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2nd PUC Model Question Paper -2023-24.

Subject Code :09. Subject:॥संस्कृ तम्॥SANSKRIT.


[TIME:03 Hours 15 Minutes.] [Total No of Questions:46.] [Max.Marks:80.]
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ಷೂಚನೆಗಳು :
೧) ಈ ಪ್ರವೆಪ್ತ್ರರಕೆಯಲ್ಲಿA,B,Cಮತ್ುುD ಗಳೆಂಬ 4 ವಿಭಹಗಗಳಿ಴.
೨) ಎಱಹಿ ವಿಭಹಗಗಳೂ ಕಡ್ಹಾಯವಹಗಿರುತ್ು಴.
೩)ಎಱಹಿ ವಿಭಹಗಗಳಲ್ಲಿ ಕೆೇಳಱಹದ ಪ್ರವೆಗಳಿಗೆ ಉತ್ುರಗಳನ್ುೆ ಆಯಹ ವಿಭಹಗಗಳಲ್ಲಿ ಪ್ರತ್ಯೇಕವಹಗಿ ಷೂಚಿಸಿದ
ಷೂಚನೆಯೆಂತ್ಉತ್ುರಿಷಬೇಕು.
Instructions:
1) This Question paper consists of four parts as A, B, C and D.
2) All parts are compulsory.
3) Every part should be answered as per the given instruction for each and every respective
part.
Part-A.
I.अधोिनर्ददष्टानांप्रश्नानाम्उत्तरािणकोष्टकात्उद्धृत्य ििखत । 10 x 01 =10
1. अद्यािि देवााः कु त्र जन्म इच्छिन्त?
[ जिान्भूतिे,अमेररकाभूतिे, भारतभूतिे, आस्रेिियाभूतिे ]
2. िवक्रमाददत्याः कथं देशान्तरं िनगगताः?
[ िभक्षुकवेषेण,योिगवेषेण,व्यािाररवेषेण, िवदूषकवेषेण]
3. राजिुत्राःमञ्जूषायााःअन्ताःकं िनिक्षिित ?
[ घोरं वानरं ,घोरं सिं, घोरं माजागि,ं घोरं व्याघ्रं]
4. शारद्वत: क:?
[व्यासिशष्याः,विसष्ठिशष्याः,कण्विशष्य:, वाल्मीदकिशष्याः]
5.राणाप्रतािस्यििताकाः ?

[प्रथमउदयससहाः,िद्वतीयउदयससहाः ,तृतीयउदयससहाः,चतुथगउदयससहाः]
6. महाश्वेताया: ििताक:?
[चन्रािीडाः, िुण्डरीकाः,कं साः , हंसाः]

7. सुन्दराःदकमथंनगरम्आगच्छित ?
[ उद्योगाथं ,अटनाथं , िभक्षाथं, व्यािाराथं]
8.’िविधिवििसतम्’ इित िाठे वज्राख्यदक्रिमप्रसङ्गाः _____सूचयित।
[ कणगस्य दुगुगणम् , कणगस्य सहनगुणम् , कणगस्य मननगुणम् ,कणगस्य श्रवणगुणम्]
9.’धनहीनो न हीनश्च’ इित वाक्यस्य भावाः __________।
[ धनहीनाः दररराः ,धनहीनाःदररराःन , धनहीनाः अितदररराः , धनहीनाः हीनाः]
10. ’साः यत्र कु त्रािि भवतु, कािेज् आनेतव्य एव ’ इित वाक्यं कृ ष्णशाििमहोदयस्य _____सूचयित।
[ कोिम् , असूयाम् , िशष्यवात्सल्यम् , जुगुप्साम्]
II. मञ्जूषाताः सूक्तं िदं िचत्त्वा ररक्तं स्थानं िूरयत । 05x 01 =05
11.द्वीिेषु सवेषु _____ प्रयािन्त।
12. ______ ददाित चेत् सन्तितच्छेदो भिवष्यित।
13.सवगाः सगन्धेषु _______।
14. वैररणां_____ समुरोिमम् आसीत्।
15. ममािराधाः ________ क्षन्तव्याः।

सैन्यम् , िवश्विसित , नरााः ,कृ िया , िुत्रम्,आत्मजा

III. संयोजयत । 16. 05 x 01 =05


क ख
िररव्राड् वायु: ।
गन्धवह: बह्वित्याः ।
हंसाः कामवशगाः ।
गोिवन्दाः गौरी ।
िुिष्िताः प्रतािस्य माता
वृक्षाः

Part - B.
IV.िद्वत्रैाःवाक्यैाःसंस्कृ तभाषया,कन्नडभाषया,आङ््िभाषया उत्तरं ििखत।(चतुणागमेव) 04 x 02 =08
17. भारतवषगस्यप्रिसद्धिञ्चनदीनांनामािनििखत।
18. िविस्मताःराक्षसाःिवक्रमाददत्यंककिृच्छित?
19. कीदृशंकुसुमगन्धम् अिजघ्रम्इितमहाश्वेतावदित ?
20. वज्राख्याः कीटाः कक करोित ?
21.नरिवग्रहााःदेवााःके ?
22. बाल्येशाििणांसंस्कृ ताध्ययनम्।
V. िाठनामउिल्िख्यकाःकं प्रितअवदत्इितसंस्कृ तभाषयाििखत।(चतुणागमेव) 04 x 02 =08
23. मयािराथगमेतत् शरीरं दीयतेस्वेच्छया।
24. सुखािनतेभतृगकुिदेवता: िवतरन्तु।
25. कु त्राििगत्वाधनंसङ्ग्रिहष्यािम।
26. ’भगवन् !दकमिभधान:’?
27. दृढीदक्रयतां चेताः ।
28. िरीक्षाथगम्इतोऽििसमयावकाशाःिवद्यते।
Part - C.
VI. िाठनामउिल्िख्यश्लोकानाम् अनुवादंकन्नडभाषया/आङ््िभाषयावाििखत। (द्वयोरे व) 02 x
03 =06
29.भारतस्यास्यवषगस्यनवभेदािन्नबोधत।
समुरान्तररताज्ञेयास्तेत्वगमयााःिरस्िरम्॥
30. मञ्जूषांतांचगङ्गायांतथैवोध्वगस्थदीििकाम्।
कृ त्वातत्याजिनिक्षप्यघोरं वानरमन्तरे ॥
31. अताःिरीक्ष्यकतगव्यंिवशेषात्सङ्गतंरहाः।
अज्ञातहृदयेष्वेवंवैरीभवितसौहृदम्॥
32. मनसािचिन्ततंकायंवाचानैवप्रकाशयेत्।
मन्त्रवत्रक्षयेत्गूढंकायेचािििनयोजयेत्॥

