01 Classroom Test No 01 and Solution

महाराष्ट्र लोकसेवा अभियाांत्रिकी सराव पव
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व रीक्षा २०१९
VIDYASAGAR ACADEMY @ PUNE

महाराष्ट्र लोकसेवा अभियाांभिकी सेवा सराव पूवव-परीक्षा २०१९
प्रश्नपुस्तिका क्र. 01
प्रश्नपुस्तिका
वेळ: 90 Minutes एकूण प्रश्न १०० एकूण गण
ु १००
सू चना
१) सादर प्रश्नपुस्तिकेत १०० अनिवार्य प्रश्न आहेत. उमेदवाराांिी प्रश्नाांची उत्तरे निनहण्यास सुरवात करण्यापूवी र्ा प्रश्न पनिकेत सवय
प्रश्न आहेत नक िाहीत र्ाची खािी करूि घ्यावी . असा तसेच अन्य काही दोष आढळल्यास नह प्रश्न पुस्तिका समवेक्षकाकडूि
िगेच बदिूि घ्यावी.
२) आपिा प्रश्न क्रमाां क र्ा चौकोिात ि चुकता निहावा
३) वर छापिेिा प्रश्नपुस्तिका क्रमाां क तुमच्या उत्तर पनिकेत नवनिष्ट जागेत उत्तरपनिकेतीि सुचिे प्रमाणे ि चुकता निहावा
४) र्ा प्रश्नपुस्तिकेत प्रत्ये क प्रश्नािा ४ पर्ाय र्ी उत्तरे सुचनविी असूि त्याांिा १,२,३ आनण ४ असे क्रमाां क नदिे आहेत. त्या चार
उत्तराां पैकी सवायत र्ोग्य उत्तराचा क्रमाां क उत्तरपनिकेवरीि सुचिे प्रमाणे तुमच्या उत्तरपटईकेत िमूद करावा. अश्या प्रकारे
उत्तरपनिकेवर उत्तर क्रमाां क िमूद करतािा तो सांबांनित प्रश्नक्रमाांकासमोर छार्ाां नकत करूि दाखनविा जाईि र्ाची काळजी
घ्यावी ह्याकरता काळ्या िाई चा बॉि पेि वापरावे. पेिनसि वा िाईचे पेि वापरू िर्े.
५) सवय प्रश्नाां िा सामाि गण
ु आहेत. र्ािव सवय प्रश्नाां ची उत्तरे द्यावीत. घाईमुळे चुका होणार िाहीत र्ाची दक्षता घेऊि िक्य
नततक्या िवकर प्रश्न सोडवावेत. क्रमािे प्रश्न सोडनवणे श्रेर्स्कर आहेत पाि एकदा कठीण प्रश्न वाटल्यास त्यावर अनिक वेळ ि
घािनवता पुढीि प्रश्न कडे वळावे. अश्या प्रकारे िेवटच्या प्रश्नापर्ंत पोचल्यावर वेळ निल्लक रानहल्यावर कठीण म्हणूि
वगळिेिा प्रश्नाां कडे वळणे सोईस्कर ठरे ि.
६) उत्तरपनिकेत एकदा िमूद केिेिे उत्तर खोडात र्ेणार िाही िमूद केिेिे उत्तर खोदू ि िवीि उत्तर नदल्यास ते तपासिे
जाणार िाही.
७) प्रिुत परीक्षेच्या उत्तरपनिकाां चे मूल्याां कि करतािा उमेदवाराच्या उत्तरपनिकेत र्ोग्य उत्तराांिाच गि नदिे जातीि, तसेच
"उमेदवारािे विुनिष्ठ बहुपर्ाय र्ी स्वरूपाच्या प्रश्नाां ची नदिेल्या चार उत्तराां पैकी सवायत र्ोग्य उत्तरे च उत्तरपनिकेत िमूद करावीत.
अन्यथा त्याांच्या उत्तरपनिकेत सोडनविेल्या प्रत्ये क चार चुकीच्या उत्तरासाठी एका प्रश्नाचे गण
ु वजा करण्यात र्ेतीि. "
ताकीद
ह्या प्रश्नपनिकेसाठी आर्ोगािे नवनहत केिेिी वेळ सांपेपर्ंत नह प्रश्न पनिका आर्ोगाची मािमत्ता असूि ती परीक्षकक्षात
उमेदवारािा परीक्षेसाठी वापरण्यास दे ण्यात र्ेणार आहे. नह वेळ सांपेपर्ंत सादर प्रश्नपुस्तिकेची प्रत/प्रनत नकांवा सादर
प्रश्नपुस्तिकेतीि काही आिर् कोणत्याही स्वरूपात प्रत्यक्ष नकांवा अप्रत्यक्षपणे कोणत्याही व्यक्तीस पुरनवणे, तसेच प्रनसद्ध करणे
हा गुन्हा असूि अिी कृती करणाऱ्र्ा व्यक्तीस िासिािे जारी केिेल्या " परीक्षाां मध्ये होणाऱ्र्ा गैरप्रकाराां िा प्रनतबांि
कारण्याबाबतचा अनिनिर्म ८२ " र्ातीि तरतुदीिु सार तसेच प्रचनित कार्द्याच्या तरतुदीिु सार कारवाई करण्यात र्ेईि व दोषी
व्यक्तीस कमि एक वषाय च्या कारावासाच्या आनण / नकांवा रुपर्े एक हजार रकमेच्या दां डाच्या निक्षेस पाि होईि.
तसेच ह्या प्रश्नपनिकेसाठी नवनहत केिेिी वेळ सांपण्याआिी नह प्रश्नपुस्तिका अिनिकृतपणे बाळगणे हा सुद्धा गुन्हा
असूि तसे करणारी व्यक्ती आर्ोगाच्या कमयचारीवृांदाां पैकी तसेच परीक्षेच्या पर्यवेक्षकीर्वृांदाां पैकी असिी तरीही अश्या
व्यक्तीनवरुद्ध उक्त अनिनिर्मािु सार कार्यवाही करण्यात र्ेईि व दोषी व्यक्ती नसक्सेस पाि होईि.
Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 1

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Note : MPSC 2019 MAINS Batch starts on 28 June 2019 @ 7.45 AM

Transforming Careers to Creating Officers
Q. 1 सवयिाम म्हणजे……
1) िामाचे गुणनविेष साां गणारा िब्द
2) सवय विूां चा बोि करूि दे णारा िब्द
3) िामा ऐवजी र्ेणारा िब्द
4) कोणत्याही नक्रर्ा नकांवा कृती दाखनवणारा नवकारी िब्द
Q 2. रूढ मराठी व्याकरणात ……………….. नवभक्ती मािल्या आहे त

1) सात 2) आठ 3) सहा 4 ) दोि
Q 3. खािीि म्हणीचा िेमका अथय कोणता

कुठे इां द्राची ऐरावत आनण कुठे िाां भाट्टाची तट्टािी
1) सारी माणसे िेवटी सारखीच असतात
2) एक अनतिर् थोर तर एका अनतिर् िूद्र
3) इां द्र व श्याम भट र्ाां ची वाहिे वे गवेगळे आहे त
4) प्रत्ये क माणसाचा स्वभाव िमय वेगळा वेगळा असतो
Q4. पुढीिपैकी िुद्ध िब्द साां गा

