays a major role in the
development of the immune system.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) A – GH, B-FSH, C-LH
194. Ectodermal in origin is :-
(2) A – GnRH, B-FSH, C-LH
(1) Pituitary gland (2) Pineal body
(3) A – GH, B-GnRH, C-PRT
(3) Lens of eye (4) All of the above
(4) A – GnRH, B-GH, C-PRT
195. Assertion : A special kind of coordination and
integration has to be provided in body which is 197. Hypothalamus contains several groups of cells
carried out by hormone. which produce hormones called :-
Reason : Nerve fibres do not innervate all cells (1) Sensory nerve (2) Nuclei
of the body and the cellular functions need to be
(3) Ganglia (4) Secretory fibres
continuously regulated.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the 198. I. Sleep - wake cycle
Reason is a correct explanation of the II. Body temperature
Assertion. III. Pigmentation
IV. Metabolism
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but V. Defense capability
Reason is not a correct explanation of the All of the above activities are
Assertion. influenced/regulated by
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1) Pineal gland (2) Parathyroid gland
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) Thymus gland (4) Adrenal gland

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199. How many hormones are synthesized & released 200. A lady of 30 years of age is suffering from
from posterior lobe or neurohypophysis of irregular menstrual cycle, low BMR, swelling in
pituitary gland respectively ? body, what disease, she is likely having :
(1) None, 2-hormones (1) Cretinism (2) Cushing syndrome
(2) 2, 2 hormones (3) Myxoedema (4) Diabetes mellitus
(3) None, None hormone
(4) 2, None

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