VII.दशवाक्यैाः संस्कृ तभाषयाकन्नडभाषयाआङ््िभाषयावाउत्तरं ििखत। (चतुणागमेव) 04 x 05


=20
33.िुराणभारतम् इित इित िाठानुसारं िुराणेषु वर्णणतस्य भारतस्य वैिशष्यं िववृणुत।
34. िरे षामिि रक्ष जीिवतम् इित िाठानुसारं िवक्रमाददत्यस्यिरोिकारगुणंवणगयत।
35.‘ िनर्णवमशाग िह भीरवाः’ इित शीर्णषकां समथगयत ।
36. अिभज्ञानशाकु न्तिम् इित नाटकस्य आधारे ण दुष्यन्तिात्रमिधकृ त्य स्वीयम् अिभप्रायं
िवशदयत।
37.भामाशाहाःकथम् एकाःश्रेष्ठाः स्वािमभक्ताः इित साधयत।
38. िुण्डरीकस्य जन्मवृत्तान्तं ििखत ।
39.शािन्तदशगनात् तरुणस्य मनिस कााः दुभागवनााः उत्िन्नााः? अन्ते कथं िनमूगिितााः इित वणगयत।
Part - D
VIII. यथािनदेशंििखत।(त्रयाणामेव) 03 x 03 =09
40. ससन्धिवभजत/ससन्ध योजयत।(त्रयाणामेव)

वनािनिेन। एकै कम्।प्रागेव।धौताः + च।देवााः+ते।

41. िवग्रहवाक्यं ििखत/समस्तिदंििखत।(त्रयाणामेव)

विािणाः।कन्यारत्नम्।तिोधनाः।गुरोाःउिदेशाः।अहिनअहिन।

42. िदिररचयंकुरुत।(त्रयाणामेव)
कृ त्वा। प्रितसंहतुगम्।समिाद्य।ितन्।िचिन्ततम्।

43. प्रयोगंिररवतगयत।
अ.िवक्रमाददत्याःकािंनयित।
अथवा
आ. नरै ाःकमागिणदक्रयन्ते।
44. अिङ्कारं सिक्षणं िनर्ददशत।
अ. मध्येतिोधनानांदकसियिमविाण्डु ित्राणाम्।
अथवा
आ. िवद्यारत्नेनयोहीनाःसहीनाःसवगवस्तुषु।

IX. संस्कृ तभाषयाअनुवदत।


5x1=5.
45. ಒಮ್ಮೆವಿಶ್ಹಾಮಿತ್ರಮಸರ್ಷಿಗಳುದವರಥಮಹಹರಹಜನ್ಆಸ್ಹಾನ್ಕೆೆಬೆಂದರು.
ಯಜ್ಞರಕ್ಷಣೆಗಹಗಿಬಹಲಕರಹದರಹಮಲಕ್ಷೆಣರನ್ುೆತ್ಮೆಜೂತ್ಕಳುಹಿಷು಴ೆಂತ್ಕೆೇಳಿಕೊೆಂಡರು.
ಪ್ುತ್ರವಹತ್ಸಲಯದೆಂದದವರಥನ್ುದುುಃಖಿತ್ನಹದನ್ು.
ಕುಲಪ್ುರೂೇಹಿತ್ರಹದ಴ಸಿಶಠರುವಿಶ್ಹಾಮಿತ್ರರಬೇಡಿಕೆಯನ್ುೆಪ್ೂರೈಷು಴ೆಂತ್ದವರಥನಿಗೆನ್ುಡಿದರು.
ಲೂೇಕಕಱಹಯಣಕ್ಹೆಗಿದವರಥನ್ುರಹಮಲಕ್ಷೆಣರನ್ುೆಕಳುಹಿಸಿದನ್ು.
Once the sage Vishwamitra came to the court of the king Dasharatha. He requested
to send the boys Rama and Lakshmana to protect his sacrifice. Dasharatha felt sad due to
affection towards his children. Vasishtha, the preceptor of the family, advised Dasharatha
to fulfilVishwamitra’s request. Dasharatha sent Rama and Lakshmana for the welfare of
the world.
X.इमंिररच्छेदंिरठत्वाप्रश्नानाम्उत्तरिणििखत।
4x1=4.

46. समयक् िवचायैव सवं करणीयम् इित एषा कथा समयक्

बोधयित।िुराअयोध्यायांसगरोनामराजाआसीत्।एकदास: ििवत्रम् अश्वमेधयागंकतुगम्ऐच्छत्।तदथंस:

यज्ञाश्वम् अमुञ्चत।इमंिवषयंज्ञात्वाइन्र: यज्ञाश्वम् अिहृतवान्।तंिातािंनीत्वातत्रति: कु वगत: किििमुन:े

समीिेस्थािितवान्।यज्ञाश्वम् अिन्वष्यन्त:सगरिुत्रा: भूसमखनन्त:िातािम् अगच्छन्।तत्रयज्ञाश्वं दृष््वा,

किििएवचोरइितमत्वा,तेतंमहामुिनम्अवाच्यशब्दै: अिनन्दन्।तदाकु िितोमुिन: नेत्रेउन्मील्यतान् सवागन्

भस्मीकृ तवान्।अत: ज्येष्ठा: वदिन्त ‘अिवचायगदकमििकमगनकरणीयम्’इित।

प्रश्नााः -

i. राजासगर: कककतुगम् ऐच्छत् ?

ii. सगरस्ययज्ञाश्वंक: अिहृतवान् ?

iii. कु िितोमुिन: दकम् अकरोत् ?

iv. अत: ज्येष्ठा: ककवदिन्त ?

**********************
MODEL QUESTION PAPER : 01
I PUC -2024 SUBJECT: ENGLISH- 02 Time:- 3:15 Hrs
Max. Marks: - 80
_______________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. Follow the prescribed limit while answering the questions.
B. Write the correct question number as it appears on the question paper.
C. For multiple-choice questions, choose the correct answer and rewrite it.
D. Answer to the question number 25 (a to j) should be in sequence and at one place.
I. Answer the following questions by choosing the right option. 10X1=10

1. Once upon a time an elephant made a friendship with a _____in the story ‘The Gentlemen of the
Jungle’.
a) lion. b) man. c) leopard. d) buffalo.
2. Who is a plant Pathologist in ‘Around a Medicinal Creeper’?

a) Chandru b) Mara c) Sanna d) Krishna

3. In 'Oru Manushyan', the narrator had ____rupees in his wallet.

a) fourteen b) twelve c) ten d) eight

4. 'Money has got us down' could mean_________, as referred in the poem 'Money Madness'.

a) It has ruined us b) It has made us greedy c) It has made us its slaves d) all the above

5. Babar Ali’s father is __________.

a) a teacher b) a fishmonger c) a jute seller d) an IAS officer

6. Match the column ‘A’ with column ‘B’ related to the play ‘Watchman of the Lake’.
A B
i. Mara a. Mara’s son
ii. Ganga b. River
iii. Veda c. Watchman of the lake

a) i-a, ii-c, iii-b b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b c) i-c, ii_ b, iii-a d) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

7. Who committed suicide in the Poem, 'The Farmer’s Wife’?

a) The farmer b) The farmer’s wife c)The farmer’s children d) The creditors

8. Statement:-Frederick Douglass was separated when he was an infant.


Reason:-To hinder the development of the child’s affection towards its mother.

a) Only the statement is true.


b) Only reason is true.
c) Both statement and reason are true.
d) Both statement and reason are false.