1) ब्राह्ममु हूतय 2) ब्रह्ममु हूतय 3) ब्राह्ममु हुथय 4) ब्रम्हमु हूतय
Q5. पुढीि िब्दातीि अरबी िब्द ओळखा

1) दावा 2) अिारसा 3)दाम 4) घी
Q. 6 to 10 उताऱ्र्ावरीि प्रश्नाां ची उत्तरे

हास्य वजिाची थोरवी फारच थोड्या िोकाां िा कळते . िीनतमाि असावे असा उपदे ि आपल्या
कािीकपाळी नित्य होत असतो. पण माणसािे िेहमी सुहास्य वदि असावे, असे कोणी कोणािा साां गतािा
ऐकू र्ेत िाही. तसे म्हटिे तर कट्टर कमय ठ माणसापेक्षा िेहमी हसतमु ख असणारा मिुष्य अनिक र्ोग्यते चा

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असिा पानहजे. सकाळ सांध्याकाळ चार चार घटका जपजाप्य करणाऱ्र्ा माणूस िेहमी आां बट चे हरा करूि
राहत असेि, आजूबाजूच्या माणसाां िा ओळखत असेि व प्रत्ये क कामात चचाय करीत असेि तर
त्याच्या िमय मातंड त्यामु ळे समाजाचे व त्याचे कोणते कल्याण होईि? उिट सदा हसतमु ख असणारा
मिुष्य केवळ आपल्या सानिध्यािे िोकाां च्या दु ुःखािे खारटिे ल्या अांतकरणात अिी ची निमाय ण करीि.
आिीच जग हे कडू गोष्टीांिी अिुभवाां िी भरपूर भरिे िे आहे अिांत सांकटािे व्यािीांिी वर्ात गाजिे ल्या र्ा
जगात दु ुःखीकष्टी चे हरा र्ाां चा आिार सवयि भरिे िा आहे हास्याचे सूर्यनकरण र्ा जगात दु नमय ळ आहे त ते
खरां नजथू ि प्रिु त होतीि त्या चे हऱ्र्ाचे पनवि िेकडो िमय क्षेि हूि अनिक समजिे पानहजे
Q. 6. कोणत्या गोष्टीची थोरवी िोकाां िा समजत िाही?
1) िीनतमत्ते ची 2) सिातिी पणाची
3) हास्य वदिाची 4) श्रमाची
Q. 7. िे खकाच्या मते कोणता मिुष्य अनिक र्ोग्यते चा हवा?

1)हसतमु ख 2) कमय ठ
3) कष्ट करणारा 4) दु ुःख भोगणारा
Q. 8. जग कसे आहे ?
1) आिांदी 2) नविाि
3) कडू गोष्टीांचे अिुभवाां चे 4) क्रूर
Q.9). जगात दु नमय ळ कार् आहे ?

1) सुख 2) सांपत्ती
3) खरे पणा 4) हास्य
Q.10). हसतमु ख मिुष्य कार् करू िकतो

1. िोकाां चे मिोरां जि
2. दु खी िोकाां च्या आिेची उब
3. इतराां िा हसवु िकतो
4. िोकाां िा मदत करतो

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Q. 11.) Choose the alternative with correct spelling:
Shyam was a ...............man in his family.
(1) shred (2) shrewd (3) shrew (4) shrewed
Q.12) Draw.......... map of India.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) no article
Q.13) Choose the correct alternative of Reported speech.
Rahul said, "I go home every day."
(1) Rahul pleaded he goes home every day.
(2) Rahul exclaimed he would go home every day.
(3) Rahul shouted he has to go home every day.
(4) Rahul said that he went home every day.
Q.14.) A Place where birds are kept.
(1) Nest (2) apiary (3) aviary (4) menagerie
Q.15.candidates are not allowed to _______ or votes on the election day of election
Fill in the blank using correct alternative.
1. Canvass 2. Canvas 3. Canavass 4.canavas
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below
There are many opinion concerning how people should be governed. some of these
ideas may seem strange to us, but each theory of government has been considered superior to all
other forms of government by those who had faith in it. Mos ideas on government, have worked
out in practicing else than that originally held.
Anarchism Is a good example of a Theory that has not worked. Pierre Prudhon presented
the theory that there is no need for laws or central authority. He believe that all property should
be held in common and men be governed by free agreements. The agreement it would be inforce
as they were acceptable to the individuals concerned. The success of anarchism in his theory

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would depend on the character, uprightness, and goodwill of the people involved. For many,
anarchism present in Noble ideal based upon a great faith in man.
In our age, anarchism comes to mean something very different from what Prudhon
proposed. today it means sir total disregard of law and order In an attempt to eliminate all
activity, bombs, violence and terror are all acceptable means to achieve the anarchist’s goal.
In one way, however, we have come to disagree with democritus. Following his lead for
hundreds of years, main thought of atoms as solid little bits of matter. Newton spoke of them as
being “ so very hard as never to wear or break into pieces”. John Dalton an English chemist, in
1807 called atoms indivisible, eternal and indestructible.
There seems little faith in man's woodwill. in fact, anarchy today, is a synonym for
confusion and disorder. this is far different from Prudhon’s ideal.There are many other theories
of government that can be subjected to the same scrutiny.
Q.16). Little faith in man’s goodwill Means:
1. having little faith
2. mans goodwill
3. no faith at all
4. total faith
Q.17) Consider the following two sentences

a.)democritus was anarchist
b.)John Dalton was faithful to men's goodwill
1. a is true and b is false
2. is false and b is true
3. both are true
4. both are false
Q.18) According to passage what are the synonyms today for the word “ Anarchy”
1. invisible eternal and indestructible
2. never to wear or break into pieces
3. solid little bits of matter
4. confusion and disorder
Q.19) Purdhons Theory of anarchism depends on

1. good laws
2. mans goodwill
3. individual leaders
4. religious faith
Q.20) Consider the following two sentences

a. today anarchism I'm represents a noble ideal

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b. Purdhon’s theory of government depends on Law lessons

1. A Is true and b is false
2. A is false and b is true
3. both are true
4. both are false
Q.21) The term ‘Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA)’, recently seen in news in the context
of affairs of which of the following?
1) China
2) ASEAN
3) Afghanistan
4) United States
Q.22) Consider the following statements about ‘Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan (SNA)’.
1. It aims to create awareness on health issues and influence the health seeking behavior of
citizens to encourage healthy lifestyles.
2. It is an important component of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) 1 only
2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.23) Consider the following statements.

1. The Constitution of India prohibits ‘Begar’ and other similar forms of forced labour.
2. Both the parliament and the state legislature can make legislation to provide for punishment
for forced labour.
3. The Global Slavery Index is released annually by International Labour Organisation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1). 1 and 2 only
2). 2 and 3 only
3). 1 only
4). 1, 2 and 3
Q.24) Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI?