9 .In the story 'Two Gentlemen of Verona' the two boys were waiting for the last bus at midnight ______.

a) to sell wild strawberries b) to sell newspapers c) to sell cigarettes d) to sell tickets to the Opera

10. The speaker says, ‘Do not ask of me, my love, that love I once had for you’, because_______
a) his beloved is not beautiful now
b) there are other sorrows around him demanding his attention.
c) he has found a lady love more beautiful than her.
d) he thought she was strange.
A. Choose the correct form of the verb that agrees with the subject. 3X1=3
11. Mara’s stories ____ (are/is) so bizarre that one ____(does/ do) not know which ___( is / am)
true and which is false.
B. Fill in the blanks with suitable form of the verbs given in brackets. 2X1=2
12 .An elephant _____( make) a friendship with a man who had a little hut at the edge of the forest. One
day during heavy rain, the elephant ___ ( request ) the man to put his trunk inside the hut.
13.Match the expression under column ‘A’ with its corresponding language function under ‘B’. 5*1=5
A B
Expressions Functions
1. Hello, Good evening . a. Complimenting.
2 Wow! You look gorgeous in this dress. b. Expressing gratitude.
3.Could you please get a newspaper? c. Agreeing.
4. I am thankful to you. d. Greetings.
5.Yes, of course. e. Requesting,
II. Answer any Six of the following choosing at least two from poetry in a paragraph of 80 -100 words. 6X4=24
14.'Formal schooling takes away the joy of childhood'. Explain this with reference to the poem ‘The
School Boy'.
15. How does money trigger fear in an individual in the poem ‘Money Madness’?
16. Why does the farmer's wife call herself 'poor sinner' in the poem ‘The Farmer’s Wife’? Explain.
17. How does the speaker's attitude undergo a change in the poem 'An Old Woman'?
AND
18. How did the elephant justify its act of occupying the hut in ' The Gentlemen of the Jungle'?
19. What was the story behind Mara's loss of teeth in 'Around a Medicinal Creeper'?
20. Bring out the humiliation faced by the narrator in 'Oru Manushyan'.
21. Write a short note on Babar Ali's school 'Ananda Siksha Niketan'.
22. Why was not Frederick Douglass much affected by his mother’s death?
23. What was the role played by the two boys during the resistance movement, in ‘Two Gentlemen of
Verona’?
III. Answer One of the following in about 200 words. 1X6=6
24. ‘An ordinary village man was instrumental in saving the whole kingdom’. Elaborate with reference to
the play ‘The Watchman of the Lake'.
OR
The poem ‘If I was a Tree’ is a satire on social discrimination. Discuss.
IV. Read the following passage and answer the questions set on it.

The cassowary is the most dangerous bird in the world. Its inner one has a long dagger-like claw that acts
as a weapon.
The cassowary is found in New Guinea and Northern Australia. It is a secretive forest dweller and is
seldom seen.
It cannot fly, but runs at a great speed on its powerful legs. On each foot it has three toes, the inner one
having a long straight claw.
It can often be seen giving furious kicks at the trunk of trees without any apparent reason. In dense
forests it can even speed 50 km an hour.
It can grow a height of 6 feet and weigh as much as 180 pounds. When it gets annoyed it jumps in the air
and delivers a vicious kick.
It is a bony-headed bird. An ebony helmet protects its naked blue head. Its body is covered with coarse
hair like feathers.
It is the only member of the family ‘Casuariidae’. Unlike other birds the male incubates eggs.
The eggs are green in colour. The adult provides parental care for the young ones. They like to be near
water.
It has adapted itself to make the most efficient use of its environment. Emu, Kiwi, Weka and takahe are
also flightless birds.
25. 10×1=10
a. Which is the most dangerous bird in the world?
b. Where does Cassowary find it?
c. How many toes does it have on each foot?
d. What is the height of Cassowary?
e. What does it do when it gets annoyed?
f. Which family does Cassowary belong to?
g. Who provides parental care for the young ones?
h .Which are the other flightless birds mentioned in the above passage?
i. Add a prefix to the word 'efficient' to make it an antonym.
j. Bony helmets are a ______(protect) to its head.
(Add a suffix to the word in the bracket)
V.26. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles given in brackets. 2*1=2
A) Babar Ali must be____ youngest headmaster in the world. He is____ teenager who is in
charge of teaching hundreds of students.
[a, an, the]
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions given in brackets. 2*1=2
B) It was quite a big city____ the valley of a mountain, some thousand five hundred miles ____home.
(0n, from, in)
27. Rewrite as directed 3*1=3
i) Mara was not disturbing them.
(Add a question tag)
ii) Mara watches the lake carefully.
(Change into a question beginning with the right form of 'do')
iii) Bhima’s mother gave him an iron decoction.
(Frame a question to get the underlined word as answer)
28. Complete the dialogue: 4*1=4
(Rahul needs a laptop. He approaches his friend for help)
Rahul : ________ .
Friend:Very good morning.
Rahul:_____________?
Friend: Of course, you can use my laptop.
Rahul:_____________.
Friend: You are welcome. When will you return it?
Rahul:_______ _______.
Friend: Ok bye.
VI. Refer to the following list of events and answer the questions set on it
in one complete sentence each:
College Union Day 4*1=4
Sl. no Event Time Venue

1 Inauguration by the President 10.30am In Auditorium

2 Speech by the chief guest 11.00am

3 Cultural events 11.30-12.30

29. a. Who will inaugurate the college day function?


b. At what time will the chief guest deliver the speech?
c. What is the venue of the college day function?
d. What is the duration of the cultural events?
30. Write a letter to the Forest officer, enquiring about the plants needed, on the occasion of
'Vana Mahotsav Day' in your college. 1*5=5
Points to be included:
● price of the plants
● availability of various types of the plants
● transportation of the plants

********************
1st PUC SANSKRIT Model Question Paper -2023-24.
Subject Code :09 Subject :SANSKRIT. ॥ संृतम ॥

[TIME:03 Hours 15 Minutes.] [Total No of Questions:48] [ Max.Marks:80.]
________________________________________________________________________________________________________
ಸೂಚ ೆಗಳ :

1) ಈ ಪ ೆ ಪ ೆಯ A,B,C ಮತು D ಗ ೆಂಬ 4 ಾಗಗ ೆ.

2) ಎ ಾ ಾಗಗಳ ಕ ಾಯ ಾ ರುತ ೆ.

3) ಎ ಾ ಾಗಗಳ ೇಳ ಾದ ಪ ೆ ಗ ೆ ಉತರಗಳನು ಆ ಾ ಾಗಗಳ ಪ ೆ ೕಕ ಾ ಸೂ ದ ಸೂಚ ೆಯಂ ೆ

ಉತ ಸ ೇಕು.
Instructions:
1) This Question paper consists of four parts as A, B, C and D.
2) All parts are compulsory.
3) Every part should be answered as per the given instruction for each and every respective part.
____________________________________________________________________________________
PART-A

I. अधो िनिदानां ानाम उरािण


् कोकात उृ
्  िलखत। 10×1=10
1. महाशालः कः?
[ बालकः , शौनकः , धावकः, भावुकः ]
2.किपलः िकमथ म अं
् देश ं गतः?

[िवहाराथ म,दश
् नाथ म,ाणयााथ
् म,ानाथ
् म]्
3.भीमस ेनः _____पािणना प ुं जाह।
[दिणेन,वामेन,पिमेन,उरेण]
4.दशरथः क सपया करोित?
[ विस , िवािम , स ुम, ग ुह ]
5.उदाहरणवुष ु अयः कः?
[कयपः,अिः,अिरसः,विसः]
6.जनाः क वचन ैः तुि?

[ग ुनायक,स ेवक,नतक,ोितिषक]
7.एतेष ु िकं पदं नृकारसूचकं नाि?
[भरतनाम,हीसकम
् ,मोिहनीयाम
् ,हिरकथा]

8.सोष एव प ुष परं िनदानम इित
् वा भावः सोषः मानव _________।
[िनाकारणम, ् िनाकारणम, ् आरोयकारणम, ् ःखकारणम]्
9.सिम इित
् पाठात िमपरीा
् कदा भवित इित ायते?
[स ुखकाले, भोजनकाले,ककाले,हाकाले]
10.ीमहोदय माता_____।
[पावत,काण,भागीरथ,शर]

II. मूषातः सूं पदं िचा िरानं पूरयत। 5×1=5


11)सविवािताम ् _____ ेप ुाय ाह।
12)ुतःे परमाथ _______ न जानि।
13)तू पं दशयामास यै _________।
14)त सं पिरातुं ______ महामिु नः।
15) मेघ े ितः_______इवावभाित।

श , सागरलन े , िवािमो , अथवाय , मूखाः ,कृ 

III.16. संयोजयत”। 1×5=5


अ आ

. अितबला कू डलसमदेवः
कु मारसवम ् िब.एम.ी

जलिनिधः िवा
बसवणः महाकाम ्
होनस ु मूितराव ्

सागरः
PART-B

IV. िैः वा ैः संृतभाषया कडभाषया आलभाषया वा उरं िलखत। (चतुणामवे ) 4×2=8
17.िवायाः पररां िलखत।

18.वायसः सोेग ं िकम अिचयत


् ?्
19.भीमस ेनः िकमथ हनूमतः मां याचित?

20.िहमवान ऋषीणाम
् आगमन
् े िकम उवान
् ?्
21.स ुभािषतकारः मूख कथं वण यित?
22.कू डलसम सादन पितः का?
V. पाठनाम उि कः कं ित अवदत इित
् संृतभाषया िलखत।(चतुणामवे ) 4×2=8
23.परा च ैवापरा च ।
24.मया ोऽयं ायः।

25.कृ तावभृथो भिवतुमिभलषािम ।


26.मम नाम कथं जानािस ?
27.अहो,िबभेिम भतः िबभेिम।
28.दयतां तावत िवषयकं
् माणम ।्

PART-C

VI. पाठनाम उि ोकानाम अन


् ुवादं कडभाषया आलभाषया वा कु त।(योरेव) 2×3=6
29.रिता  धम जन च रिता।
वेदवेदातो धन ुवद े च िनितः॥
30.उि देिह मे माग पय वा मेऽ पौषम।्
मासनमकु वाण ं ां वा न
े े यमयम॥्
31.एते वयममी दाराः केय ं कु लजीिवतम।्
ूत येना वः कायमनाा बावुष ु॥
32.चलि िगरयः कामं युगापवनाहताः।
कृ े ऽिप न चलेव धीराणां िनलं मनः॥

VII. दशवा ैः संृतभाषया कडभाषया आलभाषया वा लघ ुिटणीः िलखत।(चतुणामवे ) 4×5=20


33. ीराम ग ुणान सं
् ग
ृ िलखत ।
34. माजार धमपदेश ं सिवारं िलखत ।
35. ताटकावधसभ ीराम सेहः कः? सः कथं िनवािरतः?
36. ोितिषक-ग ुनायकयोः संवादः|

37. कािलयपां पाठान ुसारं वा ैः वण यत|


38.देवतचधरयोः मै वण यत। |
39.जीविवानं पिरसरिवानम च
् अिधकृ  लघ ुिटयौ रचयत ।
PART-D

VIII. एतेषाम उपानाम


् उरािण
् संृतभाषया िलखत ।(पानामेव) 5×2=10
40.सिं िवभजत (योः)

यथोण नािभः , प ुेिष ु , कम ्


41.सिं योजयत(योः)
िपिशत+अशनः , ईषत+अकत
् , िधक ्+माम ्
42.िवहवां िलखत (योः)
धमपदेशकः, अिनािन , िखगाः।
43.समपदं िलखत।(योः)
िविधम अनित,
् वट इित वृः , अ च पां च
44.पदपिरचयं कु त (योः)
अिधग, िवधातुम, ् यतमानः
45.समानाथ कपदं िलखत।(योः)
सूयः , म ुखम,अिः