1) National Housing Bank
2) NABARD
3) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited
4) SIDBI

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Q.25). Match the pairs about ‘Padma Bhushan’ Awards 2018.
Person Field
a. R. Nagaswamy (i) literature - education
b. Ved Prakash Nanda (ii) Art - music
c. Arvind Parikh (iii) Archaeology
d. Laxman Pai (iv) Art - Painting
Answer options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Q.26) What is the objective of ‘Pahchan’ initiative of the Government of India?
1)To organize and standardize the Indian handicrafts industries

2)To rescue, identify and rehabilitate the street and runaway children
3)To generate self-employment opportunities for women through the establishment of micro-
enterprises
4)To provide skill-based training for rural youths
Q.27) Which among the following was the first bank purely managed by Indians?
1)Oudh Commercial Bank
2)Punjab National Bank
3)Bank of India
4)All
Q.28). With reference to the Attorney General for India, which of the statement is not correct?
1)The Attorney-General for India has the right of audience in all courts in the country.
2)Attorney-General for India holds office at the pleasure of the President.
3)The Attorney-General advises the government on such legal matters as referred or assigned by
the President.
4)A person who is qualified to be a Supreme Court judge or a High Court judge can be appointed
as the Attorney-General for India.

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Q.29) ‘Agasthyar koodam’ was recently seen in the news. In this context consider the following
statements.
1. It is the highest peak in Kerala.
2. It is located in the Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) 1 only
2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.30) Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India?
1)It is an independent and statutory body.
2)It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
3)It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties.
4)Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram
Panchayats and State Municipalities.
Q.31). Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a
Member of Parliament?
1.If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.
2.If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.
3.If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
4.If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.
Choose the correct option:
1)Only 2
2)Only 4
3)1 and 4
4)1,2 and 4
Q.32). Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the President
but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?
1)Lok Sabha 2) Rajya Sabha

3)State Legislative Assemblies 4) State Legislative Councils
Q.33)who founded “Arya Mahila Samaj” in pune

1) Savitribai phule
2) Pandita Ramabai
3) Iravati karve
4) Anutai wagh

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Q.34).Which is the largest river basin on the Maharashtra Plateau

1. Tapi Purna basin
2. Godavari basin
3. Krishna basin
4. Bhima basin
Q.35). Which of the following statement correctly describes the recently launched ‘Digital Sky
Platform’?
1. A network of stratospheric balloons designed to provide Internet connectivity to rural and
remote communities in India.
2. A platform supported by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) to encourage Indian
companies to take an early lead in 5G technologies.
3. A portal developed by Ministry of Civil Aviation to implement the Civil Aviation Regulations
related to Remotely Piloted Aerial Systems (RPAS).
4. A platform developed by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to access, intercept and
decrypt data on any computer in India.
Q.36). In which district of Maharashtra the first co-operative sugar factory was established
1)Kolhapur
2)Sangli
3)Ahmednagar
4)Satara
Q.37)Recently ISRO launched a satellite named ‘GSAT-7A’. What is/are the most likely
benefit(s) of launching this satellite?
1. It will enable superior real-time aircraft-to-aircraft communication for Indian Air force.
2. It helps the Indian Navy to link its ships to the command centre on the land.
3. It enables the civilian airlines to provide in-flight internet connectivity over the Indian
airspace.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1) 3 only
2) 1 and 2 only
3) 1 only
4) 1, 2 and 3
Q.38). Which among the following is the World’s largest Wetland System?
1) Camargue (France)
2) Okavango (Botswana)
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3) Everglades (USA)
4) Pantanal
Q.39). Which among the following awards instituted by the Government of India for individuals
or communities from rural areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in
protecting Wildlife?
1) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
2) Medini Puruskar Yojana
3) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award
4) Pitambar Pant National Award
Q.40). The Cartagena Protocol is regarding safe use, transfer and handling of:
1) Nuclear waste
2) Invasive Alien Species
3) Living Modified Organisms
4) Toxic bye-products and industrial effluents
Q.41). A real square matrix A is called skew-symmetric if,
1) AT = A 2) AT = A-1
3) AT = -A 4) AT = A + A-1
Q.42). The following simultaneous equations
x+y+z=3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6
will not have a unique solution for k equal to
1) 0 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7
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Q.43). The following system of equations
x1 + x2 + 2x3= 1 ; x1 + 2x3 + 3x3= 2 ; x1 + 4x2 + ax3= 4
has a unique solution. The only possible values for a is / are
1) 0 2) either 0 or 1
3) one of 0, 1, or -1 4) any real number other than 5
Q.44). The function f(x) = 2x - x2 +3 has
1) a maxima at x=1 and a minima at x =5 2) a maxima at x=1 and a minima at x =-5
3) only maxima at x =1 4) only minima at x =1
Q.45).The infinite series 1+ x+ x2 + x3 + x4 +...

2! 3! 4!
(1) sec x (2) ex
(3) cos x (4) 1 + sin2 x
Q.46).The length of the curve y = 2 x 3/2 between x=0 and x=1 is

3
1) 0.27 2) 0.67
3) 1 4) 1.22
Q.47). The volume of an object expressed in spherical co-ordinates is given by

2𝜋 𝜋/3 1
V = ∫0 ∫0 ∫0 𝑟 2 sin ∅ 𝑑𝑟 𝑑∅ 𝑑𝜃. The value of the integral is
1) π/3 2) π/6
3) 2 π/3 4) π/4
Q.48). The area of the region bounded by the parabola y= x2 +1 and the straight line x+y =3 is
1) 59/6 2) 9/2
3) 10/3 4) 7/6

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𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
Q.49). Find PI of + 6 𝑑𝑥 + 9𝑦 = 5𝑒 3𝑥
𝑑𝑥 2
5𝑒 3𝑥 5𝑒 3𝑥
1) 2)
18 36
5𝑒 4𝑥 5𝑒 4𝑥
3) 4)
36 18
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
Q.50) For 𝑑𝑥 2 + 4 𝑑𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 3𝑒 2𝑥 , the particular integral is
1 1
1) 𝑒 2𝑥 2) 𝑒 2𝑥
15 5
3) 3e2x 4) C1e-x + C2e-3x
Q.51). Numerical integration using trapezoidal rule gives the best result for a single variable
function which is
1) linear 2) parabolic
3) logarithmic 4) hyperbolic
𝜕2𝑢
Q.52). If u=exyz then the value of 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 is _____
1) (x+x2 yz) exyz 2) yzexyz
3) exyz 4) x2 y2z2exyz
𝑦
Q.53). If u= tan−1 (𝑥 ) then the value of x ux + y uy = __________
𝑦 𝑦
1) tan−1 (𝑥 ) 2) 2 tan−1 (𝑥 ) 3) 0 4) 3u
Q.54). If u is homogeneous function in x , y, z of degree n then xu x + yuy + zuz = _______
1) 0 2) n(n-1)u 3) nu 4) n2u
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
Q.55). The solution to the ordinary differential equation 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑑𝑥 − 6𝑦 = 0 𝑖𝑠
1) y=c1e3x + c2e-2x 2)y= c1e3x + c2e2x
3) y= c1 e-3x + c2 e2x 4) y= c1e-3x + c2e-2x