46.िवपदं िलखत।(योः)
ेः, आा,िना

IX.47. संृतभाषया अन ुवदत । 4×1=4


i.ಮರ ಂದ ಹಣು ೆಳ ೆ ೕಳ ತ ೆ.
A fruit falls from the tree.
ii.ಜಗ ೇ ಾ ತಂ ೆಗ ಾದ ಾವ ೕ ಪರ ೕಶ ರರನು ನ ಸು ೇ ೆ.
I prostrate goddess Parvati & Lord Parameshwara ,who are the parents
of the universe.
iii. ಕ ಯು ಮರವನು ಹತುತ ೆ.
A monkey climbs the tree.
iv. ಾ ಮತು ಾ ಾಡು ಸ ಗ ಂತಲೂ ೊಡದು.
Mother and Motherland are greater than heaven.
X.48. इमं पिरेद ं पिठा ानाम उरािण
् िलखत।(संृतभाषया) 4×1=4
ीडया शिः वध ते।शरीरं रोगरिहतं भवित। ीडायां बालकानां महती िचः भवित।ते बालकाः
ीडाणे कके न ीडि।ककः चमणा िनिमतः।वातेन पूिरत । अतः यिद सः ताते तिह सः

उतित । ते बालकाः इततः धावि। बालकाः पादेन ककं ताडयि। एकः बालकः भूमौ उपिवः।
सः बकालं ीडनने ाः। सः िकिालं िव प ुनः ीिडित। यदा सूयः अं गिमित तदा
काशः न भिवित। तदा एते बालकाः गृहं गिमि।
i.ककः के न िनिमतः?
ii. बालकाः ककं के न ताडयि?
iii. बालकः कु  उपिवः ?
iv. कदा काशः न भिवित?

***********
GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
Class: I Year PUC MODEL QUESTION PAPER Academic Year: 2023-24
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.15hours Number of questions: 52
Instructions:
1. Question paper has FIVE parts having 52 questions. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 10 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 18 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 10 marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 12 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part- A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labelled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices: 15 × 1= 15
1. The number of significant figures in 0.523 is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
2. Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute present in
a) one litre of solution b) one litre of solvent
c) one kg of solution d) one kg of solvent
3. Rutherford’s α - ray scattering experiment is related to the size of the
a) nucleus b) atom c) electron d) neutrons
4. Mendeleev`s periodic table is based on
a) atomic weight b) atomic number
c) number of neutrons d) number of electrons
5. In XeF4 molecule, number of lone pairs and shared pairs of electrons respectively are
a) 4, 1 b) 2, 4 c) 4, 3 d) 4, 2
6. Which of the following is true for ionic compounds?
a) conduct electricity in solid state b) have directional bonds
c) soluble in polar solvents d) are non-electrolytes in molten state
7. The second law of thermodynamics introduced the concept of:
a) enthalpy b) work c) entropy d) internal energy
8. The difference between heat of reaction at constant pressure and heat of reaction at constant volume is
greater than RT when
a) Δng = 1 b) Δng > 1 c) Δng < 1 d) Δng ≠ 1

I PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 23-24 Page 1


9. If a catalyst is used in a reversible reaction,
a) backward reaction becomes faster b) forward reaction becomes faster
c) equilibrium constant decreases d) equilibrium is attained more quickly
10. Lewis acids are
a) proton donors b) electron pair acceptors
c) electron pair donors d) proton acceptors
11. During reduction, oxidation number
a) increases b) decreases
c) do not changes d) depends on the reaction
12. The property catenation is more marked in the case of
a) silicon b) carbon c) tin d) copper
13. Methoxy methane and ethyl alcohol are
a) position isomers b) chain isomers
c) functional isomers d) metamers
14. According to Markownikoff’s rule, when hydrogen halides add to an unsymmetrical alkene, the
hydrogen of HX attaches to
a) carbon at the end of the molecule
b) carbon in the middle of the molecule
c) carbon with least number of hydrogen atoms
d) carbon with maximum number of hydrogen atoms
15. Which of the following hydrocarbon damage DNA and cause cancer in the human body
a) 1,2-Benzanthracene b) 1,2-Benzpyrene
c) 3-Methylcholanthrene d) all of these
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(aromatisation, zero, increases, 8 electrons, - CH2-, - CH3) 5 × 1 =5
16. The outer shell of the most stable atoms contains __________.
17. The standard enthalpy of formation of element is taken as ____________ by convention.
18. When the pH of a solution decreases, its hydrogen ion concentration is ________.
19. In a homologous series of aliphatic hydrocarbons, the successive members differ from each other in
molecular formula by a _______ group.
20. n-Hexane on heating to 773K, under 10-20atm pressure in the presence of oxides of vanadium,
molybdenum forms benzene. The process is called ___________.
PART - B
III. Answer any five of the following. Each question carries two marks. 5 × 2 = 10
21. Define entropy? What happens to the entropy when liquid changes into vapour?
22. What is the heterogeneous equilibrium? Give an example.
23. What are isoelectronic species? Select isoelectronic pair among the following: Na+, Cl-, F-, Li+
24. Give any two limitations of octet rule.

I PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 23-24 Page 2


25. Define hydrogen bond? Name a compound having intra molecular H-bond.
26. Helium is monoatomic. Explain on the basis of Molecular Orbital Theory.
27. Using the stock notation, represent the following compound (i) HauCl4, (ii) Fe2O3.
28. For the compound CH ≡ C – CH = CH – CH3
i) Write the bond-line formula for the above compound.
ii) Mention whether the compound is saturated or unsaturated?
29. Write geometrical isomers of but-2-ene.
PART - C
IV. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
30. Define electronegativity of an element. How does it vary along a period and down a group in the periodic
table?
31. Explain the shape of ammonia molecule using VSEPR theory?
32. a. Define dipole moment. What is its unit?
b. Sigma bond is stronger than pi bond. Give reason.
33. Write Lewis dot structure for NO2- molecule. Calculate the formal charge on each oxygen atoms present
in it.
34. Balance the chemical equation by oxidation number method (in acidic medium)
Fe+2 + MnO4- → Fe+3 + Mn2+
V. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries three marks. ̳3 × 3 = 09
35. Write the any three postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory.
36. Write any three limitations of Bohr model of an atom.
37. For the element with atomic number 24.
i) Write the electronic configuration ii) How many unpaired electrons present in it?
iii) To which block of the periodic table it belongs?
38. Derive the relationship between Cp and Cv for an ideal gas.
39. State Lechatlier’s principle. What is the effect of temperature on the equilibrium if the reaction is
exothermic?
40. How are Kp and Kc related? Give one reaction each in which (i) Kp > Kc (ii) Kp = Kc
PART - D
VI. Answer any two of the following. Each question carries five marks. 2 × 5 = 10
41. a) What is the type of hybridisation of carbon atoms marked as a, b and c in the following compound?
H3Ca – HCc = Cb = CH2.
b) What is carbocation? Write the decreasing order of stability among 10, 20 and 30 carbocations. (3 + 2)
42. a) Explain the principle and calculations involved in the estimation of carbon in the organic compound.
b) What are electrophiles? (4 + 1)

I PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 23-24 Page 3


43. a) An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and propan-2-one. Write the chemical reaction
and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
b) Explain Wurtz reaction with a suitable example. (3 + 2)

44. a) Explain the mechanism of nitration of benzene.


b) Draw the staggered conformation of ethane. (3 + 2)
VII. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries three marks. 4 × 3 = 12
45. An Organic compound contains 26.66% carbon, 2.22% hydrogen and 71.12% oxygen. The molecular
mass of the compound is 90. Find molecular formula.
46. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according to the following
chemical equation.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3 (g)
Calculate the mass of ammonia produced if 2 × 103 g dinitrogen reacts with 1 × 103 g of dihydrogen.
47. Calculate the wave number and wave length of first line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum. (Given:
RH = 1.09677 X 107 m -1)
48. Calculate the energy of one mole of photon of radiation whose frequency is 5x1014 Hz.
49. The standard enthalpies of combustion of carbon, hydrogen and C6H6 are -393.5 kJmol-1, -285.83 kJmol-
1
and -3267 kJmol-1 respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of C6H6.
50. Calculate the total work done when one mole of a gas expands isothermally and reversibly from an
initial volume of 10 dm3 to a final volume of 20 dm3 at 298 K. (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
51. Calculate ∆G0 for the hydrolysis of sucrose. The equilibrium constant KC is 2 × 10-3 at 300 K. (R =
8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
52. Reaction between N2 and O2 take place as follows
2N2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O (g)
If a mixture of 0.482 mol of N2 and 0.933 mol of O2 is placed in a 10L vessel and allowed to form N2O
at a room temperature at which Kc = 2 × 10-37, determine the composition of equilibrium mixture.

I PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 23-24 Page 4


FIRST PUC MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2023-24

MATHEMATICS ( 35 )

TIME : 3 Hours 15 Minutes [ Total Questions : 52 ] Max Marks : 80

Instructions : 1. The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D


and E. Answer all the Parts.

2. Part A has 15 multiple choice questions, 5 fill in


the blank questions

PART -A

I. Answer all the multiple choice questions : 15 x 1 = 15


1. The interval form of { x : x ∈ R , – 4 < x ≤ 6 } is
a) [ –4, 6] b) ( –4, 6] c) ( –4 , 6 ) d) [ –4, 6 )
2. If ( x + 1, y –2 ) = ( 3, 1 ) then
a) x =2 , y = 3 b) x =2, y = –3 c) x = –2 , y = 3 d) x = 2, y = –1

3. The degree measure of 3
radians is equal to
a) 225 0
b) 3000 c) 4200 d) 1350
4. The conjugate of i – 2 is
a) i + 2 b) –2 + i c) -2 – i d) – i + 2
5. a > b implies
a) – a < – b b) –a > b c) –a < b d) a < –b
6. If nc9 = nc8 , then nc17 is
a) 1 b) 17 c) 7 d) 10
7. The number of terms in the expansion of (𝑎 + 𝑏)6 is
a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8
8. If a sequence is defined as 𝑎𝑛 = 2n + 5, then the first term is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
9. The equation of x – axis is
a) x = 0 b) y = 0 c) xy = 0 d) x = y
10. The centre of the circle (𝑥 + 2) + (𝑥– 3) = 16 is
2 2

a) ( 2, 3 ) b) ( –2, 3 )
c) (–2, –3 ) d) ( 2, – 3 )
𝑥2 𝑦2
11. The length of transverse axis of the hyperbola – = 1 is
9 16
a) 4 b) 6 c) 9 d) 16
12. The octant in which the point ( –3, 1, 2 ) lies is
a) First b) second c) third d) fourth
3
13. The derivative of 2x – with respect to x is
4
3
a) 2 b) –4 c) –2 d) 0
14. The Median of the data 3, 9,5,3,12,10,18,4,7,19,21 is
a) 18 b) 9 c) 12 d) 10
15. The probability of drawing a diamond card from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards is
1 1 1 1
a) 4 b) 52 c) 13 d) 2
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate answer from those given in the
bracket
(–1, 16, 0 , 20, 42 , 1 ) 5 x 1= 5
16. If A = { 1, 2 } and B = { 3, 4 }, then the number of relations from A to B is _______
17. The value of cos3π is ___________________
7!
18. The value of is ______________________
5!
19. The slope of the line passing through the points (3, –2) and (7, –2) is ______________
20. The derivative of 𝑥 2 – 2 at x = 10 is ____________________

PART –B

Answer any six questions 6 x 2 =12


21. Let A = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 } , B = { 2, 4, 6, 8 } . Find A – B and B – A
22. List all the the subsets of the set { a, b }
𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 𝜋
23. Prove that 3 sin 6 . sec 3 – 4 sin . cot 4 = 1
6
24. Find the multiplicative inverse of 2 – 3i
𝑎 + 𝑖𝑏
25. If x + iy = , prove that x 2 + y 2 = 1
𝑎 −𝑖𝑏
26. Solve inequality 5x –3 < 3x + 1 and show the graph of the solutions on number line.
27. How many 3–digit even numbers can be formed from the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 if the
digits can be repeated ?
28. Expand (1 – 2𝑥)5 , using Binomial theorem
29. Find the equation of the line intersecting the x– axis at a distance of 3 units to the
left of origin with slope -2.
𝑥 15 −1
30. Evaluate lim
𝑥 →1 𝑥 10 −1
31. A die is thrown. Describe the following events
1) a number less than 4 2) a number not less than 3

PART – C

Answer any six questions 6 x 3 =18


32. Let U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 } , A = {2, 3 } and B = { 3, 4, 5 } prove that (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝐴1 ∩ 𝐵1
1

33. Let f(x) = x 2 and g(x) = 2x +1 be two real functions .


Find ( f +g ) (x) , ( f – g) (x) , (f g) (x)
34. Prove that cos3x = 4 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥 – 3 cosx
1
35. If cosx = – , x lies in third quadrant , find the values of other five trigonometric
2
functions.
5 + √2 𝑖
36. Express in the form a + ib
1− √2 𝑖
37. Find all pairs of consecutive odd positive integers both of which are smaller than 10
such that their sum is more than 11.
13
38. The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is 12 and their product is –1.
Find the common ratio and the terms.
39. Derive the equation a line with x-intercept ‘a’ and y-intercept ‘b’ in the form
𝑥 𝑦
𝑎
+𝑏=1
40. Find the equation of the Parabola with vertex (0,0), passing through the point (2,–3)
and symmetric about y – axis.
41. show that the points ( 0, 7, 10) , ( –1, 6, 6 ) and (– 4, 9, 6) are the vertices of a right
angled triangle.
42. Find the derivative of sinx with respect to x form first principle.