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Q.56) Varignon's Theorem can be applied to determine:
1) Position of resultant 2) Location of centroid
3) Magnitude and direction of result 4) None of above
Q.57).A number of forces acting simultaneously on a practicle of a body
1) May be replaced by a couple
2) May be replaced by single force
3) may not be replaced by a single force
4) May be replaced by a single force through c.g. of body
Q.58). Which of the following is a scalar quantity ?
(1) Moment of a force about origin
(2) Moment of a force about an axis
(3) Moment of a couple
(4) Moment of a force about a point other than origin.
Q.59). Assuming a square of side 'a' to be made up of two right angled triangles then distance of
centroid of each triangle with respect to diagonal is
𝑎 𝑎 √2 𝑎 𝑎
(1) (2) (3) (4)
√2 √3 3 √18
Q.60). If a parabolic area of height h is symmetric about y-axis, the centroidal x co- ordinate is
3ℎ 3ℎ 3𝑎
(1) (2) Zero (3) (4)
10 5 8
Q.61). A cantilever of L is fixed at A and free at B. It is subjected to u. v. l. of intensity zero at A

and w N/m at B. The reactive moment at fixed support is.
𝑤𝐿2 𝑤𝐿2
(1) Nm (2) Nm
2 3
𝑤𝐿2 𝑤𝐿2
(3) Nm (4) Nm
4 5

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Q.62). If a particle moving in a circular path of radius 5 m and a velocity is expressed as v = 4t 2.

What is the magnitude of its total acceleration at t - 1 sec ?
(1) 8.60 m/s2 (2) 11.2 m/s2 (3) 8 m/s2 (4) 3.2 m/s2
Q.63). The time of flight of a projectile on horizontal plane is .....................
2 u sin α 2 u cos 2α 2 u2 sin 2α u2 sin 2α

(1) (2) (3) (4)
g g g g
Q.64). If r = 4H, the angle of projection is .............
(1) 450 (2) 300 (3) 600 (4)750
Q.65). A body of mass 'm' is moving along a circle of radius r in vertical plane. it is tied by a
string at centre. The minimum velocity of body to remain in contact with the circle is
(1) gr (2) gr2 (3) √𝑔𝑟 (4) √2𝑔𝑟
Q.66). Work energy principle relates
(1) Force, acceleration and time (2) Force, velocity and displacement
(3) Force, velocity and time (4) Force, displacement and time.
Q.67). Impulsive force acting on particle is
(1) Applied for long duration causing significant change in momentum
(2) Applied for very short duration causing significant change in momentum
(3) applied for very short duration causing no significant change in momentum
(4) Applied for complete duration
Q.68). The time taken by bodies to regain original shape and size after deformation is
(1) Time of deformation (2) Time of restoration
(3) Time of impact (4) None of these

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Q.69). If the mass centers of two colliding bodies lie on line of impact, the impact is
(1) Central impact (2) Oblique impact
(3) Direct impact (4) Direct central impact
Q.70). A steel ball is dropped from height h1 onto hard horizontal floor and rebounds to a height
h2. The co efficient of restitution is
ℎ1 ℎ2 ℎ ℎ
(1) ℎ2
(2) ℎ1
(3) √ ℎ1 (4) √ ℎ2
2 1
Q.71).Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
list
List-I
A. Fineness of cement
B. Setting time\
C. Soundness
D. Workability
List-II
1. Le-chatelier apparatus
2. Vicat’s needle
3. Air permeability apparatus
4. Slump cone
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 3 2 1 4
d) 1 4 3 2
Q.72) Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II (Property/Characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. High strength Portland cement
B. Super sulphated cement
C. High alumina cement
D. Rapid hardening Portland cement
List-II
1. Should not be used with any admixture
2. Is extremely resistance to chemical attack
3. gives a higher rate of heat development during hydration of cement

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4. has a higher content of tricalcium silicate

Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 3 1 2 4
d) 4 2 1 3
Q.73) The split tensile strength of M15 grade concrete when expressed as percentage of its
compressive strength is
1) 10 to 15%
2) 15 to 20%
3) 22 to 25%
4) 25 to 30%
Q.74) match the list-I (name of stone) with list-II (use of stone) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the list
list 1 list 2
A) granite 1) Ornamental work
B) Marble 2) ballast
C) Chalk 3) rough stone work
D) laterite 4) manufacture of cement
Codes:
A B C D
1) 3 1 2 4
2) 2 3 1 4
3) 2 1 4 3
4) 1 4 2 3
Q.75) Match list-I (type of server) with list-II (purpose) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below in the list
list I
A. graphical survey
B. reconnaissance survey
C. cadastral survey
D. Archaeological survey
list II
1. to determine boundaries of fields, houses etc
2. to find releases of antiquity
3. to determine natural features of country
4. to determine possibility and rough cost of the serving system to be adopted
Codes

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A B C D
1) 3 4 1 2
2) 3 1 4 2
3) 2 4 1 3
4) 2 1 4 3
Q.76) Two points A and B are 1530 meter apart across river the reciprocal levels measured as
Level at Readings on ( in M )
A B
A 2.165 3.810
B 0.910 2.355
The error in the collimation adjustment is
1)0.1 2) 0.2 3.) 0.3 4) 0.4
Q.77) the following readings were taken with a dumpy level at a 4 meter leveling staff on
continuously sloping ground at 30 M intervals 0.680 m, 1.455 m, 1.85 m, 2.330 m, 2.885 m,
3.380m, 1.055 m. The RL of the fourth point was calculated to be 79.100 m The RL of point
that was read 0.680m is
1) 80.750m
2) 79.780m
3) 78.420m
4) 77.740m
Q.78) how high should a helicopter pilot rise at a point is just to see the horizon at point B if the
distance AB is 40 KM?
1) 101.75m
2) 110.50m
3) 107.75m
4) 105.50m
Q.79) consider the following statements

in surveying operation the word ‘ reciprocal’ can be associated with
1. Ranging
2. Leveling
3. Countering
which of these statements is /are correct?
1) 1only
2) 1 and 2 only
3) 2 and 3 only

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4) 1 , 2 and 3
Q.80) an object on the top of Hill 100 m hi is just visible Above The Horizon from a station at
sea level. the distance between the station and the object is
1) 38.53 km
2) 3.853km
3) 3853km
4) 385.3km
Q.81). which of the following law is applicable for the behaviour of the perfect gas
1.) Boyle’s Law 2.) Charles Law 3.) Gaylussac Law 4.) All of the above
Q.82). Match list I (Law) with List II(Effect) and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:
List I List II
A) Fourier's Law 1) Mass transfer
B) Stefan Boltzman law 2) Conduction
C) Newton's law of cooling 3) Convection
D) Fick's law 4) Radiation
Codes
A B C D
1) 3 1 2 4
2) 2 4 3 1
3) 3 4 2 1
4) 2 1 3 4
Q.83) The Cork exhibit the property of good insulator because
(1) it is flexible and can be cast into rolls