PART – D

Answer any four questions 4 x 5 =20


43. Define Greatest integer function, draw the graph . write the domain and range
𝑠𝑖𝑛5𝑥 –2 sin 3𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
44. Prove that = tanx
𝑐𝑜𝑠5𝑥 –𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
45. Find the number of arrangements of the letters of the word INDEPENDENCE.
In how many of these arrangements,
1) do the words start with P ? 2) do the words begin with I and end in P ?
46. Prove that for every positive integer n
(𝑎 + 𝑏)𝑛 = 𝑛𝑐0 𝑎𝑛 + 𝑛𝑐1 𝑎𝑛−1 𝑏 + 𝑛𝑐2 𝑎𝑛−2 𝑏 2 + - - - - - + 𝑛𝑐𝑛−1 a 𝑏 𝑛−1 + 𝑛𝑐𝑛 𝑏 𝑛
47. Derive the formula to find the distance of a point P (𝑥1 ,𝑦1 ) from
the line Ax + By + C = 0
sin 𝑥
48. Prove geometrically that lim = 1 , x being measured in radians
𝑥 →0 𝑥
49. Find mean deviation about the mean for the following data
𝑥 2 5 6 8 10 12
𝑖

𝑓𝑖 2 8 10 7 8 5
50. A bag contains 9 discs of which 4 are red, 3 are blue and 2 are yellow. The discs are
similar in shape and size. A disc is drawn at random from the bag. Calculate the
probability that it will be i) red, ii) yellow , iii) blue, iv) not blue,

PART –E

Answer the following questions


51. Prove geometrically that cos ( x + y ) = cosx cosy – sinx siny 6
OR
𝑥2 𝑦2
Derive the equation of ellipse in the standard form + =1
𝑎2 𝑏2
52. Find the sum of the sequence 7, 77, 777, 7777, - - - - - - - to n terms 4
OR
𝑥 5 −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
Find the derivative of with respect to x
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥

***********************@********************
MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2023-24
I PUC - PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours 15 min. Max Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. All parts are compulsory.
2. For Part – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed solutions will not carry any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following
questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1. The number of significant figures in 3.500 is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
2. If vA, vB and vC are the magnitudes of instantaneous velocities
corresponding to the points A, B and C of the given position-time
graph of a particle respectively, then
(A) vA = vB = vC (B) vA > vB > vC
(C) vA < vB < vC (D) vA < vB = vC
3. A vector is multiplied with a positive integer. The direction of the resultant vector is
(A) same as the initial vector (B) opposite to the initial vector
(C) perpendicular to the initial vector (D) not specified
4. ‘An external force is required to keep a body in motion’. This is the statement of
(A) Newton’s first law of motion (B) Newton’s second law of motion
(C) Aristotelian law of motion (D) Newton’s third law of motion
5. The non-contact force encountered in mechanics is
(A) normal reaction (B) frictional force (C) tension in a spring (D) gravitational force
6. 1 calorie is equal to
-19 -7
(A) 4.186 J (B) 1.6 x 10 J (C) 3.6 x 106 J (D) 10 J

7. A girl is sitting with folded hands on a swivel chair rotating with considerable angular speed. ‘I’
and ‘ω’ are the moment of inertia and angular speed of the chair along with girl about the axis of
rotation. She stretches her arms horizontally while the chair is rotating. During this
(A) I decreases and ω increases (B) I increases and ω decreases
(C) both I and ω increase (D) both I and ω decrease
8. The SI unit of universal gravitational constant (G) is :
2 -1 2 -2 -2 2 -3
(A) N m kg (B) N m kg (C) N m kg (D) N m kg

I PU PHY MODEL QP 23-24 Page 1


9. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain in a stretched wire is called
(A) shear strain (B) compressibility (C) Poisson’s ratio (D) Young’s modulus
10. The angle of contact is acute in case of
(A) water-lotus leaf interface (B) water-waxy surface interface
(C) water-oily surface interface (D) water-glass interface
11. The change from solid state to vapour state without passing through the liquid state is called
(A) vaporisation (B) melting (C) regelation (D) sublimation
12. Below are two statements:
(I) In a cyclic process, the total heat absorbed equals the work done by the system.
(II) The change in internal energy of the system is zero during cyclic process.
(A) Statement I is wrong but the statement II is correct
(B) Statement I is correct but the statement II is wrong
(C) Both the statements I and II are correct and II is the correct explanation for I
(D) Both the statements I and II are correct and II is not the correct explanation for I
13. The mean free path for gas molecules is given by the expression (with symbols having their usual
meaning)
π 1 1 2
(A) l = (B) l = (C) l = (D) l =
2nd 2
2 n d2 2 π nd 2
π nd2

14. The function of time which is not periodic among the following is

(A) sin ωt (B) cos ωt (C) e − ωt (D) sin ωt + cos ωt


15. Air column present in an open pipe is vibrating in fundamental mode. It contains
(A) a node and an antinode (B) a node and two antinodes
(C) two nodes and an antinode (D) two nodes and two antinodes

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the brackets for ALL

the following questions: 5×1=5

(decrease, elastic, elliptical, beats, increase, speed)


16. During uniform circular motion, an object moves in circular path with constant___________.
17. According to Kepler, all planets move in ______________ orbits around the Sun.
18. The viscosity of liquids decreases with _____________in temperature.
19. According to kinetic theory of gases, collisions between the molecules of a gas are ______________.
20. The phenomenon often used by artists to tune their musical instruments is ______________.

I PU PHY MODEL QP 23-24 Page 2


PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. Mention any two applications of dimensional analysis.
22. Two vectors of same units have magnitude of 8 unit and 5 unit. What are the maximum and minimum
magnitude of resultant that can be obtained with the two vectors?
23. Give any two methods of reducing friction.
24. State and explain work-energy theorem for a constant force.
25. Mention the two conditions required for the mechanical equilibrium of a rigid body.
26. Why does moon has no atmosphere? Explain.
27. What is meant by thermal expansion? Give relation between coefficient of volume expansion and
coefficient of linear expansion of a material.
28. What is a Carnot engine? Name the working substance used in it.
29. Give the positions at which the potential energy of a particle executing SHM will be (i) maximum and
(ii) zero.

PART – C

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15


30. What is meant by range of a projectile? Give the expression for the same. What is the angle of
projection for which the range of a projectile maximum?
31. State and explain Newton’s second law of motion. Define SI unit of force.
32. Define work done by a force. Mention two cases in which work done by a force on an object is zero.
33. The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 s. Calculate the
angular acceleration of the wheel assuming the acceleration to be uniform.
34. Distinguish between the three different moduli of elasticity of a material.
35. State Bernoulli’s principle. Give Bernoulli’s equation in fluid dynamics. What is Magnus effect?
36. Explain briefly the land breeze.
37. Using the expression of total internal energy of one mole of monatomic gas, obtain the expression for
the molar specific heat of a monatomic gas at constant volume.
38. Define (i) frequency and (ii) wavelength of a wave. Give an example for non-mechanical wave.
PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15
1
39. Derive the equation x = v 0 t + at 2 using v-t graph.
2
40. Show that the trajectory of a projectile is a parabola.

I PU PHY MODEL QP 23-24 Page 3


41. Obtain the expressions for final velocities of two particles undergoing completely elastic collision in
one-dimension considering second body to be initially at rest.
42. a) What is a rigid body? What type of motion is observed in a rigid body which is pivoted at the centre
of mass? (2)
b) Prove that the time rate of change of the angular momentum of a particle is equal to the torque acting
on it. (3)
43. a) State and explain first law of thermodynamics. (2)
b) Mention any three differences between isothermal and adiabatic processes. (3)
44. Write Newton’s formula for speed of sound in air. Explain why and how Laplace modified Newton’s
formula for speed of sound.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
45. A body of mass of 8 kg is suspended by a rope of length 2.5 m from the ceiling. A force of 60 N is
applied on the body in the horizontal direction. Find the angle that the rope makes with the vertical in
-2
equilibrium. (Take g = 10 ms ). Neglect the mass of the rope.

46. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body weigh at a depth
equal to half the radius of the earth if it weighs 250 N on the surface of earth? What will the weight of
the same body at the centre of the earth?
47. A copper plate of mass 2 kg is heated to a temperature of 600oC and then placed on large ice block at
0oC. Calculate (i) the maximum quantity of heat that the copper plate can transfer to ice block and
ii) the maximum amount of ice it can melt. Given: Specific heat of capacity of copper = 390 J kg–1 K–1
and latent heat fusion of water = 333 × 103 J kg-1.
48. A block of mass 1 kg is fastened to a spring. The spring has a spring constant of 50 N m–1. The block is
pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its equilibrium position at x = 0 on a frictionless surface from rest at
t = 0 and is released.
Calculate (i) angular frequency of oscillations of the block and (ii) the maximum speed with which the
block crosses the mean position.
&&&&

I PU PHY MODEL QP 23-24 Page 4


I PUC – MODEL QUESTION PAPER
SUBJECT: COMPUTER SCIENCE (41) Max. Marks :70
Total No. of Questions: 47 Time: 03:15 Hours.
PART – A
Answer all the questions, each question carries One mark. 15 x 1 = 15
I. Select the correct answer from the choices given.
1. The unit which controls and co-ordinates all the input and output divices of a system?
(a) ALU (b) MU (c) CU (d) VDU
2. The smallest dot that can be displayed is called as
(a) Pixel (b) Aspect ratio (c) Picture (d) Resolution
3. 1GB is equivalent to
(a) 1000MB (b) 1024MB (c) 1000KB (d) 1024KB
4. Which of the following is a non-weighted code?
(a) BCD code (b) EBCDIC code (c) ASCII code (d) Excess 3 BCD code
5. Identify the error in the following program segment
void main()
{
int a=5, b=8;
cout<<”a=”<<a
}
(a) Statement missing (b) Function should return a value
(c) Terminated incorrectly (d) Linker error
6. if(test condition)
Statement-1;
Statement-2;
It is a
(a) if – else selection (b) simple if selection
(c) nested if selection (d) multiple selection
7. Who developed C++?
(a) Dennis Ritchie (b) Bjarne Stroustrup (c) Ada lovelace (d) Blaise Pascal
8. Give the header file that holds objects setw() and endl.
(a) <iostream.h> (b) <conio.h> (c) <iomanip.h> (d) <stdio.h>
9. Assertion (A) : dowhile is a post tested loop.
Reason (R) : This loop repeats the execution of a set of statements till the condition is TRUE .
(a) A is false and R is true (b) A is true and R is correct explanation
(c) A is true and R is not correct explanation (d) A is true and R is false
10. Index of an array starts with
(a) zero (b) n-1 (c) two (d) one
11. Which of the function calls itself,
(a) calling function (b) library function
(c) main function (d) recursive function
12. The variable declared inside the functions,
(a) Local variable (b) Global variable
(c) Formal argument (d) All of the above
13. Which of the following allows to type the letter only once and send to all the
address on the list
(a) thesaurus (b) mail merge (c) clip art (d) word art
14. What is the extension of MS Excel file?
(a) .doc or .docx (b) .text (c) .excel (d) .xls or .xlsx
15. Which of the following is not a built in function in ESS
(a) Sum() (b) Nper() (c) Date() (d) Multiplication()
II. Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets.
(pretested, actual, int, >>, a++,++a) 5X1=5
16. _________ is an example for post increment operator.
17. __________ is stream extraction operator.
18. This is a __________looping statement.

test

statements

Next statement

19. ___________ is the data type of array subscript.


20. ___________ argument can be constant, variable or expression.
PART-B
III. Answer any four questions. Each question carries two marks: 4x2=8
21. Mention any two characteristics of computers
22. What is a printer? Mention types of printers.
23. What is system software and application software?
24. Write any two characteristics of a good program.
25. Define data abstraction and data encapsulation.
26. Write a short note on integer datatype.
27. Give the difference between strcmp() and strcmpi().
28. Write the shortcut key for cut and copy operations in MS Word.
PART-C
IV. Answer any four questions. Each question carries three marks: 4 x 3 = 12
29. Expand the following terms.
a. OMR b. MICR c. BCR
30. Give the radix of binary, octal and decimal system.
31. Compare CUI and GUI.
32. What is modular programming? Write any two advantages of modular programming.
33. Explain logical operators used in C++.
34. What is cascading I/O operation? Give examples for input and output operations.
35. Give the declaration syntax for different types of arrays.
36. What is a structure? Write an example for defining a structure.
PART-D
VI. Answer any Four questions, each question carries FIVE marks: 4 x 5 = 20
37. Explain second generation computers.
38. Write the different symbols and its purpose of a flowchart.
39. What is an identifier? Write the rules to naming an identifier.
40. Compare while and do while loop.
41. Write a program segment to input mXn rectangular matrix elements and print the same using two-
dimensional array concept.
42. Write the applications of a spreadsheet.
43. Explain any five statistical functions used in ESS.
44. What is HTML? Write the general structure of HTML.
PART-E
V. Answer any TWO question carries FIVE marks: 2 x 5 = 10
45. Subtract 56(10) – 36(10) using 2’s complement method.
46. Explain nested if selection statement with suitable example.
47. Explain “function with argument with return value” using suitable example.
********

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