(2) It can be powdered
(3) It is porous
(4) Its density is low
Q.84) The purpose of the Trash Rack to be provided in power plant is
(1) store water (2) control flow
(3) prevent dust (4) all of the above

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Q.85) The Flywheel is used in the engine for purpose………
(1) reduce the cost and increase life of the engine
(2) Regulate the mean speed the engine
(3) reduce the friction in the system
(4) reduce the fluctuations in the speed.
Q.86) As compared to all drives the power transmission capacity of……... is very high
(1) belt drive (2) gear drive
(3) chain drive (4) all of the above
Q.87). Intermittent rotary motion mechanisms are used to convert continuous ............motion into
intermittent rotary motion.
(1) reciprocating (2) rotary
(3) oscillating (4) all of the above
Q.88) For calculating the cost of component we need to Analyze the following
(1) material cost and processing cost
(2) material cost and maintenance cost
(3) material cost and transportation cost
(4) none of the above
Q.89) Which of the following about the forging is applicable
(1) complicated shape cannot be forged
(2) forging process is not applicable for small parts
(3) forging of brittle materials is difficult
(4) all of the above
Q.90) ………….. is the process through which the wires from the rods can be produced
(1) Deep-drawing (2) Wire-drawing
(3) Cupping (4) All of the above

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Q.91) According to ohm’s law the voltage is directly proportional to current in addition the
(1) Voltage should remain constant
(2) current should remain constant
(3) resistance must remain constant
(4) power must remain constant
Q.92) A superposition theorem is not applicable to network consisting of ............
(1) linear elements (2) bilateral elements
(3) nonlinear elements (4) dependent sources
Q.93) In an alternating current the EMF are produced according to
(1) Faraday's law (2) Thevenin's theorem
(3) Ohm's law (4) kirchhoff's law
Q.94). An instantaneous value of an alternating current having R.M.S value of 7.071 A at 1200
is
(1) 4.33 A (2) 6.123 A
(3) 8.66 A (4) 3.061 A
Q.95). The form factor of purely sinusoidal waveform is................
(1) 1.11 (2) 1.21
(3) 1.414 (4) √2
Q.96). The frequency of resonance of series RLC circuit is given by.................

1 1
(1) f0 = (2) f0 =
√𝐿𝐶 𝜋√𝐿𝐶
1 1
(3) f0 = 2𝜋√𝐿𝐶 (4) f0 = 4𝜋√𝐿𝐶
Q.97) In a three phase circuit system the Electromotive force are placed at an angle of _____
From each other

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(1) 300 apart (2) 600 apart
(3) 900 apart (4) 1200 apart
Q.98) The following represent the relation between line current and phase current when
connected as Delta system
(1) IL = Iph (2) IL = Iph l√3
(3) IL = √3 𝐼𝑝ℎ (4) IL = 3 Iph
Q.99) The total power of two wattmeter readings in a three phase balanced system is
(1)Vph Iph cos ∅ (2) 3VL IL cos ∅
(3) None of these (4) √3Vph Iph cos ∅
Q.100) If in the given Transformer has secondary fall load current of 10 A and secondary no-
load induced EMF of 200 V then its KVA rating is given as
(1) 2000 (2) 200 (3) 2 (4) 20
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Vidyasagar Academy
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…From Transforming Careers To Creating Officers
Classroom Test 01 Solutions

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Q. 1.) स ्पष्ट्टीकरण
व्याकरण दृष्ट््या सर्वनाम हे नामच आहे कारण नाम आणण सर्वनाम या दोन्ही जात ांचे
वविक्त कार्य मराठीत सारखेच आहे नामाच ततरुपत टाळणे व सांदिावने अर्थ व ्यक् त करणे ही
सर्वनामाच दोन लक् षणे साांगगतली जातात सर्व नाम आणण नाम यात ल साम ्य लक्षात घेऊन काही
व्याकरणकाराांन सर्वनामाचा नामातच समावेश केला आहे
Q.2.) स ्पष्ट्टीकरण
मराठी व्याकरणात पुढील आठ वविक्त माांडल्या आहे त त्या सांस्कृत व्याकरनावावरून मानल्या आहे त.
त्या जसा क्रियेश असलेला सांबध

ां प ्रगट करतात तसा आणख ही अनेक प ्रकारचा आणण वाक्यात ल
इतर शबदाांश असलेला सांबध
ां प ्रगट करतात. प ्रथम मराठीत ल वविक्त त्याांचे प ्रत ्यय व त्या
प ्रकट करीत असलेला कारकार्थ पाहू
वविक्त एक वचन अनेक वचन कारकार्थ
प ्रथमा - - कताव
व्व्दत या स, ला, ते स ला ना ते कर्म
तत
ृ या नें श ए तन श ही ई करण
चतुथी स ला ते स ला ना ते सांप ्रदन
पांचम हून हून अपादान
षष्ट्ठी चा च चे चे च्या च सांबध

ां
सप ्तम तइआ तइआ अगधकरण

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Q.5.) मराठीत रूढ झालेले काही अरब शब ्द इनाम, इमारत, करमत, कुलूप, कौल, खव्जना, खबर,,
गरज गलबला, जबाब, जुलूम, दावा, दव
ु ा, नफा, बाब, मशाल, मभशद, महाल, मोहीम, वजन, साहे ब,
सोफा, हद्द, हहम ्मत, हहशेब
Q. 12.) solution :
1) 'A' is used before word beginning with consonants. e.g.a girl, a map, a lion, a table etc.
2) 'An' is used before words beginning with a vowel or with a letter 'h' which is not sounded.
Q. 14.) solution : Aviary - a place where birds are kept.
Q. 21.) solution : Ans: (4)

Learning Zone: The term ‘Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA)’, recently seen in the news in
the context of affairs of the United States of America.
The Asia Reassurance Initiative Act (ARIA) called for the strengthening of diplomatic,
economic and security ties with India and allocates a budget of $1.5 billion over a five-year
period to enhance cooperation with America’s strategic regional allies in the region.
It is an Act designed to counter the encroaching influence and growing threat from China and to
reinvigorate US leadership in the Indo-Pacific region.
Q. 22.) Ans: (1)

Learning Zone: Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan (SNA) aims at dissemination of information on health
issues to create awareness among citizens of India of ail age/sex/locations and appropriately
influence their health seeking behavior to encourage healthy lifestyles and empower the citizens.
Q. 23.) Ans: (3)

Learning Zone: Article 23(1) of the Constitution prohibits ‘begar’ and other similar forms of
forced labour and further provides that any contravention of the said prohibition shall be an
offence punishable in accordance with law.
Article 35(a)(ii) of the Constitution not only confers the power on Parliament to provide for
punishment for the contravention of the said provisions of Article 23(1) but expressly takes away
the power of the State Legislature to make any legislation with regard to the said matter.
Q. 24.) solution : RBI has four subsidiaries viz. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation, DICGC; National Housing Bank; Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private
Limited (BRBNMPL) and NABARD.

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Q. 26.) Ans: (1)

Learning Zone: ‘Pahchan’ initiative of the Government of India is aimed at organizing and
standardizing the Indian handicrafts industries.
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles.
The government has also launched a direct marketing portal for handicraft artisans to provide
direct market access facility to genuine handicraft artisans including tribal artisans working in
the far-flung areas. Any handicraft artisan registered under Pachchan can utilize this portal for
marketing their products.
Q. 27.) The first Bank with Limited Liability to be managed by Indian Board was Oudh
Commercial Bank. It was established in 1881 at Faizabad. This bank failed in 1958. The first
bank purely managed by Indians was Punjab National Bank, established in Lahore in 1895
Q. 28.) Ans: (4)

Learning Zone: Article 76 of the Constitution deals with the Attorney-General for India. It says
that the President can appoint a person who is qualified to be a Supreme Court judge as the
Attorney-General for India.
The AG advises the government on such legal matters as referred or assigned by the President,
has the right of audience in all courts in the country, holds office at the pleasure of the President
and receives such remuneration as the President determines.
Q. 29.) Ans: (2)

Learning Zone: Agasthyarkoodam is the second highest peak in Kerala at 1,868 metres.
It is located in the Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Thiruvananthapuram.
Q. 31.) Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP
Q. 35.) solution : Ans: (3)
Learning Zone: Digital Sky Platform is a first of its kind platform that implements ‘no
permission, no take-off’ (NPNT) policy under the Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR) to enable
safe flying of Remotely Piloted Aerial Systems (RPAS) in India.
Digital Sky Platform enables registration of drones, pilots, and operators, and provides online
permission to fly drones that are micro and above categories
Q. 37.) solution : Learning Zone: GSAT-7A is a Military communication satellite that will add a
new space-based dimension to the way Indian Air Force interlinks, operates and communicates
with its aircraft.

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The satellite using Ku band will enable superior real-time aircraft-to-aircraft communication; and
between planes that are in flight and their commanders on the ground. Pilots can communicate
much better with headquarters while they fly. Headquarters can receive data in real time.
Since August 2013, the Navy has a satellite largely for its use, the GSAT-7, for similarly linking
its ships to command on land.
Q. 39.) solution :
This award is given for significant contribution in the field of wildlife protection, which is
recognised as having shown exemplary courage or having done exemplary work for the
protection of wildlife. A cash award of Rupees One lakh is presented to individuals/institutions
involved in wildlife protection.
40.) solution :
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted on
29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity and
entered into force on 11 September 2003. It is an international treaty governing the movements
of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to
another.
Q. 41.) solution : A is skew-symmetric
∴ AT = -A
Q. 42.) solution :
1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3
1 2 3 4 R2-R1 0 1 2 1 0 1 2 1
1 4 k 6 R3 - R1 0 3 k-1 3 R3-3R2 0 0 k-7 0
now if k≠7
rank (A) = rank ( A | B) = 3
∴ Unique solution
If k = 7, rank (A) = rank (A | B) = 2
which is less than number of variables
∴ when k = 7, unique solution is not possible and only infinite solution is possible

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Q. 43.) solution :
The augmented matrix for above system is
1 1 2 1 R2-R1 1 1 2 1 R3-3R2 1 1 2 1
1 2 3 2 R3-R1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1
1 4 a 4 0 3 a-2 3 0 0 a-5 0
Now as long as a-5 ≠ 0, rank (A) = rank ( A | B) = 3
∴ A can taken any real value except 5. Closest correct answer is (d)
Q. 44.) solution :
(x) = 2x - x2 + 3
f'(x) = 2 - 2x = 0
x = 1 is the stationary point
f'' (x) = -2
f'' (1) = -2 < 0
So at x =1 we have a relative maxima.
Q. 45.) solution :
ex = 1 + x + x2 + x3 .... ( By McLaurin's series expansion)
2! 3!
Q. 46.) solution :
y= 2 x 3/2
3
dy = x1/2
dx
length of the curve is given by
2 3 𝑥=1
1 1
∫0 √1 (𝑑𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 √1 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = [2 (1 + 𝑥)2 ] = 1.22
𝑑𝑦 3 𝑥=0
Q. 47.) solution :
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2𝜋 𝜋/3 1 2𝜋 𝜋/3 𝑟 3 1
V= ∫0 ∫0 ∫0 𝑟 2 sin ∅ 𝑑𝑟 𝑑∅ 𝑑𝜃. = ∫0 ∫0 [ ] sin ∅ 𝑑∅ 𝑑𝜃.
3 0
1 2𝜋 𝜋⁄ 1 1 𝜋
= 3 ∫0 [− cos ∅]𝑏 3 𝑑𝜃 = ∗ 2 ∗ 2𝜋 =
3 3
Q. 48.) solution :
At the point of intersection of curves
Y = x2+1 and x + y = 3 i.e. y = 3 -x we have
X2+1 = 3-x
X2+x-2=0
x=-2,1 and 3-x⩾ x2 +1
Required area is ∬ 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦

1 3−𝑥 1
= ∫𝑥=−2 [∫𝑦=𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦] 𝑑𝑥 = ∫−2{3 − 𝑥 } − (𝑥 2 + 1)𝑑𝑥
1
−𝑥 3 𝑥2 9
=( − + 2𝑥) =
3 2 −2 2
Q. 49.) solution :
(D2+6D+9) = 5e3x
Auxiliary equation is D2 +6D +9 = 0 or D=-3 , -3
C.F. = ( C1+C2X)e-3x
1 𝑒 3𝑥 5𝑒 3𝑥
P.I. = 𝐷2 +6𝐷+9 . 5𝑒 3𝑥 = 5 =
(3)2 +6(3)+9 36
50.) solution :
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+ 4 + 3𝑦 = 3𝑒 2𝑥
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
(D2+4D+3)y = 3e2x
1
particular integral PI = 𝐷2 +4𝐷+3 3𝑒 2𝑥

ू प
1 1
Now since, 𝑒 𝑎𝑥 = 𝑒 𝑎𝑥
𝑓(𝐷) 𝑓(𝑎)
𝑒 2𝑥 3𝑒 2𝑥 𝑒 2𝑥
P.I. = 3 = =
(2)2 +4(2)+3 15 5
Q. 51.) solution : Trapezoidal rule gives the beat result in single variable function when the
function is linear (degree)1
Q. 52.) solution :
𝜕𝑢 𝜕 𝜕𝑢 𝜕
= 𝑥𝑦𝑒 𝑥𝑦𝑧 = ( 𝜕𝑧 ) = (𝑥𝑦𝑒 𝑥𝑦𝑧 )
𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑦
𝜕2𝑢
= 𝑥𝑦𝑒 𝑥𝑦𝑧 + 𝑥𝑦𝑒 𝑥𝑦𝑧 (𝑥𝑧) = (𝑥 + 𝑥 2 𝑦𝑧)𝑒 𝑥𝑦𝑧
𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑧
Q. 53.) solution :
𝑦
u= x0 tan−1 𝑥 is a homogeneous function in x and y of degree 0
By Euler's theorem xux + yuy = nu=0
Q. 54.) solution :
By Euler's theorem xux+yuy+zuz =nu
55.) solution :
𝑑 2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+ − 6𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
D2 + D-6 =0
(D+3)(D-2) =0
D= -3 or D=2
Solution is y= y= c1 e-3x + c2 e2x

ू प
Q. 56.) solution :
We know that Varignon's theorem (mathematically)is R . x= ∑ M where x is perpendicular

distance of resultant from moment centre, which represents position of resultant
So, option (a) is correct.
Q. 58.) solution :
The moment of a force F about any axis is the scalar obtained by forming the mixed triple
product of DCS, r and F.
𝑙 𝑚 𝑛
∴ Maxis = 𝑟𝑥 𝑟𝑦 𝑟𝑧 Which is scalar
𝐹𝑥 𝐹𝑦 𝐹𝑦
So, option (b) is correct.
𝑎
Q. 59.) solution : The height of any triangle is
√2
1 𝑎 𝑎
∴ Centroid is at × =
3 √2 √18
So, option (d) is correct.
Q. 60.) solution :
symmetrical about y-axis
∴ 𝑥̅ =0
2ℎ
and 𝑦̅ = from base
5
So, option (b) is correct
Q. 61.) solution : :
∑ 𝑀𝐴 = 0

ू प
1 2
M- 2 × w × L × 3 × L = 0
𝑤𝐿2
∴M= Nm
3
Q. 62.) solution :
𝑑𝑣
p = 5m a2 = 𝑑𝑡
v = 4t2
ar = 8m/s 2 at t = 1 sec
v=4
𝑣2 (4)2
aN = = = 3.2 m/s2 at t = 1 sec
𝑝 5
Total acceleration a = √𝑎2𝑇 + 𝑎𝑁

2
= √(8)2 + (3.2)2 = 8.62 m/s2
So, Option (a) is correct.
Q. 64.) solution :
R = 4H
Using above result Q . 17

𝑅 4𝐻
= 4 cot 𝛼 ∴ = 4 cot 𝛼
𝐻 𝐻
∴ cot 𝛼 = 1 ∴ 𝛼 = 450
So, option (a) is correct.
Q. 65.) solution :
: At A, when body just passes without falling off, tension in the string would be zero,
𝑚𝑣 2
mg = ∴v(min) = √𝑔𝑟
𝑟

ू प
So, option (c) is correct.
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Q. 66.) solution :
Work energy principle relates work done and energy, (K.E.) work done involves force and
displacement while K.E involves velocity. So work energy principle relates force, velocity and
displacement .
Q. 67.) solution :
Impulsive force is the very large force which is acting for very short duration of time and
produces significant change is momentum.
So, option (b) is correct.
Q. 68.) solution :
The time taken by both bodies to regain their original shape and size after deformation is called
time of restoration or time of restitution.
Q. 70.) solution :
𝑣2−𝑣1
𝑒= 𝑢1−𝑢2
But for floor v2 and u2 both are zero
𝑣 √2𝑔ℎ2 ℎ
𝑒 = − [ 1] = − [ ]= √ 2
𝑢1 √2𝑔ℎ1 ℎ 1
so option d is correct.
Q. 72.) solution :
Super sulphate cement is manufactured by grinding together A mixture of 80 to

85% granulated slag, 10 to 15% burnt gypsum and 5% Portland cement clinker. this product is
ground finer than that of Portland cement

ू प
Q. 73.) solution :
Split tensile strength is 5% to 12% higher than direct tensile strength. the ratio of split tensile
strength to compressive strength for different grades of concrete are given below
M10 10 to 15%
M15 15 to 20%
M20 2o to 25%
M30 25 to 30%
for approximation purpose one can take split tensile strength as 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘 which is the flexural
strength given by IS: 456-2000
the ratio of split tensile strength to compressive strength is given by
0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
𝑥 100
𝑓𝑐𝑘
For M15, 𝑓𝑐𝑘 = 15 N/mm2
0.7 √15
= x 100 = 18%
15
so 15% - 20% should be the choice.
Q. 74.) solution :
chalk is used as colouring material in the manufacture of Portland cement

laterite is used as a road metal in rough missionary work extra
Q. 76.) solution :
True difference in levels
(3.810 − 2.165) + (2.355 − 0.910)
ℎ=
2
= 1.545 m
Error in collimation adjustment
(3.810 − 2.165) − (2.355 − 0.910

𝑒=
2
= 0.1 m
when the level is at A the reading on the shaft at A is correct. while reading on shaft at B at the
reading on the shaft at B is correct while reading on the shaft at A is incorrect
correct readings are :

ू प
Level at Readings on (in m)

A B
A 2.165 3.710
B 0.810 2.355
Q. 77.) solution :
BS IS FS Rise Fall RL
0.680 80.750
1.455 0.775 76.975
1.855 0.400 79.575
2.330 0.475 79.100
2.885 0.555 78.545
1.055 3.380 0.495 78.050
RL of the point that was read as 0.680
= 79.100 + total fall up to 2.330 reading
= 79.100 + ( 0.475+0.400+0.775)
= 80.75
Q. 78.) solution :
The height of rise = 0.0673 D2
= 0.0673 x (40)2
= 107.68 m
Q. 80.) solution :
Distance
𝐻 100
𝑑= √ = √ km
0.06735 0.06735

ू प
= 38.53 km
Q.82.) solution : 1) Fourier's law of heat conduction
Statement : The rate of heat conduction through the media is directly proportional to the area (A)
normal to the direction of heat flow and temperature gradient (dT/dx) in the direction of heat
flow
𝑑𝑇
Qcond ∝ 𝐴 𝑑𝑥
Newton's law of cooling
Newton's law of cooling states that "The rate of convective heat transfer is directly proportional
to the surface area exposed to the surrounding and temperature difference between the surface
and the surrounding.
Q conv 𝛼 As (Ts - 𝑇∞ )
Q concv = h As (Ts - 𝑇∞ )
Q conv = Rate of convection heat transfer (W)
h= constant of proportionality and is known as convective heat transfer coefficient, W/m2 o

W/m2 K. It is not property. It is experimentally determined value.
Stefan Boltzmann's law
Stefan Boltzmann's law states that: "The thermal radiations emitted by a black body per unit area
and per unit time is directly proportional to fourth power of it's absolute temperature.
Q rad = ∈ 𝜎 𝐴 𝑇 4
∈ = emmisivity its value is always less than 1 for non black body and equal to 1 for black
body
𝜎 = Stefan-Boltzman constant
= 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2K4
T = Absolute surface temperature K
Q. 83.) solution :
• materials with very low thermal conductivity are called as insulating materials. where as
materials with good thermal conductivity are called as conducting material.

ू प
• Insulting materials are further classified into high temperature and low temperature
insulating materials.
• If material is obstructing the flow of heat and can be able to with sand to high
temperature, such material is known as the high temperature insulating material. Ex: glass
wool, mica, asbestos, etc
• If material is obstructing the flow of heat and can be able to with sand to low
temperature, such material is known as the low temperature insulating material. ex :
wood, human body skin, etc.
Q. 84.) solution :
• The basic requirement of hydroelectric power plant is Reservoir where large amount of
water is store during rainy season and used during other season
• therefore these types of power plants are located where the water resources are available
in large quantity with high head
• during the operation the water is supplied to the turbine( Prime mover) through the
penstock which is located at much lower level than the height of the water in the reservoir
Q. 85.) solution :
To enable use of low power energy source coupled to a varying energy load.
To smoothen out variations in the speed of shaft caused by torque fluctuations between the
energy source and energy load.
Q. 86.) solution :
Gear drive is a positive drive and it is provided when the distance between the driver and
follower is very small.
Gears are defined as toothed wheels which can transmit power and motion from one shaft to
another shaft by means of successive engagement of teeth.
It is important to note that, both the gears which are engaged, always rotate in opposite direction.
Q. 87.) solution :
Geneva mechanism is a cam like mechanism which provides intermittent rotary motion.

ू प
Q. 88.) solution :
Following are the general considerations while designing a machine element :
1.Type of load 8.Motion of element
2. Selection of material 9.Production quantity
3. shape and size 10 Maintenance of element
4. Friction and lubrication 11. Life of element
5. Operational safety 12. Capacity of element
6. Machine availability 13. Weight of element
7. Use of standard parts 14. Cost of element
Q. 89.) solution :
• Forging is the process of shaping heating metal by the application of sudden blows
(hammer forging) or steady pressure (Press forging) and makes use of the characteristic
plasticity of the material.
• Forging is metal forming process which may be done by hand or by machine.
• Thee stop in which the work is carried out is called as smithy or smith's shop
• Hand forging is the process of deforming the hot material/ workpiece into the required
shape by applying the repeated blows of hammer held in hand.
• Drop forging process utilises closed impression die to obtain the required shape of the
component
Q. 92.) solution :
Superposition theorem:
Statement : In any multisource complex network consisting of linear bilateral elements, the
voltage across or current through any given element of the network is equal to the algebraic sum
of the individual voltages or currents, produced independently across or in that element by each

ू प
source acting independently, when all the remaining sources are replaced by their respective
internal resistances.
If the internal resistances of the sources are unknown then the independent voltage sources must
be replaced by short circuit while the independent current sources must be replaced by an open
circuit.

ू प
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ू प
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Q. 93.) solution :
Equation of alternating quantity
e= Em sin 0 volts
Where,
Em = Amplitude or maximum or peak value of the voltage
e = Instantaneous value of an alternating voltage
e = em sin (ω t)
= Em sin (2 π f t )
2π
= 𝐸𝑚 sin ( 𝑇 𝑡)
Q. 94.) solution :
i = Im Sin 𝜃 = √2 𝐼𝑅𝑀𝑆 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃
= √2 X 7.071 x sin 1200 = 8.66 A
Q. 95.) solution :
Form factor,

ू प
𝑟𝑚𝑠
Kf =𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒
Kf = 1.11 for sinusoidal quantities
Q. 96.) solution :
Series reasons : In RLC series circuit when XL = XC it is called series resonant circuit The
corresponding frequency is called series resonant frequency as f0 or fr
1 1 1 𝐿
f0 = 2𝜋 𝜔0= = 𝑅 √𝐶 = Q factor
√𝐿𝐶 √𝐿𝐶
Q.97.) solution :
• in a three phases supply system, there are three voltages with a same magnitude and
frequently but having a phase difference of 1200 between them.
• The equation for the three phase voltage are:
eR = Em sin ( 𝜔𝑡)
eY = Em sin (𝜔𝑡 − 1200)
eB = Em sin (𝜔𝑡 − 1200)
= Em sin (𝜔𝑡 + 1200)
Q. 98.) solution :
Where IR, IY, IY are line currents and

IRY, IYB, and IBR are phase currents
VL = Vph and Il = √3 Iph

P = √3 VL IL cos ∅
Q. 99.) solution :
W1 = VLIL cos (30 - ∅ ) W2 = VLIL cos (30 + ∅ )

P = W1 + W2 = √3 VL IL cos ∅

ू प
Q = √3 W1-W2
Q. 100.) solution :
kVA = E2 I2 X 10-3 = 100 x 200 x 10-3 = 2 kVA
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महाराष्ट्र लोकसेवा अभियाांत्रिकी सराव पव

VIDYASAGAR ACADEMY @ PUNE

Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 1

Note : MPSC 2019 MAINS Batch starts on 28 June 2019 @ 7.45 AM

Q 2. रूढ मराठी व्याकरणात ……………….. नवभक्ती मािल्या आहे त

Q 3. खािीि म्हणीचा िेमका अथय कोणता

Q4. पुढीिपैकी िुद्ध िब्द साां गा

Q5. पुढीि िब्दातीि अरबी िब्द ओळखा

Q. 6 to 10 उताऱ्र्ावरीि प्रश्नाां ची उत्तरे

Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 2

Q. 7. िे खकाच्या मते कोणता मिुष्य अनिक र्ोग्यते चा हवा?

Q.9). जगात दु नमय ळ कार् आहे ?

Q.10). हसतमु ख मिुष्य कार् करू िकतो

Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 3

Q. 11.) Choose the alternative with correct spelling:

Shyam was a ...............man in his family.

(1) shred (2) shrewd (3) shrew (4) shrewed

Q.12) Draw.......... map of India.

Q.13) Choose the correct alternative of Reported speech.

Rahul said, "I go home every day."

(1) Rahul pleaded he goes home every day.

(2) Rahul exclaimed he would go home every day.

(3) Rahul shouted he has to go home every day.

(4) Rahul said that he went home every day.

Q.14.) A Place where birds are kept.

(1) Nest (2) apiary (3) aviary (4) menagerie

Fill in the blank using correct alternative.

1. Canvass 2. Canvas 3. Canavass 4.canavas

Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 4

Q.17) Consider the following two sentences

Q.19) Purdhons Theory of anarchism depends on

Q.20) Consider the following two sentences

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b. Purdhon’s theory of government depends on Law lessons

Q.23) Consider the following statements.

Q.24) Which among the following is NOT a subsidiary of RBI?

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Q.25). Match the pairs about ‘Padma Bhushan’ Awards 2018.

Q.26) What is the objective of ‘Pahchan’ initiative of the Government of India?

1)To organize and standardize the Indian handicrafts industries

Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 7

1)Lok Sabha 2) Rajya Sabha

Q.33)who founded “Arya Mahila Samaj” in pune

Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 8

Q.34).Which is the largest river basin on the Maharashtra Plateau

1) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar

2) Medini Puruskar Yojana

3) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award

4) Pitambar Pant National Award

2) Invasive Alien Species

3) Living Modified Organisms

4) Toxic bye-products and industrial effluents

Q.41). A real square matrix A is called skew-symmetric if,

Q.42). The following simultaneous equations

will not have a unique solution for k equal to

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Vidyasagar Academy Pune 7741008333 Page 11

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Q.43). The following system of equations

x1 + x2 + 2x3= 1 ; x1 + 2x3 + 3x3= 2 ; x1 + 4x2 + ax3= 4

has a unique solution. The only possible values for a is / are

3) one of 0, 1, or -1 4) any real number other than 5